Solutions to Assigned Problems Chapter One 2. Example One: An individual opens a savings account at a local commercial bank with a $200 deposit. The bank loans out the $200 with other funds from other savings accounts to a local business man who is expanding his business. The local business man pays back the loan overtime with interest and the bank credits the savings account with interest. The individual withdraws money from the savings account to buy a new bike. Example Two: An individual deposits his monthly paycheck in a checking account. The bank accumulates the funds from many checking accounts and loans money to an individual buying a house. The new homeowner makes monthly mortgage payments to the bank. The bank uses the mortgage payments to cover the checks written by the person with the checking account. Example Three: An individual buys a municipal bond for an airport improvement project. The individual usually buys a municipal from a bond dealer, an investment banker marketing the bond, and the funds from the sale of the bond are delivered to the city minus a fee from the investment banker. The city uses the funds to build new facilities at the airport, for example a new parking lot. Once finished the fees received from parking are used to payback the buyer of the bond with interest. 7. The goal of the financial manager is to maximize the current share price or equity value of the firm. This goal encompasses many good business practices such as a good working relationship with the surrounding community. If the firm pollutes local streams, abuses local facilities such as roads, and in general does not participate in the economic advancement of the local community its share price or equity value will suffer. The local community may sue the company for its damages and the best local workforce members may choose not to work for the company. Employees may not be loyal to the company causing high turnover and increased personal costs for recruiting and training. Finally, facilities such as roads and utilities may not be repaired or modernized by the local community impacting the company’s ability to produce a profit. A good community relationship is embedded in the goal of maximizing current share price or the equity value of the company. 9. Principal-Agent pair: Shareholder – Chief Executive Officer Conflict is the “perk” the CEO elects to take, a personal jet for flying to and from business activities instead of flying commercial carriers. The cost of the jet outweighs the expense of commercial carriers so it hurts the company profits. However the CEO feels that the private jet allows for greater supervision of the operations and hence a more efficient operation. This conflict could be reduced by the board of directors reviewing the travel needs and frequency of the CEO and the inconvenience of using commercial carriers. Once the pros and cons of the different travel options have been reviewed a company policy can be issued so that shareholders understand the rationale if a private jet is elected for the CEO. Agent Pair: Supervisor – Employee. The conflict is over the overtime assignment of the employee. The employee wants sufficient lead time on overtime work while the supervisor assigns the work whenever the situation arises. The employee is disgruntled when working overtime and does not produce quality work. The cost of this is rework on some of the production items. Solution: a policy on overtime and selection for overtime worked out between the supervisor and all employees subject to selection for overtime. Agent Pair: Teacher – Student The conflict is on grading of individual student participation in group assignments. The student feels that student not pulling their weight in the group assignment should not receive full credit for the work. Credit should be based on the contribution of the individual to the assignment. Teacher has difficulty determining each student’s contribution on group assignment so minimizes errors in assigning incorrect contribution levels by giving all individuals same grade. Solution: Have students grade their contribution and all group member contributions. When the group is consistent in evaluating all group member contributions then grades are assigned. When group is not consistent, group must re-evaluate individual contributions to come to agreement. If second evaluation is not consistent then teacher talks to group. This may only reduce some agency problems and raise others. The group dynamics may be such that members are “forced” to agree on all students contributed evenly when doing evaluations. Agent Pair: Parent – Child The conflict is on the appropriate driving of the family car by the child. The child does not always adhere to speed limits and does not use a safety belt when driving. The parents want the child to obey the speed limits and always wear a safety belt. Agency cost is the increased potential for traffic tickets and increased potential for personal injury to child. There are a number of potential solutions here, all the way from removing driving privileges if the child does receive a ticket to installing a new device that measures speed of the car and if seat belt is being worn by driver. Hopefully the agency conflict can be reduced with the least amount of expense. 10. Answer: The first issue is why do employees take forty-five minutes for lunch? The forty-five minutes may be the time natural time required to go through the line, purchase a lunch and then eat the lunch at an appropriate pace. If this is the case then it will be necessary to determine how to “speed” up the process to allow the employees to meet the 30 minute lunch time frame. The agency cost here is the lost 15 minutes of employee production time each day. In order to eliminate this agency cost it may be necessary to significantly modify the cafeteria or the serving procedure. If the management wants to maintain the thirty minute lunch period it may have to look into the serving procedure in their cafeteria to see how to shorten lines and speed up purchasing meals. Any cost to redesign the cafeteria process is an agency cost. Any additional employees added to the cafeteria staff to speed up the process is an agency cost. Another possibility is to extend the work day by fifteen minutes. The cost to negotiate a new work day schedule is an agency cost. Any turnover caused by the new workday is also an agency cost. It may be more costly to enforce the thirty minute lunch time than to accept the standard 45 minute break currently used by employees. Not all agency costs can be eliminated or reduced. The norms of the employees and the ability of current facilities to support a policy need to be considered when setting policies and in this case lunch time in the first place. Then again, if the facilities are sufficient to handle a 30 minute lunch it may be as simple as reaffirming the lunch break time with the employees. Chapter Two 5. Answers: a. FV = $7,000 x (1.06)2 = $7,000 x 1.1236 = $7,865.20 b. FV = $7,000 x (1.06)5 = $7,000 x 1.3382 = $9,367.58 c. FV = $7,000 x (1.06)8 = $7,000 x 1.5938 = $11,156.94 d. FV = $7,000 x (1.06)15 = $7,000 x 2.3966 = $16,775.91 7. Answers: a. PV = $2,500 x 1/(1.07)2 = $2,500 x 0.8734 = $2,183.60 b. PV = $2,500 x 1/(1.07)5= $2,500 x 0.7130 = $1,782.47 c. PV = $2,500 x 1/(1.07)9 = $2,500 x 0.5439 = $1,359.83 d. PV = $2,500 x 1/(1.07)14 = $2,500 x 0.3878 = $969.54 e. PV = $2,500 x 1/(1.07)18 = $2,500 x 0.2959 = $739.66 9. Answers: a. r = ($786.86/$400)1/10 – 1 = 1.07 – 1 = 7.00% b. r = ($10,927.45/$3,000)1/15 – 1 = 1.09 – 1 = 9.00% c. r = ($100,000/$31,180.47)1/20 – 1 = 1.06 – 1 = 6.00% d. r = ($1,000,000/$31,327.88)1/45 – 1 = 1.08 – 1 = 8.00% 11. Spreadsheet Solution In Cells A1 through A16 put in the Present Value of the savings bond, $100.00. In Cells B1 through B16 put in the annual interest rate, 0.075, R. In Cells C1 through C16 put in the waiting time in years, 5 through 20, N. In Cell D1 put in the FV function using the row value in A1 for the PV, row value in B1 for the interest rate, row value in C1 for n. Copy the formula for cells D2 through D16. The displayed value will be the future Value of the $100 savings bond at 7.5% annual interest. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 A -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 -100.00 B 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 0.075 C 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D FV (PV = A1, rate = B1, n = C1) = $143.56 FV (PV = A2, rate = B2, n = C2) = $154.33 FV (PV = A3, rate = B3, n = C3) = $165.90 FV (PV = A4, rate = B4, n = C4) = $178.35 FV (PV = A5, rate = B5, n = C5) = $191.72 FV (PV = A6, rate = B6, n = C6) = $206.10 FV (PV = A7, rate = B7, n = C7) = $221.56 FV (PV = A8, rate = B8, n = C8) = $238.18 FV (PV = A9, rate = B9, n = C9) = $256.04 FV (PV = A10, rate = B10, n = C10) = $275.24 FV (PV = A11, rate = B11, n = C11) = $295.89 FV (PV = A12, rate = B12, n = C12) = $318.08 FV (PV = A13, rate = B13, n = C13) = $341.94 FV (PV = A14, rate = B14, n = C14) = $367.58 FV (PV = A15, rate = B15, n = C15) = $395.15 FV (PV = A16, rate = B16, n = C16) = $424.79 Note the negative values in column A denote the cash outflow and produce a positive cash inflow in column D. 19. The disease is spreading at a growth rate of nearly 57% per day. r = (6/1)1/4 – 1 = 1.3161 - 1 = 56.51% Using the same growth rate for the 16 day period, (two weeks and two days) the number of patients infected will be: FV = 1 x (1.5156)16 = 1,296 or 1,296 patients Or you could realize that every four days the number of people infected increases by six times and with four periods of four days you have 1 x 6 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 1 x (6)4 = 1,296 Chapter Three 10. Perpetuities. The Canadian Government has once again decided to issue a consul (bond with a never ending interest payment and no maturity date). The bond will pay $50 each year interest (at the end of the year) but never return the principal. The current discount rate for Canadian Government bonds is 6.5%. What should this bond sell for in the market? What if the interest rate should fall to 4.5%? Rise to 8.5%? Why does the price go up when interest rates fall? Why does the price go down when interest rates rise? Answer: at 6.5%, $50 / 0.065 = $769.23 at 4.5%, $50 / 0.045 = $1,111.11 at 8.5%, $50 / 0.085 = $588.24 The price rises when interest rates fall because the present value of each future interest payment is worth more in present value due to the lower discount rate. The price falls when interest rates rise because the present value of each future interest payment is worth less in present value due to the higher discount rate. 15. Future Value. Jack and Jill are saving for a rainy day and decide to put $50 away every year for the next 25 years. The local bank UP-THE-HILL Bank will pay Jack and Jill 7% on their account. If Jack and Jill put the money in the account faithfully at the end of every year, a. how much will they have in their account at the end of 25 years? b. Unfortunately Jack fell down, breaking his crown, after only 10 years of savings. The medical bill has come to $700. Is there enough in the rainy day fund to cover this medical bill? Answers Part a. FV = $50 x (1.0725 -1)/0.07 = $50 x 63.2490 = $3,162.45 Part b. FV = $50 x (1.0710 -1)/0.07 = $50 x 13.8164 = $690.82 so the rainy day fund is $9.18 short of being able to cover the medical bill. 17. Present Value. County Ranch Insurance Company wants to offer a guaranteed annuity stream in units of $500 payable at the end of each year for twenty five years. The company has a strong investment record and can consistently earn 7% on its investments after tax. If the company wants to make 1% on this contract what price should the company set on this contract? Use 6% as the discount rate, assume an ordinary annuity and price is the same thing as present value. Answer Price = Present Value = $500.00 x (1 – 1/1.0625) / 0.06 = $500 x 12.7834 = $6,391.68 Payments = $30,000 / [(1 – 1/(1.085)10) / .085] = $30,000 / 6.5613 = $4,572.23 19. Payments. Cooley Landscaping Company needs to borrow $30,000 for a new frontend dirt loader. The bank is willing to loan the funds at 8.5% interest with annual payments at the end of the year for the next ten years. What is the annual payment on this loan for Cooley Landscaping? Answer Payments = $30,000 / [(1 – 1/(1.085)10) / .085] = $30,000 / 6.5613 = $4,572.23 21. Number of Payments. Bugsy Malone is offering two repayment plans for a long overdue loan to Gambling Bob. Offer one is two broken legs and the debt completely forgiven. Offer two is to pay back $3,900 per year at 20% interest rate until the loan principal is paid off. Gambling Bob owes Mr. Malone $15,000. How long will it take for Gambling Bob to payoff the loan if he takes offer two? Answer First remember to check if the payment is greater than the interest expense for the period. PMT > PV x R = $3,900 > $15,000 x 0.2 = $3,000 and now, Number of Payments = ln [$3,900 / ($3,900 - $15,000 x 0.20)] / ln (1.20) = ln [$3,900/$900] / ln (1.20) = 1.4663 / 0.1823 = 8.0426 ≈ 8 payments or 8 years… Or on the calculator INPUT ? 