AZ SkillsUSA EXAMPLE AKT
1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Two popular home styles developed over ____ years ago are the Cape Cod and Cape Ann.
1000
600
400
200
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The portion of the property on which a building can be constructed is defined by the _____.
property lines
setback
contour lines
public utility easements
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The Cape Cod is one of the earliest and best known of the traditional ____ styles.
Southern
Colonial
Eastern
European
4.
What does the “d” stand for in 16d?
a. dimension
b. depth
c. penny
d. dime
5.
The ____ style house gets its name from the shape of coffee, tea, cracker, and salt boxes found in
colonial stores.
a. Cape Ann
b. Gambrel
c. Garrison
d. Salt Box
6.
The ____ home style is basically a long, low, one-story house that originated in the southwestern part of
the country.
a. contemporary
b. split-level
c. ranch
d. Cape Cod
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A current trend in architecture that combines traditional and contemporary influences is called ____.
post-modern
revival
modern
art deco
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is a characteristic of condominiums?
The apartment and a share of the common ground is purchased.
Taxes are paid as though it were a separate house.
Owners of units have joint interest in all the shared property and facilities.
All of the above.
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The Americans with Disabilities Act became law in ____.
1988
1990
1992
1994
10. What size is a “D” sheet of paper?
a. 24x36
b. 22x34
c.20x30
d.22x36
11.
Which of the following are not considered public accommodations by the ADA?
a. Multifamily housing buildings.
b. Private clubs.
c. Religious organizations.
d. All of the above.
12.
The reason that a ranch design is generally more expensive to build than a two-story home of the same
square footage is that ____.
a. it requires more roof area and more foundation length
b. it requires more windows and doors
c. builders do not like to build ranch homes
d. permits cost more to build a ranch home
13.
One-and-one-half-story homes generally have ____ to provide additional light and ventilation.
a. skylights
b. glass sliding doors
c. picture windows
d. dormers
14.
One disadvantage of a two-story house is that ____.
a. it is more costly to heat because of the heights
b. it has little resale value
c. general exterior maintenance is usually more difficult and costly
d. the second floor is too far from the furnace
15. On a floor plan drawing, the front of a building normally faces the _____.
a. top
b. bottom
c. left
d. right
16.
In the ____ split-level home design, the house looks like a ranch in the front and a two-story structure
from the back.
a. back-to-front
b. front-to-back
c. side-by-side
d. reversed split-level
17.
An analysis should be made of ____ to determine if the house plan is as functional as it could be.
a. walking paths
b. air circulation
c. traffic movement
d. traffic circulation
18. What is the typical spacing for trusses?
a. 22”
b. 34”
c. 16”
d. 24”
19.
Which of the following basic house designs is suitable for older or handicapped persons?
a. One-story ranch design.
b. One-and-one-half-story design.
c. Two-story design.
d. Split-level design.
20.
Outside maintenance is generally easy on a one-story ranch design because ____.
a. of small outside wall area
b. of low-pitched roof and low height
c. it is built on a sloping lot
d. All of the above.
21.
Dormers are usually added to the ____ design to achieve more livable space.
a. one-story ranch design
b. one-and-one-half-story design
c. two-story design
d. split-level design
22. What is located in a water closet?
a. sink
b. bathtub
c. hose
d. toilet
23.
Which of the following is an advantage of the one-and-one-half-story design?
a. Attic may be expanded to achieve more livable space.
b. Dormers may be added for light and ventilation.
c. Heating costs are minimized.
d. All of the above.
24.Exterior studding runs the height of two full floors in ______ framing.
a. balloon
b. western
c. platform
d. plank
e. eastern
25.
Which of the following best describes a two-story design?
a. Little hall space is needed and the sleeping, living, and service areas are on
different levels.
b. About one-third of the ceiling is directly under the roof, so adequate ventilation
and insulation should be provided.
c. It is economical to build, requires a smaller lot, and has a small roof and
foundation area compared to interior space of most other designs.
d. It is built on one level. Thus, patios, porches, and terraces are possible outside any
room.
26.
Which of the following are advantages of the two-story design?
a. Heating is relatively simple and economical because heat naturally rises from
the first to the second floor.
b. This style is popular today because many variations on the basic design are
possible.
c. Exterior maintenance is simple and requires no special equipment.
d. The design easily meets the needs of a retired couple or newly married couple.
27. Which of the following regulates the design, construction, materials, structure, type and fire ratings of a
building?
a. building codes
b. zoning codes
c. general conditions
d. specifications
28.
This house design lends itself to easy cooling since the ceiling is not directly under the roof. Several
windows provide effective ventilation.
a. One-story ranch design.
b. One-and-one-half-story design.
c. Two-story design.
d. Split-level design.
29.
Which of the following house designs takes advantage of a sloping or hilly lot?
a. One-story ranch design.
b. One-and-one-half-story design.
c. Two-story design.
d. Split-level design.
30. What is the term for a large tank buried in the ground in which solid waste is processed by bacteria?
a. Sewer tank
b. Septic tank
c. Sewer lateral
d. septic capsule
31.
The family room, garage, and shop are commonly found on the ____ level in a split-level design.
a. basement
b. intermediate
c. living
d. sleeping
32.
Which of the following is a feature of the split-level design?
a. Easily accommodates patios and terraces on more than one level of the house.
b. The design makes efficient use of space.
c. May be built with either a basement or crawl space.
d. All of the above.
33.
The ____ area is where the family relaxes, entertains guests, dines, and meets together.
a. sleeping
b. entertaining
c. living
d. service
34. When building a non-habitable shed what is the maximum sq footage before you need a permit?
a. 100 sq ft
b. You always need a permit
c. 120 sq ft
d. 150 sq ft
35.
The Federal Housing Administration recommends ____ square feet as the minimum size for a bedroom.
a. 100
b. 150
c. 200
d. 250
36.
It is necessary for each bedroom to have a ____.
a. bathroom
b. closet
c. double window
d. ceiling fan
37. What is the typical stud spacing for a 2X4 interior load bearing wall?
a. 12”
b. 14”
c. 24”
d. 16”
38.
The minimum recommended depth of a clothes closet is ____.
a. 12"
b. 18"
c. 24"
d. 30"
39.
The usual height of an interior door is ____.
a. 6'-0"
b. 6'-2"
c. 6'-4"
d. 6'-8"
40. The crossed lines on a shower symbol represent a _____.
a. shut off valve
b. shower head
c. water valve
d. drain
41.
