TEST DATE: __________ NAME: Regents Biology Homework Packet Unit 7: Genetics Use your Biology by Miller & Levine textbook to complete and help with the following homework assignments. (1) Read the assigned pages, (2) Define the vocabulary, and (3) Answer the questions. Neatness counts. Number the definitions. Write the page and number of the questions. Do your work in ink or even type the homework. Staple the definitions and questions to the HW packet. The homework assignment is due the day before the test. We will use the HW packet as a test review. The completed and corrected HW packet will be collected on the day of the test. Late homework assignments receive no credit (0). If the assignment is not turned in by the last day of the quarter the zero grade (0) will change to -5. Chapter 11: Introduction to Genetics Read pages 306 – 335 p. 308 Vocab (9) p. 313 Vocab (7) p. 319 Vocab (4) p. 312 #1b, 2a, 2b, 2c, 3 p. 318 #2a, 2b, 4 p. 321 #2a p. 329 #4a, 4b Regents Review: Pgs. 332 – 335 #1 – 33 ________________________ Chapter 12: DNA Read pages 336 – 359 p. 338 Vocab (2) p. 344 Vocab (1) p. 350 Vocab (3) Regents Review: Pgs. 356 - 359 #1 – 36 ________________________ Chapter 13: RNA and Protein Synthesis Read pages 360 – 389 p. 362 Vocab (9) p. 366 Vocab (6) p. 372 Vocab (5) p. 377 Vocab (7) p. 365 #1a p. 371 #2b, 3b p. 376 #1b p. 383 #2a Regents Review: Pgs. 386 – 389 #1 – 34 ________________________ p. 392 Vocab (6) p. 398 Vocab (1) p. 403 Vocab (4) p. 397 #1b, 2a, 2b, 3a p. 401 #2b p. 409 #2a, 3 Regents Review: Pgs. 412 – 415 #1 – 33 ________________________ Chapter 15: Genetic Engineering Read pages 416 – 445 p. 418 Vocab (4) p. 421 Vocab (6) p. 428 Vocab (4) p. 420 #2a p. 427 #1a, 2a p. 434 #2a, 3b p. 439 #4 Chapter 14: Human Heredity p. 343 #3a, 3b p. 348 #1b p. 353 #1a, 2b Read pages 390 – 415 Regents Review: Pgs. 442 – 445 #1 – 35 Genetics Review MENDELIAN GENETICS: _________________________ (1822 – 1884) – Austrian monk; Developed some basic principles of heredity without any knowledge of genes or chromosomes. Used a mathematical analysis of large numbers of offspring produced by crossing pea plants to develop major concepts of genetics. As a result of analyzing specific mathematical ratios associated with certain characteristics in the offspring, Mendel proposed that characteristics were inherited as the result of the transmission of hereditary factors. Mendel observed contrasting characteristics in pea plants in his work: flower color is purple or white; flower position is axil or terminal; stem length is long or short; seed shape is round or wrinkled; seed color is yellow or green; pod shape is inflated or constricted; pod color is yellow or green Major Genetic Concepts: 1. _________________________ = a pattern of heredity in which only one gene of an allelic pair is expressed. In the heterozygous condition, one allele of a gene may express itself and mask the presence of the other allele. ex. Toe Size T = long toes, t = short toes Tt x Tt. dominant trait: the trait or allele that is expressed recessive trait: the trait or allele that is present but that is not expressed 2. ______________________________________ = When gametes are formed during meiosis there is a random segregation of homologous chromosomes. As a result of fertilization, alleles recombine. As a consequence, new allelic gene combinations are likely to be produced. Segregation and recombination is illustrated by the cross between two individuals heterozygous for a trait. 3. ___________________________ = If the genes for two different traits are located on different chromosomes (nonhomologous chromosomes), they segregate randomly during meiosis and, therefore, may be inherited independently of each other. The cross of two organisms heterozygous for a trait is known as a hybrid cross. Assuming large numbers of such crosses: the phenotypic ratio of dominant offspring to recessive offspring is 3:1 the genotypic ratio of homozygous dominant offspring to heterozygous dominant offspring to homozygous recessive offspring is 1:2:1 Other Forms of Inheritance 1. _____________________: A case of contrasting alleles in which one allele is only partially dominant over the other; the dominant allele is only partially expressed when the recessive allele is present. red flowers X white flowers = pink flowers 2. _____________________: a case of contrasting alleles in which neither allele is dominant; over the other (alleles have equal power) cross between red cattle X white cattle = roan cattle (cattle with red and white hairs). 3. _____________________: Not every trait is controlled by just two different alleles. Some traits have more than two different alleles, but an organism can only carry two of the alleles. in humans there are 3 different alleles for blood groups IA, IB, i 4. _____________________: alleles that are carried on the sex chromosomes (X or Y). Generally traits carried on the X chromosome are more likely to occur in males than females because males only have one X chromosome so which ever allele (dominant or recessive) occurs on the X chromosome is expressed in the phenotype. color blindness and hemophilia Gene Linkage: when genes for two different traits (nonallelic genes) are located on the same chromosome pair (homologous chromosomes); Linked genes are usually inherited together. Crossing Over: during synapsis in the first meiotic division, the chromatids in a homologous pair of chromosomes often twist around each other, break, exchange segments and rejoin; Crossing over results in the rearrangement of linked genes and increases the variability of offspring. Karyotype: an enlarged photograph of the chromosomes in an organism; Human diploid cells contain 23 pairs of chromosomes. Autosomes = body chromosomes (22 pr. in humans) One pair of sex chromosomes. In the male each sex chromosome is unlike and is designated XY. In the female each sex chromosome is alike and is designated XX. The sex of a human is genetically determined at fertilization when a sperm cell containing either an X or a Y chromosome unites with an egg cell containing an X chromosome Modern Genetics: Nucleic Acids: polymer of nucleotides; 1. _____ (ribonucleic acid) directs cellular protein synthesis; found in ribosomes & nucleoli 2. _____ (deoxyribonucleic acid) contains the genetic code of instructions that direct a cell's behavior through the synthesis of proteins; found in the chromosomes of the nucleus (and a few other organelles); Chromosomes found in the nucleus carry the hereditary material; DNA controls cellular activity by influencing the production of enzymes. Watson and Crick (early 1950's): determined the structure of the DNA molecule; Consists of two chains of nucleotide units in a twisted ladder-like structure = double helix; The sides of the ladder are made up of alternating deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group units; The rungs of the ladder are made of 2 nitrogenous bases per rung linked together by a weak hydrogen bond. Only 2 combinations of base pairs can form the rungs of the DNA molecule; Adenine - Thymine (A-T); Guanine - Cytosine (C-G) Look up Rosalind Franklin…What did she have to