20.0 $15,000 Variables N I/Y PV OUTPUT 8.0426 -$3,900 $0 PMT FV 24. Interest Rate with Annuity. A local government is about to run a lottery but does not want to be involved in the payoff if a winner picks an annuity stream payoff. The government contracts with a trust to pay the lump sum payout to the trust and have the trust (probably a local bank) pay the annual payments. The first winner of the lottery chose the annual stream and will receive $150,000 a year for the next twenty-five years. The local government will give the trust $2,000,000 to pay for this annuity. What investment rate must the trust earn to break even on this arrangement? Answer Using a calculator TVM keys with P/y=1 and C/y = 1 in end mode: INPUT 25 ? $2,000,000 -$150,000 Variables N I/Y PV PMT OUTPUT $0 FV 5.5619% 25. Amortization. Loan Consolidated Incorporated is offering a special one-time package to reduce Custom Autos outstanding bills to one easy to handle payment plan. LCI will payoff the current outstanding bills of $242,000 for Custom Auto if they will pay an annual payment to LCI at a 10% interest rate over the next 15 years. First, what is the annual payment and what is the amortization schedule for this loan if Custom Autos wants to pay off the loan before the loan maturity in 15 years? When will the balance be half paid off? And what is the total interest expense on the loan over the 15 years? Answer Payment = $242,000 / [(1 – 1/1.1015) / 0.10] = $242,000 / 7.6060 = $31,816.65 Amortization Schedule with Interest per period based on beginning balance x 0.15 Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 Total Beg. Balance $242,000.00 $234,383.35 $226,005.03 $216,788.86 $206,651.11 $195,499.57 $183,232.87 $169,739.50 $154,896.80 $138,569.82 $120,610.15 $100,854.51 $79,123.31 $55,218.99 $28,924.23 Payment $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 $31,816.65 Interest $24,200.00 $23,438.33 $22,600.50 $21,678.89 $20,665.11 $19,549.96 $18,323.29 $16,973.95 $15,489.68 $13,856.98 $12,061.01 $10,085.45 $7,912.33 $5,521.90 $2,892.42 $235,249.81 Principal Reduction $7,616.65 $8,378.32 $9,216.15 $10,137.77 $11,151.54 $12,266.70 $13,493,37 $14,842.70 $16,326.97 $17,959.67 $19,755.64 $21,731.20 $23,904.32 $26,294.76 $28,924.23 Ending Balance $234,383.35 $226,005.03 $216,788.86 $206,651.11 $195,499.57 $183,232.87 $169,739.50 $154,896.80 $138,569.82 $120,610.15 $100,854.51 $79,123.31 $55,218.99 $28,924.23 $0.00 The loan balance will be half-way paid off at the end of the tenth year or 2/3rds the way through the contract. The total interest expense over the contract is $235,249.81. This can be determined by adding up the interest expenses or multiplying the payment ($31,816.65) times the number of payments (15) and subtracting the original principal ($242,000). This shows that the payments go toward principal and interest only! Interest Expense = $31,816.65 x 15 - $242,000 = $235,249.75 The six cents difference is due to rounding. Chapter Four 3. EAR. What is the effective annual rate of a mortgage rate that is advertised at 7.75% over the next twenty years with monthly payments? ANSWER Periodic Rate = 0.0775 / 12 = 0.0064583333 EAR = (1 + Periodic Rate)C/Y - 1 = 1.0064583312 – 1 = 1.0803 – 1 = 0.0803 = 8.03% 5. Present Value with Periodic Rates. Let’s revisit Sam Hind’s the dentist from chapter three and his remodeling project (Problem 3-18). The cost of the equipment is $18,000 and the purchase will be financed with a 7.5% loan over six years. Originally the loan called for annual payments. Redo the payments based on quarterly payments (four per year) and monthly payments (twelve per year). Compare the annual cash outflow of the two payments. Why does the monthly payment plan have less total cash outflow each year? ANSWER Quarterly Payment = $18,000 / (1 – 1/[1 + (0.075/4)]6 x 4 ) / (0.075/4) Quarterly Payment = $18,000 / 19.1845 = $938.26 Monthly Payment = $18,000 / (1 – 1/[1 + (0.075/12)]6 x 12 ) / (0.075/12) Monthly Payment = $18,000 / 57.8365 = $311.22 Annual Cash Outflow Quarterly Payment = $938.26 x 4 = $3,753.04 Annual Cash Outflow Monthly Payment = $3,734.64 Difference of $18.04 It is lower for the monthly payment because each payment reduces some of the principal and so over the three months between the quarterly payments the average borrowed amount is lower so that the accumulated interest expense is lower. 7.Future Value with Periodic Rates. Matt Johnson, a paper delivery boy, is putting away $15.00 every month from his paper route collections. Matt is eight years old and will use the money when he goes to college in ten years. What will the value be in Matt’s account in ten years with his monthly payments if he is earning 6% (APR), 8% (APR) or 12% (APR)? ANSWER FV at 6% APR = $15.00 x [(1 + 0.06/12)10 x 12 – 1] / (0.06/12) FV at 6% APR = $15.00 x 163.8793 = $2,458.19 FV at 8% APR = $15.00 x [(1 + 0.08/12)10 x 12 – 1] / (0.08/12) FV at 8% APR = $15.00 x 182.9460 = $2,744.19 FV at 12% APR = $15.00 x [(1 + 0.12/12)10 x 12 – 1] / (0.12/12) FV at 12% APR = $15.00 x 230.0387 = $3,450.58 9. Payments with Periodic Rates. What payment does Denise need to make at the end of each month over the coming 44 years at 6% to reach her retirement goal of $1,000,000? ANSWER Payment = $1,000,000 / [(1 + 0.06/12)44 x 12 -1 ] / (0.06/12) Payment = $1,000,000 / 2,584.2652 = $386.96 10. Amortization Schedule with Periodic Payments. Moulton Motors is advertising the following deal on a new Honda Civic: Monthly Payments of $400.40 for the next 60 months and this beauty can be yours. The sticker price of the car is $18,000. First what is the interest rate you are paying in both APR and EAR terms? Second, what is the amortization schedule of these 60 payments? ANSWER The periodic or monthly interest rate, r, is the solution to the equation PV = Payment x (1 – 1/(1+r)n) / r $18,000 = $400.40 x (1 – 1/(1+r)60) / r PVIFA = (1 – 1/(1+r)n) / r = PV / Payment = $18,000 / 400.40 = 44.9550 (Look up in Appendix A-3 the PVIFA tables, with N = 60, and see 44.9550 for 1% column. The periodic or monthly interest rate is 1%. The annual percentage rate is 12%, periodic rate times 12, 1% x 12 = 12% and the EAR is EAR = 1.0112 – 1 = 12.68%. Amortization Schedule (Can be done effectively on a spread sheet) Cell A1 is Beginning Balance for month 1 Cell B1 is the Monthly Payment Cell C1 is the Monthly Interest Expense and is the periodic or monthly interest rate times the beginning balance: A1 * 0.01 (formula for the cell) Cell D1 is the amount of the monthly payment that is applied to the principal and is the payment minus the interest expense: B1 – C1 (formula for the cell) Cell E1 is the ending balance after the applying of the monthly payment to interest and principal. It is the beginning balance minus the principal reduction: A1 – D1 (formula for the cell). Cell A2 is the ending balance from the previous month or the value in Cell E1. Then for cells B2 through E2 copy the formulas down from the row above. Repeat this for the sixty months… 1 2 3 … 57 58 59 60 A $18,000.00 $17,779.60 $17,557.00 $1,562.35 $1,177.57 $788.94 $396.44 B $400.40 $400.40 $400.40 … $400.40 $400.40 $400.40 $400.40 C $180.00 $177.80 $175.57 D $220.40 $222.60 $224.83 E $17,779.60 $17,557.00 $17,332.17 $15.62 $11.78 $7.90 $3.96 $384.78 $388.62 $392.50 $396.44 $1,177.57 $788.94 $396.44 $0.00 Chapter Five 5. Holding Period and Annual (Investment) Returns. Gary Baker Trading Cards Incorporated originally purchased the rookie card of Hammerin’ Hank Aaron for $35.00. After holding the card for five years, Baker Trading Cards auctioned off the card for $180.00. What are the holding period return and the annual return on this investment? ANSWER Holding Period Return = ($180 - $35) / $35 = 4.1429 or 414.29% Annual Return = (1 + 4.1429)1/5 – 1 = 1.3875 – 1 = 0.3875 or 38.75% 8. Comparison of Returns. Wei Guan Investors are looking at three different investment opportunities. Investment One is a five year investment with a cost of $125 and a promised payout of $250 at maturity. Investment Two is a seven year investment with a cost of $125 and a promised payout of $350. Investment Three is a ten year investment with a cost of $125 and a promised payout of $550. Wei Guan Investors can only take one of the three investments. Calculate the annual return for each investment and select the best investment choice if all three investment opportunities have the same level of risk. ANSWER Holding Period Return for Investment One = ($250 - $125) / $125 = 1.00 or 100.00% Annual Return Investment One = (1 + 1.00)1/5 – 1 = 1.1487 – 1 = 0.1487 or 14.87% Holding Period Return for Investment Two = ($350 - $125) / $125 = 1.80 or 180.00% Annual Return Investment Two = (1 + 1.80)1/7 – 1 = 1.1585 – 1 = 0.1585 or 15.85% Holding Period Return for Investment Three = ($550 - $125) / $125 = 3.40 or 340.00% Annual Return Investment Three = (1 + 3.40)1/10 – 1 = 1.1596 – 1 = 0.1596 or 15.96% Investment Two has the highest annual return rate of the three choices. If all choices have the same level of risk, choose Investment Two. 9. Historical Returns (from Table do some averaging). Calculate the average return of the U.S. Treasury Bills, Long-Term Government Bonds, and Large Company Stocks for the 90s from Table 5.1. Which had the highest and which had the lowest return? Answer from data is: Average Return U.S. Treasury Bill for 90s: 5.02% Average Return U.S. Long-Term Government Bonds for 90s: 9.23% Average Return U.S. Large Company Stocks for 90s: 18.99% Average Return U.S. Small Company Stocks for 90s: 15.87% Highest was Large Company Stocks, Lowest was 3 Month T-Bills 6. Standard Deviation. Calculate the standard deviation of the U.S. Treasury Bills, Long-Term Government Bonds, and Large Company Stocks for the 90s from Table 5.1. Which had the highest and which had the lowest variance? Answer from data is: Standard Deviation for U.S. Treasury Bill for 90s: 1.37% Standard Deviation for U.S. Long-Term Government Bonds for 90s: 12.38% Standard Deviation for U.S. Large Company Stocks for 90s: 14.21% Standard Deviation for U.S. Small Company Stocks for 90s: 21.78% Highest was Small Company Stocks, Lowest was 3 Month T-Bills 13. Expected Return. Rob Hull Consultants, a famous think tank in the Midwest, has provided probability estimates for the four potential economic states for the coming year. The probability of a boom economy is 10%, the probability of a stable growth economy is 15%, the probability of a stagnant economy is 50%, and the probability of a recession is 25%. Estimate the expected return on the following individual investments for the coming year. INVESTMENT Stock Corporate Bond Government Bond Boom 25% 9% 8% Forecasted Returns for Each Economy Stable Growth Stagnant Recession 12% 4% -12% 7% 5% 3% 6% 4% 2% ANSWER Expected Return Stock = 0.10 x 0.25 + 0.15 x 0.12 + 0.50 x 0.04 + 0.25 x (-0.12) = 0.0250 + 0.0180 + 0.0200 - 0.0300 = 0.0330 or 3.3% Expected Return Corp. Bond = 0.10 x 0.09 + 0.15 x 0.07 + 0.50 x 0.05 + 0.25 x 0.03 = 0.0090 + 0.0105 + 0.0250 + 0.0075 = 0.0520 or 5.2% Expected Return Gov. Bond = 0.10 x 0.08 + 0.15 x 0.06 + 0.50 x 0.04 + 0.25 x 0.02 = 0.0080 + 0.0090 + 0.0200 + 0.0050 = 0.0420 or 4.2% 14. Variance and Standard Deviation (expected). Using the data from problem 13, calculate the variance and standard deviation of the three investments, stock, corporate bond, and government bond. If the estimates for both the probabilities of the economy and the returns in each state of the economy are correct, which investment would you choose considering both risk and return? Why? ANSWER Variance of Stock = 0.10 x (0.25 – 0.033)2 + 0.15 x (0.12 – 0.033)2 + 0.50 x (0.04 – 0.033)2 + 0.25 x (-0.12 – 0.033)2 = 0.10 x 0.0471 + 0.15 x 0.0076 + 0.50 x 0.0000 + 0.25 x 0.0234 = 0.0047 + 0.0011 + 0.0000 + 0.0059 = 0.0117 or 1.17% Standard Deviation of Stock = (0.0117)1/2 = 0.1083 or 10.83% Variance of Corp. Bond = 0.10 x (0.09 – 0.052)2 + 0.15 x (0.07 – 0.052)2 + 0.50 x (0.05 – 0.052)2 + 0.25 x (0.03 – 0.052)2 = 0.10 x 0.0014 + 0.15 x 0.0003 + 0.50 x 0.0000 + 0.25 x 0.0005 = 0.0001 + 0.0000 + 0.0000 + 0.0001 = 0.000316 or 0.00316% Standard Deviation of Corp. Bond = (0.000316)1/2 = 0.017776 or 1.78% Variance of Gov. Bond = 0.10 x (0.08 – 0.042)2 + 0.15 x (0.06 – 0.042)2 + 0.50 x (0.04 – 0.042)2 + 0.25 x (0.02 – 0.042)2 = 0.10 x 0.0014 + 0.15 x 0.0003 + 0.50 x 0.0000 + 0.25 x 0.0005 = 0.0001 + 0.0000 + 0.0000 + 0.0001 = 0.000316 or 0.0316% Standard Deviation of Gov. Bond = (0.000316)1/2 = 0.017776 or 1.78% The best choice is the corporate bond. First comparing the corporate bond and the stock, the corporate bond has a higher expected return and a lower variance (standard deviation). Second comparing the corporate bond and the government bond the corporate bond has a higher return and the same variance (standard deviation). This result is due to the low probabilities of “good” economic states where the stock performs best. Chapter Six Use the following table for problems 1 through 4. Par Value $1,000.00 $1,000.00 $5,000.00 $5,000.00 Coupon Rate 8% 6% 9% 12% Years to Maturity 10 10 20 30 Yield to Maturity 6% 8% 7% 5% 1. Price the bonds from the above table with annual coupon payments. ANSWER: Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.06)10 + $80.00 (1 – 1/(1.06)10)/ 0.06 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.5584 + $80.00 x 7.3601 Price ? ? ? ? Price = $558.39 + $588.81 = $1,147.20 Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.08)10 + $60.00 (1 – 1/(1.08)10)/ 0.08 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.4632 + $60.00 x 6.7101 Price = $463.19 + $402.60 = $865.80 Price = $5,000.00 x 1/(1.07)20 + $450.00 (1 – 1/(1.07)20)/ 0.07 Price = $5,000.00 x 0.2584 + $450.00 x 10.5940 Price = $1,292.10 + $4,767.30 = $6,059.40 Price = $5,000.00 x 1/(1.05)30 + $600.00 (1 – 1/(1.05)30)/ 0.05 Price = $5,000.00 x 0.2314 + $600.00 x 15.3725 Price = $1,156.89 + $9,223.47 = $10,380.36 2. Price the bonds from the above table with semi-annual coupon payments. ANSWER: Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.03)20 + $40.00 (1 – 1/(1.03)20)/ 0.03 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.5537 + $40.00 x 14.8775 Price = $553.67 + $595.10 = $1,148.77 Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.04)20 + $30.00 (1 – 1/(1.04)20)/ 0.04 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.4564 + $30.00 x 13.5903 Price = $456.39 + $407.71 = $864.10 Price = $5,000.00 x 1/(1.035)40 + $225.00 (1 – 1/(1.035)40)/ 0.035 Price = $5,000.00 x 0.2526 + $225.00 x 21.3551 Price = $1,262.86 + $4,804.89 = $6,067.75 Price = $5,000.00 x 1/(1.025)60 + $300.00 (1 – 1/(1.025)60)/ 0.025 Price = $5,000.00 x 0.2273 + $300.00 x 30.9087 Price = $1,136.41 + $9,272.60 = $10,409.01 5. What is the yield of the above bonds if interest (coupons) is paid semi-annually? ANSWER: (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 20 ? -1000.00 40.00 1000.