Do not forget to study your polyatomic ions!
Honors Chemistry Midterm 2012-13
1. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is
a. 13. b. 14. c. 27. d. 40.
2. For numbers less than 0.1, such as 0.06, the zeros to the right of the decimal point but before the first nonzero digit
a. are significant. b. show the decimal place of the first digit. c. show that the zero on the left side of the decimal is not significant. d. show
uncertainty.
3. In developing his periodic table, Mendeleev listed on cards each element’s name, atomic mass, and
a. atomic number. b. electron configuration. c. isotopes. d. properties.
4. What is the boiling point of water in kelvins?
a. 0 K b. 100 K c. 273 K d. 373 K
5. Which of the following elements is not a metal?
a. H b. K c. Na d. Fr
6. The periodic law states that
a. no two electrons with the same spin can be found in the same place in an atom. b. the physical and chemical properties of the elements are
functions of their atomic number. c. wave patterns repeat at regular intervals. d. the chemical properties of elements can be grouped
according to periodicity.
7. Which of the following elements have full outer energy levels when they are in the ground state?
a. alkali metals b. noble gases c. halogens d. transition metals
8. Which of the following elements has the greatest atomic radius?
a. Al b. S c. Si d. C
9. Which of the following elements has the greatest ionization energy?
a. Ga b. K c. Bi d. As
10. A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons from another atom in the compound is called
a. electron affinity. b. electron configuration. c. electronegativity. d. ionization potential.
11. Which electron configuration would result in the largest negative electron affinity?
a. [He]2s1 b. [He]2s22p2 c. [He]2s22p3 d. [He]2s22p5
12. Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?
a. C b. F c. Li d. O
13. Which periodic group or family of elements is not correctly matched with its common family name?
a. Group 2: alkaline-earth metals b. Group 3: alkali metals c. Group 17: halogens d. Group 18: noble gases
14. The first letter in a properly written chemical symbol is always
a. bold faced. b. capitalized. c. italicized. d. underlined.
15. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's
a. electron affinity. b. electron energy. c. electronegativity. d. ionization energy.
16. How would 0.00930 m be expressed in scientific notation?
a. 93  10–4 m b. 9.3  10–4 m c. 9.30  10–3 m d. 9.30  10–5 m
17. Which of the following elements is a transition metal?
a. cesium b. copper c. tellurium d. tin
18. The number of significant figures in the measured value 0.032 0 g is
a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.
19. Which orbitals can be modeled as dumbbell shaped?
a. s b. p c. d d. f
20. The most massive particle in an atom is the
a. proton. b. neutron. c. electron. d. None of the above
21. The molar mass of an element is numerically equal to
a. the element’s average atomic mass. b. the element’s average atomic number. c. the number of electrons possessed by an element. d. the
percentage composition of the element by mass.
22. The ancient Greek natural philosopher who first proposed the notion of the atom was
a. Aristotle. b. Socrates. c. Democritus. d. Plato.
23. The least massive particle in an atom is the
a. proton. b. neutron. c. electron. d. None of the above
24. The units of molar mass are
a. g/mol. b. mol/g. c. amu/mol. d. amu/g.
25. Hydrogen bonding is a type of __________.
a. London-dispersion forces b. ion-ion interactions c. dipole-dipole attractions d. ion-dipole attraction
26. Across a period in the periodic table, ionization energy generally
a. decreases. b. decreases, then increases. c. increases. d. remains constant.
27. Quantum numbers are sets of numbers that
a. are characteristic only of the hydrogen atom. b. consist of multiples of two. c. specify properties of electrons. d. relate the energies of
protons in the atomic nucleus.
28. How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
29. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?
a. 1.54 10 m b. 1.54 10
m c. 1.54 10 m d. 1.54 10
m
30. The number of grams equal to 0.5 kg is
a. 0.0005. b. 0.005. c. 500. d. 5000.
31. Which of the following diatomic molecules is joined by a double covalent bond?
a.
b.
c.
d.
32. VSEPR theory predicts that the shape of carbon tetrachloride, CCl 4, is
a. linear. b. bent. c. trigonal planar. d. tetrahedral.
33. What is the frequency of a photon whose energy is 3.4 10-19 J? (h = 6.626 10-34 J s)
a. 8.8 1026 Hz b. 5.1 1014 Hz c. 1.9 10-15 Hz d. 2.3 10-52 Hz
34. According to the Aufbau principle, which of the following sublevels is lowest in energy?
a. 3d b. 4s c. 4p d. 5s
35. The process of an atom releasing energy when it moves to a lower energy state is called
a. absorption. b. emission. c. translation. d. regression.