do with DNA? Structure of DNA Molecules: DNA is a very long chain polymer made up of thousands of repeating units called nucleotides. Nucleotide Unit is composed of a phosphate group, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base. The Nitrogenous Bases are; adenine (A) thymine (T) guanine (G) cytosine (C) Nucleotide = subunit of DNA Gene = specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a polypeptide. Genes can range from 10,000 – 100,000 base pairs Chromosome = a collection of genes and “junk DNA” connected together. The DNA is then wrapped around proteins to pack it into the nucleus. Chromosomes are millions of base pairs long. Every organism has a specific chromosome number - diploid = 2n. RNA = is also a polymer formed by a sequence of nucleotides. The RNA molecule is a SINGLE nucleotide strand, not a double strand as in DNA. The sugar molecule in RNA is RIBOSE - not deoxyribose as in DNA. The base URACIL (U) takes the place of thymine (T) Types of RNA: (1) mRNA (messenger RNA) made in nucleus; (2) tRNA (transfer RNA) on the ribosomes; (3) rRNA (ribosomal RNA) in the cytoplasm DNA Replication: 1. The double stranded DNA molecule unwinds and unzips between the weak hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous base pairs. 2. Free nucleotides present in the nucleus attach themselves by forming new hydrogen bonds with the exposed bases in the single chain. The only base which can reattach is the same type of base that was originally joined to it. Usefulness of the Watson-Crick Model 1. Explained how mitosis produces exact DNA copies for each daughter cell thus the genetic information passes on unchanged. 2. Explained how DNA acts as a code directing the making of enzymes and other proteins by a cell, thus directing cellular activities. Protein Synthesis: is a 2 step cellular process to make proteins. DNA contains the instructions for the order of amino acids in a protein. The ribosomes in the cell put the amino acids together in the order the DNA dictates. Analogy: DNA = Recipe; Ribosome = baker; Protein = cake A) Transcription = transfer of the genetic message from DNA to mRNA; 1. DNA serves as a template for the synthesis of mRNA from free RNA nucleotides in the nucleus. 2. mRNA molecules carrying a specific code determined by the base sequence of the DNA template moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. 3. Strands of mRNA carrying codons transcribed from DNA, move to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. (each codon will code for a specific amino acid) B) Translation = transfer of the genetic message into amino acid sequence 4. mRNA strands become associated with rRNA on the ribosomes. 5. Different anticodons of nitrogenous bases in tRNA molecules pick up specific amino acids in the cytoplasm and carry them to mRNA at the ribosomes. 6. Amino acids are put into position on the ribosome with instructions from the anticodon codes of tRNA and mRNA. 7. With the aid of enzymes and ATP (energy), the amino acids are bonded to form a polypeptide chain (protein) on the ribosome. 8. This protein formation is what directs metabolic activity in any cell. One gene codes for one polypeptide chain. Since the sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines the sequence of nucleotides in messenger RNA, DNA ultimately determines the sequence of amino acids in specific proteins. The specificity of enzymes is dependent on their protein makeup, and, since the individuality of a cell is largely a function of the enzymes it possesses, it is evident that DNA determines the individuality and function of an organism. The work of a cell is carried out by the many different kinds of molecules it assembles, mostly proteins. Proteins are long, folded molecules made up of up to 20 different kinds of amino acids which interact to produce specific protein shapes. The specific shape of the protein determines the specific function of that protein. Offspring resemble their parents because they inherit similar genes that code for the production of proteins that form similar structures and perform similar functions. How are cell functions regulated: 1. Gene regulation allows only the selective expression of certain individual genes. 2. The regulation of certain genes controls the activity and production of certain proteins. All this gene regulation allows cells and organisms to respond to their environment and control their growth and division. Body cells of an individual can be very different from each other, even though they have descended from a single cell (zygote) and have essentially the same genetic instructions. This is because different parts of these instructions are used in different types of cells, influenced by the cells environment and developmental history. Genetic Research: 1. Cloning: producing a group of genetically identical offspring from the cells of an organism This technique shows great promise in agriculture. Plants with desirable qualities can be rapidly produced from the cells of a single plant. 2. Genetic engineering: (recombinant DNA) transfer of genetic information from one organism to another; includes the transfer of entire genes and gene splicing; A cell can synthesize a new chemical coded for by its new gene(s); examples include interferon, insulin, and growth hormone. Genetic engineering can correct genetic defects & produce agriculturally more efficient plants and animals. Gene Therapy = correcting defective/diseases genes in cells than implanting the corrected cells back into the person; juvenile diabetes correcting Islet of Langerhans cell; cystic fibrosis. restriction enzymes - used to cut segments of DNA in one organism so they can be transferred into another organism; Characteristics produced by the segments of DNA may be expressed when these segments are inserted into new organisms such as bacteria. Inserting, deleting, or altering DNA segments can alter genes. An altered gene may be passed on to every cell that develops from it. Substances from genetically engineered organisms may reduce the cost and side effects of replacing body chemicals. Human insulin produced in bacteria is already an example of this. 3. Human Genome Project: has allowed humans to know the basic framework of their genetic code; Knowledge of genetics is making possible new fields of health care. Genetic mapping is making it possible to detect and possibly correct, defective genes that may lead to poor health. A down side to this is that health insurance agencies and other organizations may use this genetic information against individuals. Mutations: changes in genetic material. While an altered gene (mutation) may be passed on to every cell that develops from the mutated cell, only mutations in sex cells may be passed on to the offspring. A mutation occurring only in body cells may be perpetuated in the individual but will not be passed on to the offspring by sexual reproduction. Chromosomal Mutations - the effects of chromosomal alterations are usually quite visible in the phenotype of the organism because many genes are usually involved. 