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT FV CPT 8.0 (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT KEYS CPT 20 N ? I/Y 8.2300 -850.00 PV 30.00 PMT 1000.00 FV (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 40 ? -5400.00 225.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT CPT 8.1807 5000.00 FV (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 60 ? -4300.00 300.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT CPT 13.9936 5000.00 FV 10. What are the coupon rates for the bonds listed below? Par Value $1,000.00 $1,000.00 $1,000.00 $1,000.00 Coupon Rate ? ? ? ? Years to Maturity 30 25 20 10 Yield to Maturity 6.0% 10.0% 9.0% 8.0% Price $1,412.94 $1,182.56 $907.63 $862.63 Coupon Frequency Annual Semi-Annual Quarterly Monthly ANSWER: (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 1 and C/Y = 1 INPUT 30 6.0 -1412.94 ? 1000.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT FV CPT 90.00 Coupon payments are $5.00 every year so coupon rate is: $1,000 x rate = $90.00 rate = $90 / $1,000 = 0.09 or 9% (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 50 10.0 -1,182.56 ? 1000.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT FV CPT 60.00 Coupon payments are $5.00 every month so coupon rate is: $1,000 x rate / 2 = $60.00 $1,000 x rate = $120.00 rate = $120 / $1,000 = 0.12 or 12% (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 4 and C/Y = 4 INPUT 80 9.0 -907.63 ? 1000.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT FV CPT 20.00 Coupon payments are $20.00 every four months so coupon rate is: $1,000 x rate / 4 = $20.00 $1,000 x rate = $80.00 rate = $80 / $1,000 = 0.08 or 8% (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 12 and C/Y = 12 INPUT 120 8.0 -862.63 ? 1000.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT FV CPT 5.0000 Coupon payments are $5.00 every month so coupon rate is: $1,000 x rate / 12 = $5.00 $1,000 x rate = $60.00 rate = $60 / $1,000 = 0.06 or 6% 11. Moore Company is about to issue a bond with semi-annual coupon payments, a coupon rate of 8% and par value of $1,000. The yield-tomaturity for this bond is 10%. A. What is the price of the bond if the bond matures in 5, 10, 15, or 20 years? B. What do you notice about the price of the bond in relationship to the maturity of the bond? ANSWER to A: At five years to maturity Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.05)10 + $40.00 (1 – 1/(1.05)10)/ 0.05 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.6139 + $40.00 x 7.7217 Price = $613.91 + $308.87 = $922.78 (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 10 10.0 ? 40.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT CPT -922.78 1000.00 FV At ten years to maturity Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.05)20 + $40.00 (1 – 1/(1.05)20)/ 0.05 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.3769 + $40.00 x 12.4622 Price = $376.89 + $498.49 = $875.38 (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 20 10.0 ? 40.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT CPT -875.38 1000.00 FV At fifteen years to maturity Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.05)30 + $40.00 (1 – 1/(1.05)30)/ 0.05 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.2314 + $40.00 x 15.3725 Price = $231.38 + $614.90 = $846.28 (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 30 10.0 ? 40.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT CPT -846.28 1000.00 FV At twenty years to maturity Price = $1,000.00 x 1/(1.05)40 + $40.00 (1 – 1/(1.05)40)/ 0.05 Price = $1,000.00 x 0.1420 + $40.00 x 17.1591 Price = $142.05 + $686.36 = $828.41 (TVM Keys) Set Calculator to P/Y = 2 and C/Y = 2 INPUT 40 10.0 ? 40.00 KEYS N I/Y PV PMT CPT -828.41 1000.00 FV ANSWER to B The longer the maturity of a bond selling at a discount, all else held constant, the lower the price of the bond! 13. Addison Company will issue a zero coupon bond this coming month. The projected yield for the bond is 7%. If the par value of the bond is $1,000 what is the price of the bond using a semi-annual convention if a. The maturity is 20 years? b. The maturity is 30 years? c. The maturity is 50 years? d. The maturity is 100 years? ANSWER to A: Price = $1,000 x 1 / (1.035)40 = $1,000 x 0.2526 = $252.57 ANSWER to B: Price = $1,000 x 1 / (1.035)60 = $1,000 x 0.1269 = $126.93 ANSWER to A: Price = $1,000 x 1 / (1.035)100 = $1,000 x 0.0321 = $32.06 ANSWER to A: Price = $1,000 x 1 / (1.035)200 = $1,000 x 0.0010= $1.03 19. In Problem 18, the conversion option is for 50 shares of Joe Phillips Manufacturing Company for every bond. If the current bond price is $1,240 at what share price would a bondholder be better off converting to stock? ANSWER: Any price above $1,240 / 50 = $24.80. Chapter 7 1. Murphy Motors, Inc. has just set the company dividend policy at $0.50 per year. The company plans on being in business forever. What is the price of this stock if a. An investor wants a 5% return? b. An investor wants an 8% return? c. An investor wants a 10% return? d. An investor wants a 13% return? e. An investor wants a 20% return? SOLUTION: Use the constant dividend infinite dividend stream model: Price = Dividend / r a. Price = $0.50 / 0.05 = $10.00 b. Price = $0.50 / 0.08 = $6.25 c. Price = $0.50 / 0.10 = $5.00 d. Price = $0.50 / 0.13 = $3.85 e. Price = $0.50 / 0.20 = $2.50 2. Rice Electronics wants its shareholders to earn a 15% return on their investment in the company. At what price would the stock need to be priced today if Rice Electronics had the following cash dividend policy: a. $0.25 constant annual dividend forever? b. $1.00 constant annual dividend forever? c. $1.75 constant annual dividend forever? d. $2.50 constant annual dividend forever? SOLUTION: Use the constant dividend infinite dividend stream model: Price = Dividend / r a. Price = $0.25 / 0.15 = $1.67 b. Price = $1.00 / 0.15 = $6.67 c. Price = $1.75 / 0.15 = $11.67 d. Price = $2.50 / 0.15 = $16.67 3. Tremblay Fine Foods has a current annual cash dividend policy of $2.25. The price of the stock is set to yield a 12% return. What is the price of this stock if the dividend will be paid for: a. 10 years? b. 15 years? c. 40 years? d. 60 years? e. 100 years? f. Forever? SOLUTION: Use the finite constant dividend model except with f (use infinite constant dividend model) Price = Dividend x (1 – 1/(1+r)n) / r a. Price = $2.25 x (1 – 1/(1.12)10 / 0.12 = $2.25 x 5.6502 = $12.71 b. Price = $2.25 x (1 – 1/(1.12)15 / 0.12 = $2.25 x 6.8109 = $15.32 c. Price = $2.25 x (1 – 1/(1.12)40 / 0.12 = $2.25 x 8.2438 = $18.54 d. Price = $2.25 x (1 – 1/(1.12)60 / 0.12 = $2.25 x 8.3240 = $18.73 e. Price = $2.25 x (1 – 1/(1.12)100 / 0.12 = $2.25 x 5.6502 = $18.75 f. Price = $2.25 / 0.12 = $18.75 5. King Waterbeds has an annual cash dividend policy that raises the dividend each year by 4%. Last year’s dividend was $0.40 per share. What is the price of this stock if a. An investor wants a 5% return? b. An investor wants an 8% return? c. An investor wants a 10% return? d. An investor wants a 13% return? e. An investor wants a 20% return? SOLUTION: Use the constant growth dividend model with an infinite dividend stream: Price = Last Dividend x (1 + g) / (r – g) a. Price = $0.40 x (1.04) / (0.05 – 0.04) = $0.4160 / 0.01 = $41.60 b. Price = $0.40 x (1.04) / (0.08 – 0.04) = $0.4160 / 0.04 = $10.40 c. Price = $0.40 x (1.04) / (0.10 – 0.04) = $0.4160 / 0.06 = $6.93 d. Price = $0.40 x (1.04) / (0.13 – 0.04) = $0.4160 / 0.09 = $4.62 e. Price = $0.40 x (1.04) / (0.20 – 0.04) = $0.4160 / 0.16 = $2.60 7. Miles Hardware has an annual cash dividend policy that raises the dividend each year by 3%. Last year’s dividend was $1.00 per share. Investors want a 15% return on this stock. What is the price of this stock if a. The company will be in business for 5 years and not have a liquidating dividend? b. The company will be in business for 15 years and not have a liquidating dividend? c. The company will be in business for 25 years and not have a liquidating dividend? d. The company will be in business for 35 years and not have a liquidating dividend? e. The company will be in business for 75 years and not have a liquidating dividend? f. Forever? SOLUTION: Use the constant growth dividend model with a finite dividend stream: Price = Last Dividend x (1 + g) / (r – g) x [1 – ((1+g) / (1+r))n] a. Price = $1.00 x (1.03) / (0.15 – 0.03) x [1 – ((1.03) / (1.15))5] = $1.03 / 0.12 x [1 - 0.5764] = $8.58 x [0.4236] = $3.64 b. Price = $1.00 x (1.03) / (0.15 – 0.03) x [1 – ((1.03) / (1.15))15] = $1.03 / 0.12 x [1 - 0.1915] = $8.58 x [0.8085] = $6.94 c. Price = $1.00 x (1.03) / (0.15 – 0.03) x [1 – ((1.03) / (1.15))25] = $1.03 / 0.12 x [1 - 0.0636] = $8.58 x [0.9364] = $8.03 d. Price = $1.00 x (1.03) / (0.15 – 0.03) x [1 – ((1.03) / (1.15))35] = $1.03 / 0.12 x [1 - 0.0211] = $8.58 x [0.9789] = $8.40 e. Price = $1.00 x (1.03) / (0.15 – 0.03) x [1 – ((1.03) / (1.15))75] = $1.03 / 0.12 x [1 - 0.0003] = $8.58 x [0.9997] = $8.58 f. Price = $1.00 x (1.03) / (0.15 – 0.03) = $1.03 / 0.12 = $8.58 11. Huber Athletic Club is going to offer preferred stock to its members with the following characteristics; par value is $100 and annual dividend rate of 6%. If a member wants the following returns, what price should he be willing to pay: a. Brad wants a 10% return. b. Mike wants a 12% return c. Rick wants a 15% return d. Julius wants a 18% return SOLUTION: Use the constant dividend model with finite horizon Price = Dividend / r a. Brad’s Price = $100 x 0.06 / 0.10 = $60.00 b. Mike’s Price = $100 x 0.06 / 0.12 = $50.00 c. Rick’s Price = $100 x 0.06 / 0.15 = $40.00 d. Julius’s Price = $100 x 0.06 / 0.18 = $33.33 Chapter 8 Use the information in the following to answer questions 1-4 below: State of Economy Boom Probability of State .30 Return on J in State 0.050 Return on K in State 0.240 Return on L in State 0.300 Growth Stagnant Recession .40 .20 .10 0.050 0.050 0.050 0.120 0.040 -0.100 0.200 0.060 -0.200 1. Expected Return. What are the expected returns of the three different assets? ANSWER Expected Return J = 0.30 x 0.05 + 0.40 x 0.05 + 0.20 x 0.05 + 0.10 x 0.05 = 0.0150 + 0.0200 + 0.0100 + 0.0050= 0.0050 or 5.0% Expected Return K = 0.30 x 0.24 + 0.40 x 0.12 + 0.20 x 0.04 + 0.10 x (-0.10) = 0.0720 + 0.0480 + 0.0080 - 0.0100 = 0.1180 or 11.80% Expected Return L = 0.30 x 0.30 + 0.40 x 0.20 + 0.20 x 0.06 + 0.10 x (-0.20) = 0.0900 + 0.0800 + 0.0120 + 0.0200 = 0.1620 or 16.20% 2. Variance and Standard Deviation. What are the variances and standard deviations of each of the three different assets? ANSWER σ2 (J) = 0.30 x (0.04 – 0.04)2 + 0.40 x (0.04 – 0.04)2 + 0.20 x (0.05-0.05)2 + 0.10 x (0.04 – 0.04)2 = 0.30 x 0.0000 + 0.40 x 0.0000 + 0.20 x 0.0000 + 0.10 x 0.0000 = 0.0000+ 0.0000 + 0.0000 + 0.0000 = 0.0000 or 0.00% Standard Deviation of J = (0.0000)1/2 = 0.0000 or 0.00% σ2 (K) = 0.30 x (0.24 – 0.1180)2 + 0.40 x (0.12 – 0.1180)2 + 0.20 x (0.04 - 0.1180)2 + 0.10 x (-0.10 – 0.1180)2 = 0.30 x 0.0149 + 0.40 x 0.0000 + 0.20 x 0.0061 + 0.10 x 0.0475 = 0.0045 + 0.0000 + 0.0012 + 0.0048 = 0.0104 or 1.04% Standard Deviation of K = (0.0104)1/2 = 0.1022 or 10.22% σ2 (L) = 0.30 x (0.30 – 0.1620)2 + 0.40 x (0.20 – 0.1620)2 + 0.20 x (0.06 - 0.1620)2 + 0.10 x (-0.20 – 0.1620)2 = 0.30 x 0.0190 + 0.40 x 0.0014 + 0.20 x 0.0104 + 0.10 x 0.1310 = 0.0057 + 0.0006 + 0.0021 + 0.0131 = 0.0215 or 2.15% Standard Deviation of L = (0.0215)1/2 = 0.1465 or 14.65% 3. Portfolio. What is the expected return of a portfolio with 10% in asset J, 50% in asset K, and 40% in asset L? ANSWER Expected Return Portfolio = 0.10 x 0.05 + 0.50 x 0.118 + 0.40 x 0.162 = 0.0050 + 0.0590 + 0.0648 = 0.1288 or 12.88% OR First determine the portfolio’s return in each state of the economy with the allocation of assets at 10% in J, 50% in K, and 40% in L. Expected Return Portfolio in Boom= 0.10 x 0.05 + 0.50 x 0.24 + 0.40 x 0.30 = 0.0050 + 0.1200 + 0.1200 = 0.2450 or 24.50% Expected Return Portfolio in Growth = 0.10 x 0.05 + 0.50 x 0.12 + 0.40 x 0.20 = 0.0050 + 0.0600 + 0.0800 = 0.1450 or 14.50% Expected Return Portfolio in Stagnant = 0.10 x 0.05 + 0.50 x 0.04 + 0.40 x 0.06 = 0.0050 + 0.0200 + 0.0240 = 0.0490 or 4.90% Expected Return Portfolio in Recession = 0.10 x 0.05 + 0.50 x (-0.10) + 0.40 x (-0.20) = 0.0050 - 0.0500 - 0.0800 = -0.1250 or -12.50% Now take the probability of each state times the portfolio outcome in that state: Expected Return Portfolio = 0.30 x 0.2450 + 0.40 x 0.1450 + 0.20 x 0.0490 + 0.10 x (-0.1250) = 0.0735 + 0.0580 + 0.0098 - 0.0125 = 0.1288 or 12.88% Note that either way produces the same expected return but that for the variance calculation the portfolio returns in the three economic states are needed. 