36. If a mixture is not uniform throughout, it is called
a. homogeneous. b. heterogeneous. c. chemically bonded. d. a solution.
37. What is the atomic number of the element with the noble-gas notation [Kr]5s1?
a. 35 b. 36 c. 37 d. 38
38. Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii generally
a. decrease. b. decrease, then increase. c. increase. d. increase, then decrease.
39. The principles of atomic theory recognized today were conceived by
a. Avogadro. b. Bohr. c. Dalton. d. Rutherford.
40. What is the predominant intermolecular force in CBr4 (Nonpolar)?
a. ion-dipole attraction b. ionic bonding c. dipole-dipole attraction d. London-dispersion forces
41. When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of water is ___. N 2O5 (g) + H2O (l)  HNO3 (aq)
a. 5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
42. Dipole-dipole forces are considered the most important forces in polar substances because the London dispersion forces present in polar
substances
a. are no longer present. b. are usually much weaker than the dipole-dipole forces. c. are too unpredictable. d. act only in solids.
43. How many moles of pyridine (C5H5N) are contained in 3.13 g of pyridine?
a. 0.0396 b. 0.00404 c. 25.3 d. 4.04  103
44. The SI base units for length and time are
a. centimeter and second. b. meter and hour. c. centimeter and hour. d. meter and second.
45. The SI unit of temperature is __________.
a. °F b. T c. K d. t
46. Protons within a nucleus are attracted to each other by
a. the nuclear force. b. opposite charges. c. their energy levels. d. electron repulsion.
47. The law of definite proportions
a. contradicted Dalton's atomic theory. b. agrees with Dalton's atomic theory. c. replaced the law of conservation of mass. d. assumes that
atoms of all elements are identical.
48. Each period in the periodic table corresponds to a(n) ____.
a. principal energy level b. energy sublevel c. orbital d. suborbital
49. A compound composed of cations and anions is called a(n) _______.
a. diatomic molecule b. polar compound c. covalent molecule d. ionic compound
50. In determining the atomic mass of elements, the standard is the
a. C-12 atom. b. C-14 atom. c. H-1 atom. d. O-16 atom.
51. According to the octet rule, a calcium atom has a tendency to
a. lose one electron. b. lose two electrons. c. gain one electron. d. gain two electrons.
52. Elements in Group 6A are known as the __________.
a. noble gases b. chalcogens c. halogens d. alkali metals
53. The number of atoms in a mole of any pure substance is called
a. its atomic number. b. Avogadro's constant. c. its mass number. d. its gram-atomic number.
54. The diagram
represents two electrons with
a. opposite spin states. b. the same spin state. c. different energies. d. the same energy.
55. The two most important properties of all matter are
a. the ability to carry an electric current well and to hold electric charge. b. taking up space and having mass. c. being brittle and hard.
d. being malleable and ductile.
56. What causes dipole interactions?
a. sharing of electron pairs b. attraction between polar molecules c. bonding of a covalently bonded hydrogen to an unshared electron pair
d. attraction between ions
57. Phosphorus-33 (atomic number 15) contains
a. 33 protons. b. 18 neutrons. c. 33 neutrons. d. 18 protons.
58. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
a. melting point b. boiling point c. volume d. density
59. Of the elements Pt, V, Li, and Kr, which is a nonmetal?
a. Pt b. V c. Li d. Kr
60. The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm3. What is the mass of a solid piece of aluminum with a volume of 1.50 cm3?
a. 0.556 g b. 1.80 g c. 4.05 g d. 4.20 g
61. The statement that no two electrons in the same atom can have the same four quantum numbers is a restatement of
a. Bohr’s law. b. Hund’s rule. c. the Aufbau principle. d. the Pauli exclusion principle.
62. Some ionic compounds do not dissolve in water because
a. the attractions between the water molecules and the ions are not as strong as the attractions between the ions. b. they are less dense than
water and float on the surface. c. water is a covalent compound and covalent compounds cannot dissolve ionic compounds. d. water
molecules cannot fit in the spaces between the ions in the crystal lattice.