1. Nondisjunction: homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, producing offspring with one chromosome more or less than is normal; disjunction - the separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis; if disjunction fails to occur (nondisjunction), gametes with an addition or a missing chromosome will be produced. 2. Polyploidy: The presence of one or more entire additional sets of chromosomes in an organism (3n, 4n number, etc.) Polyploidy is also caused by nondisjunction (But of an ENTIRE set of chromosomes.) 3. Translocation: transfer of one section of a chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome; “jumping genes” 4. Addition: a portion of one chromosome is attached to another chromosome 5. Deletion: a portion of a chromosome is taken away from a chromosome 6. Inversion: a portion of a chromosome breaks off and then becomes reattached to the same chromosome in an inverted (upside down) fashion Gene Mutations - While the effects of some gene mutations, such as albinism, are obvious, the effects of other gene mutations may not be as readily noticed. 1. Insertion: An insertion changes the number of DNA bases in a gene by adding a piece of DNA. As a result, the protein made by the gene may not function properly. 2. Deletion: A deletion changes the number of DNA bases by removing a piece of DNA. Small deletions may remove one or a few base pairs within a gene, while larger deletions can remove an entire gene or several neighboring genes. The deleted DNA may alter the function of the resulting protein(s). 3. Frameshift mutation: This type of mutation occurs when the addition or loss of DNA bases changes a gene's reading frame. A reading frame consists of groups of 3 bases that each code for one amino acid. A frameshift mutation shifts the grouping of these bases and changes the code for amino acids. The resulting protein is usually nonfunctional. Insertions, deletions, and duplications can all be frameshift mutations. Mutagenic Agents - increase the random incidence of mutations; 1. Radiation - X-rays, ultraviolet, radioactive substances, and cosmic rays; 2. Chemicals - formaldehyde, benzene, asbestos fibers, THC, nicotine The adaptive value of a gene mutation is dependent upon the nature of the mutation and the type of environment with which the organism interacts. Nature vs. Nurture The environment interacts with genes in the development and expression of inherited traits. 1. Many green plants contain chlorophyll for food making but if these leaves are screened from the light they stop making chlorophyll. 2. Identical twins raised in different environments may be vastly different in intelligence. 3. If some white fur is shaved from a Himalayan rabbit and the area is kept cold with an ice pack, black fur will grow back in its place. (The gene for black fur is active only at very low temperatures.) Understanding the Concepts: 1. Why was the garden pea plant a good choice for Mendel's studies of genetics? 2. Explain the principle of dominance. 3. How is incomplete dominance different from complete dominance? 4. Explain independent assortment. 5. How can one determine whether the genotype of an individual exhibiting a dominant trait is homozygous dominant or heterozygous? 6. What is the difference between a homozygous and a heterozygous trait? 7. Where are genes found in a cell, and what are they composed of? 8. Describe the appearance and composition of a DNA molecule. 9. Explain the process of transcription. 10. Explain the correlation between DNA and protein. 11. Explain the relationship between the environment and heredity 12. How is recombinant DNA made? Match the following words with their definitions: a. polyploidy b. Huntington's disease c. inversion d. point mutation e. Tay-Sachs disease f. hemophilia g. translocation h. phenylketonuria i. cystic fibrosis j. nondisjunction k. Muscular Dystrophy l. Down's Syndrome m. messenger RNA n. purines o. structural gene p. ribosome q. nucleotide r. regulator gene s. transfer RNA t. pyrimidines u. operator Sene v. helix w. repressor protein x. gene mutation ___ 1. building block of nucleic acid ___ 8. sex-linked disorder that affects blood clotting ___ 2. adenine and guanine ___ 9. affects breathing by clogging lungs ___ 3. thymine and cytosine ___ 10. affects oxygen-carrying capacity in red blood cells ___ 4. carries the DNA code to a ribosome ___ 11. causes muscle tissue to break down ___ 5. copies messenger RNA ___ 12. affects Jewish ancestry, infant death ___ 6. protein plus two ribosomal RNA molecules ___ 13. addition or loss of a chromosome ___ 7. DNA segment that codes for a particular polypeptide ___ 14. extra twenty-first chromosome MONOHYBRID CROSS: Dihybrid Cross: P. 367 Quick Lab: How Does a Cell Interpret Codons? (1) Base Sequence GACAAGTCCACAATC (2) From left to right, write the sequence of the mRNA molecule transcribed from this gene. _____________________________________________________________ (3) Using figure 13-6, read the mRNA codons from left to right. Then write the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide. ______________________________________________________________ (4) Repeat step 2 and step 3, reading the sequence from right to left write the new mRNA sequence and then the new amino acid sequence (Use the orginal sequence not what it says in the book). mRNA ____________________________________________________________ Amino Acid ____________________________________________________________ Analyze and Conclude: 1. Why did step 4 produce a different polypeptide then step 3? 2. Do cells usually decode nucleotides in one direction only or in either direction? Mass Amounts of Genetics Questions Part I: Basic Genetics (Mendelian and Classical Genetics) ___ 1. Which concept is not associated with the work of Gregor Mendel? (1.) dominance (2.) independent assortment (3.) use and disuse (4.) segregation ___ 2. Which statement describes the work of Gregor Mendel? (1.) He developed some basic principles of heredity without having knowledge of chromosomes. (2.) He developed the microscope for the study of genes in pea plants. (3.) He explained the principle of dominance on the basis of the gene-chromosome theory. (4.) He used his knowledge of gene mutations to help explain the appearance of new traits in organisms. ___ 3. Mendel developed his basic principles of heredity by (1.) microscopic study of chromosomes and genes (2.) mathematical analysis of the offspring of pea plants (3.) breeding experiments with drosophila (4.) ultracentrifugation studies of cell organelles ___ 8. All of the offspring produced in a cross involving a brown mink and a silver-blue mink are brown. When these brown mink offspring were crossed with each other, the ratio of brown to silver blue was 3:1. The results of these crosses are best explained by (1.) independent assortment and crossing-over (2.) codominance, segregation, and recombination (3.) dominance, segregation, and recombination (4.) recombination and intermediate inheritance ___ 9. Pea plants heterozygous for both height and color of seed coat (TtYy) were crossed with pea plants that were homozygous recessive for both traits (ttyy). The offspring from this cross included tall plants with green seeds, tall plants with yellow seeds, short plants with green seeds, and short plants with yellow seeds This cross best illustrates (1.) gene mutation (2.) independent assortment of chromosomes (3.) environmental influence on heredity (4.) intermediate inheritance ___ 4. Mendel developed the basic principles of heredity by (1.) examining chromosomes with microscopes (2.) analyzing large numbers of offspring (3.) using x rays to induce mutations (4.) observing crossing-over during meiosis ___ 10. In raccoons, a dark face mask is dominant over a bleached face mask. Several crosses were made between raccoons that were heterozygous for dark face mask and raccoons that were homozygous for bleached face mask. What percentage of the offspring would be expected to have a dark face mask? (1.) 