4. Variance and Standard Deviation of a Portfolio. What is the portfolio’s variance and standard deviation using the same asset weights from problem 3? ANSWER Variance of Portfolio = 0.30 x (0.2450 – 0.1288)2 + 0.40 x (0.1450 – 0.1288)2 + 0.20 x (0.0490 – 0.1288)2 + 0.10 x (-0.1250 – 0.1288)2 = 0.30 x 0.0135 + 0.40 x 0.0003 + 0.20 x 0.0064 + 0.10 x 0.0644 = 0.0041 + 0.0001 + 0.0013 + 0.0064 = 0.0119 or 1.19% Standard Deviation of Portfolio = (0.0119)1/2 = 0.1090 or 10.90% Use the information in the following to answer questions 5-8 below: State of Economy Boom Growth Stagnant Recession Probability of State .15 .25 .35 .25 Return on R in State 0.040 0.040 0.040 0.040 Return on S in State 0.280 0.140 0.070 -0.035 Return on T in State 0.450 0.275 0.025 -0.175 9. Benefits of Diversification. Sally Rogers has decided to invest her wealth equally across the three following assets. What is her expected return increase and the risk reduction benefit by investing in the three assets versus putting all her wealth in asset M? HINT: Find the standard deviation of asset M and of the portfolio equally invested in M, N, and O. States Boom Probability 30% Asset M Return Asset N Return 12% 19% Asset O Return 2% Normal Recession 50% 20% 8% 2% 11% -2% 8% 12% ANSWER First find the expected return of the equally weighted portfolio in the three economic states: Return of Portfolio in Boom = 1/3 (12%) + 1/3 (19%) + 1/3 (2%) = 11.00% Return of Portfolio in Normal = 1/3 (8%) + 1/3 (11%) + 1/3 (8%) = 9.00% Return of Portfolio in Recession = 1/3 (2%) + 1/3 (-2%) + 1/3 (12%) = 4.00% Now find the expected returns of Asset M and the Portfolio. Expected Return Asset M = 0.30 x (12%) + 0.50 x (8%) + 0.20 (2%) E(rM) = 3.6% + 4.0% + 0.4% = 8% Expected Return Portfolio = 0.30 x (11%) + 0.50 x (7%) + 0.20 (4%) E(rM) = 3.3% + 4.5% + 0.8% = 8.6% Now find the standard deviation of Asset M and the Portfolio. Standard Deviation of Asset M = [0.30 x (0.12 – 0.08)2 + 0.50 x (0.08 – 0.08)2 +0.20 x (0.02 – 0.08)2]1/2 = [0.30 x 0.0016 + 0.20 x 0.0036]1/2 = [0.00048 + 0.00072]1/2 = [0.0012]1/2 = 0.0346 or 3.46% Standard Deviation of Portfolio = [0.30 x (0.11 – 0.086)2 + 0.50 x (0.09 – 0.086)2 +0.30 x (0.4 – 0.086)2]1/2 = [0.30 x 0.0006 + 0.50 x 0.0000 + 0.20 x 0.0021]1/2 = [0.0002 + 0.0000 + 0.0004]1/2 = [0.0006]1/2 = 0.0246 or 2.46% The benefit is an increase in return of 0.6% and a simultaneous reduction in total risk of 1%. 11. Beta of a Portfolio. The beta of four stocks, G, H, I, and J are respectively 0.45, 0.8, 1.15, and 1.6. What is the beta of a portfolio with the following weights in each asset? Portfolio 1 Portfolio 2 Portfolio 3 Weight in G 25% 30% 10% Weight in H 25% 40% 20% Weight in I 25% 20% 40% Weight in J 25% 10% 30% ANSWER Beta of Portfolio 1 = 0.25 x 0.45 + 0.25 x 0.8 + 0.25 x 1.15 + 0.25 x 1.6 βportfolio - 1 = 0.1125 + 0.2 + 0.2875 + 0.4 = 1.0 Beta of Portfolio 2 = 0.30 x 0.45 + 0.40 x 0.8 + 0.20 x 1.15 + 0.10 x 1.6 βportfolio - 2 = 0.135 + 0.32 + 0.23 + 0.16 = 0.845 Beta of Portfolio 3 = 0.10 x 0.45 + 0.20 x 0.8 + 0.40 x 1.15 + 0.30 x 1.6 βportfolio - 3 = 0.045 + 0.16 + 0.46 + 0.48 = 1.145 12. Expected Return of a Portfolio using Beta. Using the same four assets from above (problem 11) in the same three portfolios. What are the expected returns of the four individual assets and the three portfolios if the current SML is plotting with an intercept of 4% (risk-free rate) and a market premium of 10% (slope of the line)? ANSWER Expected Return of Asset G = 4% + 0.45 (10%) = 8.5% Expected Return of Asset H = 4% + 0.8 (10%) = 12% Expected Return of Asset I = 4% + 1.15 (10%) = 15.5% Expected Return of Asset J = 4% + 1.6 (10%) = 20% Expected Return of Portfolio 1 = 4% + 1.0 (10%) = 14% Expected Return of Portfolio 2 = 4% + 0.845 (10%) = 12.45% Expected Return of Portfolio 2 = 4% + 1.145 (10%) = 15.45% Chapter 9 1. Payback Period – Given the cash flows of the four projects, A, B, C, and D, and using the Payback Period decision model, which projects do you accept and which projects do you reject with a three year cut-off period for recapturing the initial cash outflow? Assume that the cash flows are equally distributed over the year for Payback Period calculations. Projects Cost Cash Flow Year One Cash Flow Year Two Cash Flow Year Three Cash Flow Year Four Cash Flow year Five Cash Flow Year Six A $10,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 B $25,000 $2,000 $8,000 $14,000 $20,000 $26,000 $32,000 C $45,000 $10,000 $15,000 $20,000 $20,000 $15,000 $10,000 D $100,000 $40,000 $30,000 $20,000 $10,000 $0 $0 Solution Project A: Year One: -$10,000 + $4,000 = $6,000 left to recover Year Two: -$6,000 + $4,000 = $2,000 left to recover Year Three: -$2,000 + $4,000 = fully recovered Year Three: $2,000 / $4,000 = ½ year needed for recovery Payback Period for Project A: 2 and ½ years, ACCEPT! Project B: Year One: -$25,000 + $2,000 = $23,000 left to recover Year Two: -$23,000 + $8,000 = $15,000 left to recover Year Three: -$15,000 + $14,000 = $1,000 left to recover Year Four: -$1,000 + $20,000 = fully recovered Year Four: $1,000 / $20,000 = 1/20 year needed for recovery Payback Period for Project B: 3 and 1/20 years, REJECT! Project C: Year One: -$45,000 + $10,000 = $35,000 left to recover Year Two: -$35,000 + $15,000 = $20,000 left to recover Year Three: -$20,000 + $20,000 = fully recovered Year Three: $20,000 / $20,000 = full year needed Payback Period for Project B: 3 years, ACCEPT! Project D: Year One: -$100,000 + $40,000 = $60,000 left to recover Year Two: -$60,000 + $30,000 = $30,000 left to recover Year Three: -$30,000 + $20,000 = $10,000 left to recover Year Four: -$10,000 + $10,000 = fully recovered Year Four: $10,000 / $10,000 = full year needed Payback Period for Project B: 4 years, REJECT! 3. Discounted Payback Period – Given the following four projects and their cash flows, calculate the discounted payback period with a 5% discount rate, 10% discount rate, and 20% discount rate. What do you notice about the payback period as the discount rate rises? Explain this relationship. Projects Cost Cash Flow Year One Cash Flow Year Two Cash Flow Year Three Cash Flow Year Four Cash Flow year Five Cash Flow Year Six A $10,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 $4,000 B $25,000 $2,000 $8,000 $14,000 $20,000 $26,000 $32,000 C $45,000 $10,000 $15,000 $20,000 $20,000 $15,000 $10,000 D $100,000 $40,000 $30,000 $20,000 $10,000 $10,000 $0 Solution at 5% discount rate Project A: PV Cash flow year one -- $4,000 / 1.05 = $3,809.52 PV Cash flow year two -- $4,000 / 1.052 = $3,628.12 PV Cash flow year three -- $4,000 / 1.053 = $3,455.35 PV Cash flow year four -- $4,000 / 1.054 = $3,290.81 PV Cash flow year five -- $4,000 / 1.055 = $3,134.10 PV Cash flow year six -- $4,000 / 1.056 = $2,984.86 Discounted Payback Period: -$10,000 + $3,809.52 + $3,628.12 + $3,455.35 = $892.99 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 3 years. Project B: PV Cash flow year one -- $2,000 / 1.05 = $1,904.76 PV Cash flow year two -- $8,000 / 1.052 = $7,256.24 PV Cash flow year three -- $14,000 / 1.053 = $12,093.73 PV Cash flow year four -- $20,000 / 1.054 = $16,454.05 PV Cash flow year five -- $26,000 / 1.055 = $20,371.68 PV Cash flow year six -- $32,000 / 1.056 = $23,878.89 Discounted Payback Period: -$25,000 + $1,904.76 + $7,256.24 + $12,093.73 + $16,454.05 = $12,708.78 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 4 years. Project C: PV Cash flow year one -- $10,000 / 1.05 = $9,523.81 PV Cash flow year two -- $15,000 / 1.052 = $13,605.44 PV Cash flow year three -- $20,000 / 1.053 = $17,276.75 PV Cash flow year four -- $20,000 / 1.054 = $16,454.05 PV Cash flow year five -- $15,000 / 1.055 = $11,752.89 PV Cash flow year six -- $10,000 / 1.056 = $7,462.15 Discounted Payback Period: -$45,000 + $9,523.81 + $13,605.44 + $17,276.75 + $16,454.05 = $11,860.05 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 4 years. Project D: PV Cash flow year one -- $40,000 / 1.05 = $38,095.24 PV Cash flow year two -- $35,000 / 1.052 = $31,746.03 PV Cash flow year three -- $20,000 / 1.053 = $17,276.75 PV Cash flow year four -- $10,000 / 1.054 = $8,227.02 PV Cash flow year five -- $10,000 / 1.055 = $7,835.26 PV Cash flow year six -- $0 / 1.056 = $0 Discounted Payback Period: -$100,000 + $38,095.24 + $31,746.03 + $17,276.75 + $8,227.02 + $7,835.26 = $3,180.30 and fully recovered. Discounted Payback Period is 5 years. Solution at 10% discount rate Project A: PV Cash flow year one -- $4,000 / 1.10 = $3,636.36 PV Cash flow year two -- $4,000 / 1.102 = $3,307.79 PV Cash flow year three -- $4,000 / 1.103 = $3,005.26 PV Cash flow year four -- $4,000 / 1.104 = $2,732.05 PV Cash flow year five -- $4,000 / 1.105 = $2,483.69 PV Cash flow year six -- $4,000 / 1.106 = $2,257.90 Discounted Payback Period: -$10,000 + $3,636.36 + $3,307.79 + $3,005.26 + $2,732.05 = $2,681.46 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 4 years. Project B: PV Cash flow year one -- $2,000 / 1.10 = $1,818.18 PV Cash flow year two -- $8,000 / 1.102 = $6,611.57 PV Cash flow year three -- $14,000 / 1.103 = $10,518.41 PV Cash flow year four -- $20,000 / 1.104 = $13,660.27 PV Cash flow year five -- $26,000 / 1.105 = $16,143.95 PV Cash flow year six -- $32,000 / 1.106 = $18,063.17 Discounted Payback Period: -$25,000 + $1,818.18 + $6,611.57 + $10,518.41 + $13,660.27 = $7,608.43 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 4 years. Project C: PV Cash flow year one -- $10,000 / 1.10 = $9,090.91 PV Cash flow year two -- $15,000 / 1.102 = $12,396.69 PV Cash flow year three -- $20,000 / 1.103 = $15,026.30 PV Cash flow year four -- $20,000 / 1.104 = $13,660.27 PV Cash flow year five -- $15,000 / 1.105 = $9,313.82 PV Cash flow year six -- $10,000 / 1.106 = $5,644.74 Discounted Payback Period: -$45,000 + $9,090.91 + $12,396.69 + $15,026.20 + $13,660.27 = $5174.07 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 4 years. Project D: PV Cash flow year one -- $40,000 / 1.10 = $36,363.64 PV Cash flow year two -- $35,000 / 1.102 = $28,925.62 PV Cash flow year three -- $20,000 / 1.103 = $15,026.30 PV Cash flow year four -- $10,000 / 1.104 = $6,830.13 PV Cash flow year five -- $10,000 / 1.105 = $6,209.21 PV Cash flow year six -- $0 / 1.106 = $0 Discounted Payback Period: -$100,000 + $36,363.64 + $28,925.62 + $15,026.30 + $6,830.13 + $6,209.21 = -$6,645.10 and never recovered. Initial cash outflow is never recovered. Solution at 20% discount rate Project A: PV Cash flow year one -- $4,000 / 1.20 = $3,333.33 PV Cash flow year two -- $4,000 / 1.202 = $2,777.78 PV Cash flow year three -- $4,000 / 1.203 = $2,314.81 PV Cash flow year four -- $4,000 / 1.204 = $1,929.01 PV Cash flow year five -- $4,000 / 1.205 = $1,6075.10 PV Cash flow year six -- $4,000 / 1.206 = $1,339.59 Discounted Payback Period: -$10,000 + $3,333.33 + $2,777.78 + $2,314.81+ $1,929.01 = $354.93 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 4 years. Project B: PV Cash flow year one -- $2,000 / 1.20 = $1,666.67 PV Cash flow year two -- $8,000 / 1.202 = $5,555.56 PV Cash flow year three -- $14,000 / 1.203 = $8,101.85 PV Cash flow year four -- $20,000 / 1.204 = $9,645.06 PV Cash flow year five -- $26,000 / 1.205 = $10,448.82 PV Cash flow year six -- $32,000 / 1.206 = $10,716.74 Discounted Payback Period: -$25,000 + $1,666.67 + $5,555.56 + $8,101.85 + $9,645.06 + $10,448.82 = $10,417.96 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 5 years. Project C: PV Cash flow year one -- $10,000 / 1.20 = $8,333.33 PV Cash flow year two -- $15,000 / 1.202 = $10,416.67 PV Cash flow year three -- $20,000 / 1.203 = $11,574.07 PV Cash flow year four -- $20,000 / 1.204 = $9,645.06 PV Cash flow year five -- $15,000 / 1.205 = $6,028.16 PV Cash flow year six -- $10,000 / 1.206 = $3,348.97 Discounted Payback Period: -$45,000 + $8,333.33 + $10,416.67 + $11,574.07 + $9,645.06 + $6,028.16 = $997.29 and fully recovered Discounted Payback Period is 5 years. Project D: PV Cash flow year one -- $40,000 / 1.20 = $33,333.33 PV Cash flow year two -- $35,000 / 1.202 = $24,305.56 PV Cash flow year three -- $20,000 / 1.203 = $11,574.07 PV Cash flow year four -- $10,000 / 1.204 = $4,822.53 PV Cash flow year five -- $10,000 / 1.205 = $4,018.78 PV Cash flow year six -- $0 / 1.206 = $0 Discounted Payback Period: -$100,000 + $33,333.33 + $24,305.56 + $11,574.07 + $4,822.53 + $4,018.78 = -$21,945.73 and initial cost is never recovered. Discounted Payback Period is infinity. As the discount rate increases, the Discounted Payback Period also increases. The reason is that the future dollars are worth less in present value as the discount rate increases requiring more future dollars to recover the present value of the outlay. 7. Net Present Value – Swanson Industries has a project with the following projected cash flows: Initial Cost, Year 0: $240,000 Cash flow year one: $25,000 Cash flow year two: $75,000 Cash flow year three: $150,000 Cash flow year four: $150,000 a. Using a 10% discount rate for this project and the NPV model should this project be accepted or rejected? b. Using a 15% discount rate? c. Using a 20% discount rate? Solution a. NPV = -$240,000 + $25,000/1.10 + $75,000/1.102 + $150,000/1.103 + $150,000/1.104 NPV = -$240,000 + $22,727.27 + $61,983.47 + $112,697.22 + $102,452.02 NPV = $59,859.98 and accept the project. b. NPV = -$240,000 + $25,000/1.15 + $75,000/1.152 + $150,000/1.153 + $150,000/1.154 NPV = -$240,000 + $21,739.13 + $56,710.76 + $98,627.43 + $85,762.99 NPV = $22,840.31 and accept the project. c. NPV = -$240,000 + $25,000/1.20 + $75,000/1.202 + $150,000/1.203 + $150,000/1.204 NPV = -$240,000 + $20,833.33 + $52,083.33 + $86,805.56 + $72,337.96 NPV = -$7,939.82 and reject the project. 