63. As atoms bond with each other, they
a. increase their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter. b. decrease their potential energy, thus creating less-stable
arrangements of matter. c. increase their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter. d. decrease their potential
energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter.
64. All atoms of the same element have the same
a. atomic mass. b. number of neutrons. c. mass number. d. atomic number.
65. The outer-level electron configuration of a neutral alkaline-earth metal atom consists of
a. one electron in the s orbital. b. two electrons in the s orbital. c. one electron in the p orbital. d. two electrons in the p orbital.
66. Experiments with cathode rays led to the discovery of the
a. proton. b. nucleus. c. neutron. d. electron.
67. What is the frequency (s-1) of electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength of 0.53 m?
a. 1.3  10-33 b. 1.6  108 c. 1.8  10-9 d. 5.7  108
68. Whose series of experiments identified the nucleus of the atom?
a. Rutherford b. Dalton c. Chadwick d. Bohr
69. According to VSEPR theory, which molecule has a bent shape?
a. CO2 b. H2O c. CS2 d. HF
70. In which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions?
a. Na , Mg , Al b. K , Sr , O
c. Rb , Ba , P
d. N , O , F
71. __________ and __________ reside in the atomic nucleus.
a. Protons, neutrons b. none of the above c. Electrons, neutrons d. Protons, electrons
72. The product of the frequency and the wavelength of a wave equals the
a. number of waves passing a point in a second. b. speed of the wave. c. distance between wave crests. d. time for one full wave to pass.
73. The energy of a photon that has a frequency of 8.21  1015 s-1 is __________ J.
a. 5.44  10-18 b. 1.24  1049 c. 1.99  10-25 d. 8.08  10-50
74. The number of atoms in 1 mol of carbon is
a. 6.022  1022. b. 6.022  1023. c. 5.022  1022. d. 5.022  1023.
75. Which of the following covalent bonds is the most polar?
a. H—F b. H—C c. H—H d. H—N
76. The mass of a sample containing 3.5 mol of silicon atoms (atomic mass 28.0855 amu) is approximately
a. 28 g. b. 35 g. c. 72 g. d. 98 g.
77. What can be removed from an atom if ionization energy is supplied?
a. a proton b. a neutron c. an electron d. an ion
78. The arrangement of valence electrons in a metallic bond is best described as
a. fixed positions in a lattice. b. a sea of free-moving electrons. c. concentrated electron density around specific atoms. d. electron pairs
existing in multiple bonds.
79. The periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic
a. masses. b. numbers. c. radii. d. charges.
80. All of the following are examples of units except
a. mass. b. kilometer. c. gram. d. ounce.
81. Molar mass
a. is the mass in grams of one mole of a substance. b. is numerically equal to the average atomic mass of the element. c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
82. Which field of science studies the composition and structure of matter?
a. physics b. biology c. chemistry d. geology
83. The number of valence electrons in Group 1 elements is
a. 1. b. 2. c. 8. d. equal to the period number.
84. Metalloids are often
a. unreactive. b. semiconductors. c. lanthanides. d. from outer space.
85. In which orbital(s) are all the inner-shell electrons located in an atom of magnesium that is in the ground state?
a. 1s b. 1s, 2s c. 1s, 2s, 2p d. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s
86. When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of H2S is ____. FeCl3 + H2S  Fe2S3 + HCl
a. 1 b. 5 c. 2 d. 3
87. Which concept in Dalton's atomic theory has been modified?
a. All matter is composed of atoms. b. Atoms of different elements have different properties and masses. c. Atoms can combine in chemical
reactions. d. Atoms cannot be divided.
88. Who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of missing elements?
a. Henry Moseley b. Antoine Lavoisier c. John Dalton d. Dmitri Mendeleev
89. The only property listed that is not characteristic of ionic compounds is
a. high melting point. b. hardness. c. lack of crystal structure. d. brittleness.
90. The density of pure diamond is 3.5 g/cm3. What is the volume of a diamond with a mass of 0.25 g?
a. 0.071 cm3 b. 0.875 cm3 c. 3.75 cm3 d. 14 cm3
91. Which of the following statements correctly compares the relative size of an ion to its neutral atom?
a. The radius of an anion is greater than the radius of its neutral atom. b. The radius of an anion is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.
c. The radius of a cation is greater than the radius of its neutral atom. d. The radius of a cation is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.