0% (2.) 50% (3.) 75% (4.) 100% ___ 5. Using the results of his experiments with pea plant crosses, Gregor Mendel discovered (1.) the principles of dominance, segregation, and independent assortment (2.) intermediate inheritance and gene linkage (3.) that pea plants develop mutations after exposure to radiation (4.) that DNA is involved in the inheritance of dominant traits ___ 11. When two heterozygous tall plants are crossed, some short plants appear in the offspring. The appearance of these short plants illustrates (1.) segregation and recombination (2.) intermediate inheritance (3.) crossing-over and differentiation (4.) codominant inheritance ___ 6. In pea plants, the long-stem trait (L) is dominant and the short-stem train (l) is recessive. Two pea plants were crossed, producing seeds that yielded 165 long-stem plants and 54 short-stem plants. The genotypes of the parent plants were most likely (1.) Ll and LL (2.) Ll and Ll (3.) ll and ll (4.) LL and ll ___ 7. In guinea pigs, black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b) and rough fur (R) is dominant over smooth fur (r). A cross between two guinea pigs hybrid for both traits (BbRr x BbRr) produces some offspring that have rough, black fur and some that have smooth, black fur. The genotypes of these offspring illustrate the genetic concept of (1.) intermediate inheritance (2.) multiple alleles (3.) independent assortment (4.) codominance ___ 12. In squirrels, the gene for gray fur (G) is dominant over the gene for black fur (g). If 50% of a large litter of squirrels are gray, the parental cross that produced this litter was most likely (1.) GG x Gg (2.) Gg x gg (3.) GG x GG (4.) gg x gg ___ 13. In a certain variety of chicken, the genes for black feather color and the genes for white feather color are codominant. This variety of chicken will most likely have (1.) three possible phenotypes for feather color (2.) only two genotypes for feather color (3.) white feather color, only (4.) black feather color, only ___ 14. In a certain species of mouse, gray fur (G) is dominant over cream-colored fur (g). If a homozygous gray mouse is crossed with a cream-colored mouse, the genotype of the F1 generation will most likely be (1.) 100% Gg (2.) 25% GG, 50% Gg, and 25% gg (3.) 50% GG and 50% gg (4.) 75% Gg and 25% gg ___ 15. Which two processes are best represented by the diagram shown? (1.) recombination and codominance (2.) segregation and recombination (3.) segregation and intermediate inheritance (4.) codominance and gene linkage ___ 16. Kernel color in corn is a trait determined by two alleles. The dominant allele (P) produces a purple color, and the recessive allele (p) produces a yellow color. The diagram below shows an ear of corn produced by crossing two corn plants. The shaded kernels are purple, and the unshaded ones are yellow. 3. The genetic makeup of an organism is called its _______________. 4. The appearance of an organism is also called its _________________. 5. The offspring of a cross are called its ___________________. Free Response Section 1. Explain why the Law of Segregation and Recombination supports the idea that one-half the genetic material coming into a zygote (which will become a new sexually reproduced individual) must come from each parent. 2. Briefly state each of Mendel's Laws and explain what they mean. The yellow kernels can best be described as (1.) homozygous dominant (2.) hybrid (3.) heterozygous (4.) homozygous recessive Completion Section 1. Another name for a pure genotype like TT or tt is ________________. 2. Another name for hybrid offspring like Tt is _________________. Part II: Genetics (mutations, environment, and heredity, and applications) ___ 1. Flower color in primrose plants is controlled by an individual gene. The sudden appearance of one white flowering primrose in a plant breeder’s field of red primrose plants is most likely due to (1.) a change in the amount of glucose produced during photosynthesis (2.) the use of a new natural fertilizer on the field (3.) rapid mitotic divisions within the developing seeds (4.) a random change in the structure of DNA during meiosis Use the information provided in the chart below and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 6 and 7 which follow. ___ 2. The gene-chromosome theory states that (1.) chromosomes from both parents always have identical genes (2.) homologous chromosomes do not have alleles (3.) genes exist at definite loci in a linear sequence on chromosomes (4.) Mendel's principles no longer apply to genetics ___ 3. Which statement best describes the process of crossing over? (1.) It takes place between homologous chromosomes and results in new gene combinations. (2.) It takes place between homologous chromosomes and results in an increased gene mutation rate. (3.) It takes place between nonhomologous chromosomes and results in an increased gene mutation rate. (4.) It takes place between nonhomologous chromosomes and results in new gene combinations. ___ 4. White short-horned cattle and Black Angus cattle have been crossed to produce offspring with superior beef and rapid growth qualities. This process of choosing organisms with the most desirable traits for mating is known as (1.) cloning (2.) selective breeding (3.) biodiversity (4.) genetic engineering ___ 5. A structure found in the nucleus of a cell is shown in the diagram. The information contained in the diagram best illustrates the (1.) law of segregation (2.) concept of nondisjunction (3.) theory of natural selection (4.) gene-chromosome theory ___ 6. The arrangement of chromosomes in the diagram at the right is known as a (1.) karyotype (2.) centromere (3.) mutation rate (4.) genotype ___ 7. If the chromosomes of a female were arranged in chart form like the chromosomes of this male, the chart would (1.) be identical to that of the male (2.) appear different in one chromosome pair (3.) contain more chromosomes (4.) have one-half the number of chromosomes ___ 8. Mutations can be transmitted to the next generation only if they are present in (1.) brain cells (2.) body cells (3.) sex cells (4.) muscle cells ___ 9. Sometimes a section of a chromosome is lost during meiosis. This loss results in a change in genetic material known as (1.) deletion (2.) replication (3.) crossing over (4.) polyploidy ___ 10. In which situation could a mutation be passed on to the offspring of an