11. Internal Rate of Return – What are the IRRs of the four projects for Swanson Industries in problem #9? Solution, this is an iterative process but can be solved quickly on a calculator or spreadsheet. Enter the keys noted for each project in the CF of a Texas BA II Plus calculator Cash Flows CFO CO1, F1 CO2, F2 Year three Year four Year five CPT IRR Project M -$2,000,000 $500,000, 1 $500,000, 1 $500,000, 1 $500,000, 1 $500,000, 1 7.93% Project N -$2,000,000 $600,000, 1 $600,000, 1 $600,000, 1 $600,000, 1 $600,000, 1 15.24% Project O -$2,000,000 $1,000,000, 1 $800,000, 1 $600,000, 1 $400,000, 1 $200,000, 1 20.27% Project P -$2,000,000 $300,000, 1 $500,000, 1 $700,000, 1 $900,000, 1 $1,100,000, 1 17.72% 15. Profitability Index -- Given the discount rates and the future cash flows of each project, which projects should they accept using profitability index? Cash Flows Year zero Year one Year two Year three Project U -$2,000,000 $500,000 $500,000 $500,000 Project V -$2,500,000 $600,000 $600,000 $600,000 Project W -$2,400,000 $1,000,000 $800,000 $600,000 Project X -$1,750,000 $300,000 $500,000 $700,000 Year four Year five Discount Rate $500,000 $500,000 6% $600,000 $600,000 9% $400,000 $200,000 15% $900,000 $1,100,000 22% Solution, find the present value of benefits and divide by the present value of the costs for each project. Project U’s PV Benefits = $500,000/1.05 + $500,000/1.052 + $500,000/1.053 + $500,000/1.054 + $500,000/1.055 Project U’s PV Benefits = $476,190.48 + $453,514.74 + $431,918.80 + $411,351.24 + $391,763.08 = $2,164,738.34 Project U’s PV Costs = $2,000,000 Project U’s PI = $2,164,738.34 / $2,000,000 = $1.0824 accept project. Project V’s PV Benefits = $600,000/1.09 + $600,000/1.092 + $600,000/1.093 + $600,000/1.094 + $600,000/1.095 Project V’s PV Benefits = -$2,000,000 + $550,458.72 + $505,008.00 + $463,331.09 + $425,055.13 + $389,958.83 = $2,333,790.77 Project V’s PV Costs = $2,500,000 Project V’s PI = $2,333,790.77 / $ 2,500,000 = 0.9335 and reject project. Project W’s PV Benefits = $1,000,000/1.15 + $800,000/1.152 + $600,000/1.153 + $400,000/1.154 + $200,000/1.155 Project W’s PV Benefits = $869,565.22 + $604,914.93 + $394,509.74 + $228,701.30 + $99,435.34 = $2,197,126.53 Project W’s PV Costs = $2,400,000 Project W’s PI = $2,197,126.53 / $2,400,000 = 0.9155 and reject project. Project X’s PV Benefits= -$2,000,000 + $300,000/1.22 + $500,000/1.222 + $700,000/1.223 + $900,000/1.224 + $1,100,000/1.225 Project X’s PV Benefits= -$2,000,000 + $245,901.64 + $335,931.20 + $385,494.82 + $406,259.18 + $406,999.18 = $1,780,586.02 Project X’s PV Cost = $1,750,000 Project X’s PI = $1,780,586.02 / $1,750,000 = 1.0175 and accept project. 19. NPV Profile of a Project – Given the following cash flows of Project L-2, draw the NPV profile. Hint use a discount rate of zero for one intercept (y-axis) and solve for the IRR for the other intercept (x-axis). Cash flows: Year 0 = -$250,000 Year 1 = $45,000 Year 2 = $75,000 Year 3 = $115,000 Year 4 = $135,000 NPV (discount rate = 0) = -$250,000 + $45,000 + $75,000 + $115,000 + $135,000 = $120,000 (y-axis intercept) NPV (discount rate = 5%) = -$250,000 + $45,000/1.05 + $75,000/1.052 + $115,000/1.053 + $135,000/1.054 = $71,290.51 NPV (discount rate = 10%) = -$250,000 + $45,000/1.10 + $75,000/1.102 + $115,000/1.103 + $135,000/1.104 = $31,500.58 NPV (discount rate = 15%) = -$250,000 + $45,000/1.15 + $75,000/1.152 + $115,000/1.153 + $135,000/1.154 = -$1,357.74 NPV (discount rate = 20%) = -$250,000 + $45,000/1.20 + $75,000/1.202 + $115,000/1.203 + $135,000/1.204 = -$28,761.57 IRR = 14.77% NPV Dollars $120,000 NPV Profile Of Project L-2 $90,000 $60,000 $30,000 $0 5% 10% 15% 20% -$30,000 Discount Rates Chapter 10 1. From the balance sheet accounts listed below: a. list all the working capital accounts, b.find the net working capital for the years ending 2003 and 2004, and c. calculate the change in net working capital for the year 2004. Balance Sheet Accounts of Romula Corporation Account Balance 12/31/2003 Balance 12/31/2004 Accumulated Depreciation $2,020 $2,670 Accounts Payable $1,800 $2,060 Accounts Receivable $2,480 $2,690 Cash $1,300 $1,090 Common Stock $4,990 $4,990 Inventory $5,800 $6,030 Long-Term Debt $7,800 $8,200 Plant, Property & Equipment $8,400 $9,200 Retained Earnings $1,370 $1,090 Solution: a. The Working Capital Accounts are: Cash, Accounts Receivable, Inventory, and Accounts Payable b. The Net Working Capital for 2003 and 2004: Net Working Capital = Cash + Accounts Receivable + Inventory – Accounts Payable 2003 Net Working Capital = $1,300 + $2,480 + $5,800 - $1,800 = $7,780 2004 Net Working Capital = $1,090 + $2,690 + $6,030 - $2,060 = $7,750 c. The Change in Net Working Capital for 2004 is, $7,750 - $7,780 = -$30 or a decrease in Net Working Capital of $30. d. 3. Find the operating cash flow for the year for Spacely Sprockets if they had sales revenue of $300,000,000, cost of goods sold of $140,000,000, sales and administrative costs of $40,000,000, depreciation expense of $65,000,000 and a tax rate of 40%. Solution: Using income statement format we have, Sales $300,000,000 COGS $140,000,000 SG&A $ 40,000,000 Depreciation $ 65,000,000 EBIT $55,000,000 Taxes (@ 40%) $22,000,000 Net Income $33,000,000 Operating Cash Flow = EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes Operating Cash Flow = $55,000,000 + $65,000,000 - $22,000,000 = $98,000,000 For problems 5 through 10 use the data from the following financial statements: Partial Income Statement Year Ending 2004 Sales Revenue $350,000 COGS $140,000 Fixed Costs $ 43,000 SG&A Expenses $ 28,000 Depreciation $ 46,000 Partial Balance Sheet 12/31/2003 Assets: Liabilities: Cash $ 16,000 Notes Payable $ 14,000 Accounts Rec. $ 28,000 Accounts Payable $ 19,000 Inventories $ 48,000 Long-Term Debt $190,000 Fixed Assets $368,000 Acc. Depreciation $142,000 Owner’s Equity Retained Earnings $ ??????? Intangible Assets $ 82,000 Common Stock $130,000 Partial Balance Sheet 12/31/2004 Assets: Liabilities: Cash $ 26,000 Notes Payable $ 12,000 Accounts Rec. $ 19,000 Accounts Payable $ 24,000 Inventories $ 53,000 Long-Term Debt $162,000 Fixed Assets $448,000 Acc. Depreciation $ ??????? Retained Earnings $ ?????? Intangible Assets $ 82,000 Common Stock $180,000 Owner’s Equity 5. Complete the partial income statement and balance sheet if the company paid interest expense of $18,000 for 2004, dividends of $30,000 and had an overall tax rate of 40% for 2004. Solution: Income Statement for the Year Ending 12/13/2004 Sales Revenue $350,000 COGS $140,000 Fixed Costs $ 43,000 SG&A Expenses $ 28,000 Depreciation $ 46,000 EBIT $ 93,000 Interest Expense $ 18,000 Taxable Income $ 75,000 Taxes @ 40% $ 30,000 Net Income $ 45,000 And with a Dividend payment of $30,000 the remainder of Net Income goes to Retained Earnings, $15,000. To complete the balance sheet add up all the asset accounts and subtract off the accumulated depreciation (contra asset account) for a total of $400,000. Now balance the balance sheet by determining the total liabilities and owner’s equity accounts ($353,000) and filling in the difference between this total and total assets as the balance in Retained Earnings, $47,000. Balance Sheet 12/31/2003 Assets: Liabilities: Cash $ 16,000 Notes Payable $ 14,000 Accounts Rec. $ 28,000 Accounts Payable $ 19,000 Inventories $ 48,000 Long-Term Debt $190,000 Fixed Assets $368,000 Acc. Depreciation $142,000 Retained Earnings $ 47,000 Intangible Assets $ 82,000 Common Stock $130,000 Total Assets $400,000 Total Liab. & OE $400,000 Owner’s Equity Do the same for the year 2004 but now we must first find accumulated depreciation total. The prior year was $142,000 and the current year’s depreciation from the income statement is $46,000 so the accumulated depreciation for 2004 is $188,000. Also, Retained Earnings went up by Net Income minus dividends paid out so we have an increase of $15,000 ($45,000 - $30,000). Balance Sheet 12/31/2004 Assets: Liabilities: Cash $ 26,000 Notes Payable $ 12,000 Accounts Rec. $ 19,000 Accounts Payable $ 24,000 Inventories $ 53,000 Long-Term Debt $162,000 Fixed Assets $448,000 Acc. Depreciation $188,000 Retained Earnings $ 62,000 Intangible Assets $ 82,000 Common Stock $180,000 Total Assets $440,000 Owner’s Equity Total Liab. & O.E. $440,000 6.Find the Cash Flow from Assets for 2004 and break down into it its three parts, Operating Cash Flow, Change in Net Working Capital, and Capital Spending. Solution: Find the three parts that make up Cash Flow from Assets, Operating Cash Flow, Change in Net Working Capital and Capital Spending. Operating Cash Flow is EBIT – Taxes + Depreciation so, OCF = $93,000 - $30,000 + $46,000 = $109,000 Change in Net Working Capital is 2004 NWC – 2003 NWC 2003 Net Working Capital is Current Assets minus Current Liabilities 2003 NWC = $16,000 + $18,000 + $48,000 - $14,000 - $19,000 = $59,000 2004 NWC = $26,000 + $19,000 + $53,000 - $12,000 - $24,000 = $62,000 Change in NWC = $62,000 - $59,000 = $3,000 Capital spending for 2004 is the Change in Net Fixed Assets (Fixed Assets minus Depreciation) plus 2004 Depreciation Expense. Note there is no change in Intangible Assets so we need only Fixed Assets and Accumulated Depreciation. Capital Spending = ($448,000 - $188,000) – ($368,000 - $142,000) + $46,000 = $80,000 And Cash Flow from Assets is: CF from Assets = OCF - Increase in NWC - Increase in Capital Spending CF from Assets = $109,000 - $3,000 - $80,000 = $26,000 7. Find the Cash Flow to Creditors for 2004 by parts and total with the parts Interest Income Paid and Increases in Borrowing. Solution: First the Interest Paid to Creditors comes from the income statement and is $18,000 for the year. Second, the change in Long-Term Debt reflects an increase or decrease in cash flows to creditors. Here we have a decrease from 2003 to 2004 reflecting a reduction or retirement of debt, a cash flow to creditors: Decrease in Long-Term Debt 2004 = $190,000 – $162,000 = $28,000 Cash Flow to Creditors for 2004 = $18,000 + $28,000 = $46,000 8. Find the Cash Flow to Owners for 2004 by parts and total with the parts being Dividends Paid and Increase in Borrowing. Solution: Dividends Paid for 2004 were $30,000 and the Common Stock account changed from $130,000 in 2003 to $180,000 in 2004 for an increase of $50,000 so we have the following Cash Flow to Owners: 2004 CF to Owners = $30,000 - $50,000 = -$20,000 9. Verify the Cash Flow Identity, Cash Flow from Assets ≡ Cash Flow to Creditors + Cash Flow to Owners Solution: $26,000 ≡ $46,000 - $20,000 10. Produce the Sources and Uses of Cash (Statement of Cash Flows) for the year 2004. Solution: Using the information from questions 5 through 9 and noting that this Sources and Uses of Cash ties out to the change in the cash balance for the year, we have a target of $10,000 increase in cash or source for 2004. Sources and Uses of Cash 2004 Sources and (Uses): Operating Activities Operating Cash Flows $109,000 Decrease in Current Assets (ex-Cash) $ 4,000 Increase in Current Liabilities $ 3,000 Sources and (Uses): Investing Activities Capital Spending Sources and (Uses): Financing Activities ($ 80,000) Interest Expense ($ 18,000) Dividends ($ 30,000) Decrease in Long-Term Debt ($ 28,000) Increase in Common Stock $ 50,000 Net Sources and (Uses) of Cash $ 10,000 11. Erosion Costs – Fat Tire Bicycle Company currently sells 40,000 bicycles per year. The current bike is a standard balloon tire bike, selling for $90.00 with a production and shipping cost of $35.00. The company is thinking of introducing an off-road bike with a projected selling price of $410 and a production and shipping cost of $360. The projected market is for 12,000 bikes in annual sales. However, they will loose sales in the fat tire bikes of 8,000 per year if they introduce the new bike. What is the erosion cost from the new bike? Should they start producing the off-road bike? Solution: Erosion Cost = ($90 - $35) x 8,000 = $520,000 Net Annual Cash Flow with one bike: ($90 - $35) x 40,000 = $2,600,000 Net Annual Cash Flow with two bikes: ($90 - $35) x (40,000 - 8,000) = $2,080,000 ($410 - $360) x 12,000 = $600,000 Net Annual CF = $2,080,000 + $600,000 = $2,680,000 Increase of $80,000 per year so add new off-road bike to production. 15. Depreciation Expense –Brock Florist Company buys a new delivery truck for $29,000. It is classified as a light duty truck. d. Calculate the depreciation schedule using a five year life and straight line depreciation and the half year convention for the first and last year. e. Calculate the depreciation schedule using a five year life and MACRS depreciation. f. Compare the depreciation schedules from parts a and b before and after taxes with a 30% tax rate for Brock Florists. What do you notice about the difference in these two methods? Solution a. Annual depreciation is cost of truck divided by five; $29,000/ 5 = $5,800 And for the first and last year we have $5,800 / 2 = $2,900. b. Depreciation schedule using MACRS; Year One Depreciation = $29,000 x 0.2000 = $5,800 Year Two Depreciation = $29,000 x 0.3200 = $9,280 Year Three Depreciation = $29,000 x 0.1920 = $5,568 Year Four Depreciation = $29,000 x 0.1152 = $3,340.80 Year Five Depreciation = $29,000 x 0.1152 = $3,340.80 Year Six Depreciation = $29,000 x 0.0576 = $1,670.40 c. Comparing the two depreciation schedules before and after taxes (at 30%): Year One Two Three Four Five Straight Line $2,900 $5,800 $5,800 $5,800 $5,800 MACRS $5,800 $9,280 $5,568 $3,340.80 $3,340.80 ∆ Before Tax $2,900 $3,480 -$232 -$2,459.20 -$2,459.20 ∆ After Tax $870 $1,044 -$69.60 -$737.76 -$737.76 $2,900 $29,000 Six Total $1,670.40 $29,000 -$1,229.60 $0 -$368.88 $0 The difference is that the MACRS moves up the tax shield to the early years of depreciation yet the total tax shield is the same under both depreciation schedules. 