92. The atomic mass of an element listed in the periodic table is the
a. average atomic mass. b. relative atomic mass of the most abundant isotope. c. relative atomic mass of the most abundant radioactive
isotope. d. mass number of the least abundant isotope.
93. All of the following are SI units for density except
a. kg/m3. b. kg/L. c. g/cm3. d. g/m2.
94. The central iodine atom in the ICl4- ion has ___ nonbonded electron pairs and __ bonded electron pairs in its valence shell.
a. 3, 4 b. 3, 2 c. 2, 4 d. 2, 2
95. In oxides of nitrogen, such as N2O, NO, NO2, and N2O3, atoms combine in small whole-number ratios. This evidence supports the law of
a. conservation of mass. b. multiple proportions. c. definite composition. d. mass action.
96. Which of the following properties is not explained by metallic bonding?
a. electrical conductivity b. thermal conductivity c. brittleness d. ductility
97. Noble gases are in Group 18, and are best known because they are
a. unreactive. b. excellent conductors. c. rare. d. lanthanides.
98. The electron configuration of an element is [Kr] 4d6 5s1. To what group does this element belong?
a. Group 4 b. Group 5 c. Group 7 d. Group 9
99. The ions in most ionic compounds are organized into a
a. molecule. b. Lewis structure. c. polyatomic ion. d. crystal.
100. Elements in Group 1A are known as the __________.
a. alkaline earth metals b. noble gases c. alkali metals d. halogens
101. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C?
a. 0 C b. 37 C c. 100 C d. 273 C
102. A change in the force of gravity on an object will affect its
a. mass. b. density. c. weight. d. kinetic energy.
103. The distance between corresponding points on adjacent waves is the wave’s
a. energy. b. wavelength. c. frequency. d. speed.
104. A chemical can be defined as
a. a toxic substance. b. an unnatural additive placed in food. c. any substance that has a definite composition. d. any substance that is not
alive.
105. Identify the sublevels in a period that contains 32 elements.
a. s, f b. s, p c. s, p, d d. s, p, d, f
106. In a ground-state hydrogen atom in which orbital is the electron?
a. 1s b. 2s c. 2p d. 3s
107. Which of the following equalities is correct?
a. 100 cg = 10 g b. 1000 mm = 100 m c. 1 cm = 1 mL d. 10 kg = 1 g
108. What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters?
a. 0.075 cm b. 0.75 cm c. 7.5 cm d. 70.5 cm
109. To which group does hydrogen belong?
a. Group 1 b. Group 2 c. Group 18 d. None of the above
110. Which are the sublevels in an energy level of n 3?
a. s, p, and f b. s, d, and f c. s, p, and d d. p, d, and f
111. The number of significant figures in the measurement 0.000 305 kg is
a. 2. b. 3. c. 6. d. 7.
112. As the atomic number increases, the number of electrons in a neutral atom
a. decreases. b. increases. c. remains the same. d. is undetermined.
113. Chlorine has atomic number 17 and mass number 35. It has
a. 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 18 neutrons. b. 35 protons, 35 electrons, and 17 neutrons. c. 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 52 neutrons.
d. 18 protons, 18 electrons, and 17 neutrons.
114. How many sulfur dioxide molecules are there in 1.80 mol of sulfur dioxide?
a. 1.08  1023 b. 1.80  1024 c. 6.02  1023 d. 1.08  1024
115. The electron configuration below represents a ground-state atom of which element? 1s22s22p63s23p4
a. sulfur b. oxygen c. silicon d. selenium
116. A nonmetal is usually
a. brittle. b. malleable. c. a good conductor. d. used to make jewelry.
117. The melting points of ionic compounds are higher than the melting points of molecular compounds because
a. ionic substances tend to vaporize at room temperature. b. ionic substances are brittle. c. attractive forces between ions are greater than the
attractive forces between molecules. d. the numbers of positive and negative charges are equal in an ionic compound.
118. A sample of tin (atomic mass 118.71 amu) contains 3.01  1023 atoms. The mass of the sample is
a. 3.01 g. b. 59.3 g. c. 72.6 g. d. 11 g.
119. What is the correct noble-gas notation for the electron configuration of an atom of chlorine?
a. [Ar]3s23p5 b. [Ne]3s23p4 c. [Ar]3s23p4 d. [Ne]3s23p5
120. Which of the following observations is quantitative?
a. The liquid turns blue litmus paper red. b. The liquid boils at 100C. c. The liquid tastes bitter. d. The liquid is cloudy.