organism? (1.) Ultraviolet radiation causes skin cells to undergo uncontrolled mitotic division. (2.) A primary sex cell in a human forms a gamete that contains 24 chromosomes. (3.) The DNA of a human lung cell undergoes random breakage. (4.) A cell in the uterine wall of a human female undergoes a chromosomal alteration. ___ 11. Bacteria that produce colonies containing a red pigment were distributed on nutrient agar and exposed to ultraviolet light for several days. The colonies that developed were red, with the exception of one colony that was white. The appearance of this white bacterial colony most likely resulted from (1.) codominance (2.) a mutation (3.) synapsis (4.) multiple alleles ___ 12. Which genetic change is best described by the following statement. A random change in the base sequence of DNA results in an alteration of a polypeptide. (1.) Translocation (2.) Deletion (3.) Addition (4.) Gene Mutation ___ 13. Which genetic change is best described by the following statement. A chromosomal rearrangement is formed after a section breaks off from one chromosome and becomes attached to a nonhomologous chromosome. (1.) Translocation (2.) Deletion (3.) Addition (4.) Gene Mutation ___ 14. Substances that increase the chance of gene alterations are known as (1.) mutagenic agents (2.) chromosomal agents (3.) genetic agents (4.) adaptive agents ___ 15. A gene mutation may be transmitted to offspring if the mutation occurs within (1.) an egg cell (2.) cells of the uterus (3.) muscle cells (4.) blood cells ___ 16. The mutation rates in Drosophila will most likely increase after exposure to (1.) ultraviolet radiation (2.) oxygen gas (3.) yeast growing on a nutrient medium (4.) extremely cold temperatures ___ 17. Which change in chromosome structure involves the transfer of one section of a chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome? (1.) nitrogenous base substitution (2.) crossing-over of linked genes (3.) translocation (4.) gene mutation ___ 18. Which statement best describes a chromosomal alteration? (1.) It never affects the phenotype of an organism. (2.) It always produces a recessive genotype in an organism. (3.) It may affect the phenotype of an organism. (4.) It never has an effect on the genotype of an organism. ___ 19. The diagram at the right shows some chromosomal alterations. Which chromosome represents an alteration known as a deletion? (1.) 1 (2.) 2 (3.) 3 (4.) 4 ___ 20. A mutation may be passed on to future generations if it occurs within specialized cells of the (1.) stomach (2.) pancreas (3.) liver (4.) ovary ___ 21. An example of a mutagenic agent is (1.) an amino acid (2.) acetylcholine (3.) ultraviolet radiation (4.) maltase ___ 22. A single change in the sequence of nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule would most likely result in (1.) crossing-over (2.) nondisjunction of chromosomes (3.) polyploidy (4.) a gene mutation ___ 23. Some weed killers, insecticides, and food additives alter the DNA of certain cells. Because of this effect, these substances are known as (1.) auxins (2.) meristems (3.) mutagens (4.) autosomes ___ 24. In a species of plant, the sudden appearance of one plant with a different leaf structure would most likely be the result of (1.) stable gene frequencies (2.) slow environmental changes (3.) chromosomal mutations (4.) asexual reproduction ___ 25. Identical twins were born with genes for a genetic disorder that can be controlled by diet. Both twins were placed on this diet, which excludes a certain amino acid. However, one twin chose not to follow the diet and developed the genetic disorder. The other twin followed the diet and did not develop the disorder. This difference between the twins illustrates that (1.) gene expression is not influenced by biochemical factors (2.) gene expression is influenced by the environment (3.) identical twins do not always have the same genotype (4.) the genetic disorder is inherited by identical twins, only ___ 26. The diagram at the right illustrates what happens to the fur coloration of a Himalayan hare after exposure to a low temperature. This change in fur coloration is most likely due to (1.) the effect of heredity on gene expression (2.) environmental influences on gene action (3.) the arrangement of genes on homologous chromosomes (4.) mutations resulting from a change in the environment ___ 27. A garden hose that had been lying on a green lawn for several days was removed. Which statement best explains the presence of yellow grass in the area where the hose had been? (1.) The lack of sunlight under the hose altered the genotype of the grass. (2.) The hose altered genes in the grass, causing the grass to switch from autotrophic to heterotrophic nutrition. (3.) Gene expression is not affected by the environment. (4.) The lack of sunlight under the hose affected chlorophyll production. ___ 28. Artificial selection is illustrated by (1.) random mating taking place in a population (2.) a gardener producing a new hybrid by crosspollinating plants (3.) the appearance of a new species on an isolated island (4.) wind assisting the pollination of grass in a field ___ 29. Breeders have developed a variety of chicken that has no feathers. Which methods were most likely used to produce this variety? (1.) artificial selection and inbreeding (2.) regeneration and incubation (3.) grafting and hybridization (4.) vegetative propagation and binary fission ___ 30. When the bacterium Serratia marcescens is grown on a sterile culture medium in a petri dish at 30°C, the bacterial colonies will be cream colored. When this same bacterium is cultured under identical conditions, except at a temperature of 25°C, the colonies will be brick red. This difference in color is most likely due to the (1.) type of nutrients in the culture medium (2.) effect of temperature on the expression of the gene for color (3.) sterilization of the culture medium (4.) effect of colony size on the synthesis of color pigments ___ 31. A cattle breeder wished to develop a strain of cattle that would produce large quantities of meat per animal. He chose a bull and a cow that most nearly met his goals for breed size. From their calves, he again chose the male and female offspring that most nearly met his goals. After several generations of this style of breeding, the breeder developed a herd of high-yield cattle. In order to maintain this herd of high-yield cattle, which technique should the cattle breeder use? (1.) vegetative propagation (2.) genetic recombination (3.) hybridization (4.) inbreeding ___ 32. In fruit flies with the curly wing mutation, the wings will be straight if the flies are kept at 16°C, but curly if they are kept at 25°C. The most probable explanation for this is that (1.) fruit flies with curly wings cannot survive at high temperatures (2.) high temperatures increase the rate of mutations (3.) the environment influences wing phenotype in these fruit flies (4.) wing length in these fruit flies is directly proportional to temperature ___ 33. Scientists conducted a study of identical twins who were separated at birth and raised in different homes. They found that in some sets of twins the