19. Project Cash Flows & NPV – The managers of Classic Autos Incorporated plan to manufacture classic T-Birds (1957 replicas). The necessary foundry equipment will cost a total of $4,000,000 and will be depreciated using a five-year MACRS life. Projected sales in annual units for the next five years are 300 per year. If sales price is $27,000 per car, variable costs are $18,000 per car, and fixed costs are $1,200,000 annually, what are the annual operating cash flows if the tax rate is 30%? The equipment is sold for salvage for $500,000 at the end of year five. What is the after tax cash flows of the salvage? Net working capital increases by $600,000 at the beginning of the project (Year 0) and is reduced back to its original level in the final year. What is the incremental cash flows of the project? Using a discount rate of 12% for the project, should the project be accepted or rejected with the NPV decision model? Solution Annual depreciation of foundry equipment is: Year One, $4,000,000 x 0.20 = $800,000 Year Two, $4,000,000 x 0.32 = $1,280,000 Year Three, $4,000,000 x 0.192 = $768,000 Year Four, $4,000,000 x 0.1152 = $460,800 Year Five, $4,000,000 x 0.1152 = $460,800 Operating Cash Flows are: Annual Sales, 300 x $27,000 = $8,100,000 Annual COGS, 300 x $18,000 = $5,400,000 In thousands (rounded) Year 1 Sales Revenue - COGS - Fixed Costs - Depreciation EBIT - Taxes Net Income + Depreciation Operating Cash Flows Year 2 $8,100 $5,400 $1,200 $ 800 $ 700 $ 210 $ 490 $ 800 $1,290 $8,100 $5,400 $1,200 $1,280 $ 220 $ 66 $ 154 $1,280 $1,434 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 $8,100 $5,400 $1,200 $ 768 $ 732 $ 220 $ 512 $ 768 $1,280 $8,100 $5,400 $1,200 $ 461 $1,039 $ 312 $ 727 $ 461 $1,188 $8,100 $5,400 $1,200 $ 461 $1,039 $ 312 $ 727 $ 461 $1,188 The equipment is sold for salvage for $500,000 at the end of year five. It has a book value of $4,000,000 - $800,000 - $1,280,000 - $768,000 - $460,800 - $460,800 = $230,400 Gain on Sale is $500,000 - $230,400 = $269,600 Tax on Gain is $269,600 x 0.30 = $80,880 And after-tax cash flow on disposal is $500,000 - $80,880 = $419,120. Incremental Cash Flows for Project (Answer in Thousands, $000) Account/Activity Investment Year 0 Year 1 -$4,000 NWC -$ 600 OCF Salvage Value Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 $ 600 $1,290 $1,434 $1,280 $1,118 $1,118 $ 419 Total Cash Flows (Incremental) -$4,600 $1,290 $1,434 $1,280 $1,118 $2,137 NPV @ 12% = -$4,600 + $1,290/1.12 + $1,434/1.122 + $1,280/1.123 + $1,118/1.124 + $2,137/1.125 = -$4,600 + 1,241 + 1,199 + $911 + $711 + $1,213 = $529 Accept the project because NPV is positive $529,209 (without any rounding). Chapter 11 1. WACC – Eric Cartman has another get rich quick idea but needs funding to support the idea. Eric will borrow $2,000 from his mom and she will charge Eric 6% on the loan. Eric will borrow $1,500 from Chef and he will charge 8% on the loan. Eric will borrow $800 from Mr. Garrison and he will charge Eric 14% on the loan. What is the weighted average cost of capital for Eric? Solution: Total funds borrowed = $2,000 + $1,500 + $800 = $4,300 WACC = ($2,000 / $4,300) x 0.06 + ($1,500 / $4,300) x 0.08 + ($800 / $4,300) x 0.14 WACC = 0.4651 x 0.06 + 0.3488 x 0.08 + 0.1860 x 0.14 WACC = 0.0279 + 0.0279 + 0.0260 = 0.0819 or 8.19% 5. Cost of Debt with Fees -- Kenny Enterprises will issue the same debt in problem #3 but now will use an investment banker that charges $25 per bond for their services. What is the new cost of debt for Kenny Enterprises at a market price of $920, $1000, and $1080? Solution: A. If the bond sells for $920 and Kenny pays $25 per bond the net proceeds are $895 $895 = $1,000 / (1+ (YTM/2))40 + $40 x (1 – 1/(1 + (YTM/2))40)/(YTM/2) And solving via a calculator we have: set P/Y = 2; C/Y =2 INPUTS 40 ? -895 40 1000 Variables N I/Y PV PMT FV OUTPUT 9.15% B. If the bond sells for $1000 and Kenny pays $25 per bond the net proceeds are $975 $975 = $1,000 / (1+ (YTM/2))40 + $40 x (1 – 1/(1 + (YTM/2))40)/(YTM/2) And solving via a calculator we have: set P/Y = 2; C/Y =2 INPUTS 40 ? -975 40 1000 Variables N I/Y PV PMT FV OUTPUT 8.26% C. If the bond sells for $1080 and Kenny pays $25 per bond the net proceeds are $1055 $1055 = $1,000 / (1+ (YTM/2))40 + $40 x (1 – 1/(1 + (YTM/2))40)/(YTM/2) And solving via a calculator we have: set P/Y = 2; C/Y =2 INPUTS 40 ? -1055 40 1000 Variables N I/Y PV PMT FV OUTPUT 7.47% 7. Cost of Equity: SML – Stan is expanding his business and he will sell common stock for the needed funds. If the current risk-free rate is 4% and the expected market return is 12%, what is the cost of equity for Stan if the beta of the stock is: A. 0.75 B. 0.90 C. 1.05 D. 1.20 Solution: A. Using the security market line we have, E(ri) = rf + βi (E(rm) – rf) Cost of Equity = E(ri) = 0.04 + 0.75 (0.12 – 0.04) Cost of Equity = 0.04 + 0.75 (0.08) = 0.04 + 0.06 = 0.10 or 10% B. Using the security market line we have, E(ri) = rf + βi (E(rm) – rf) Cost of Equity = E(ri) = 0.04 + 0.90 (0.12 – 0.04) Cost of Equity = 0.04 + 0.90 (0.08) = 0.04 + 0.072 = 0.112 or 11.2% C. Using the security market line we have, E(ri) = rf + βi (E(rm) – rf) Cost of Equity = E(ri) = 0.04 + 1.05 (0.12 – 0.04) Cost of Equity = 0.04 + 1.05 (0.08) = 0.04 + 0.084 = 0.124 or 12.4% D. Using the security market line we have, E(ri) = rf + βi (E(rm) – rf) Cost of Equity = E(ri) = 0.04 + 1.20 (0.12 – 0.04) Cost of Equity = 0.04 + 1.20 (0.08) = 0.04 + 0.096 = 0.136 or 13.6% 9. Cost of Preferred Stock – Kyle is raising funds for his company by selling preferred stock. The preferred stock has a par value of $100 and a dividend rate of 6%. The stock is selling for $80 in the market. What is the cost of preferred stock for Kyle? Solution: The dividend is $100 x 0.06 = $6.00 And with a price of $80 the cost of preferred stock is $6/$80 = 0.075 or 7.5% 13. Adjusted WACC – Lewis runs an outdoor adventure company and wants to know what impact a tax change will have on his WACC. Currently Lewis has the following borrowing pattern: Equity 35% and cost of 14% Preferred Stock 15% and cost of 11% Debt 50% and cost of 10% before taxes. What is the adjusted WACC for Lewis if the tax rate is a. 40% b. 30% c. 20% d. 10% e. 0%? Solution: a. Adjusted WACC = 0.35 x 14% + 0.15 x 11% + 0.50 x 10% x (1 – 0.40) = Adjusted WACC = 4.9% + 1.65% + 3.0% = 9.55% b. Adjusted WACC = 0.35 x 14% + 0.15 x 11% + 0.50 x 10% x (1 – 0.30) = Adjusted WACC = 4.9% + 1.65% + 3.5% = 10.05% c. Adjusted WACC = 0.35 x 14% + 0.15 x 11% + 0.50 x 10% x (1 – 0.20) = Adjusted WACC = 4.9% + 1.65% + 4.0% = 12.55% d. Adjusted WACC = 0.35 x 14% + 0.15 x 11% + 0.50 x 10% x (1 – 0.10) = Adjusted WACC = 4.9% + 1.65% + 4.5% = 11.05% e. Adjusted WACC = 0.35 x 14% + 0.15 x 11% + 0.50 x 10% x (1 – 0.00) = Adjusted WACC = 4.9% + 1.65% + 5.0% = 13.55% 15. Beta of a Project – Magellan is adding a project to the company portfolio and has the following information, the expected market return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 3%, and the expected return on the new project is 18%. What is the beta of the project? Solution: E(rproject) = 18% = 3% + βproject x (14% - 3%) and Beta = 1.3636 Chapter 12 3. Benefit of Borrowing – Wilson Motors is looking at expanding its operations by adding a second manufacturing location. If successful the company will make $400,000 but if it fails the company will loose $250,000. Wilson Motors has decided to borrow the $250,000 but the bank is charging 15% on the loan. Should Wilson Motors borrow the money if g. The probability of success is 90%? h. The probability of success is 80%? i. The probability of success is 70%? Solution: A. Return on 90% success rate = 0.9 x $400,000 - $250,000 x 1.15 = $72,500, so borrow the money. B. Return on 80% success rate = 0.8 x $400,000 - $250,000 x 1.15 = $32,500, so borrow the money. C. Return on 70% success rate = 0.7 x $400,000 - $250,000 x 1.15 = -$7,500, So do not borrow the money. 6. Pecking Order Hypothesis – Rachel has the following places she can borrow: Source of Funds Parents Friends Bank Loan Credit Card Interest Rate 0% 5% 9% 14.5% Borrowing Limit $10,000 $2,000 $15,000 $5,000 What is Rachel’s weighted average cost of capital if she needs to borrow a. $10,000 b. $20,000 c. $30,000 Solution: a. for $10,000 she would borrow all of it from her parents and pay 0% interest so her WACC is 0. b. For $20,000 she would borrow $10,000 from her parents, $2,000 from her friends and $8,000 from the bank for a WACC of, WACC = 10,000 / $20,000 x 0% + $2,000 / $20,000 x 5% + $8,000 / $20,000 x 9% WACC = 0% + .5% + 3.6% = 4.1% c. For $30,000 she would borrow $10,000 from her parents, $2,000 from her friends, $15,000 from the bank and $3,000 against her credit card for a WACC of, WACC = 10,000 / $30,000 x 0% + $2,000 / $30,000 x 5% + $15,000 / $30,000 x 9% + $3,000 / $30,000 x 14.5% WACC = 0% + .333% + 4.5% + 1.45% = 6.283% 9. Finding WACC – Monica is the CFO of Cooking World and uses Pecking Order Hypothesis (POH) philosophy when she borrows for company projects. Currently the she can borrow up to $400,000 from her bank at a rate of 8.5%, float a bond for $750,000 at a rate of 9.25%, or issue additional stock for $1,300,000 at a cost of 17%. What is the WACC for Cooking World if Monica chooses to invest a. $1,000,000 in new projects b. $2,000,000 in new projects c. $3,000,000 in new projects? Solution: a. WACC if she borrows $1,000,000 is WACC = 0.4 x 8.5% + 0.6 x 9.25% = 3.40% + 5.55% = 8.95% b. WACC if she borrows $2,000,000 is WACC = 0.2 x 8.5% + 0.375 x 9.25% + 0.425 x 17% WACC = 1.7000% + 3.4688% + 7.2250% = 12.3938% c. She can not borrow $3,000,000 her maximum borrowing is $2,450,000. WACC at $2,450,000 is, WACC = 0.1633 x 8.5% + 0.3061 x 9.25% + 0.5306 x 17% WACC = 1.3878% + 2.8316% + 9.0204% = 13.2398% 11. M&M, World of No Taxes – Air America is looking at changing its capital structure from an all equity firm to a leveraged firm with 50% debt and 50% equity firm. Air America is a not for profit company and therefore pays no taxes. If the required rate on the assets of Air America is 20% (RA), what is the current required cost of equity and what is the new required cost of equity if the cost of debt is 10%? Solution: RE = RA + (RA – RD) x (D/E) All Equity Firm: RE = RA + (RA – RD) x (D/E), where D = 0 All Equity Firm: RE = 20% + (20% - 10%) x 0/1 = 20% New Leveraged Firm at 50-50 Debt to Equity RE = 20% + (20% - 10%) x 1/1 = 30% Chapter 13 Problems and Solutions 1. Business Operating Cycle – Kolman Kampers has a production cycle of 35 days, an collection cycle of 21 days, and payment cycle of 14 days. What is Kolman’s business operating cycle and cash conversion cycle? If Kolman reduces the production cycle by one week what is the impact on the cash conversion cycle? If Kolman decreases the collection cycle by one week what is the impact on the cash conversion cycle? If Kolman increases the payment cycle by one week what is the impact on the cash conversion cycle? Solution: Business Cycle = Production Cycle + Collection Cycle Business Cycle = 35 Days + 21 Days = 56 Days Cash Conversion Cycle = Business Cycle – Payment Cycle Cash Conversion Cycle = 56 Days – 14 Days = 42 Days Reducing Production Cycle by one week (7 days) reduces cash conversion cycle by one week (7 Days) to 35 days. Reducing Collection Cycle by one week (7 days) reduces cash conversion cycle by one week (7 Days) to 35 days. Increasing Payment by one week (7 days) reduces cash conversion cycle by one week (7 Days) to 35 days. 2. Business Operation Cycle – Stewart and Company currently has a production cycle of 40 days, a collection cycle of 20 days, and a payment cycle of 15 days. What Stewart’s current business operating cycle and cash conversion cycle? If Stewart and Company wants to reduce its cash conversion cycle to 35 days what action can Stewart take? Solution Business Cycle = Production Cycle + Collection Cycle Business Cycle = 40 Days + 20 Days = 60 Days Cash Conversion Cycle = Business Cycle – Payment Cycle Cash Conversion Cycle = 60 Days – 15 Days = 45 Days Options on reducing the cash conversion cycle to 35 days: 1) reduce production cycle by 10 days 2) reduce collection cycle by 10 days 3) increase payment cycle by 10 days 4) combination of reductions to production cycle and collection cycle and increase of payment cycle totaling 10 days. Use the following account information for problems 3 through 8. 2003 Selected Income Statement Items for Rian Company Cash Sales $298,000 Credit Sales $672,000 TOTAL SALES $970,000 COGS $570,000 2003 Selected Balance Sheet Accounts of Rian Company 12/31/03 12/31/02 Change Accounts Receivable $38,000 $46,000 $8,000 Inventory $55,000 $59,000 $4,000 Accounts Payable $27,000 $25,000 $2,000 3. Average Production Cycle – Find the average production cycle for Rian Co. Solution Average Inventory = (Beginning Inventory + Ending Inventory) / 2 Average Inventory for Corporate Seasonings = ($55,000 + $59,000) / 2 = $57,000 The second step is to determine how quickly we turn over the inventory. To do this, we take the cost of goods sold for the year, COGS, and divide by the average inventory: Inventory Turnover = COGS / Average Inventory Inventory Turnover for Corporate Seasonings = $570,000 / $57,000 = 10 times Average Production Cycle = Days in Year / Inventory Turnover Average Production Cycle = 365/10 = 36.5 Days 4. Average Production Cycle – For the coming year Rian Co. wants to reduce its average production cycle by 6.5 days to 30 days. If the target ending inventory for 2004 is $61,000 what COGS will the company need to reach their goal? Solution Working backwards through the equations for average production cycle we have, Average Production Cycle = 365/ x = 30 Days where x is the inventory turnover. X = 12.1667 Average Inventory = 12.1667 = COGS / [($59,000 + $61,000)/2] COGS = 12.1667 x $60,000 = $730,000 5. Average Collection Cycle – What is the average collection cycle for Rian Co.? Solution Average Accounts Receivable = (Beginning A/R + Ending A/R) / 2 Average A/R for Corporate Seasonings = ($38,000 + $46,000) / 2 = $42,000 Step two is to determine the Accounts Receivable turnover rate: Accounts Receivable Turnover Rate = Credit Sales / Average Accounts Receivable A/R Turnover for Corporate Seasonings = $672,000 / $42,000 = 16 times The third and final step is to estimate the collection cycle by dividing the number of days in a year by the Accounts Receivable turnover rate: Collection Cycle = 365 / Accounts Receivable Turnover Rate Rian’s Collection Cycle = 365 / 16 = 22.8125 Days 6. Average Collection Cycle – Rian Company had a target of 20 Days for collection cycle for the year 2003. If total sales had remained at $970,000 how much of the sales revenue would have needed to be cash sales for Rian to meet the collection goal? Solution Working backwards to find credit sales we have, Collection Cycle = 20 Days = 365 / Average Receivable Turnover Average Receivable Turnover = 365 / 20 Days = 18.25 Days Average Receivable Turnover = 