121. The strong forces of attraction between the positive and negative regions of molecules are called
a. dipole-dipole forces. b. London forces. c. lattice forces. d. orbital forces.
122. What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a. cesium b. helium c. calcium d. fluorine
123. A conversion factor that shows the relationship between grams and kilograms is
a.
b. ÷ 1000 c. 1000 d.
124. 0.25 g is equivalent to
a. 250 kg. b. 250 mg. c. 0.025 mg. d. 0.025 kg.
125. Potassium is a __________ and chlorine is a __________.
a. metalloid, nonmetal b. metal, metal c. metal, nonmetal d. metal, metalloid
126. Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?
a. air b. orange juice c. raw milk d. marble
127. A prospector finds 39.39 g of pure gold (atomic mass 196.9665 amu). She has
a. 1.204  1023 atoms of Au. b. 2.308  1023 atoms of Au. c. 4.306  1023 atoms of Au. d. 6.022  1023 atoms of Au.
128. Bond energy is the energy
a. absorbed as a molecule forms. b. change as atoms get closer together. c. required to break a chemical bond and form separate, neutral
atoms. d. of two covalently bonded atoms.
129. Rutherford's experiments led him to conclude that atoms contain massive central regions that have
a. a positive charge. b. a negative charge. c. no charge. d. both protons and electrons.
130. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.)
a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g
131. Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen chloride molecule, HCl.
a. tetrahedral b. linear c. bent d. trigonal-planar
132. What happens to the energy in a substance when it changes state?
a. It is destroyed. b. It is changed into matter. c. It changes form, but is neither destroyed nor increased. d. The energy remains unchanged.
133. The speed of light is 300 000 km/s. In scientific notation, this speed is written to one significant figure as
a. 3  105 km/s. b. 3.0  105 km/s. c. 3.  106 km/s. d. 3.0  106 km/s.
134. The quantity of matter per unit volume is
a. mass. b. weight. c. inerti
a. d. density.
135. What is the total number of orbitals in the fourth main energy level?
a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 16
136. The ionization energies required to remove successive electrons from one mole of calcium atoms are 590 kJ/mol, 1145 kJ/mol, 4912 kJ/mol,
and 6474 kJ/mol. The most common ion of calcium is probably
a. Ca+. b. Ca2+. c. Ca3+. d. Ca4+.
137. How many extra electrons are in the Lewis structure of the phosphate ion, PO 43–?
a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
138. Mendeleev’s periodic table did not list all elements in order of increasing atomic mass because he grouped together elements with similar
a. properties. b. atomic numbers. c. names. d. isotopes.
139. When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of Al is __. Al + H 2O  Al(OH)3 + H2
a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 4
140. Mendeleev left spaces in his periodic table and predicted the existence of three elements and their
a. atomic numbers. b. colors. c. properties. d. radioactivity.
141. A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a. nuclide. b. neutron. c. electron. d. isotope.
142. An ionic bond results from electrical attraction between
a. cations and anions. b. atoms. c. dipoles. d. orbital.
143. In the three molecules, O2, HCl, and F2, what atom would have a partial negative charge?
a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. chlorine d. fluorine
144. One of the least electronegative elements would be found on the periodic table in
a. Group 1, Period 7. b. Group 3, Period 4. c. Group 5, Period 3. d. Group 17, Period 2.
145. How many electrons are present in an atom of calcium that has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s2?
a. 6 b. 16 c. 20 d. 36
146. Which of the following elements forms an ion with a 1– charge?
a. fluorine b. hydrogen c. potassium d. sodium
147. Down a group in the periodic table, atomic radii generally
a. decrease. b. remain constant. c. increase. d. vary unpredictably.
148. Most ionic compounds
a. are crystalline solids at room temperature. b. have low melting points. c. conduct an electric current in the solid state. d. are composed of
nonmetallic elements.
149. Because a few alpha particles bounced back from the foil, Rutherford concluded that they were
a. striking electrons. b. indivisible. c. repelled by densely packed regions of positive charge. d. magnetic.
150. The periodic table
a. permits the properties of an element to be predicted before the element is discovered. b. will be completed with element 118. c. has been
of little use to chemists since the early 1900s. d. was completed with the discovery of the noble gases.
151. The measure of an atom’s ability to attract electrons is its
a. electronegativity b. polarization. c. ionization d. electron affinity
152. The most common form of hydrogen has
a. no neutrons. b. one neutron. c. two neutrons. d. three neutrons.