individuals showed a marked difference in intelligence. The most likely explanation for this difference is that (1.) expression of inherited traits can modify the environment (2.) environment can influence the development and expression of inherited traits (3.) intelligence is a sex-linked trait (4.) nondisjunction occurred in the autosomes of one twin but not the other twin Use the diagram below and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 34 through 36 which follow. ___ 34. Which situation would form a normal human male? ___ 35. Which situation would form a normal human female? ___ 36. Which situation would produce a female zygote having a nondisjunction of the 23rd chromosome pair? ___ 37. Which diagram represents a sperm that can unite with a normal egg to produce a zygote that will develop into a normal human male embryo? ___ 40. A woman has a gene that causes a visual disorder. To prevent the gene from appearing in future generations, the defective gene would have to be repaired in the mother's (1.) eye (2.) uterus (3.) nervous system (4.) reproductive cells Free Response Section 1. List and describe at least three specific changes in chromosome structure we discussed. ___ 38. In humans, the gene for red hair and the gene for freckles are often inherited together because both genes are located on the same chromosome. This observation best illustrates the concept of (1.) gene linkage (2.) dominance (3.) independent assortment (4.) hybridization Note that question 39 has only three choices. ___ 39. Which statement best describes the relationship between the number of genes and number of chromosomes in human skin cells? (1.) There are more genes than chromosomes in skin cells. (2.) There are more chromosomes than genes in skin cells. (3.) There are an equal number of chromosomes and genes in skin cells. 2. List and describe at least three techniques used to select for better plants and animals. ______________________________________________ PART III: Genetics (Molecular Genetics and Biotechnology ) ___ 1. Which type of compound is found in every DNA molecule? (1.) starch (2.) nitrogenous base (3.) lipid (4.) amino acid ___ 2. In a DNA molecule, a base pair could normally be composed of (1.) adenine-thymine (2.) adenine-uracil (3.) thymine-guanine (4.) adenine-guanine ___ 3. The deoxyribo part in the name deoxyribonucleic acid refers to the (1.) rungs of the sugar ladder (2.) bonds that hold the two strands together (3.) sugar component of DNA (4.) type of helical arrangement ___ 4. A nucleotide of DNA could contain (1.) adenine, ribose, and phosphate (2.) nitrogenous base, phosphate, and glucose (3.) phosphate, deoxyribose, and thymine (4.) uracil, deoxyribose and phosphate ___ 5. A molecular group consisting of a sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base is a (1.) nucleoprotein (2.) amino acid (3.) nucleic acid (4.) nucleotide ___ 6. Which statement concerning nucleic acids is FALSE? (1.) DNA is a single stranded molecule. (2.) DNA forms a twisted helix. (3.) RNA contains ribose sugar. (4.) RNA may contain uracil. ___ 7. A nucleotide would least likely contain the element (1.) carbon (2.) nitrogen (3.) phosphorus (4.) sulfur ___ 8. Which nitrogenous bases is NOT found in DNA? (1.) thymine (2.) uracil (3.) adenine (4.) guanine (5.) cytosine ___ 9. During the replication of the DNA molecule, bonds are broken between the (1.) nitrogenous bases (2.) phosphate groups (3.) pentose sugars (4.) sugars and phosphates ___ 10. After the replication of the DNA molecule is completed, each of the two daughter cells is usually composed of (1.) fragments from both strands of the parent DNA molecule (2.) one nucleotide strand exactly like the parent nucleotide strands (3.) nucleotides slightly different from the parent DNA molecule (4.) nucleotides like the parent DNA molecule except that thymine is substituted for uracil ___ 11. Which is NOT part of a nucleotide? (1.) ribose (2.) guanine (3.) maltose (4.) phosphate ___ 12. In nucleotides, the letters A, G, C, and T represent (1.) phosphate groups (2.) nitrogenous bases (3.) deoxyribose sugars (4.) ribose sugars ___ 13. Select the type of nucleic acid molecule that is best described by the following phrase: may contain adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. (1.) DNA molecules, only (2.) Both DNA and RNA molecules (3.) RNA molecules, only (4.) Neither DNA nor RNA molecules ___ 14. Select the type of nucleic acid molecule that is best described by the following phrase: are present in the nuclei of human cheek cells. (1.) DNA molecules, only (2.) Both DNA and RNA molecules (3.) RNA molecules, only (4.) Neither DNA nor RNA molecules ___ 15. DNA is a polymer consisting of repeating units known as (1.) dipeptides (2.) amino acids (3.) nucleotides (4.) organic salts ___ 16. Which components of DNA are held together by weak hydrogen bonds? (1.) phosphate and adenine (2.) thymine and deoxyribose (3.) phosphate and deoxyribose (4.) cytosine and guanine Use the information provided in by the picture below on the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 17 through 19 which follow. ___ 17. In the diagram, which letter indicates a section of the molecule that includes all the components of a nucleotide? (1.) A (2.) B (3.) C (4.) D ___ 18. What molecule is represented on the right? ___ 19. State a reason for your answer in the preceding question. ___ 20. Which event takes place first during DNA replication? (1.) A single-stranded RNA molecule is formed. (2.) Free nucleotides are bonded together in the correct sequence (3.) Transfer RNA links to an amino acid. (4.) The DNA molecule "unzips" along weak hydrogen bonds. ___ 21. A DNA nucleotide is composed of (1.) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus (2.) calcium, hydrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, and iron (3.) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur, and calcium (4.) oxygen, hydrogen, phosphorus, sulfur, and iron ___ 22. Which base is normally used in the synthesis of RNA but not in the synthesis of DNA? (1.) adenine (2.) cytosine (3.) uracil (4.) guanine Use the information provided in the diagram below at the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 23 through 25 which follow? ___ 27. The position of an amino acid in a protein molecule is determined by the (1.) concentration of amino acids in the cytoplasm (2.) amount of ATP in the cell synthesizing the protein (3.) sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA (4.) sequence of amino groups in an amino acid Use the information provided below to answer questions 28 and 29. A = adenine, C = cytosine G = guanine, T = thymine, U = uracil ___ 28. How would the complementary strand of DNA appear if the original strand of DNA contained the bases T-A-G-C in that order? (1.) U-A-C-G (2.) G-C-A-T (3.) T-A-C-G (4.) A-T-C-G ___ 29. A strand of messenger RNA is transcribed from an original strand of DNA. The original bases on the DNA strand were T-A-C-G. What is the base sequence on the RNA strand produced from this? (1.) U-A-G-C (2.) T-A-G-C (3.) C-G-A-U (4.) A-U-G-C ___ 30. During protein synthesis, which type of molecule attaches