BIO 313 Exam 4 Review A
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Leader:
Course:
Instructor:
Date:
Laura
Bio 313
Dr. Rodermel
11/11/15
CHAPTER 16
1. What is the difference between a structural gene and regulator gene?
a. Structural genes are transcribed into mRNA, but regulator genes aren’t
b. Structural genes have complex structures; regulator genes have simple structures
c. Structural genes encode proteins that function in the structure of the cell; regulator
genes carry out metabolic reactions
d. Structural genes encode proteins; regulator genes control the transcription of
structural genes
2. In a negative repressibke operon, the regulator protein is synthesized as
a. An active activator
b. An inactive activator
c. An active repressor
d. An inactive repressor
3. In the presence of allolactose, the lac repressor
a. Binds to the operator
b. Bonds to the promoter
c. Cannot bind to the operator
d. Binds to the regulator gene
4. What is the effect of high levels of glucose on the lac operon?
a. Tx is stimulated
b. Little Tx takes place
c. Tx is not affected
d. Tx may be stimulated or inhibited, depending on the levels of lactose
5. Complete the following table
Type
Location
Cis/Trans
Effect
Only affect lacZ and
lacY
Structural Gene
Mutation
Affects transcription
of Structural Genes
Regulator Gene
Mutation
lacO
Promoter Mutation
Cis
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CHAPTER 17
6. Most transcriptional activator proteins affect transcription by interacting with
a. Introns
b. The basal tx apparatus
c. DNA polymerase
d. The terminator
7. In RNA silencing, siRNAs and miRNAs usually bind to which part of the mRNA
molecules that they control?
a. 5’ UTR
b. Segment that encodes amino acids
c. 3’ PolyA tail
d. 3’ UTR
8. All of the following are differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene regulation
except
a. Prokaryotes use operons
b. Prokaryotes tx and tl are coupled
c. Prokaryotes contain histones
d. Eukaryotes use cap binding proteins and PABPs
9. List the six levels of gene regulation
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
10. The purpose of gene regulation is
a. Control mRNA processing
b. Modify DNA
c. Fold amino acid sequence into appropriate quaternary structure
d. Produce precise amount of protein from a given gene
11. Which of the following is false about response elements?
a. Are also known as boxes
b. They are gene specific
c. They are located in the regulatory promoter
d. They bind silencers
12. List the 11 key points of gene regulation
1.
7.
2.
8.
3.
9.
4.
10.
5.
11.
6.
CHAPTER 2
13. The period between Meiosis I and Meiosis II is known as
a. Prophase II
b. Cytokinesis
c. Interkinesis
d. Metaphase II
14. Diploid cells have
a. Two chormosomes
b. Two sets of chromosomes
c. One set of chromosomes
d. Two pairs of homologous chromosomes
15. Which is the correct order of stages in the cell cycle?
a. G1, S, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
b. S, G1, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
c. Prophase, S, G1, metaphase, anaphase
d. S, G1, anaphase, prophase, metaphase
16. Which of the following takes place in metaphase I?
a. Crossing over
b. Chromosomes contract
c. Homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate
d. Individual chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate
17. A secondary spermatocyte has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found
in the primary spermatocyte that gave rise to it?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
18. Which structure is diploid?
a. Microspore
b. Megaspore
c. Egg
d. Microsporocyte
19. Which of the following are found in Eukaryotes and not Prokaryotes
a. Cell Wall
b. Ribosomes
c. Membrane-bound Organelles
d. Plasma Membrane
20. Interphase consists of all the following phases EXCEPT
a. M Phase
b. G2 Phase
c. S Phase
d. G1 Phase
21. This phase consists of biochemical preparation for cell division
a. M Phase
b. G2 Phase
c. S Phase
d. G1 Phase
22. This phase consists of DNA synthesis
a. M Phase
b. G2 Phase
c. S Phase
d. G1 Phase
23. Which phase of mitosis is depicted below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anaphase
Telophase
Metaphase
Prophase
24. Which is true about mitosis?
a. Produces 2 genetically different cells
b. Each cell contains the total amount of cytoplasm needed
c. New cells contain a full complement of chromosomes
d. Cells start as diploid and end as haploid
25. Meiosis I is defined by
a. DNA synthesis
b. Reduction of chromosome number in half
c. Separation of sister chromatids
d. Goes through equatorial division
26. Prophase I consist of all of the following except
a. Tetrads are present
b. Synapsis occurs
c. Crossing over occurs
d. Cytokinesis occurs
27. Which phase of meiosis is shown below?
a. Metaphase I
b. Prophase II
c. Anaphase II
d. Metaphase II
28. Which phase of meiosis is shown below?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Metaphase I
Prophase II
Anaphase II
Metaphase II
29. Which of the following events take place in meiosis II, but not meiosis I?
a. Chromosomes contract
b. Homologous chromosomes separate
c. Crossing over
d. Chromatids separate
CHAPTER 3
30. Which of the following factors did not contribute to Mendel’s success in his study of
heredity?
a. His use of the pea plant
b. His study of plant chromosomes
c. His adoption of an experimental approach
d. His use of mathematics
31. If an F1 plant depicted in Figure 3.5 is backcrossed to the parent with round seeds, what
proportion of the progeny will have wrinkled seeds?
a. ¾
b. ½
c. ¼
d. 0
30. Match the term to the definition
___ Gene
A. Specific place on a chromosome occupied
by an allele
___ Allele
B. An individual organism possessing two
different alleles at a locus
___ Locus
C. An attribute or feature possessed by an
organism
___ Genotype
D. The appearance or manifestation of a
characteristic
___ Phenotype
E. An individual organism possessing two of
the same alleles at a locus
___ Homozygous
F. An inherited factor that helps determine a
characteristic
___ Heterozygous
G. One of two or more alternative forms of a
gene
___ Characteristic
H. Set of alleles possessed by an individual
organism
31. Beginning with a Oogonium and spermatogonium draw the processes that will reach a
zygote, include ploidy levels: