Cardiac Emergencies
From Bradys’ Emergency Care 10th Edition
1. What is the maximum allowed time before defibrillation that a patient will
more than likely not survive a cardiac arrest?
A.) 8 minutes
B.) 6 minutes
C.) 4 minutes
D.) 2 minutes
2. How long should CPR continue before the patient's rhythm is analyzed
again when a "no shock" message is received?
A.) 2 minutes
B.) 1 minute
C.) 3 minutes
D.) 4 minutes
3. What is it that causes most of the cardiac emergencies?
A.) Reduced supply of blood to the brain
B.) Reduced supply of blood to the heart
C.) Increased supply of blood to the brain
D.) Increased supply of blood to the heart
4. Which is a common cause of cardiac arrest in an infant?
A.) Cardiac disease
B.) Pulmonary edema
C.) Respiratory distress
D.) Coronary artery disease
5. What is the most common reason for an AED delivering an inappropriate
shock?
A.) Patient motion
B.) Human error
C.) Mechanical malfunction
D.) Environmental factor
6. If the only EMT-B on scene, when should additional EMS assistance be
called for with a cardiac arrest patient?
A.) After a "no shock" message
B.) During CPR activities
C.) While analysis is happening
D.) Before begin CPR
7. How many shocks will the fully automatic defibrillator deliver before
changing to perpetual monitoring mode?
A.) 12
B.) 6
C.) 15
D.) 9
8. Who can give a lay person instruction on giving CPR during the
emergency?
A.) EMT-B
B.) Firefighter
C.) Police
D.) Dispatch
9. Which is the time that passes from the time a person collapses until
someone notifies the EMS system?
A.) Dispatch interval
B.) Ambulance response interval
C.) EMS access interval
D.) Assessment interval
10. Which type of defibrillator sends a charge in one direction and then back
again?
A.) Biphasic
B.) Triphasic
C.) Quadriphasic
D.) Monophasic
11. Which condition involves the heart has normal electrical activity, but no
pumping action?
A.) Ventricular tachycardia
B.) Ventricular fibrillation
C.) Pulseless electrical activity
D.) Asystole
12. In which condition is the heart's electrical impulses disorganized which
prevents normal contraction?
A.) Asystole
B.) Ventricular tachycardia
C.) Ventricular fibrillation
D.) Pulseless electrical activity
13. Which pulse should be checked in the cardiac arrest patient?
A.) Carotid
B.) Brachial
C.) Radial
D.) Femoral
14. How can the effectiveness of compressions done in CPR be evaluated?
A.) Attach EKG machine
B.) Attach AED to the chest
C.) Check patient's breathing
D.) Check patient's pulse
15. Which case would defibrillation be most effective?
A.) Patient is under 1 year old
B.) Patient is hypothermic
C.) Arrest caused the trauma
D.) Arrest is caused by blood loss
16. What is the second phase of the defibrillation effort called?
A.) Shock interval
B.) Dispatch interval
C.) EMS access interval
D.) Ambulance response interval
17. When is the automatic external defibrillator (AED) designed to be used?
A.) Stroke
B.) Chest pain
C.) Congestive heart failure
D.) Cardiac arrest
18. What is an abnormally fast heartbeat called?
A.) Bradycardia
B.) Thrombycardia
C.) Tachycardia
D.) Dyspycardia
19. What can be implanted into a patient who is at risk of going into
ventricular fibrillation?
A.) Defibrillator
B.) Pic line
C.) Pacemaker
D.) Valve bypass
20. What needs to be done when you determine the last dose of
nitroglycerin taken would allow the patient another dose?
A.) Spray into the cheek
B.) Reassess the patient
C.) Perform the focused history
D.) Check the four rights
21. What portion of the cardiac arrest patients that the AED is used upon will
receive a shock on average?
A.) 8 to 9 out of 10
B.) 2 to 3 out of 10
C.) 4 to 5 out of 10
D.) 6 to 7 out of 10
22. What is the memory tool used to assist with the placement of the AED
pads?