particular amino acid molecules and positions them in specific positions on the polypeptide chain? (1.) DNA (2.) mRNA (3.) tRNA (4.) ADP ___ 23. The structure and location of a cellular component is represented in the diagram shown. The polymer in the diagram most likely contains (1.) adenosine triphosphate (2.) genes (3.) lipids (4.) hydrolytic enzymes ___ 24. Name the polymer pictured at the right and name one reason for your answer based on the structure of this polymer. ___ 31. With which cellular activity is the replication of DNA most closely associated? (1.) mitosis (2.) aerobic respiration (3.) transport (4.) polysaccharide synthesis Match each of the following terms with a statement from the list provided which best associates with that term. Place the letter of that statement in the blank on your answer sheet. ___ 32. polypeptide ___ 33. template ___ 34. replication ___ 35. triplet ___ 25. What repeating subunits make up this polymer? ___ 36. cloning ___ 37. alpha helix ___ 26. In a portion of a gene, the nitrogenous base sequence is T-C-G-A-A-T. Which nitrogenous base sequence would normally be found bonded to this section of the gene? (1.) A-C-G-T-A-A (2.) A-G-C-T-T-A (3.) A-C-G-U-U-A (4.) U-G-C-A-A-U A. another name for a protein B. to make a copy of DNA C. a long starch molecule D. something which is copied E. sequence of nitrogenous bases which codes for an amino acid F. an identical organism copy G. the shape of DNA ___ 38. Which statement about mutations is most correct? (1.) Most mutations are recessive and beneficial. (2.) Mutations are sources of variations in offspring. (3.) Mutations occur in only fruit flies and molds. (4.) Mutations can not occur unless the mutating cell is exposed to ionizing radiation. ___ 45. Molecule 2 is RNA. List two reasons it can be easily determined this molecule is RNA by looking at its structure. ___ 39. In the cytoplasm, messenger RNA becomes attached to the (1.) cytoplasm (2.) chloroplasts (3.) centrosomes (4.) ribosomes ___ 40. Select the type of nucleic acid molecule that is best described by the following phrase: carry genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes. (1.) DNA molecules, only (2.) Both DNA and RNA molecules (3.) RNA molecules, only (4.) Neither DNA nor RNA molecules ___ 41. The correct order of molecules involved in protein synthesis is (1.) messenger RNA, transfer RNA, DNA, polypeptide (2.) transfer RNA, polypeptide, DNA, messenger RNA, DNA (3.) DNA, messenger RNA, polypeptide, transfer RNA (4.) DNA, messenger RNA, transfer RNA, polypeptide Use the diagram below at the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 42 through 46 which follow. The diagram represents molecules involved in protein synthesis. ___ 42. In plant cells, molecule 1 is found in the (1.) centriole (2.) cell wall (3.) nucleus (4.) ribosome ___ 43. The building blocks of molecule 3 are known as (1.) amino acids (2.) nucleotides (3.) fatty acids (4.) monosaccharides ___ 44. Where do the chemical reactions that are coded for by molecule 2 take place? (1.) in the vacuole (2.) in the lysosome (3.) on the plasma membrane (4.) at ribosomes ___ 46. Molecule 3 is known as (1.) DNA (2.) RNA (3.) a polypeptide (4.) a fatty acid ___ 47. The code of a gene is delivered to the enzymeproducing region of a cell by a (1.) hormone (2.) messenger RNA molecule (3.) nerve impulse (4.) DNA molecule ___ 48. Recombinant DNA is presently used in the biotechnology industry to (1.) eliminate all infectious disease in livestock (2.) increase the frequency of fertilization (3.) synthesize insulin, interferon, and human growth hormone (4.) create populations that exhibit incomplete dominance ___ 49. Some events that take place during the synthesis of a specific protein are listed below. (A) Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome. (B) DNA serves as a template for RNA production. (C) Transfer RNA bonds to a specific codon. (D) Amino acids are bonded together. (E) RNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. The correct order of these events is (1.) B --> E --> A --> C --> D (2.) B --> C --> E --> D --> A (3.) D --> A --> E --> C --> B (4.) C --> B --> A --> E --> D ___ 50. Which chemical components may be parts of a molecule of transfer RNA? (1.) ribose, phosphate group, uracil base (2.) glucose, amino group, thymine base (3.) deoxyribose, phosphate group, guanine base (4.) maltose, carboxyl group, uracil base Use the information provided in the chart below on the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 51 through 55 which follow. The diagram represents molecular structures involved in protein synthesis. ___ 51. Structure 1 represents (1.) part of a polypeptide chain (2.) a portion of an RNA molecule (3.) a portion of a DNA molecule (4.) the building blocks of proteins ___ 52. The DNA code for aspartic acid is (1.) C-T-G (2.) C-C-T (3.) C-C-U (4.) C-U-G ___ 53. Proline, methionine, and aspartic acid represent three types of (1.) fatty acids (2.) hormones (3.) amino acids (4.) enzymes ___ 54. Structure 2 is synthesized in the (1.) nucleus (2.) ribosome (3.) vacuole (4.) lysosome Use the diagram provided below and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 56 through 58 which follow. ___ 56. The synthesis of structure X occurred in the (1.) nucleus (2.) lysosome (3.) cytoplasm (4.) vacuole ___ 57. Which amino acid would be transferred to the position of codon CAC? (1.). leucine (2.) valine (3.) glycine (4.) histidine ___ 58. The biochemical process represented in the diagram is most closely associated with the cell organelle known as the (1.) nucleolus (2.) chloroplast (3.) ribosome (4.) mitochondrion Use the diagram below at the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 59 through 63 which follow. ___ 55. Structure 2 represents (1.) part of a polypeptide chain (2.) a portion of an RNA molecule (3.) a portion of a DNA molecule (4.) the building blocks of proteins ___ 59. Structure A contains a (1.) genetic code (2.) messenger RNA molecule (3.) single nucleotide, only (4.) small polysaccharide ___ 60. Structure B represents (1.) a ribosome (2.) recombinant DNA (3.) transfer RNA (4.) a male gamete ___ 61. The technique illustrated in the diagram is known as (1.) cloning (2.) protein synthesis (3.) genetic engineering (4.) in vitro fertilization ___ 62. Explain why this technique is also called recombinant DNA technology? ___ 63. List two practical applications of this technology to human health and/or agriculture. ___ 64. A sequence of three nitrogenous bases in a messenger RNA molecule is known as a (1.) codon (2.) polypeptide (3.) gene (4.) nucleotide ___ 70. Using special enzymes, scientists have successfully removed the gene that controls the production of interferon and have inserted this gene into the DNA of certain bacteria. These bacteria can now produce interferon. This technique is known as (1.) amniocentesis (2.) genetic engineering (3.) differentiation (4.) karyotyping ___ 71. In the synthesis of proteins, what is the function of messenger RNA molecules? (1.) They act as a template for the synthesis of DNA. (2.) They remove amino acids from the nucleus. (3.) They carry