153. "Absolute zero" refers to __________.
a. 0 Kelvin b. 0° Celsius c. 0° Fahrenheit d. 273.15°C
154. What element in the second period has the largest atomic radius?
a. carbon b. lithium c. potassium d. neon
155. According to the law of definite proportions, any two samples of KCl have
a. the same mass. b. slightly different molecular structures. c. the same melting point. d. the same ratio of elements.
156. An atom is
a. the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity. b. the smallest unit of a compound. c. always made of carbon. d. smaller
than an electron.
157. The radius of an atom extends to the outer edge of the
a. nucleus. b. region occupied by the electrons. c. region occupied by the neutrons. d. positive charges.
158. How many electrons does nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble-gas electron configuration?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
159. According to VSEPR theory, if there are four electron domains in the valence shell of an atom, they will be arranged in a(n) __________
geometry.
a. trigonal planar b. octahedral c. tetrahedral d. linear
160. The result of dividing 107 by 10–3 is
a. 10–4. b. 102.5. c. 104. d. 1010.
161. What is the correct notation for a sublevel within the first energy level?
a. 1s b. 1p c. 1d d. 1f
162. A measure of the quantity of matter is
a. density. b. weight. c. volume. d. mass.
163. How many minutes are in 1 week?
a. 168 min b. 1440 min c. 10 080 min d. 100 800 min
164. Alloys are commonly used in manufacturing. Which of the following is a reason to use an alloy instead of a pure metal?
a. Bronze is tougher than pure copper. b. Pure silver is stronger than sterling silver. c. Pure copper is more malleable than brass . d. Cast
iron is more brittle than pure iron.
165. The effects of hydrogen bonding will cause which compound to have the highest boiling point?
a. H2O b. PH3 c. H2S d. HCl
166. The energy released when one mole of an ionic crystalline solid is formed from ions in the gas state is known as
a. thermal energy. b. lattice energy. c. ionization energy. d. radiant energy.
167. The symbols for units of length in order from largest to smallest are
a. m, cm, mm, km. b. mm, m, cm, km. c. km, mm, cm, m. d. km, m, cm, mm.
168. For elements in groups 1, 2, and 18, the increase in atomic number for successive elements follows the pattern 8, ?, 18, 18, 32. What number
completes the pattern?
a. 8 b. 18 c. 32 d. 26
169. An element that has the electron configuration [Ne]3s23p5 is in Period
a. 2. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7.
170. What is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron configuration?
a. K
b. K c. K
d. K
171. The isotope uranium-235 has 92 protons and 143 neutrons. Therefore, its mass number is
a. 92. b. 235. c. 143. d. impossible to determine.
172. A sample of gold has a mass of 96.5 g and a volume of 5.00 cm3. The density of gold is
a. 0.0518 g/cm3. b. 19.3 g/cm3. c. 101.5 g/cm3. d. 483 g/cm3.
173. A physical change occurs when a
a. peach spoils. b. silver bowl tarnishes. c. bracelet turns your wrist green. d. glue gun melts a glue stick.
174. Which of the following is an intensive property of matter?
a. amount of energy b. density c. volume d. mass
175. Which of these is responsible for the good electrical conductivity of metals?
a. the arrangement of metal atoms in separate layers b. the high density of metals atoms in the crystal lattice c. the ability of electrons to
move freely about the crystal structure d. the fact that metal atoms contain many orbitals separated by very small energy
176. The measurement 0.035550 g rounded off to two significant figures would be
a. 0.03 g. b. 0.35 g. c. 0.036 g. d. 3.5  102 g.
177. Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is most polar?
Element:
H
C
N
O
Electronegativity:
2.1
2.5
3.0
3.5
a. N-H b. O-C c. C-H d. O-H
178. The vertical columns on the periodic table are called
a. periods. b. rows. c. groups. d. elements.
179. How does the energy required to remove an electron from an atom changer as you move left to right in Period 4 from potassium through iron?
a. It generally increases. b. It generally decreases. c. It does not change. d. It varies unpredictably.
180. The horizontal rows on the periodic table are called
a. actinides. b. families. c. elements. d. periods.
181. Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?
a. Celsius b. Fahrenheit c. Joule d. Kelvin
182. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
a. principal chemical properties. b. masses. c. numbers of protons. d. numbers of electrons.