Most water closets require a space at least ____ wide for installation.
a. 24"
b. 30"
c. 36"
d. 40"
42. Western framing is also called _____ framing.
a. platform
b. balloon
c. plank and beam
d. truss
e. California
43.
Standard bathroom vanity sizes are 21" deep by ____ high.
a. 30"
b. 32"
c. 34"
d. 36"
44. In roof design, the rise and run determine the roof_____.
a. slope
b. pitch
c. dimension
d. measurement
45.
A ____ receptacle should be used in the bathroom.
a. shielded
b. grounded
c. waterproof
d. ground fault circuit interrupter
46.
Approximately ____ of the house is devoted to the sleeping area, which includes bedrooms, baths,
dressing rooms, and nurseries.
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1/3
d. ¾
47. What plan shows the location of all structures on a property?
a. floor plan
b. plot plan
c. landscape plan
d. elevation plan
48.
The ____ normally determines the number of bedrooms a house will have.
a. size of the family
b. size of the neighborhood
c. number of guests
d. None of the above.
49.
Generally, ____ homes have the most sales potential.
a. one-bedroom
b. two-bedroom
c. three-bedroom
d. four-bedroom
50. What type of drywall is required on ceilings?
a. 1/2” sag resistant
b. 1/2” water resistant
c. 5/8”
d. A or C
51.
In a split bedroom plan, the ____ is separated from the remaining bedrooms for additional privacy.
a. smallest bedroom
b. nursery
c. guest bedroom
d. master bedroom
52.
The largest bedroom is usually the ____.
a. nursery
b. children's bedroom
c. master bedroom
d. guest bedroom
53.
The most desirable location for a closet is ____.
a. on an outside wall
b. in the hall near the bedroom
c. near the bedroom entrance
d. None of the above.
54. What diameter is #4 rebar?
a. 1/4”
b. 1/8”
c. 3/4"
d. 1/2"
55.
Closet doors may be ____.
a. sliding
b. bi-fold
c. flush
d. All of the above.
56.
An ideal bedroom will have windows ____.
a. on two walls
b. on one wall
c. low on the wall
d. evenly spaced on the walls
57.
Bedroom doors should be ____ wide to accommodate a wheelchair.
a. 2'-6"
b. 2'-8"
c. 2'-10"
d. 3'-0"
58. What is the typical stud spacing for a 2X4 interior non load bearing wall?
a. 12”
b. 14”
c. 24”
d. 16”
59.
The best location for a bedroom door is ____.
a. on a long wall
b. near a corner
c. in the center of a wall
d. on an exterior wall
60.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
A space of ____ feet should be provided on at least one side of the bed for transfer from a wheelchair.
61. What diameter is a #8 rebar?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1/4"
8/8”
3/4”
1/2"
62.
A clearance space of ____ is required under the bed for the footrests of a wheelchair.
a. 5" to 7"
b. 7" to 9"
c. 10" to 13"
d. 13" to 15"
63.
To accommodate a wheelchair, doorways should be at least ____ wide.
a. 2'-6"
b. 2'-8"
c. 2'-10"
d. 3'-0"
64.The following features would be shown on a plot plan except for ______.
a. setbacks
b. north arrow
c. floor plan
d. building footprint
65.
The recommended seat height for a handicapped-accessible water closet is ____ high.
a. 20"
b. 21"
c. 22"
d. 23"
66.
The ____ entry should be centrally located to provide easy access to various parts of the house.
a. service
b. special purpose
c. main
d. side
67. What is the actual size of a 2X4?
a. 2X4
b. 1 1/2 X 3 1/2
c. 1 1/4 X 3 1/4
d. None of the above
68.
A major consideration in the design of an entryway is ____.
a. the appearance of neighboring homes
b. protection from the weather
c. visibility of the play area
d. wind direction
69.
Which of the following are examples of special-purpose rooms?
a. Atrium, greenhouse, sunroom.
b. Darkroom, family recreation room, greenhouse.
c. Shop, darkroom, living room.
d. Kitchen, atrium, sunroom.
70. Brick on a wood frame structure is called _____.
a. Brick Construction
b. Stucco Construction
c. Brick Veneer
d. Eastern Construction
71.
A small dining room requires approximately ____ square feet to seat four people.
a. 100
b. 120
c. 150
d. 175
72.
A medium-size dining room should seat ____ people.
a. 6 to 8
b. 8 to 10
c. 10 to 12
d. 12 to 14
73.
An ideal dining room location would be between the ____ and the kitchen.
a. foyer
b. master bedroom
c. living room
d. utility room
74. Per the 2006 IRC what is the minimum dimension of a bedroom?
a. 7 ft
b. 8 ft
c. 9 ft
d. 10 ft
75.
A house may have a ____ entry.
a. main
b. service
c. special-purpose
d. All of the above.
76. Sewer gases are permitted to escape through the roof in a/an _____ scale.
a. shut off valves
b. traps
c. vents
d. soils pipes
77.
A ____ entry should be impressive because it is the first part of the house that guests see.
a. special-purpose
b. main
c. service
d. side
78. Waste water is disposed of by the force of______.
a. gravity
b. vents
c. shut off valves
d. pressure jets
79.
Glass side panels in the entry may provide ____.
a. visibility
b. natural light
c. design
d. All of the above.
80. A scale with fractions of an inch equal to a foot in a/an ______ scale.
a. mechanical
b. decimal
c. engineers
d. architectural
81.
Courts may be used to ____.
a. direct traffic to various areas of the house
b. divide the house into separate areas
c. provide natural light to an interior part of the house that has no exterior wall
space
d. All of the above.
82.
For practical kitchen design, the length of the work triangle should not exceed ____ feet.
a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 30
83. What does CL stand for?
a. clothes line
b. curb line
c. center line
d. clear line
84.
The L-shaped kitchen is located along two ____ walls.
a. opposite
b. outside
c. interior
d. adjacent
85.
The most popular kitchen design is the ____ kitchen.
a. L-shaped
b. corridor
c. straight line
d. U-shaped
86. Insulation put between studs in a wood frame wall is most commonly _____.
a. batt insulation
b. rigid insulation
c. cellulose insulation
d. foam insulation
87.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
At least ____ feet of clearance should be provided on all sides of the island in an island kitchen.
88.
The preferred material for the floor of a clothes care center is ____.
a. ceramic tile
b. carpet
c. hardwood flooring
d. asbestos floor tile
89.
The floor of a garage or carport should be constructed of thick concrete reinforced with ____ or wire
mesh.
a. aluminum
b. steel
c. iron
d. plastic
90. What is the typical stud spacing for a 2X6 exterior wall?
a. 12”
b. 14”
c. 24”
d. 16”
91.
