1. In a disc diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if discs are
placed on the inoculated media and left at room temperature for an hour before
incubation?
a. the antibiotic would not diffuse in to the medium, resulting in no zone
b. zones of smaller diameter would result
c. zones of larger diameter would result
d. there would be no effect on the final zone diameter
2. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a (n) :
a. refrigerator ( 4 to 7 C )
b. incubator ( 37 C )
c. cool, dry area
d. open jar exposed to air
3. Group B , B-hemolytic streptococci may be distinguished from other hemolytic
streptococci by which of the following procedures ?
a. lancefiled typing
b. growth in 6.5 % NaCl broth
c. growth on bile esculin medium
d. bacitracin susceptibility
4. The stock culture needed for quality control testing of motility is:
a. Salmonella typhimurium / Escherichia coli
b. Escherichia coli / Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Serratia marcescens / Escherichia coli
d. Shigella sonnei / Escherichia coli
5. An unusual number of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (determined by
the Kirby-Bauer method) were isolated in the laboratory in the past month. Which of
the following is the most likely explanation?
a. incubation of the susceptibility plates at 35 C
b. deterioration of the methicillin discs
c. inoculation of plates 10 minutes after standardizing the inoculum
d. standardization of the inoculum to 0.5 McFarland turbidity standard
6. Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room
temperature for 6 – 24 hours.
a. increased hematocrit and MCV
b. increased sedimentation rate and MCV
c. increased MCHC and MCV
d. decreased Reticulocyte count and hematocrit
7. A total leukocyte count is 10,000/ ML and 25 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes
on the differential. What is the corrected leukocyte count?
a. 2,000/ ML
b. 8,000/ ML
c. 10,000/ ML
d. 12,000/ ML
8. The prothrombin time test required that the patient's citrated plasma be
combined with:
a. platelet lipids
b. thromboplastin
c. Ca++ and platelet lipids
d. Ca++ and thromboplastin
9. A 56- years-old man was admitted to the hospital for treatment of a bleeding ulcer.
The following laboratory data where obtained:
RBC 4.2 * 1012 / L Serum iron
40 Mg/dl
Hct
30%
TIBC
460 Mg/dl
Hgb
8.5 gm/dl
Serum ferritin 12 mg/ml
9
WBC 5.0 * 10 /L
Examination of the bone marrow revealed the absence of iron stores . there data are
most consistent with which of the following conditions ?
a. iron deficiency anemia
b. anemia of chronic disease
c. hemochromatosis
d. acute blood loss
10. What is the mean corpuscular volume ( MCV ) if the hematocrit is 20% , the
RBC is 1,500,000/ML , and the hemoglobin is 6 gm/dl ?
a. 68 fl
b. 75 fl
c. 115 fl
d. 133 fl
11. The following result was obtained in a Creatinine clearance evaluation:
Urine concentration 0.084 gm/dl (7.43 mmol / L)
Urine volume
1440 ml/24 hr
Serum concentration 1.4 mg/ dl (124 Mmol /L)
Body surface area
1.60 m2 (average = 1.73 m2
The Creatinine clearance in Ml / min is:
a. 0.006
b. 0.022
c. 0.60
d. 64.9
12. The serum glucose concentration of a specimen from a diabetic patient
undergoing a two-hour glucose tolerance test should return to the baseline (fasting
level) after a minimum of:
a 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes
13. A colorimetric method calls for the use of 0.1 Ml serum , 5 Ml of reagent, and 4.9
Ml of water. What is the dilution of the serum in the final solution?
a. 1 to 5
b. 1 to 10
c. 1 to 50
d. 1 to 100
14. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the dilution of a solution?
( V = volum , C = concentration )
a. V1 + C1 = V2 + C2
b. V1 + C2 = V2 + C1
c. V1 * C1 = V2 * C2
d. V1 * V2 = V1 * C2
15. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the unknown concentration
based on Beers law?
( A = absorbance , C = concentration )
a. ( A unknown ) * C standard
( A standard )
b. C standard X A unknown
c. A standard X A unknown
d. ( C standard ) X 100
( A standard )
16. Which of the following statements about ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn
are true?