A.) White to front, red to bed
B.) White to light, red to rump
C.) White to right, red to ribs
D.) White to bright, red to rear
23. Which is NOT generally a sign or symptom of cardiac compromise?
A.) Sudden onset of nausea
B.) Unconsciousness
C.) Difficulty breathing
D.) Abnormal pulse
24. Which of the following reasons does NOT call for immediate transport?
A.) Diastolic blood pressure of less than 90
B.) Systolic blood pressure of less than 100
C.) History of cardiac problems, but does not have nitroglycerin
D.) No history of cardiac problems
25. How long after the first three shocks should CPR be continued before
performing the analysis with an AED?
A.) 4 minutes
B.) 1 minute
C.) 3 minutes
D.) 2 minutes
26. Which of the following would be a contraindication to giving a heart
patient aspirin?
A.) Has no history of asthma
B.) Is not taking other ant clotting medications
C.) Has slight allergy to aspirin
D.) Is able to swallow without compromising the airway
27. What is the initial shock generally on an automatic defibrillator?
A.) 500 joules
B.) 300 joules
C.) 400 joules
D.) 200 joules
28. What should be done if the patient is wearing a nitroglycerin patch who
needs defibrillation?
A.) Remove it while wearing gloves
B.) Take off the plastic coating
C.) Put a bandage over the patch
D.) Leave the patch in place
29. What is a weak part in the artery that begins to dilate called?
A.) Embolism
B.) Thrombus
C.) Angina
D.) Aneurysm
30. What should be said to ensure that no individuals are touching the
patient before initiating the AED?
A.) Move
B.) Back-up
C.) Start
D.) Clear
31. Which is a buildup of fatty deposits on the inner walls of arteries?
p. 375
A.) Embolism
B.) Artherosclerosis
C.) Arteriosclerosis
D.) Thrombus
32. Which is NOT seen as an advantage to using an AED?
A.) Speed of the procedure
B.) Safer administration of the shock
C.) Ease of remembering the procedure
D.) Only higher level EMT's can use the AED
33. What is the first link in the chain of survival for patients in cardiac
arrest?
A.) Early advanced care
B.) Early access
C.) Early CPR
D.) Early defibrillation
34. What comes first when dealing with a cardiac patient?
A.) Oxygen
B.) Defibrillation
C.) Medication
D.) History
35. Which is the more common type of automatic defibrillator?
A.) Fully automatic
B.) Semi manual
C.) Semiautomatic
D.) Manual
36. What should be done if the rescuer arrives and CPR is already
underway?
A.) Leave as the scene is under control
B.) Advise medical direction
C.) Instruct the person to continue
D.) Instruct the person to stop
37. What position should the heart patient be placed in when performing the
initial assessment?
A.) Prone with the head turned
B.) Position of comfort
C.) Strapped to the backboard
D.) Left recumbent recovery
38. How often should the pulse of a resuscitated patient be checked?
A.) 45 seconds
B.) 15 seconds
C.) 60 seconds
D.) 30 seconds
39. What is an effective means available to get a patient the early CPR they
need?
A.) Send CPR trained professionals
B.) Offer rewards for quick action
C.) Wait for the EMT-B to arrive
D.) Rely on the public in place
40. What is the goal for the response interval for a cardiac patient to achieve
the most effective care?
A.) 1 minute
B.) 2 minutes
C.) 3 minutes
D.) 4 minutes
41. Which interval is the time from dispatch until the ambulance arrives at
the location?
A.) Dispatch
B.) Assessment and shock
C.) EMS access
D.) Ambulance response
42. How many shocks from the AED should the patient receive before being
transported?
A.) 4
B.) 8
C.) 2
D.) 6
43. What is the maximum amount of time CPR can be stopped to deliver
shocks?
A.) 60 seconds
B.) 30 seconds
C.) 90 seconds
D.) 45 seconds
44. What is the most important drug given to a patient during a heart
emergency?
A.) Oxygen
B.) Glucose
C.) Nitroglycerin
D.) Alcohol
45. How often should the EMT-B attend refresher and continuing education
courses on the use of the AED?
A.) 90 days
B.) 45 days
C.) 60 days
D.) 30 days
46. How soon would defibrillation need to reach the patient for early CPR to
not be helpful?