The standard kitchen base cabinet is ____.
a. 36" high, 24" deep, in width increments of 2" multiples
b. 30" high, 25" deep, in width increments of 4" multiples
c. 36" high, 23" deep, in width increments of 3" multiples
d. 34-1/2" high, 24" deep, in width increments of 3" multiples
92.
Proper kitchen ventilation generally requires ____.
a. a small wall fan
b. a hood with a fan
c. exhausting fumes into the attic
d. All of the above.
93. What is the minimum clearance required from the center line of the toilet to the tub?
a. 20”
b. 18”
c. 30”
d. 15”
94.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The space designed for a two-car garage should range in size from ____.
95.
Storage for outdoor recreation equipment and gardening tools is generally provided in the ____.
a. garage
b. attic
c. family recreation room
d. kitchen
96.
Standard garage doors are available in ____.
a. wood and fiberglass
b. plastics
c. aluminum and steel
d. All of the above.
97. What is the minimum R- value of batt insulation in a 2X4 wall?
a. R-11
b. R-13
c. R-19
d. R-30
98.
A two-car garage door is generally ____.
a. 16 feet wide and 7 feet high
b. 12 feet wide and 7 feet high
c. 8 feet wide and 7 feet high
d. 14 feet wide and 8 feet high
99.
Property lines are measured with a(n) ____ scale to the nearest 1/100 foot.
a. architect's
b. combination
c. engineer's
d. metric
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The proper format for describing the bearing of a property line is ____.
101. A standard slab on a grade slab is most commonly how thick?
a. 3’ 5”
b. 6”
c. 8”
d. 4”
102. Contour lines help describe the ____ of a site by depicting shape and elevation of the land.
a. view
b. entourage
c. value
d. topography
103. When color is used on a topographical drawing, black is used to represent ____.
a. all land forms
b. human-built works
c. streams, lakes, marshlands, and ponds
d. vegetation
104. A typical scale used for plot plans is ____.
a. 1" = 1'-0"
b. 1/4" = 1'-0"
c. 1" = 30'-0"
d. 10' = 1'-0"
105. What is a typical depth of OSB used on a sloped roof?
a. 3/8”
b. 1/4”
c. 5/8”
d. 1/2”
106. The plot plan provides the necessary dimensions required for ____.
a. locating all windows and doors on the plan
b. building the house foundation
c. securing a building permit
d. staking out the location of the house on the site
107. R-value of insulation pertains to the _____.
a. thickness of the material
b. compressive strength
c. resistance to heat flow
d. resistance to vapor
108. The exact location of a proposed house foundation is maintained through the use of ____.
a. angle boards
b. batter boards
c. construction boards
d. building boards
109. Excavation for residential footings should extend down a minimum of ____ inches into undisturbed
earth.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 12
110. Per the 2006 IRC what is the minimum clearance in front of toilet?
a. 24”
b. 36”
c. 21”
d. 18”
111. A ____ spreads the weight of a building over a broad area.
a. floating slab
b. footing
c. site foundation
d. reinforcing rod
112. The footing for a residential structure is generally ____ inches wide when the foundation wall is 8
inches thick.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 14
d. 16
113. What types of drawings reveal the internal construction of an object?
a. foundation
b. floor
c. sectional
d. interior elevation
114. Reinforcing bars are required in footings ____.
a. for all residential structures
b. when the house is built in the 100-year flood plain
c. when uneven settlement of the structure is anticipated
d. to prevent frost heave
115. Stepped footings are frequently necessary when ____.
a. the house has more than one floor level
b. building on hilly terrain
c. brick veneer is used
d. two different materials are used
116. Foundation walls are normally the part of the house that extends from the ____.
a. first floor to the footing
b. first floor to the soffit
c. frost line to the grade
d. footing to the eaves line
117. What is the minimum R-value of batt insulation is a 2x6 wall?
a. R-11
b. R-13
c. R-19
d. R-30
118. Nails and other fasteners used in an all-weather wood foundation should be made from ____.
a. aluminum, silicon bronze, or copper
b. brass, copper, or aluminum
c. silicon bronze, copper, or hot-dipped zinc-coated steel
d. copper, brass, or hot-dipped zinc-coated steel
119. what does O.C. stand for?
a. outside center
b. on center
c. off center
d. all of the above
120. In an all-weather wood foundation, all lumber and plywood that comes in contact with the ground
should be pressure treated with ____.
a. tar or other decay-resistant material
b. waterborne preservative salts
c. special caulking compounds
d. kerosene
121. Concrete and masonry basement wall thickness depends on lateral earth pressure and ____.
a. vertical load to be supported
b. wishes of the builder
c. weight of the foundation material
d. None of the above.
122. Electrical outlets in a bathroom or kitchen must be ____.
a. located next to the sink, tub or shower
b. water resistant
c. 30” above finish floor
d. Ground Fault
123. Posts used in post foundations are commonly made of ____.
a. masonry
b. steel
c. pressure-treated wood
d. All of the above.
124. The all-weather wood foundation is particularly suitable in ____.
a. a garage where the distance is too great to span with floor joists
b. areas where the water table is high
c. climates where traditional concrete foundation work stops in freezing or rainy
weather.
d. None of the above.
125. The trench excavated for a structure with a crawl space should be ____ deep.
a. less than 10"
b. at least 12"
c. 9"
d. 6"
126. Per the 2006 IRC what is the minimum sq footage of a bedroom?
a. 70 sq ft
b. 80 sq ft
c. 90 sq ft
d. 100 sq ft
127. When using an all-weather wood foundation for a basement ____.
a. the site is excavated 12" deeper than the regular depth
b. a basement sump is installed in poorly drained soils
c. no foundation drainage is necessary
d. All of the above.
128. The floor joists or trusses of an all-weather wood foundation are placed on the ____.
a. double top plate of the foundation wall
b. inside of the foundation wall
c. basement floor slab
d. None of the above.
129. Backfilling for an all-weather wood foundation should be started ____.
a. before the floor joists or trusses are installed
b. before the polyethylene film is applied
c. after the basement floor has cured and the first floor is installed
d. All of the above.
130. Which of these tasks falls into the category of rough carpentry?
a.Applying exterior siding
b.Building and installing cabinets
c.Applying exterior trim
d.Framing a house
131. The factor that determines the stability and strength of masonry or concrete basement walls is ____.
a. support from crosswalls
b. the size of the floor joists
c. the live load of the structure
d. All of the above.