1. it usually requires an exchange transfusion
2. it can occur in the first born
3. it frequently results in stillbirth
4. it is frequently seen in group O mothers
a. only 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. only 1 and 3 are correct
c. only 4 is correct
d. all are correct
17. A unit of blood that has been out of your control for ten minutes, without being
refrigerated, should be:
1. Cultured for bacterial contamination
2. Inspected for container closure
3. Stored at room temperature
4. Recorded to indicate return
a. only 1,2 and 3 are correct
b. only 1 and 3 are correct
c. only 4 is correct
d. all are correct
For questions 18 and 19 Refer to the illustration below:
18. The egg depicted above is most likely to be found in
a. Stool
b. Saliva
c. Sputum
d. Urine
19. This Ova belong to the Parasite:
a. Teania saginata
b. Teania solium
c. Enterobious vermicularis.
d. Hymenolepis nana
For questions 20 and 21 refer to the illustration below:
20. The organism depicted is a ( n ) :
a. amoeba
b. flagellate
c. trypanosoma
d. sporozoan
21. A 24- year – old woman who just returned from vacationing in Russia became ill
with urinary tract infection. The above organism was found in her urine . The
patient most likely is suffering from:
a. giardiasis
b. amebiasis
c. ascariasis
d. trichomniasis.
22. Which immunoglobulin is associated with allergic reactions?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
23. A rapid indirect latex slide test showed no agglutination and was reported as
negative on a woman who , on physical examination , was thought to be pregnant . a
possible reason for the negative test result is :
a. urine glucose was increased
b. misinterpretation of the test
c. urine specific gravity was greater than 1.015
d. urine protein was greater than 100 mg/dl
24. In systemic lupus erythematosus. High levels of which of the following antibodies
are seen?
a. anti- mitochondrial
b. anti- smooth muscle
c. anti- DNA
d. anti- parietal cell
25. An RNA –containing virus is:
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. CMV
d. HSV
26. The lipid component which measurement would be the most severely affected by
analysis of a non – fasting specimen is
a) Triglycerides
b) Cholesterol
c) Fatty acids
d) Apolipoprotein
27. A patient with total protein 6.1g/dl, albumin of 3.2 g/dl then the albumin /
globulin (A/G) ratio is
a) 3.2 / 6.1
b) 2.9 /6.1
c) 3.2 /2.9
d) 2.9 / 3.2
28. One of the following doesn’t belong to indirect bilirubin :
a) Unconjugated
b) Water – insoluble
c) Cross blood brain barrier
d) Secreted by the kidney
29. CA marker used in monitoring the course of the disease in patients with invasive
epithelial of ovarian cancer is
a) CA15-3
b) CA19-9
c) CA125
d) CA72-4
30. Glycosylated hemoglobin monitors the diabetic patient's blood glucose is
a) HbA2
b) HbS
c) HbA1c
d) HbC
31. The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity
being measured is known as
a) Acceptable limits
b) Accuracy
c) Precision
d) Reliability
32. Hemoglobin electrophoresis has greatest diagnostic value in :
a) G6PHD deficiency & vit. K
b) Hemoglobinopathies
deficency
c) In cases of hemoglobin anemias
d) Hereditary spherocytosis
33. Which of the following antigens is the (backbone) from which all ABO antigens
are made?
a) Rh
b) O
c) H
d) Se
34. Which of the following is not a type of granulocytes
a) Neutrophils
b) Monocytes
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
35. PT is a clinical test used to assess
a) liver damage
b) the extrinsic thrompoplastin system
c) potential vitamin K deficiency
d) all of the above
36. Which of the following blood product is the most likely to be contaminated by
bacteria
a) apheresis plateletes
b) RBCs
c) fresh frozen plasma
d) pooled platelets concentrate
37. The results for blood group done by the reverse method are shown in the
following table. The blood group is
Test cells
A1
B
Patient serum
++++
++++
a) AB
b) O
c) A
d) B
38. In order to be called fresh frozen plasma (FFP), the plasma portion of whole
blood must be placed at what temperature within what time limit?