A.) 6 minutes
B.) 8 minutes
C.) 2 minutes
D.) 4 minutes
47. What should be done while performing the focused history on a heart
patient?
A.) Give nitroglycerin
B.) Provide oxygen
C.) Perform physical exam
D.) Perform initial assessment
48. Which of the following situations would cause the EMT-B to delay
administering nitroglycerin to a heart patient?
A.) Has recently taken Viagra
B.) Has a history of cardiac problems
C.) Has complaint of chest pain
D.) Has a prescription for nitroglycerin
49. What is the lay person's term for acute myocardial infarction?
A.) Stroke
B.) Heart attack
C.) Mini-attack
D.) Blood clot
50. Which is an indication to administering aspirin to a cardiac patient?
A.) Asthma
B.) Able to swallow
C.) Chest pain
D.) Not allergic to aspirin
51. What causes a majority of cardiovascular emergencies?
A.) Direct blow to the chest wall or abdomen
B.) Changes in the inner walls of the arteries
C.) Disruptions in the electrical impulses of the heart
D.) Head injury causing heart failure
52. What is the maximum number of doses of nitroglycerin the EMT-B can
administer?
A.) 3
B.) 5
C.) 6
D.) 4
53. Which is NOT considered a reassessment strategy for nitroglycerin?
A.) Monitor blood pressure
B.) Ask patient about effect on pain relief
C.) Record assessments
D.) Evaluate patient for new breathing difficulty
54. What percentage of emergency calls tend to be cardiac arrests?
A.) 9 to 10%
B.) 1 to 2%
C.) 3 to 5%
D.) 6 to 8%
55. Where is one of the defibrillator pads of the AED placed on the patient?
A.) Left bicep
B.) Right bicep
C.) Upper left chest
D.) Upper right chest
56. What should be done if the patient's chest hair does not allow for a good
connection of the AED's pads?
A.) Push the pads
B.) Transport quickly
C.) Shave the area
D.) Stop the AED
57. What is the shortness of breath that often goes along with a heart
problem?
A.) Dysphasia
B.) Dyspnea
C.) Eurhythmia
D.) Nastalgia
58. How many consecutive no shock advised messages are received before
the patient can be transported to the hospital?
A.) 6
B.) 4
C.) 5
D.) 3
59. Which is a blanket term used for any heart problem?
A.) Cardiac compromise
B.) Cardiac complication
C.) Cardiac factor
D.) Cardiac indication
60. What is the best known symptom of a heart problem?
A.) Fatigue
B.) Nausea
C.) Back pain
D.) Chest pain
61. What is the age cutoff for using an AED on a patient?
A.) 18 year old
B.) 5 year old
C.) 25 year old
D.) 1 year old
62. Which shock should a pulse check NOT take place after?
A.) 4
B.) 6
C.) 3
D.) 7
63. Where should a spray of nitroglycerin be administered?
A.) Inside the cheek
B.) Back of the throat
C.) Under the tongue
D.) In the nose
64. What is the general duration of angina pectoris?
A.) 5 to 7 minutes
B.) 7 to 9 minutes
C.) 3 to 5 minutes
D.) 9 to 11 minutes
65. What is the usual dosage of aspirin in the cardiac patient?
A.) Six to eight 81 mg tablets of chewable baby aspirin
B.) Two to four 81 mg tablets of chewable baby aspirin
C.) Eight to ten 81 mg tablets of chewable baby aspirin
D.) Four to six 81 mg tablets of chewable baby aspirin
66. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of congestive heart
failure?
A.) Lowered blood pressure
B.) Pulmonary edema
C.) Confusion due to hypoxia
D.) Shortness of breath
67. Which condition would lead the EMT-B to NOT using a defibrillator on a
cardiac patient?
A.) Implanted defibrillator
B.) Should use the defibrillator in all cases
C.) Cardiac bypass surgery
D.) Cardiac pacemaker implanted
68. What is one of the most common causes of failure with the AED?
A.) Cable failure
B.) Lead failure
C.) Analyzer failure
D.) Battery failure