132. Basement load-bearing crosswalls should be attached to exterior walls by ____.
a. metal tiebars
b. a masonry bond
c. anchor bolts
d. All of the above.
133.The person who is licensed to design buildings and oversee their construction is the _________.
a.General contractor
b.Master carpenter
c.Supervisor
d.Architect
134. If the wood sill bears on the outer and inner face cores of the block, ____.
a. cap the top course of block using 4" solid block
b. capping may be omitted
c. cores in the top course are filled with concrete or mortar
d. the top course may be capped with reinforced concrete masonry bond beam
135. Concrete block basement walls should be damp-proofed to prevent groundwater from seeping through
the wall. This is done by ____.
a. painting the outside of the blocks with oil-base paints
b. applying a 1/4" coat of fire clay
c. applying two 1/4"-thick coats of cement-mortar or plaster and then a coat of
bituminous waterproofing
d. All of the above.
136. To eliminate water damage to basements in wet or poorly drained soils, ____.
a. install a check valve in the floor drain to keep water from flowing in through the
drain
b. reinforce the floor slab to resist uplift from groundwater pressure
c. install a sump pump to remove any water that seeps in
d. All of the above.
137. The term quarter-sawed means ________.
a. Only one-forth of the tree is used
b.The lumber is classified as softwood
c. The lumber is cut with the growth rings at an angle of greater than 45 degree
d.The log is cut into four equal lengths before it is cut into lumber
138. A float is used in finishing concrete to ____.
a. put the final finish on the surface
b. work fine aggregate to the bottom of the form
c. condense mortar to a surface ready for final steel troweling
d. All of the above.
139. When ordering concrete, allow ____ cubic feet to the yard.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
140. Concrete slabs are normally placed on a base of compacted sand ____ inches thick.
a. 4 to 6
b. 5 to 7
c. 6 to 8
d. 9 to 10
141. The foundation plan is a plan view drawing in section that shows the location and size of ____.
a. footings, piers, columns, foundation walls, and supporting beams
b. supporting beams, footings, piers, first floor walls, and columns
c. all parts of the structure above the grade
d. All of the above.
142. Light framing lumber is classified as _______ lumber.
a. Dimension
b. Common
c. Rough
d. Shiplapped
143. The foundation plan is drawn from information presented on the ____.
a. floor plan
b. plot plan
c. elevations
d. All of the above.
144. When groundwater is present, a ____ is generally required to prevent water in the basement.
a. dry well
b. tight basement wall
c. thicker footing
d. sump
145.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
The brick ledge is generally ____ inch(es) wide.
146. Which grade of hardboard can be used in exterior applications?
a. Standard
b. Particleboard
c. Tempered
d. Pegboard
147. A brick veneer structure is dimensioned to the ____.
a. outside of the brick veneer
b. inside of the brick veneer
c. outside of the rough stud wall
d. inside of the rough stud wall
148. Floor trusses are generally spaced ____ inches OC.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 16
d. 30
149. One reason that a house may be constructed with a basement is that ____.
a. basements do not add cost to the price of a house
b. basements are popular in areas where space is limited and sites are small
c. some codes require each house to have a basement
d. heat loss is reduced
15
150. Which of these lumber defects can be caused by improper handling and
storage at the job?
a. Knot holes
b. Knife marks
c. Warping
d. Chipped grain
151. The basement plan is ____.
a. a combination foundation plan and floor plan
b. no different than a foundation plan
c. easier to draw than a foundation plan
d. required for all houses
152. Ms. Smith and Mr. Jones are each building a house from the same floor plan. Ms. Smith is using a stud
wall with siding and Mr. Jones is using brick veneer. Which of the following statements applies to Ms. Smith
and Mr. Jones?
a. Mr. Jones's foundation plan will be 8" longer and wider than Ms. Smith's
because a brick veneer house needs a 4" ledge on all four sides.
b. The size of the foundations will be exactly the same.
c. Ms. Smith's foundation plan will be 4" longer and wider than Mr. Jones's because a
stud wall requires a 4" ledge on the length and width.
d. None of the above statements apply.
153. One advantage of platform framing is ____.
a. a firestop is automatically provided
b. construction is safe because the work is performed on solid surfaces
c. easy and fast to construct
d. All of the above.
154. The ______ is a type of masonry anchor that is set into the concrete while the concrete is still wet.
a. Concrete screw
b. Double expansion anchor
c. Snap-off anchor
d. Anchor bolt
155.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The sill plate in most residential construction is ____.
156. Platform framing utilizes a method of sill construction know as ____ construction.
a. solid sill
b. T-sill
c. box sill
d. None of the above.
157. A 20-penny nail is approximately _____ long.
a. 10”
b. 8”
c.4”
d. 6”
158. T-sill construction is used with ____ framing.
a. platform
b. barn
c. Eastern
d. balloon
159. The ______ is a type of masonry anchor that is set into the concrete while the concrete is still wet.
a. Concrete screw
b. Double expansion anchor
c. Snap-off anchor
d. Anchor bolt
160.
a. 1b. 1c. 1d.
-5/8"
-1/2"
-1/4"
161. Common screwdrivers and ______ are widely used by carpenters.
a.Clutch-head
b. Torx-head
c. Phillips-head
d. Square-head
162. With a normal live load, the maximum allowable deflection for floor joists is ____ of the span.
a. 1/360th
b. 1/280th
c. 1/100th
d. 1/10th
163. Wood floor trusses have a built-in ____ so that the floor will be level when the load is applied.
a. bow
b. twist
c. camber
d. wind
164. Which of the following is not a general safety rule pertaining to power tools?
a. Do not distract anyone or let anyone distract you while using a power tool
b. Do not leave a power tool running while unattended
c. Be sure to connect a power tool before performing maintenance or changing accessories
d. Assume a safe and comfortable position before using a power tool.
165. Wood floor trusses are usually spaced ____ inches OC.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 24
d. 36
166. A rule of thumb to follow in determining the required length of cantilevered joists is to extend the joists
inside at least ____ the distance that they overhang outside.
a. the same length as
b. twice
c. three times
d. four times
167. A portable circular saw has ________.
a. A fixed (non-adjustable) baseplate
b. Retractable lower and upper blade guards
c. A retractable upper blade guard
d. A retractable lower blade guard
168. Most of the weight of a post and beam building is carried by the ____.
a. posts
b. beams
c. sills
d. curtain walls
169. Decking planks for the roof and floor of a post and beam structure range in thickness from ____ inches.
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 8
170. You should always use ______ when using a table saw to rip boards less than 4“ wide.
a.Hold-downs
b.A push stick
c. A miter gauge
d. An auxiliary fence
171. Actual dimensions of sills used in residential construction are ____ inches.
a. 1-1/2
b.
c. 2-1/2
d.