a) less than -8 Co in less than 18 hr
b) less than -10 Co in less than 10 hr
c) less than -18 Co in less than 8 hr
d) less than -18 Co in less than 24 hr
39. Prior to tissue transplantation , the first laboratory test done
a) ABO compatibility
b)Immunoglobulins level
c) HLA compatibility
d) Non of above
40. Cryoprecipitate is prepared by
a) Fractionation of plasma
b) Filtration of fresh frozen plasma
c) Controlled thawing of fresh frozen plasma d) Apheresis
41. Streptolysin O is a bacterial toxin produced by strains of
a) Streptococcus pnemoniae
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c)Streptococcus veridans
d) B+C
42. The criteria for differentiation between viral & bacterial meningitis
a) High protein level
b) Low glucose level
c) Type of cells
d) All of the above
43. Selenite F Broth is an enrichment liquid medium for the isolation of
a) Streptococcus fecalis
b) Salmonella
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Nocardia
44. For microbiological studies the most reliable urine sample is
a) First void
b) Mid – stream
c) Last void
d) Non of the above
45. In Gram stain procedure, safranin is applied immediately
a) after the iodine
b) after the crystal violet
c) after the decolorizer
d) before the iodine
46. All the following crystals are found in acid urine except
a) Amorphous phosphates
b) Uric acid
c) Amorphous urates
d) Calcium oxalate
47. Which of the following members of genus Candida is considered to be pathogenic
for man?
a) C.tropicalis
b) C.albicans
c) C.parakruzei
d) C.guilliermondi
48. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala Azar ) is caused by
a) L.tropica
b) L.donovani
c) L.braziliensis
d) L.mexicana
49. The flagellate parasite which can be encountered in urine and
vaginal secretions is
a) Trichomonas hominis
b) Trichomonas vaginalis
c) Balantidium coli
d) Trichuris trichura
50. Hydatid cyst disease is caused by
a) Dipylidium caninum
b) Taenia solium
c) Echinococcus granulosus
d) Hymenolepis diminuta
51. All of the following result are confirmatory of Diabetes Mellitus, except:
A- FBG > 140 mg/dl
B- 2hrs PPBG >200 mg/dl.
C- 1hr PPBG > 200 mg/dl.
D – Urine glcose > 250 mg/dl.
52. Adult male with the following results: Hct = 30%, Reticulocytes production index
is:
A – 1.5.
B – 2.5
C – 3.5
D – 4.5
53. The hemogram parameter that can discriminate between IDA and B- thalassemia
trait is :
A – MCV.
B – MCHC
C – RDW
D – MCH
54. The liver function test that indicates (Bile Duct Obstruction) is:
A – High ALT
B – High Alkaline phosphatase.
C- Low Albumin.
D – High Indirect Bilirubin.
55. The normal rang of Band Neutrophils in peripheral blood of adult male is :
A – 0 – 2%
B–2–6%
C – 6 – 8%
D – 40 – 70%
56. The Key test to differentiate between enterobacteriaceae and pseudomonas is
A- The growth on Mackonky agar.
B – Oxidase
C - Glucose fermentation .
D – Lactose fermentation.
57. The chemical substance that used in direct wet mount preparation for fungal
identification is :
A – Normal Saline.
B – Alcohol 70 %.
C – KOH 15% .
D – H2O2 3%.
58. The result of ASOT following panel is:
Dilution Direct
Reaction Positive
1:1
Positive
1:2
Positive
1:4
Positive
1:8
1 : 16
Negative Negative
A – 400 U/L
B – 800 U/L
C – 1600 U/L
D – 3200 U/L
59. The most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease is:
A – Alkaline phosphatase.
B – AST .
C – GGT .
D – LDH .
60. The index of RBCs chromia is:
A – Hb .
B – MCV .
C – MCH .
D – MCHC .
61. The parameter that reflects the transferring level is :
A – Serum Iron .
B – TIBC .
C – Ferritin .
D – UIBC .