18.25 Days = Credit Sales / $42,000 Credit Sales = $42,000 x 18.25 = $766,500 Cash Sales = Total Sales – Credit Sales = $970,000 - $766,500 = $203,500 7. Average Accounts Payable Cycle – Calculate Rian Co. average accounts payable cycle. Solution Average Accounts Payable = (Beginning of the year A/P + End of Year A/P) / 2 Average A/P = ($27,000 + $25,000) / 2 = $26,000 The second step is to determine the Accounts Payable Turnover and here we use the COGS as the cost of production. Accounts Payable Turnover = COGS / Average A/P Rian’s A/P Turnover = $570,000 / $26,000 = 21.9231 times The third and final step is to determine the number of days that Corporate Seasonings takes to pay its suppliers: Accounts Payable Cycle = 365 / Accounts Payable Turnover Rian’s A/P Cycle = 365 / 21.9231 = 16.6491 days 8. Average Accounts Payable Cycle – Rian Co. had a target of 15 days for payment (accounts payable) cycle. What would the ending balance in the accounts payable account needed to be to reach this target holding all other accounts the same? Solution Working backwards we have, Rian’s A/P cycle = 15 days = 365 / Accounts Payable Turnover Accounts Payable Turnover = 365 / 15 days = 24.3333 days Accounts Payable Turnover = 24.3333 days = $570,000 / Average Accounts Payable Average Accounts Payable = $570,000 / 24.3333 = $23,424.66 Average Accounts Payable = $23,424.66 = [$27,000 + Ending A/P] / 2 Ending A/P = $23,424.66 x 2 - $27.000 = $19,849.32 9. Cash Flow of Accounts Receivable – Myers and Associates, a famous law office in Southern California bills it clients on the first of each month. However clients pay in the following fashion; 40% pay at the end of the first month, 30% pay at the end of the second month, 20% pay at the end of the third month, 5% pay at the end of the fourth month and 5% default on their bills. Myers wants to know the anticipated cash flows for the first quarter of 2004 if the past billings and anticipated billings follow this same pattern. Fourth Quarter Actual Billings First Quarter Anticipated Billings Oct $392,000 Nov $323,000 Dec $296,000 Jan $340,000 Feb $360,000 Mar $408,000 Solution End of January Anticipated Cash Flow from Billings = 5% of Oct + 20% of Nov + 30% of Dec + 40% of Jan = 0.05 x $392,000 + 0.20 x $323,000 + 0.30 x $296,000 + 0.40 x $340,000 = $19,600 + $64,600 + $88,800 + $136,000 = $309,000 End of February Anticipated Cash Flow from Billings = 5% of Nov + 20% of Dec + 30% of Jan + 40% of Feb = 0.05 x $323,000 + 0.20 x $296,000 + 0.30 x $340,000 + 0.40 x $360,000 = $16,150 + $59,200 + $102,000 + $144,000 = $321,350 End of March Anticipated Cash Flows 5% of Dec + 20% of Jan + 30% of Feb + 40% of Mar = 0.05 x $296,000 + 0.20 x $340,000 + 0.30 x $360,000 + 0.40 x $408,000 = $14,800 + $68,000 + $108,000 + $163,200 = $354,000 10. Ageing Accounts Receivable – Thomas Bicycles has the following outstanding account receivables at the close of the month. The monthly late fee is 1% of the outstanding balance at the end of the billing month following the sale (February sales receive a late fee in April if not paid by March 31, 2004). Determine the current amount due for each bill and age the receivables. Today is May 31, 2004. Invoice # 01-1145 02-0390 02-1101 Billing Date Customer 01-11-04 DHL 02-03-04 KPM 02-11-04 JBB Original $ $125.00 $315.00 $200.00 Late Fees $ Current Due 03-14-04 03-17-04 04-09-04 04-21-04 04-22-04 05-06-04 05-11-04 03-1448 03-1773 04-0985 04-2104 04-2201 05-0698 05-1143 GLC WNK ERN DLB QSV JMG BMM $350.00 $850.00 $310.00 $240.00 $565.00 $400.00 $725.00 Solution: Late Fees are for invoices from January for three months (March, April, and May), February for two months (April and May), and invoices from March for one month (May). The April and May bills are not yet late enough for late fees. Late Fees per bill; 01-1145 Late Fee = $125.00 x 1.013 - $125.00 = $2.51 02-0390 Late Fee = $315.00 x 1.012 - $315.00 = $6.33 02-1101 Late Fee = $200.00 x 1.102 - $200.00 = $4.02 03-1448 Late Fee = $350.00 x 1.10 - $350.00 = $3.50 03-1773 Late Fee = $850.00 x 1.10 - $850.00 = $8.50 Invoice # 01-1145 02-0390 02-1101 03-1448 03-1773 04-0985 04-2104 04-2201 05-0698 05-1143 Billing Date Customer 01-11-04 DHL 02-03-04 KPM 02-11-04 JBB 03-14-04 GLC 03-17-04 WNK 04-09-04 ERN 04-21-04 DLB 04-22-04 QSV 05-06-04 JMG 05-11-04 BMM Original $ $125.00 $315.00 $200.00 $350.00 $850.00 $310.00 $240.00 $565.00 $400.00 $725.00 Late Fees $ $2.51 $6.33 $4.02 $3.50 $8.50 $0.00 $0.00 $0.00 $0.00 $0.00 The ageing of accounts receivable by period and total amount due: Current Due $127.51 $321.33 $204.02 $353.50 $858.50 $310.00 $240.00 $565.00 $400.00 $725.00 0-30 days (#05-0698 and #05-1143) $1,125.00 31-60 days (#04-0985, #04-2104, and #04- 2201) $1,115.00 61-90 days (#03-1448 and #03-1773) $1,212.00 91-120 days (#02-0390 and #02-1101) $525.35 Over 120 days (#01-1145) $127.51 13. Credit Screening – Fred and Barney manufacture kid peddle cars. They currently have 4,000 cash paying customers and make a profit of $60 per car. Fred and Barney want to expand their customer base by allowing customers to buy on credit. They estimate a credit sales will bring in an additional 1200 customers per year but that they will also have a default rate on credit sales of 5%. It costs $260 to make a peddle car and they retail for $320. If all customers (old and new) buy on credit, what is the cost of bad debt without a credit screen? What is the most Fred and Barney would pay for a credit screen that accurately identifies bad debt customers prior to the sale? What are the increased profits by adding credit sales for customers with and without a credit screen? Should Fred and Barney offer credit sales if credit screen costs $10 per customer? Solution Cost of bad debt is 0.05 x (4,000 + 1,200) x $260 = $67,600 Maximum cost of Credit Screen: Old Profits = 4,000 x $60 = $240,000 $240,000 = 5200 x 0.95 x $60 – 5,200 x Cost of Screen per Customer Cost per Customer = ($296,400 - $240,000) / 5200 = $10.85 New Profits of Credit Screen without = 5,200 x 0.95 x $60 – 0.05 x 5,200 x $260 = $296,400 - $67,600 = $228,800 New Profits with Credit Screen = 5,200 x 0.95 x $60 - $5200 x $10 = $296,400 - $52,000 = $244,400 Fred and Barney should offer credit sales if with credit screen cost of $10 per customer. 15. Credit Terms -- As the manager of Fly-By-Night Airlines you decide to allow customers 90 days to pay their bills. However, to encourage early payment you allow customers to reduce their bill by 1.5% if paid within the first 30 days. At what implied effective annual interest rate (EAR) are you loaning money to your customers? What if you extend the discount to 60 days and allow full payment up to 180 days? Solution: Holding Period (60 Day) Return = $0.015 / $0.985 = 0.01523 or 1.523% Now what is 0.1523% interest over 60 days stated on an annual basis? Effective Annual Rate = (1 + 0.01523) 365/60 - 1 = 0.0963 or 9.63% Holding Period (120 Day) Return = $0.015 / $0.985 = 0.01523 or 1.523% Now what is 0.1523% interest over 120 days stated on an annual basis? Effective Annual Rate = (1 + 0.01523) 365/120 - 1 = 0.0470 or 4.70% 17. Economic Order Quantity -- Economic Order Quantity -- Tyler’s Tinkering Toys believes he will sell 4,000,000 Beany Babies this coming year (note this is annual sales). He plans on ordering Beany Babies 40 times over the next year. The carrying cost is $0.03 per baby per year. The order cost is $600 per order. What is the annual carrying cost of the Beany Babies inventory? What is the annual ordering cost of the Beany Babies? What is the optimal order quantity for the Beany Babies? Verify your answer by calculating the new total inventory cost. Solution Annual Carrying Cost = average inventory x cost per unit per year Average inventory = (4,000,000 / 40) / 2 = 50,000 Annual Carrying Cost = 50,000 x $0.03 = $1,500 Annual Ordering Costs = 40 x $600 = $24,000 EOQ = [2 x 4,000,000 x $600 / 0.03]1/2 = 400,000 New Carrying Costs = 400,000 / 2 x $0.03 = $6,000 New Ordering Costs = 4,000,000 / 400,000 x $600 = $6,000 EOQ of 400,000 is optimal order quantity (carrying costs = ordering costs). Chapter 14 1. Timeline of Cash Dividend – Tiger Manufacturing Incorporated has the following press release: “Tiger Manufacturing will pay a quarterly dividend of $0.50 per share to record holders as of the 10th of this month on the 20th of this month.” This announcement was made on July 3, 2005. Draw a time line of the dates around this dividend payment assuming a two day settlement for stock trading. Solution Tiger Manufacturing Dividend Dates Jul 3, 2005 Jul 8, 2005 Jul 10, 2005 Jul 20, 2005 Declaration Ex-Date Record Date Payment Date 3. Stock Price around Dividend – Using the information in problem number 1, what will the stock price of Tiger Manufacturing be after the cash dividend announcement if the current price is $47.12 per share (assume the price does not change between Sept. 3rd and Oct. 20th) and on what day does the price change? What is the cost to a buyer after the announcement? What is the sales revenue to a seller after the announcement? Solution: The price will drop by the size of the cash dividend on the morning following the ex-date. The new price will be $47.12 - $0.50 = $46.62. A new buyer after the announcement effectively pays $46.62 for the stock regardless of the date of the purchase. If the buyer acquires the stock before the exdate the buyer pays $47.12 but is entitled to the $0.50 dividend so the net price is $46.62. After the ex-date the buyer pays $46.62 but is not entitled to the $0.50 dividend. The seller receives a net of $47.12 if the sale takes place before the ex-date directly from the new buyer. If the sale takes place after the ex-date the seller receives $46.62 directly from the buyer and the $0.50 dividend from the company for a net of $47.12. 5. Dividend Pattern – Refer to Table 15-2 in the text (PepsiCo Dividend History) and predict the next dividend using a percent change, a dollar change pattern, and your expectation given the pattern change. Solution Using a percentage change we see the following changes each June: June 2001 ($0.145/$0.140) - 1 = 3.57% June 2002 ($0.150/$0.145) - 1 = 3.45% June 2003 ($0.160/$0.150) - 1 = 6.67% Average percent change is (3.57% + 3.45% + 6.67%) /3 = 4.56%, so next change would be 1.0456 x $0.16 = $0.1673 With a dollar (cent) change we have the following average, ($0.005 + $0.005 + $0.01) / 3 = $0.00667 so the next change would be $0.16 + $0.0067 = $0.16667 Just looking at the pattern one would probably guess either $0.165 for a half-cent increase or $0.17 with a full one-cent increase. 2. Creating Own Dividend Policy – Mickey owns 2,000,000 shares of Wisney Entertainment. Wisney just declared a cash dividend of $0.05 per share. The stock is currently selling for $5.00. If Mickey wants an annual “dividend income” from his stock holdings of $50,000, $100,000, or $250,000 what must he do to get these levels of income? What is his wealth in paper and cash for each level of desired dividend income level? Solution The cash dividend he will receive if he does nothing is $0.05 x 2,000,000 = $100,000 so if he wants this dividend income he just waits for the check. His wealth after the distribution is: Paper 2,000,000 x ($5.00 - $0.05) = $9,900,000 Cash 2,000,000 x $0.05 = $100,000 Total Wealth is $9,900,000 + $100,000 = $10,000,000 If Mickey wants only $50,000 then he must use half of the cash dividend to buy back shares. Shares purchased = $50,000 / $4.95 = 10,101. His wealth after dividend distribution and share purchase is: Paper 2,010,101 x ($5.00 - $0.05) = $9,950,000 Cash 2,000,000 x $0.05 - $50,000 = $100,000 - $50,000 = $50,000 Total Wealth is $9,950,000 + $50,000 = $10,000,000 If Mickey wants $250,000 then he must sell some of his shares after the cash dividend. Dividend is $100,000 and he needs $150,000 more. Shares sold = $150,000 / $4.95 = 30,303. His wealth after dividend distribution and share purchase is: Paper (2,000,000 – 30,303) x ($5.00 - $0.05) = $9,750,000 Cash 2,000,000 x $0.05 + 30,303 x $4.95 = $100,000 + $150,000 = $250,000 Total Wealth is $9,750,000 + $250,000 = $10,000,000 11. Change Dividend Policy in World of Taxes – Looking back a problem #9 with Benny; now assume that Benny is taxed 20% on dividend distribution and 20% on capital gains. Assume also that Benny originally paid $18 for these shares. If Benny only wants to receive $200 after tax, is his wealth impacted by changing this dividend policy from a high payout policy to a low payout policy? Solution If Benny did not change the policy he would receive a cash dividend of 500 x $2.00 = $1000 and pay taxes of $200 for a net cash flow of $800. His wealth would be: Paper wealth 500 x (18.00 - $2.00 x (1 - 0.20)) = 500 x $16.40 = $8,200 Cash wealth $1,000 - $200 = $800 Total wealth after cash dividend $8,200 + $800 = $9,000 If Benny only wants $200 in cash he will use the extra $600 to buy more shares of Western Forest at $16.40 per share, or 36.5854 shares ($600/$16.40). His wealth is now: Paper wealth 535.5854 x $16.40 = $8,800 Cash wealth $800 - $600 = $200 Total wealth $8,800 + $200 = $9,000 17. Stock Repurchase Plan – Northern Railroad has announced it will buy back 1,000,000 of its 30,000,000 shares over the next year. If the stock is selling for $23.40 what is the equivalent cash dividend that the company could pay? If you owned 300 shares of stock, how many would you need to sell to get this cash equivalent dividend? Solution The 1,000,000 shares will cost Northern Railroad $23,400,000 and the equivalent cash dividend per share is: $23,400,000 / 30,000,000 = $0.78 per share. If you own 300 shares you would have received $234.00 if a cash dividend had been declared instead of the repurchase. So to get $234 you would need to sell $234/$23.40 = 10 shares of stock. Stock Repurchase Plan – Southern Railroad Chapter 15 9. Pro Forma Financial Statements – Prepare Pro Forma Income Statements for Wal-Mart and Starbucks using the 2004 information provided in problems 7 and 8. Which company is doing a better job of getting sales dollars to net income? Where is the one company having an advantage over the other company in turning revenue into net income? Solution Account Sales COGS Depreciation SG&A EBIT Interest Taxes Net Income Wal-Mart Jan. 31, 2004 Percent $258,681 100.00% $198,747 76.83% $0 0.00% $44,909 17.36% $15,025 5.81% $832 0.32% $5,139 1.99% $9,054 3.50% Starbucks Sep. 30, 2004 Percent $5,294 100% $2,198 41.52% $206 3.89% $2,266 42.80% $624 11.79% $0 0.00% $232 4.38% $392 7.40% Starbuck brings 7.4 cents of sales revenue to the bottom line compared to 3.5 cents for Wal-Mart. The advantage Starbuck’s has over Wal-Mart is in the cost of goods sold and selling, general, and administrative expenses. Starbuck’s is able to generate nearly 12 cents on the sales dollar at EBIT whereas Wal-Mart is about 6 cents per sales dollar at EBIT. Why Starbucks enjoys this advantage is a question that will take more financial and economic investigation into the operations of the two companies and the industries in which they operate. 