172. Which of the following statements is true of solid sill construction?
a. Studs are nailed to the sill plate and the header.
b. Headers are not required.
c. A firestop is unnecessary.
d. All of the above.
173. Which size saw blade would you be most likely to find on a radical arm saw?
a. 7-1/4”
b. 16”
c. 10”
d. 5”
174. An advantage of gluing and nailing subfloor panels is ____.
a. labor costs are eliminated
b. the panels become stronger
c. a squeak-free structure results
d. All of the above.
175.
percent.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
176. A circular saw blade designed for cutting plywood should have _______ teeth.
a. Large, scissor-like
b. Large, widely spaced
c.Small, scissor-like
d. Small, widely spaced
177. The concrete base for tile or stone supported by wood floor joists should ____.
a. be reinforced with wire mesh
b. have a layer of building felt under the concrete
c. use a special type of concrete
d. All of the above.
178. In post and beam construction, the size of the footings is determined by the ____.
a. width of the building
b. soil bearing capacity
c. type of curtain wall used
d. All of the above.
179. When looking for the quality of materials and methods of construction for a floor assembly, you would
refer to the _________.
a. Specifications
b. Foundation plan
c. Floor plan
d. Structural drawings
180. Wall framing lumber is generally Douglas fir, hemlock, spruce, larch, or ____.
a. oak
b. beech
c. southern yellow pine
d. hickory
181. The distance from the top of the subfloor to the bottom of the ceiling joists is usually ____.
a. 7'-6"
b. 8'-0"
c. 8'-1 1/2"
d. 8'-6"
182. To fasten headers to joists, you would use _______ box nails.
a. 6d
b. 8d
c. 10d
d. 16d
183. The rough opening height of most doors in frame wall construction is ____.
a. 6'-6"
b. 6'-8"
c. 6'-10"
d. 7'-0"
184. A(n) ____ must be provided in the ceiling to allow entry to the attic.
a. stairway
b. access hole
c. door
d. None of the above.
185. The framing member that touches the trimmer stud and the header is known as the _________.
a. Cripple stud
b. King stud
c. Sill
d. Regular
186. Solid masonry walls for residential construction are usually ____ inches thick.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
187. The term ____ is commonly used to indicate that a less desirable or inexpensive material has been
covered with some type of facing material.
a. veneer
b. covering
c. siding
d. facing
188. The width of the header for a window or door rough opening is usually equal to the width of the ________.
a. Rough opening less the width of the trimmer studs
b. Rough opening plus the width of the trimmer studs and king studs
c. Rough opening plus the width of the trimmer studs
d. Door or window
189. Which of the following species are generally used in wall framing lumber?
a. Southern yellow pine.
b. Redwood.
c. Oak.
d. All of the above.
190. The total width of a rough opening includes the window or door plus the _______.
a. Thickness of the jamb material plus the shim clearance
b. Combined thickness of the trimmer and king studs
c. Combined thickness of the trimmer and king studs plus the shim thickness
d. Thickness of trimmer studs plus the shim thickness
191. Exterior wall corners must provide ____.
a. space for the wall to be built in small sections
b. adequate wind bracing
c. sufficient support for the building
d. All of the above.
192. A nailing base for interior wall materials may be provided by ____.
a.
b. placing 1/2" plywood sheathing next to the studs
c. applying rigid foam insulation to the wall section
d. All of the above.
193. The total width of a rough opening includes the window or door plus the _______.
a.Thickness of the jamb material plus the shim clearance
b.Combined thickness of the trimmer and king studs
c. Combined thickness of the trimmer and king studs plus the shim thickness
d.Thickness of trimmer studs plus the shim thickness
194. Header size refers to the ____.
a. overall size of the header
b. size of the material used
c. size of the rough opening plus the size of the spacer
d. None of the above.
195. Trussed headers are more functional for ____.
a. frame walls without corner bracing
b. areas subject to high winds
c. openings wider than 8’-0”
d. All of the above.
196. The purpose of venting in a roof is to ______.
a.Allow heat and moisture to escape the building
b.Allow cold air to enter the building
c. Add moisture to the warm air rising from the floor below
d.Allow cold air to escape the building to make room for warm air
197. Special framing is needed for ____.
a. extra bathtub support
b. wall openings for heating ducts
c. wall backing for a water closet
d. All of the above.
198. Which of the following statements is true of masonry veneer?
a. Moisture does not collect between the veneer and the frame wall.
b. The veneer does not support the weight of the wall.
c. The most common thickness used is 1 inch.
d. None of the above.
199. What is the lowest term of the fraction 4/32?
a. 2/8
b.2/16
c. 1/8
d.1/16
200. A building material that has sharp corners and lines and is very uniform in size is ____.
a. face brick
b. common brick
c. cobweb stone
d. random rubble
201. Doors that are smooth on both sides and usually made of wood are called ____ doors.
a. French
b. panel
c. flush
d. accordion
202. Poor housekeeping, excessive noise and inadequate guards are ________.
a. Unsafe acts
b.Acceptable risks
c. Justified conditions
d. Unsafe conditions
203. A ____ door is composed of two parts.
a. bi-fold
b. Dutch
c. Both A and B.
d. None of the above.
204. A ____ door is used when a wide opening exists in an exterior wall.
a. sliding
b. pocket
c. Dutch
d. double-action
205. The lanyard on a safety harness must be short enough to prevent you from falling more than ______ feet.
a. 8
b.6
b.7
c. 9
206. ____ doors are hinged in such a way that they may swing through an arc of 180 degrees.
a. Accordion
b. French
c. Double-action
d. Bypass
207. Work that takes place near a hazard nut not in direct contact with it is called _____ work.
a. Extra caution
b.Near contact
c. Hazardous
d.Proximity
208. A ____ door has an upper and lower half.
a. French
b. Dutch
c. double-action
d. bi-fold
209. ____ doors are panel doors with glass panels.
a. French
b. Dutch
c. Flemish
d. Accordion
210. Exterior doors are generally ____ wide.
a. 2'-6"
b. 2'-10"
c. 3'-0"
d. 3'-6"
211. Which of the following is not a standard garage door size?
a. 6'-0" w
b. 8'-0" w
c. 7'-0" w
d. 8'-0" w
212. Horizontal sliding windows are also called ____.
a. casements
b. walk-throughs
c. picture windows
d. glider windows
213. A(n) ____ window may be opened or closed by using a crank or push-bar on the frame or handle on the
sash.
a. double-hung
b. horizontal sliding
c. casement
d. hopper
214. A type of interior door is ____.
a. sliding
b. double-action
c. pocket
d. All of the above.