62. The following results : T3 : High , T4 High , TSH : High , indicate:
A – Primary hypothyroidism
B – Secondary hypothyroidism .
C – Primary hyperthyroidism .
D – Secondary hyperthyroidism .
63. To prepare 10 ml 0.1 M (NaOH) from 0.25 M (NaOH), the volume of 0.25 M
(NaOH ) that should be used is :
A – 1 ml
B – 2 ml
C – 4 ml
D – 6 ml
64. If Blood Urea = 55.0 mg/ dl , the BUN should be reported as :
A – 22.1
B – 36.6 .
C – 25.7 .
D – 117.7 .
65. The solution that used for manual platelets count is :
A – Ammonium Oxalate 1 %.
B – Trisoduim citrate 3.8%.
C – Acetic Acid 3%.
D – Sodium chloride 9%.
66. The Blood film shown in this picture is characterized by:
A – Microcytic hyperchromic RBCs .
B – Macrocytic hypochromic RBCs .
C – Microcytic hypochromic RBCs .
D – Macrocytic hyperchromic RBCs .
67. The most probable Bacteria that causes this pattern of growth on Blood agar is :
A – Enterococcus faecalis .
B – Eschenchia coli .
C – Proteus species .
D – Staphylococcus aureus .
68. The picture seen here is :
A – Giardia Lamblia cyst .
B – Trichuris trichuri Ova.
C – Food artifact .
D – Entamoeba histolytica cyst.
69. The ASOT is raised in infection caused by:
A – Streptococcus sangins .
B – Streptococcus pneumoniae
C – Streptococcus pyogens
D – Streptococcus bovis .
70. The Urinary crystals that appear in this picture are :
A- Calcium Oxalate Crystals
B- Uric acid Crystals.
C- Cholesterol Crystals
D-Triple Phosphate Crystals
71. Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room
temperature for 6 – 24 hours.
a) increased hematocrit and MCV
b) increased sedimentation rate and MCV
c) increased MCHC and MCV
d) decreased Reticulocyte count and hematocrit
72. A total leukocyte count is 10,000/ L and 25 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes on
the differential. What is the corrected leukocyte count?
a) 2,000/ ML
b) 8,000/ ML
c) 10,000/ ML
d) 12,000/ ML
73. The prothrombin time test required that the patient's citrated plasma be combined
with:
a) platelet lipids
c) Ca++ and platelet lipids
b) thromboplastin
d) Ca++ and thromboplastin
74. A 56- years-old man was admitted to the hospital for treatment of a bleeding ulcer.
The following laboratory data where obtained:
RBC 4.2 * 1012 / L Serum iron
40 mg/dl
Hct
30%
TIBC
460 mg/dl
Hgb
8.5 gm/dl
Serum ferritin 12 mg/ml
WBC
5.0 * 109 /L
Examination of the bone marrow revealed the absence of iron stores, these data are
most consistent with which of the following conditions ?
a) iron deficiency anemia
b) anemia of chronic disease
c) hemochromatosis
d) acute blood loss
75. What is the mean corpuscular volume ( MCV ) if the hematocrit is 20% , the RBC
is
1,500,000/L , and the hemoglobin is 6 gm/dl ?
a) 68 fl
b) 75 fl
c) 115 fl
d) 133 fl
76. The following result was obtained in a Creatinine clearance evaluation:
Urine concentration 0.084 gm/dl (7.43 mmol / L)
Urine volume
1440 ml/24 hr
Serum concentration 1.4 mg/ dl (124 mmol /L)
Body surface area
1.60 m2 (average = 1.73 m2
The Creatinine clearance in ml / min is:
a) 0.006
b) 0.022
c) 0.60
d) 64.9
77. The serum glucose concentration of a specimen from a diabetic patient undergoing
a two-hour glucose tolerance test should return to the baseline (fasting level) after a
minimum of:
a) 30 minutes
c) 90 minutes
b) 60 minutes
d) 120 minutes
78. A colorimetric method calls for the use of 0.1 ml serum , 5 ml of reagent, and 4.9
ml of water. What is the dilution of the serum in the final solution?
a) 1 to 5
c) 1 to 50
b) 1 to 10
d) 1 to 100
79. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the dilution of a solution?