information that determines the sequence of amino acids. (4.) They carry specific enzymes for dehydration synthesis. Use the information provided in the diagram below at the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 72 through 74 which follow. The diagram represents two processes in the synthesis of proteins. ___ 65. Some geneticists are suggesting the possibility of transferring some of the genes that influence photosynthesis from an efficient variety of crop plant to a less efficient crop plant to produce a new variety with improved productivity. To produce this new variety, the project would most likely involve (1.) amniocentesis (2.) genetic engineering (3.) genetic screening (4.) inbreeding ___ 66. Some geneticists are suggesting the possibility of transferring some of the genes that influence photosynthesis from an efficient variety of crop plant to a less efficient crop plant to produce a new variety with improved productivity. Which technique would most likely be used to produce large numbers of genetically identical offspring from this new variety of plant? (1.) cloning (2.) cross-pollination (3.) karyotyping (4.) chromatography ___ 72. Process B involves the pairing of a codon with a triplet code on a transfer RNA molecule. A correct pairing would be (1.) CAT and GTA (2.) GUG and UGU (3.) AAU and UUA (4.) CAG and GUA ___ 73. Process A occurs within the (1.) mitochondrion (2.) chloroplast (3.) ribosome (4.) nucleus ___ 74. What is the process represented by A? Use the diagram below at the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer questions 67 through 69 which follow. ___ 67. Which processes occur in the nucleus? (1.) 1 and 2 (2.) 3 and 4 (3.) 2 and 3 (4.) 4 and 5 ___ 68. Process 1 is known as (1.) replication (2.) nondisjunction (3.) mutation (4.) translocation ___ 69. What is the product of process 3? (1.) a strand of DNA (2.) a strand of RNA (3.) two strands of DNA (4.) a chain of amino acids Use the information provided in the diagram at the right and your knowledge of the living environment to answer question 75. ___ 76. The technique being used to assess this information is called (1.) human genome determination (2.) karyotyping (3.) transformation (4.) cloning (5.) electrophoresis ___ 77. Based on the indicated position of the wells, the shortest DNA fragment in the sample is at position (1.) 1 (2.) 2 (3.) 3 (4.) 4 ___ 75. The diagram illustrates some key steps of a procedure in one area of biotechnology. The letter X most likely represents (1.) bacterial cells that are unable to synthesize insulin (2.) human cells that are able to synthesize antibodies (3.) bacterial cells that are able to synthesize insulin (4.) human cells that are unable to resist antibiotics ___ 78. Based on the results of this laboratory test, it is mostly likely that the guilty pizza thief/slobberer is (1.) Mr. Rader (2.) Mrs. Cobb framing a random student (3.) Kaden (4.) Kate (5.) Brant Base your answers to questions 79 through 82 on the information and diagram below and on your knowledge of biology. The four wells represented in the diagram were each injected with fragments that were prepared from DNA samples using identical techniques. Use the passage/diagram below to answer questions 76 through 78 which follow The Great Pizza Caper Last Thursday, Mr. Buckley was in his room working. There was some pizza on his desk. At 3:20 P.M. , Mr. Buckley and his colleague Mr. Rader suddenly needed to leave the room. At 3:30 P.M. when they returned, they found several pieces of pizza were half eaten with saliva (dribble) all over the pieces. They had noticed several people running from her room. Unfortunately due to their power outage after school, the video cameras that would have detected this situation were not functional. Three students were noticed running by Mrs. Cobb from the scene, who gave their names to Mrs. Varian. Mrs. Varian demanded saliva samples from these students. The three students were Kate, Kaden, and Brant. He took those saliva samples along with a standard sample taken from the dribble on the pizza to a local college for DNA testing. The results of this testing are indicated in the diagram below. Please do the questions on the next page which pertains to this diagram and this paragraph. ___ 79. This laboratory procedure is known as (1) cloning (2) gel electrophoresis (3) chromatography (4) use of a dichotomous key ___ 80. The arrow represents the direction of the movement of the DNA fragments. What is responsible for the movement of the DNA in this process? ___ 81. The four samples of DNA were taken from four different individuals. Explain how this is evident from the results shown in the diagram. ___ 82. Identify the substance that was used to treat the DNA to produce the fragments that were put into the wells. Free Response Section 1.) Draw a nucleotide subunit representation and label its three parts. True-False Section ___ 1. An altered gene may be passed on to every cell that develops from it. ___ 2. In recent years, new varieties of farm plants and animals have been engineered by manipulating their genetic instructions to produce new characteristics. 2.) List three differences in the structure of DNA from RNA. ___ 3. Restriction enzymes can be used to cut sequences of DNA. ___ 4. The cutting, cloning, and movement of segments of DNA does not involve enzymes. ___ 5. Our increased knowledge of genetics is not important to health care. ___ 6. Mapping of genetic instructions in cells makes it possible to detect, and perhaps correct, defective genes that may lead to poor health. ___ 7. Substances from genetically engineered organisms have increased the cost and side effects of replacing missing body chemicals. ___ 8. Although all body cells are are descended from a single cell and have identical genetic instructions, they may be very different because different parts of a cells instructions are used based on a cell's environment and past history. ___ 9. Cell regulation is not important. 3.) Given a strand of DNA with the bases ATTGCC: a.) Give me its complementary DNA stand. b.) Tell me the strand of RNA which could be synthesized from this strand of DNA. 4.) Define the terms transcription, translation, and triplet. ___ 10. Cell regulation allows cells to respond to their environment and control and coordinate cell growth and division. ___ 11. Cell regulation occurs through both changes in the activity of proteins and selective expression of individual genes. 5.) What is a template? ___ 12. The genetic information stored in DNA is used to direct the synthesis of the thousands of proteins required by a cell. ___ 13. Proteins are long, folded molecules, but do not have specific shapes which influence their functions. ___ 14. Proteins can be made from 20 different amino acids in a specific sequence. ___ 15. The shape of a protein determines its function. ___ 16. Offspring resemble their parents because they inherit similar genes that code for the production of proteins that form similar structures and perform similar functions. 6.) Give three examples of how the technology of genetic engineering allows humans to alter the genetic makeup of organisms.