215. Metal bi-fold doors are usually ____ inch(es) thick and commonly used as closet doors.
a. 1
b. 1-1/8
c. 1-1/4
d. 1-1/2
216. Sliding or bypass doors are ____.
a. frequently used for large openings
b. not subject to warping
c. limited to two doors for each opening
d. All of the above.
217. Accordion doors ____.
a. require little space
b. are produced in a large variety of designs
c. may use individual hinged panels
d. All of the above.
218. Exterior glass doors ____.
a. are declining in use
b. are frequently used between kitchens and dining rooms
c. usually have wood or aluminum frames
d. None of the above.
219. Door jambs used in residential construction are ____.
a. usually made of bronze
b. composed of two side jambs and a head jamb across the top
c. 1-3/4" thick for exterior doors and 1" thick for interior doors
d. All of the above.
220. Which of these rules should be followed when planning the windows for a dwelling?
a. To gain the maximum amount of light possible, place primary windows on the
west.
b. Four small windows will yield less contrast than one large window.
c. Glass area that is 20 percent of the floor area should provide adequate natural
light.
d. The best distribution of light is achieved by placing the windows on one wall as
opposed to two walls.
221. To provide ample ventilation in a home, ____.
a. the openings should be at least 10 percent of the floor area
b. windows should be placed to receive prevailing breezes
c. plan the location of windows for the best movement of air across a room
d. All of the above.
222. The same type of window from different manufacturers may have ____.
a. different specifications from each manufacturer
b. uniform specifications from manufacturer to manufacturer
c. specifications that are not important to the designer or contractor
d. None of the above.
223. The rough framed space in the wall needed to install the window is the ____.
a. glass size
b. basic unit
c. rough opening
d. sash opening
224. Which of the following lines should be used to show the hinge positions on a hinged window?
a. Dashed line.
b. Object line.
c. Short break line.
d. Section line.
225. Which of the following statements best describes hopper windows?
a. Hopper windows rarely interfere with room arrangement.
b. Hopper windows are more efficient when placed low on the wall because they
direct air upward.
c. Hopper windows are available in a wide range of sizes.
d. Hopper windows are difficult to operate and maintain.
226. Picture windows may ____.
a. open to provide ventilation
b. require custom-made screens
c. be large, fixed-glass units used with other window types
d. None of the above.
227. Which of the window styles listed would most likely be found in a traditional style home?
a. Casement.
b. Horizontal sliding.
c. Jalousie.
d. Bay.
228. The side units in a bay window are normally placed at ____ degrees to the exterior wall.
a. 90
b. 60
c. 45
d. None of the above.
229. Bow window units normally use ____ casement units to form the arc.
a. 3 to 6
b. 4 to 7
c. 5 to 8
d. All of the above.
230. Which of the following is a characteristic of clerestory windows?
a. They can produce striking architectural effects.
b. They are often installed in the roof of a dwelling.
c. They are typically tall windows.
d. None of the above.
231. The ____ stairs are usually made of hardwoods such as oak, maple, or birch.
a. service
b. main
c. side
d. open stringer
232. The type of stairs with one landing at some point along the flight of steps is ____.
a. straight run stairs
b. winder stairs
c. L stairs
d. spiral stairs
233. Most spiral stairs are made from ____.
a. steel
b. wood
c. stone
d. aluminum
234. A well-designed set of main stairs should have a slope of between ____ degrees.
a. 15-20
b. 20-30
c. 30-35
d. 35-40
235. The main supporting members of the stairs are the ____.
a. handrails
b. stringers
c. steps
d. balusters
236.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Plain stringers are generally cut from ____ straight-grain fir.
237. Which of the following house styles most likely use stairs?
a. Garrison.
b. Salt box.
c. Southern colonial.
d. All of the above.
238. The type of stairs used most in residential construction is ____ stairs.
a. L
b. straight run
c. spiral
d. winder
239. Circular stairs have ____-shaped steps.
a. triangular
b. pie
c. trapezoid
d. winder
240. Enclosed stairs are also known as ____ stairs.
a. closed
b. housed
c. box
d. All of the above.
241. Plain stringers are constructed for ____ stairs.
a. uncarpeted main
b. service
c. circular
d. All of the above.
242. Housed stringers are ____.
a. constructed from finished lumber
b. usually purchased precut or preassembled
c.
d. All of the above.
243. The actual size of an oak tread used in housed stringer construction is ____ thick.
a. 3/4"
b. 1"
c. 1-1/16"
d. 1-1/4"
244. All stairs should have at least one handrail. The recommended handrail height is ____.
a. 30" along the incline and 34" at the landing
b. 32" along the incline and 36" at the landing
c. 34" along the incline and 38" at the landing
d. None of the above.
245. Minimum stairway headroom is ____.
a. 6'-0"
b. 6'-6"
c. 7'-0"
d. 7'-5"
246. The floor plan is actually a(n) ____ drawing.
a. elevation
b. pictorial
c. typical top view
d. section
247.
is exactly ____ inches thick.
a. 3-7/8
b. 6
c. 5-3/8
d. 5-7/8
248. Some symbols are simplified while others are ____.
a. detailed
b. abbreviated
c. described
d. None of the above.
249. A good policy to follow when locating dimensions on a floor plan is to ____.
a. group them all together in one corner
b. leave out everything that may be obvious
c. locate dimensions where one would logically look for them
d. follow your hunches
250. Dimensions should be at least ____ inch(es) from the floor plan.
a. 1/2
b. 3/4
c. 1
d. 2
251. Which of the following dimension formats is correct for floor plans?
a. 0'-1/2"
b. 6.125"
c. 1'-6"
d. 10.6'
252. One of the most frequent errors in dimensioning is that ____.
a. partial dimensions do not add up to the total distance
b. the numbers cannot be read
c. dimensions face the wrong direction
d. dimensions are too close together
253. The floor plan is normally started ____.
a. first
b. last
c. after the elevations
d. after the electrical plan
254. In manual drafting, interior stud walls with drywall on both sides are often drawn as a(n) ____ nominal
thickness.
a. 4" or 8"
b. 5"
c. 6"
d. 8", 10", or 12"
255. The ____ opening should be shown for windows.
a. rough
b. sash
c. finished
d. None of the above.
256. The ____ door width should be used for doors.
a. actual
b. rough
c. finished
d. None of the above.