183. The atomic number of neon is 10. The atomic number of calcium is 20. Compared with a mole of neon, a mole of calcium contains
a. twice as many atoms. b. half as many atoms. c. an equal number of atoms. d. 20 times as many atoms.
184. Because most particles fired at metal foil passed straight through, Rutherford concluded that
a. atoms were mostly empty space. b. atoms contained no charged particles. c. electrons formed the nucleus. d. atoms were indivisible.
185. When Group 2A elements form ions, they
a. lose two protons. b. gain two protons. c. lose two electrons. d. gain two electrons.
186. A state of matter in which a material has no definite shape but has a definite volume is the ____ state.
a. gas b. liquid c. plasma d. solid
187. Which of the following molecules is polar?
a. C2H2 b. H2O c. BF3 d. CO2
188. A mixture is
a. a combination of pure substances bonded chemically. b. any substance with a uniform composition. c. a blend of any two or more kinds
of matter, as long as each maintains its own unique properties. d. any group of elements that are chemically bonded to one another.
189. How many electrons can a d sublevel contain?
a. 2 b. 6 c. 10 d. 16
190. According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a compound, the mass of the compound is
____ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.
a. equal to b. greater than c. less than d. either greater than or less than
191. How many moles of atoms are in 50.15 g of mercury (atomic mass 200.59 amu)?
a. 0.1001 mol b. 0.1504 mol c. 0.2500 mol d. 0.4000 mol
192. A double bond consists of __________ pairs of electrons shared between two atoms.
a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1
193. A homogeneous mixture is also called
a. chemically bonded. b. a compound. c. a solution. d. a solute.
194. A statement that can be tested experimentally is a
a. variable. b. model. c. generalization. d. hypothesis.
195. The average atomic mass of an element is the average of the atomic masses of its
a. naturally occurring isotopes. b. two most abundant isotopes. c. radioactive isotopes. d. artificial isotopes.
196. 0.05 cm is the same as
a. 0.000 05 m. b. 0.005 mm. c. 0.05 m. d. 0.5 mm.
197. An element found in groups 3–12 of the periodic table is classified as a(n)
a. alkali metal. b. alloy. c. transition metal. d. actinide.
198. The person whose work led to a periodic table based on increasing atomic number was
a. Moseley. b. Mendeleev. c. Rutherford. d. Cannizzaro.
199. As the atomic number increases within a group of elements, the atomic radius
a. generally increases. b. remains generally constant. c. decreases regularly. d. varies unpredictably.
200. If 1 inch equals 2.54 cm, how many centimeters equal 1 yard?
a. 0.0706 cm b. 14.2 cm c. 30.5 cm d. 91.4 cm
Answer Section
1. C
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. C
27. C
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. A
32. D
33. B
34. B
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. D
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. D
45. C
46. A
47. B
48. A
49. D
50. A
51. B
52. B
53. B
54. A
55. B
56. B
57. B
58. C
59. D
60. C
61. D
62. A
63. D
64. D
65. B
66. D
67. D
68. A
69. B
70. B
71. A
72. B
73. A
74. B
75. A
76. D
77. C
78. B
79. B
80. A
81. C
82. C
83. A
84. B
85. C
86. D
87. D
88. D
89. C
90. A
91. A
92. A
93. D
94. C
95. B
96. C
97. A
98. C
99. D
100. C
101. C
102. C
103. B
104. C
105. D
106. A
107. C
108. B
109. D
110. C
111. B
112. B
113. A
114. D
115. A
116. A
117. C
118. B
119. D
120. B
121. A
122. D
123. A
124. B
125. C
126. A
127.
A
128. C
129. A
130. C
131. B
132. C
133. A
134. D
135. D
136. B
137. C
138. A
139. B
140. C
141. B
142. A
143. C
144. A
145. C
146. A
147. C
148. A
149. C
150. A
151. A
152. A
153. A
154. B
155. D
156. A
157. B
158. C
159. C
160. D
161. A
162. D
163. C
164. A
165. A
166. B
167. D
168. A
169. B
170. B
171. B
172. B
173. D
174. B
175. C
176. C
177. D
178. C
179. A
180. D
181. D
182. B
183. C
184. A
185. C
186. A
187. B
188. C
189. C
190. A
191. C
192. B
193. C
194. D
195. A
196. D
197. C
198. A
199. A
200. D