( V = volume , C = concentration )
a) V1 + C1 = V2 + C2
b) V1 + C2 = V2 + C1
c) V1 * C1 = V2 * C2
d) V1 * V2 = V1 * C2
80. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the unknown concentration
based on Beers law?
( A = absorbance , C = concentration )
a) ( A unknown ) * C standard
( A standard )
b) C standard X A unknown
c) A standard X A unknown
d) ( C standard ) X 100
( A standard )
81. Which of the following statements about ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn is
true?
1. it usually requires an exchange transfusion
2. it can occur in the first born
3. it frequently results in stillbirth
4. it is frequently seen in group O mothers
a) only 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) only 4 is correct
b) only 1 and 3 are correct
d) all are correct
82. A unit of blood that has been out of your control for ten minutes, without being
refrigerated, should be:
1. Cultured for bacterial contamination
2. Inspected for container closure
3. Stored at room temperature
4. Recorded to indicate return
a) only 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) only 4 is correct
b) only 1 and 3 are correct
d) all are correct
For questions 43 and 44 refer to the illustration below:
83. The egg depicted above is most likely to be found in
a) Stool
c) Sputum
b) Saliva
d) Urine
84. This ova belongs to the parasite:
a) Teania saginata
c) Enterobious vermicularis.
b) Teania solium
d) Hymenolepis nana
For questions 45 and 46 refer to the illustration below:
85. The organism depicted is a ( n )
a) amoeba
c) trypanosoma
b) flagellate
d) sporozoan
86.The above organism was found in the urine sample of a 24- years – old woman. This
patient is most likely suffering from:
a) giardiasis
c) ascariasis
b) amebiasis
d) trichomniasis
87. Which immunoglobulin is associated with allergic reactions?
a) IgA
c) IgG
b) IgE
d) IgM
88. A rapid indirect pregnancy latex slide test showed no agglutination and was
reported as
negative on a woman who , on physical examination , was thought to be pregnant . A
possible reason for the negative test result is:
a) urine glucose was increased
b) misinterpretation of the test
c) urine specific gravity  1.015
d) urine protein 100 mg/dl
89. In systemic lupus erythematosus, high levels of …………..antibodies are seen
a) anti- mitochondrial
c) anti- DNA
b) anti- smooth muscle
d) anti- parietal cell
90. An RNA –containing virus is:
a) HAV
c) CMV
b) HBV
d) HSV
91. A patients' blood group results done by the reverse method are shown in the
following table, his blood group is
Test cells
A1
B
Patient serum
++++
++++
a) AB
c) A
b) O
d) B
92. Which of the following blood product is the most likely to be contaminated by
bacteria
a) apheresis plateletes
c) fresh frozen plasma
b) RBCs
d) pooled platelets concentrate
93. Prior to tissue transplantation, the first laboratory test done
a) ABO compatibility
c) HLA compatibility
b)Immunoglobulins level
d) Non of above
94. The immunoglobulin IgM has the following characteristics except
a)secreted in the early stages of a primary infection
c) pentamer
b) 900,000 dalton Mwt
d) cross the placenta
95. One of the following HBV markers indicates that the patient is infectious
a) HbsAg
c) HbcAg
b)HbeAg
d) Anti Hbe
96. Streptolysin O is a bacterial toxin produced by strains of
a) Streptococcus pnemoniae
c)Streptococcus Viridans
97.
The criteria for differentiation between viral & bacterial meningitis
a) High protein level
c) Type of cells
98.
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
d) B+C
b) Low glucose level
d) All of the above
For microbiological studies the most reliable urine sample is
a) First void
b) Mid – stream
c) Last void
d) Non of the above
99. Biochemical tests for identification of bacteria are used to determine
a) enzymatic activities
c) amino acid sequences
b) nucleic acid base composition
d) staining characteristic
100. All the following crystals are found in acid urine except
a) Amorphous phosphates
c) Amorphous urates
b) Uric acid
d) Calcium oxalate
.