257. Which type of line is used to show an archway or plain opening on a floor plan?
a. Object line.
b. Cutting-plane line.
c. Hidden line.
d. Centerline.
258. Information related to patios and swimming pools that appears on the floor plan can include ____.
a. location
b. size
c. materials
d. All of the above.
259. The room name should be placed near the center of the room and lettered ____ inch high to draw
attention to it.
a. 1/16
b. 1/8
c. 3/16
d. 1/4
260. In architectural drawing, dimension lines are continuous lines with the dimension figure placed ____.
a. at the end of the line
b. above the line
c. under the line
d. at the beginning of the line
261. Recommended spacing between dimension lines is ____ inch.
a. 1/4 or 3/8
b. 3/8 or 1/2
c. 1/2 or 5/8
d. None of the above.
262. Which of the following are proper dimension notations?
a. 9"
b. 1'-6"
c. Both A and B.
d. None of the above.
263. The preferred method of dimensioning interior walls is to the ____ of the wall.
a. inside
b. outside
c. center
d. All of the above.
264. Overall width and length of primary walls should be multiples of ____ feet to comply with building
material sizes.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
265. After the exterior walls have been completed, draw the ____ next.
a. windows and doors
b. interior walls
c. stairs
d. title block and scale
266. In manual drafting, the interior and exterior walls may be darkened after ____.
a. the doors, windows, stairs, and fireplaces have been drawn
b. the kitchen cabinets, appliances, and bathroom fixtures are drawn
c. checking the drawing for accuracy
d. construction is underway
267. Outside features such as patios, walks, or decks should be drawn ____.
a. before the exterior walls are drawn
b. after the house has been built
c. before the kitchen cabinets, appliances, and bathroom fixtures have been
drawn
d. after all interior features have been drawn
268. Kitchen base cabinets are drawn ____ inches deep while wall cabinets are ____ inches deep.
a. 24; 12
b. 12; 24
c. 16; 10
d. 36; 24
269. The material symbols should be added ____.
a. when the design elements that use these materials are drawn
b. only if the contractor wants them drawn
c. at any time
d. when the drawing is almost complete
270. Object lines, hidden lines, centerlines, etc., should ____.
a. be the same width
b. be the same symbol (linetype)
c. vary in width
d. None of the above
271. The ____ roof is very popular because it is easy to build, sheds water well, provides for ventilation, and
is applicable to a variety of house shapes and designs.
a. folded plate
b. gable
c. A-frame
d. flat
272. A gambrel roof is sometimes called a ____ roof.
a. French
b. winged gable
c. folded plate
d. barn
273. In typical gable roof construction, the ____ support the roof covering.
a. top plates
b. rafters
c. ceiling joists
d. soffits
274. The fractional pitch of a roof is calculated by dividing the ____.
a. rise by the span
b. span by the rise
c. run by the span
d. None of the above.
275. ____ is/are considered heavy roofing.
a. Roll roofing
b. Asphalt shingles
c. Slate
d. Cedar shakes
276. The ____ is the extension of a gable roof beyond the end wall of the house.
a. rake
b. soffit
c. overhang
d. fascia
277. If sufficient ____ is not provided in the attic, moisture will probably form on the underside of the roof
sheathing.
a. headroom
b. ventilation
c. insulation
d. heating ductwork
278. Wood trusses commonly used in residential construction include ____ trusses.
a. W-type and king-post
b. king-post and scissors
c. W-type and scissors
d. All of the above.
279. A roof type more suited to houses in warm, dry climates than in cold, wet climates is a(n) ____ roof.
a. flat
b. hip
c. shed
d. A-frame
280. Which of the following is a feature of common rafters?
a. They run parallel to the top wall plate.
b. They run parallel to the ridge of the roof.
c. They extend from the plate or beyond to the ridge of the roof.
d. All of the above.
281. Which of the following is a lightweight roofing material?
a. Slate.
b. Asphalt shingle.
c. Clay tile.
d. All of the above.
282. The width of a narrow box cornice is normally between ____ inches.
a. 4 and 8
b. 5 and 10
c. 6 and 12
d. 7 and 14
283. Which of the following is a feature of lightweight wood roof trusses?
a. Most lightweight roof trusses can span distances of 50' to 60'.
b.
c. In most instances, lightweight wood roof trusses are more expensive than
traditional roof frame construction.
d. None of the above.
284. The recommended total area of ventilator openings in the attic space should be a minimum 1/300th of
the ceiling area. How much ventilator area should be planned for a house with a ceiling area of 1800 square
feet?
a. At least 6 square feet.
b. At least 9 square feet.
c. At least 3 square feet.
d. None of the above.
285. Flashing should be used ____.
a. where any feature pierces the roof
b. where a roof attaches to a second floor wall
c. next to the chimney
d. All of the above.
286. You can use 6" or 8" individual boards as sheathing. For rafters spaced 16" or 24" OC, the boards should
be at least ____ thick.
a. 1/4"
b. 1/2"
c. 3/4"
d. 1"
287. Two requirements of roofing materials are to provide waterproofing for the roof and many years of
service. The most popular type is ____.
a. asphalt
b. wood
c. copper
d. clay
288. The reference point of most elevations is the ____.
a. finished floor level
b. eaves line
c. top of the foundation wall
d. grade line
289. Features on an elevation that are below the grade line are shown as ____.
a. centerlines
b. hidden lines
c. object lines
d. phantom lines
290. Most codes require that the top of the foundation wall be at least ____ inches above the grade.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 14
291. The usual height of the lower face of the head jamb of an exterior door is ____ from the top of the
subfloor.
a. 6'-10"
b. 6'-8"
c. 6'-6"
d. 6'-4"
292. Roof angle is shown on the elevation using the ____.
a. slope triangle
b. fractional pitch
c. slope triangle or fractional pitch
d. None of the above.
293. Dimensions on the elevation drawing are mainly ____ dimensions.
a. location
b. height
c. size
d. Dimensions are not used on the elevation.
294. Material symbols are shown extensively on the ____ elevation(s).
a. front
b. four
c. front and right side
d. front and rear
295. The usual scale of an exterior elevation is ____.
a. 1/8" = 1'-0"
b. 1/4" = 1'-0"
c. 3/8" = 1'-0"
d. 1/2" = 1'-0"
296. The existing grade line for each outside wall may be obtained from the ____ plan.
a. site or floor
b. plot or site
c. floor or plot
d. foundation
297. Basement ceilings should be at least 6'-2" high; however, 8'-0" is preferred. Garages must have a ceiling
height of at least ____.
a. 8'-0"
b. 8'-6"
c. 9'-0"
d. 9'-6"
298. ____ lines are used on the elevation to indicate visible wall corners.
a. Hidden
b. Construction
c. Object
d. Guide
299. Window details should be shown on the elevation. The swing and ____ should be shown on hinged
windows.
a. brick mold or window trim
b. glass elevation symbol
c. identification symbols for windows and doors
d. All of the above.