11.Variance Analysis – Given the following budget and performance information on Microbrew Incorporated, provide the following variances to the budget, sales price variance, sales volume variance, production price variance, production volume variance, overhead price variance and overhead volume variance. Verify the variances by using the forecast EBIT and the actual EBIT. Microbrew Incorporated Management Report #1 Budget Actual Sales Quantity 1,200 kegs Price per gallon $65.00 per keg Sales Dollars $78,000 Production costs (material and labor) $48.00 per keg COGS Overhead EBIT Solution 1,382 kegs $86,375 $68,064 $14,400 $12,980 $ 5,331 Sales Price Variance = Actual Price x Actual Quantity – Forecast Price x Actual Quantity = $86,375 - $65.00 x 1,382 = $86,375 - $89,830 = $3,445 unfavorable Sales Volume Variance = (1,382 – 1,200) x $65.00 = $11,830 favorable Net Sales Variance = $11,830 favorable - $3.445 unfavorable = $8,385 favorable 12. Variance Analysis – Farbucks Coffee is looking at their regional store managers’ performance reports to determine which managers are controlling the sales, material, labor, and overhead variances for their individual coffee shops. Each region has the same projections, budgets, and standard costs and actual performance by category is listed for each region: Category Sales Quantity Sales Dollars Labor Costs Labor Rate Materials Material Rate SG&A EBIT Forecast Budget 4,000 $10,000 $2,400 $0.60 $2,200 $0.55 $4,200 $1,200 Actual Region #1 3,878 $10,080 $2,375 Actual Region #2 4,234 $10,244 $2,498 Actual Region #3 3,902 $9,752 $2,283 Actual Region# 4 4,164 $10,362 $2,519 $2,313 $2,312 $2,157 $2,177 $4,135 $1,257 $4,186 $1,248 $4,206 $1,106 $4,538 $1,128 Which Manager seems to be doing the best job based on favorable and unfavorable variances in Net Sales Variance, Net Material Variance, Net Labor Variance, Net Overhead Variance and Total Variance? Solution Sales Variances for the four regions: Forecast Price = $10,000 / 4,000 = $2.50 Sales Price Variance = Actual Price x Actual Quantity – Forecast Price x Actual Quantity Region #1 = $10,080 - $2.50 x 3,878 = $10,080 - $9,695 = $385 Favorable Region #2 = $10,244 - $2.50 x 4,234 = $10,244 - $10,585 = $341 Unfavorable Region #3 = $9,752 - $2.50 x 3,902 = $9,752 - $9,755 = $3 Unfavorable Region #4 = $10,362 - $2.50 x 4,164 = $10,362 - $10,410 = $48 Unfavorable Sales Volume Variance = Forecast Price x (Actual Quantity – Forecast Quantity) Region #1 = $2.50 x (3,878 - $ 4,000) = $305 Unfavorable Region #2 = $2.50 x (4,234 - $ 4,000) = $585 Favorable Region #3 = $2.50 x (3,902 - $ 4,000) = $245 Unfavorable Region #4 = $2.50 x (4,164 - $ 4,000) = $410 Favorable Net Sales Variance: Region #1 = $385 Favorable and $305 Unfavorable = $80 Favorable Region #2 = $341 Unfavorable and $585 Favorable = $244 Favorable Region #3 = $15 Unfavorable and $245 Unfavorable = $248 Unfavorable Region #4 = $48 Unfavorable and $410 Favorable = $362 Favorable Best Regional Manager on Sales is Regional Manager #4 Material Price Variance = Actual Cost x Actual Production – Actual Production x Standard Cost Standard Material cost = $2,200 / 4,000 = $0.55 Region #1 = $2,313 - $0.55 x 3,878 = $2,313 - $2,132.9 = $180.1 Unfavorable Region #2 = $2,312 - $0.55 x 4,234 = $2,312 - $2,328.7 = $16.7 Favorable Region #3 = $2,157 - $0.55 x 3,902 = $2,157 - $2,146.1 = $10.9 Unfavorable Region #4 = $2,177 - $0.55 x 4,164 = $2,177 - $2,290.2 = $113.2 Favorable Material Quantity Variance = (Actual Quantity– Standard Quantity) x Standard Costs Region #1 = $0.55 x (3,878 - $ 4,000) = $67.1 Favorable Region #2 = $0.55 x (4,234 - $ 4,000) = $128.7 Unfavorable Region #3 = $0.55 x (3,902 - $ 4,000) = $53.9 Favorable Region #4 = $0.55 x (4,164 - $ 4,000) = $90.2 Unfavorable Net Material Variance Region #1 = $180.1 Unfavorable and $67.1 Favorable = $113 Unfavorable Region #2 = $16.7 Favorable and $128.7 Unfavorable = $112 Unfavorable Region #3 = $10.9 Unfavorable and $53.9 Favorable = $43 Favorable Region #4 = $113.2 Favorable and $90.2 Unfavorable = $23 Favorable Best Regional Manager on Material Variance is Regional Manager #2 Labor Variance= Actual Cost x Actual Production – Actual Production x Standard Cost Standard Labor cost = $2,400 / 4,000 = $0.60 Region #1 = $2,375 - $0.60 x 3,878 = $2,375 - $2,326.8 = $48.2 Unfavorable Region #2 = $2,498 - $0.60 x 4,234 = $2,498 - $2,504.4 = $42.4 Favorable Region #3 = $2,283 - $0.60 x 3,902 = $2,283 - $2,341.2 = $58.2 Favorable Region #4 = $2,519 - $0.60 x 4,164 = $2,519 - $2,498.4 = $20.6 Unfavorable Labor Quantity Variance = (Actual Quantity– Standard Quantity) x Standard Costs Region #1 = $0.60 x (3,878 - $ 4,000) = $73.2 Favorable Region #2 = $0.60 x (4,234 - $ 4,000) = $140.4 Unfavorable Region #3 = $0.60 x (3,902 - $ 4,000) = $58.8 Favorable Region #4 = $0.60 x (4,164 - $ 4,000) = $98.4 Unfavorable Net Labor Variance Region #1 = $48.2 Unfavorable and $73.2 Favorable = $25 Favorable Region #2 = $42.4 Favorable and $140.4 Unfavorable = $98 Unfavorable Region #3 = $58.2 Favorable and $58.8 Favorable = $117 Favorable Region #4 = $20.6 Unfavorable and $98.4 Unfavorable = $119 Unfavorable Best Regional Manager on Labor Variance is Regional Manager #3 Overhead Volume Variance = Actual Overhead – Standard Cost x Volume Standard Overhead Cost = $4200/4,000 = $1.05 Region #1 = $4,135 - $1.05 x 3,878 = $4,135 - $4,071.9 = $63.1 Unfavorable Region #2 = $4,186 - $1.05 x 4,234 = $4,186 - $4,445.7 = $259.7 Favorable Region #3 = $4,206 - $1.05 x 3,902 = $4,206 - $4,097.1 = $108.9 Unfavorable Region #4 = $4,538 - $1.05 x 4,164 = $4,538 - $4,372.2 = $165.8 Unfavorable Overhead Quantity Variance = (Actual Quantity– Standard Quantity) x Standard Costs Region #1 = $1.05 x (3,878 - $ 4,000) = $128.1 Favorable Region #2 = $1.05 x (4,234 - $ 4,000) = $245.7 Unfavorable Region #3 = $1.05 x (3,902 - $ 4,000) = $102.9 Favorable Region #4 = $1.05 x (4,164 - $ 4,000) = $172.2 Unfavorable Net Overhead Variance Region #1 = $63.1 Unfavorable and $128.1 Favorable = $65 Favorable Region #2 = $259.7 Favorable and $245.7 Unfavorable = $14 Favorable Region #3 = $108.9 Unfavorable and $102.9 Favorable = $6 Unfavorable Region #4 = $165.8 Unfavorable and $172.2 Unfavorable = $338 Unfavorable Best Regional Manager on Overhead Variance is Regional Manager #1 Total Variance is the sum of the four areas and is the actual EBIT versus the budgeted EBIT. Region #1 = $1,257 - $1,200 = $57 Favorable Region #2 = $1,248 - $1,200 = $48 Favorable Region #3 = $1,106 - $1,200 = $94 Unfavorable Region #4 = $1,128 - $1,200 = $72 Unfavorable And Region #1 Manager is the overall “variance” winner for the reporting period, but that does not mean Region #1 Manager did the best job. It will take more information to come to that conclusion. For the problems thirteen through sixteen use the following data: Buzz Beer Incorporated Income Statement for Period Ending 31 Dec 2003 31 Dec 2002 Revenue $14,146,700 $13,566,400 COGS 8,449,100 8,131,300 SG&A 999,320 982,160 Depreciation 1,498,980 1,473,240 EBIT 3,199,300 2,979,700 375,000 356,100 1,093,300 1,041,500 $2,075,900 $1,933,800 Interest Expense Taxes Net Income Balance Sheet for Period Ending Assets 31 Dec 2003 31 Dec 2002 Current Assets Cash $ 191,000 $ 188,900 Investments 182,300 121,800 Accts. Receivables 669,400 630,400 Inventory 587,500 563,600 1,630,300 1,504,700 Investments 3,052,000 2,827,900 Plant, Property and Equip. 8,498,900 8,481,500 349,000 348,700 1,159,300 956,700 $14,689,500 $14,119,500 $ 1,545,700 $ 1,455,100 311,500 332,600 1,857,200 1,787,700 Debt 7,285,400 6,603,200 Other Liabilities 1,462,100 1,345,100 $ 11,977,800 $11,067,200 $ 1,457,900 $ 1,453,400 Total Current Assets Long Term Assets Goodwill Intangible Assets TOTAL ASSETS Liabilities Current Liabilities Accounts Payable Short Term Debt Total Current Liabilities Long-Term Liabilities TOTAL LIABILITIES Owner’s Equity Common Stock Retained Earnings $ 1,253,800 $ 1,598,900 TOTAL OWNERS EQUITY $ 2,711,700 $ 3,052,300 TOTAL LIAB. & OWNER’S EQ. $ 14,689,500 $14,119,500 13. Financial Ratios, Liquidity – Calculate the Current Ratio, Quick Ratio, Cash Debt Coverage Ratio and Cash Ratio for Buzz Beer for 2003 and 2002. Should any of these ratios or the change in a ratio warrant concern for the managers of Buzz Beer or the shareholders? Solution Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities 2003 is, $1,630,300 / $1,857,200 = 0.8778 2002 is, $1,504,700 / $1,787,700 = 0.8417 Current Cash Debt Coverage Ratio = Cash Provided by Operations / Average Current Liabilities 2003 is, ($3,199,300 + $1,498,900 - $1,093,300) / [($1,857,200 + $1,787,700)/2] = $3,604,900 / $1,822,450 = 1.9781 Quick Ratio (or Acid Ratio Test) = Current Assets – Inventories / Current Liabilities 2003 is, ($1,630,300 - $587,500) / $1,857,200 = 0.5615 2002 is, ($1,504,700 - $563,600) / $1,787,700 = 0.5264 Cash Ratio = Cash / Current Liabilities 2003 is, $191,100 / $1,857,200 = 0.1029 2002 is, $188,900 / $1,787,700 = 0.1057 The ratios are look reasonable and the change is in the right direction for better liquidity for all ratios except the cash ratio. 17. DuPont Identity – For the following firms find the Return on Equity using the three components of the DuPont Identity, the operating efficiency as measured by the profit margin (Net Income/Sales), the asset management efficiency as measured by asset turnover (Sales / Total Assets), and financial leverage as measured by the equity multiplier (Total Assets / Total Equity). All Dollars in millions (2003) Company Pepsi Coca-Cola Starbuck’s Anh. Busch Sales $26,971 $21,044 $5,294 $14,146 Net Income Total Assets Liabilities $3,568 $25,327 $13,453 $4,347 $27,342 $13,252 $392 $3,328 $841 $2,076 $14,689 $11,977 Solution: First find the equity of each company: Pepsi’s Equity = $25,327 - $13,453 = $11,874 Coca-Cola’s Equity = $27,342 - $13,252 = $14,090 Starbuck’s Equity = $3,328 - $841 = $2,487 Anheuser-Busch’s Equity = $14,689 - $11,977 = $2,712 Next calculate the three components Company Pepsi Coca-Cola Starbucks Anh. Busch Operating Efficiency $3,568/$26,971 = 0.1323 $4,347 / $21,044 = 0.2066 $392 / $5,294 = 0.0740 $2,076 / $14,146 = 0.1468 Mgmt. Efficiency $26,971/$25,327 = 1.0649 $21,044 / $27,342 = 0.7697 $5,294 / $3,328 = 1.5907 $14,146 / $14,689 = 0.9630 Financial Leverage $25,327 / $11,874 = 2.1330 $27,342 / $14,090 = 1.9405 $3,328 / $2,487 = 1.3382 $14,689 / $2,712 = 5.4163 Last, take the three components to find the ROE, Pepsi = 0.1323 x 1.0649 x 2.1330 = 0.3005 or 30.05% ROE Coca-Cola = 0.2066 x 0.7697 x 1.9405 = 0.3085 or 30.85% ROE Starbuck’s = 0.0740 x 1.5907 x 1.3382 = 0.1576 or 15.76% ROE Anheuser-Busch = 0.1468 x 0.9630 x 5.4163 = 0.7655 or 76.55% ROE While Coca-Cola is the most operationally efficient and Starbucks is the most efficient in management, Anheuser-Busch is the best to its shareholders because it has effectively utilized a very high financial leverage strategy, using debt and not shareholder earnings to finance the profits of the firm. 19. Company Analysis – Go to a web site such as Yahoo.com and find the financial statements of Disney, ticker symbol DIS, and McDonalds, ticker symbol MCD. Compare these two companies using the following financial ratios: Times Interest Earned, Current Ratio, Asset Turnover, Financial Leverage, Profit Margin, and Return on Equity. Which company would you invest in as either a bondholder or a stockholder? Solution Look up these values for each company, Sales, EBIT, Interest Expense, Net Income, Current Assets, Total Assets, Current Liabilities, and Equity Sales EBIT Interest Expense Net Income Disney $30,752 $4,368 $629 $2,345 McDonalds $17,140 $2,734 $388 $1,471 Current Assets Total Assets Current Liabilities Equity $9,369 $53,902 $11,509 $26,081 $1,885 $25,525 $2,486 $11,982 Times interest Earned = EBIT / Interest Expense Disney is, $4,368 / $629 = 6.9444 McDonalds is, $2,734 / $388 = 7.0464 Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities Disney is, $9,369 / $11,059 = 0.8472 McDonalds is, $1,885 / $2,486 = 0.7582 Asset Turnover = Sales / Total Assets Disney is, $30,752 / $53,902 = 0.5705 McDonalds is, $17,140 / $25,525 = 0.6715 Financial Leverage = Total Assets / Total Equity Disney is, $53,902 / $26,081 = 2.0667 McDonalds is, $25,525 / $11,982 = 2.1303 Profit Margin = Net Income / Sales Disney is, $2,345 / $30,752 = 0.0763 McDonalds is, $1,471 / $17,140 = 0.0858 Return on Equity = Net Income / Total Owner’s Equity Disney is, $2,345 / $26,081 = 0.0899 McDonalds is, $1,471 / $11,982 = 0.1228 The best company to invest in appears to be McDonalds with its higher ROE and strong solvency position as most of the financial ratios are very similar.