300. From the list of symbols below, which symbol is always placed on an elevation drawing?
a. Exterior wall covering symbol.
b. Roof pitch symbol.
c. Window swing symbol.
d. Cutting plane symbol.
301. The roof elements and wall height are important features of the elevation drawing. The ____ supplies
the measurements for these two features.
a. floor plan
b. section drawing
c. foundation plan
d. plot plan
302. Any changes to be made in the elevation should be done ____.
a. after the dimensions, notes, and symbols have been added
b. at any time
c. before the features have been darkened
d. after the vertical and horizontal lines have been drawn and the features have
been darkened
303. A two-point perspective has ____ vanishing points.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. zero
304. In perspective drawing, the ____ is the location of the observer's eye.
a. vanishing point
b. horizon line
c. picture plane
d. station point
305. The ____ represents a horizontal plane called the ground plane.
a. ground line
b. elevation line
c. height line
d. picture plane
306. The distance between the ground line and horizon line represents the ____.
a. height of the object
b. height of the observer's eye above the ground
c. distance the observer is away from the object
d. None of the above.
307. The picture plane is normally located between the object and the ____.
a. horizon line
b. ground line
c. station point
d. right side view
308. Any portion of the object that touches the picture plane will be ____ in the perspective drawing.
a. hidden from view
b. larger than scale
c. smaller than scale
d. true size
309. It is always necessary to find at least one ____ in a two-point perspective drawing so that height
measurements can be made.
a. side of the object
b. full-size view
c. angular view
d. true-length line
310. In most instances, the station point is positioned so that it forms a cone of vision of ____ degrees with
respect to the object.
a. 15-30
b. 30-45
c. 45-60
d. over 60
311. The height of the observer's eye is represented by the distance between the ____ and ____.
a. horizon line; picture plane
b. horizon line; ground line
c. ground line; picture plane
d. station point; picture plane
312. One-point perspectives are commonly used for ____.
a. room and furniture layouts
b. kitchen cabinet pictorial details
c. interior space studies
d. All of the above.
313. In a one-point perspective, both views of the station point must be the same distance from the ____.
a. picture plane
b. horizon line
c. ground line
d. edge of the paper
314. When an object is placed behind the picture plane and the station point is above the ground line, ____.
a. the object must touch the ground line in the perspective of the object
b. the perspective of the object will be above the ground line
c. the object will extend below the ground line
d. None of the above.
315. Two-point perspectives are good communication tools because ____.
a. they are photo-like drawings that are very accurate in detail
b. the objects are drawn true to size
c. they are quite simple to draw
d. None of the above.
316. Generally, the station point is placed so that it forms a cone of vision between ____ degrees.
a. 15 and 30
b. 15 and 22 1/2
c. 30 and 45
d. All of the above.
2009 AZ SkillsUSA EXAMPLE AKT
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
2.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
3.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
4.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
5.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
6.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
7.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
8.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
9.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
10.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
11.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
12.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
13.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
14.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
15.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
16.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
17.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
18.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
19.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
20.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
21.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
22.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
23.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
24.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
25.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
26.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
27.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
28.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
29.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
30.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
31.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
32.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
33.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
34.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
35.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
36.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
37.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
38.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
39.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
40.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
41.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
42.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
43.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
44.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
45.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
46.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
47.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
48.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
49.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
50.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
51.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
52.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
53.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
54.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
55.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
56.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
57.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
58.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
59.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
60.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
61.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
62.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
63.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
64.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
65.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
66.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
67.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
68.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
69.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
70.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
71.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
72.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
73.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
74.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
75.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
76.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
77.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
78.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
79.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
80.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
81.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
82.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
83.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
84.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
85.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
86.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
87.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
88.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
89.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
90.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
91.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
92.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
93.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
94.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
95.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
96.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
97.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
98.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
99.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
100.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
101.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
102.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
103.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
104.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
105.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
106.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
107.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
108.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
109.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
110.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
111.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
112.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
113.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
114.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
115.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
116.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
117.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
118.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
119.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
120.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
121.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
122.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
123.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
124.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
125.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
126.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
127.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
128.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
129.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
130.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
131.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
132.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
133.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
134.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
135.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
136.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
137.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
138.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
139.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
140.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
141.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
142.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
143.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
144.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
145.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
146.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
147.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
148.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
149.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
150.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
151.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
152.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
153.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
154.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
155.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
156.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
157.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
158.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
159.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
160.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
161.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
162.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
163.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
164.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
165.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
166.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
167.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
168.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
169.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
170.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
171.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
172.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
173.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
174.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
175.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
176.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
177.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
178.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
179.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
180.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
181.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
182.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
183.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
184.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
185.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
186.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
187.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
188.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
189.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
190.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
191.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
192.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
193.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
194.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
195.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
196.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
197.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
198.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
199.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
200.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
201.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
202.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
203.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
204.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
205.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
206.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
207.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
208.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
209.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
210.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
211.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
212.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
213.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
214.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
215.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
216.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
217.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
218.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
219.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
220.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
221.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
222.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
223.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
224.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
225.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
226.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
227.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
228.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
229.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
230.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
231.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
232.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
233.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
234.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
235.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
236.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
237.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
238.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
239.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
240.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
241.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
242.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
243.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
244.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
245.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
246.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
247.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
248.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
249.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
250.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
251.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
252.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
253.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
254.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
255.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
256.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
257.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
258.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
259.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
260.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
261.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
262.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
263.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
264.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
265.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
266.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
267.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
268.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
269.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
270.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
271.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
272.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
273.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
274.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
275.
ANS; C
PTS: 1
276.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
277.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
278.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
279.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
280.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
281.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
282.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
283.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
284.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
285.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
286.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
287.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
288.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
289.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
290.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
291.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
292.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
293.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
294.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
295.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
296.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
297.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
298.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
299.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
300.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
301.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
302.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
303.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
304.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
305.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
306.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
307.
ANS: C
PTS: 1
308.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
309.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
310.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
311.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
312.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
313.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
314.
ANS: B
PTS: 1
315.
ANS: A
PTS: 1
316.
ANS: C
PTS: 1