Graphs_1
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Study the diagram below which illustrates the cyclic nature of the formation and breakdown of the molecule
adenosine triphosphate (ATP). What happens when the chemical bond which attaches the third phosphate
group to the molecule is broken?
a.
b.
c.
d.
No energy is made available to the cell for cellular functions.
A molecule of adenosine monophosphate (AMP), with one phosphate group, is formed.
Energy is released, which can be used by the cell.
Energy is lost in the process.
____
2. When an organism eats food, energy becomes available for metabolic activities. In the process, some energy
enters the environment as heat. According to the law of conservation of energy, ____.
a. no energy is lost; the total amount of energy remains the same
b. some energy is lost, as no metabolic process is 100 % efficient
c. energy which is given off as heat is not part of the total energy budget of the system
d. energy which is not immediately used by the organism cannot be stored and is lost
____
3. Study the chemical reactions below.
Photosynthesis:
Cellular respiration:
Plants produce more oxygen during photosynthesis than they use in cellular respiration. What happens to the
excess oxygen produced during photosynthesis?
a. It is used as an energy source by plant cells.
b. It is released into the air and is used by other organisms for respiration.
c. It is converted into heat energy.
d. It is a waste product which is never reused.
____
4. Adenosine triphosphate, or ATP, is an adenosine molecule with three phosphate groups attached. When it
breaks down to form adenosine diphosphate, or ADP, the chemical bond between the second and third
phosphate groups is broken. Which of these processes results in a release of energy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
forming an ADP molecule from the breakdown of an ATP molecule
forming an ATP molecule by adding a phosphate group to an ADP molecule
Energy is not released in any part of this cycle.
Both processes result in a release of energy.
____
5. Four major groups of organic compounds are particularly important to living things. Most life processes rely
on molecules from one or more of these groups. To which group do RNA molecules belong?
a. nucleic acids
c. lipids
b. carbohydrates
d. proteins
____
6. Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?
a. Enzymes speed the reactions which occur during food digestion.
b. Enzymes always slow the rate at which a chemical reaction occurs.
c. Enzymes change the amount of product created during a chemical reaction.
d. Only a small number of the body's metabolic processes involve enzymes.
____
7. Nitrogen is found in a variety of forms in living things and in the environment. Molecules include N2, a
diatomic molecule, and NH3, ammonia. Other forms include NO3-, or nitrate, and -NH2, an amino group.
Which of these forms is produced by nitrogen fixation?
a. ammonia
c. nitrate
b. amino group
d. diatomic nitrogen
____
8. Cell organelles carry out specific metabolic processes. Which cell organelles manage the process by which
worn out organelles¸ food particles¸ and engulfed viruses or bacteria are digested?
a. ribosomes
c. vacuoles
b. lysosomes
d. Golgi bodies
____
9. Jackson is growing a bean plant in a pot. One day Jackson notices that the plant is wilting. He waters the bean
plant and within a few minutes the plant begins to perk up. This is because the plant has taken up water by
osmosis. At what structural level does osmosis occur?
a. organs
c. cells
b. tissues
d. organ systems
____ 10. Certain types of biomolecules are crucial to a variety of life processes and body structures. One of these types
of molecules are carbohydrates, which are ____.
a. organic compounds used by cells to store and release energy
b. insoluble in water and are used by the body for energy storage and insulation
c. complex biomolecules that store genetic information
d. substances that increase the OH- concentration of a solution
Guard cells are pairs of cells that surround stomata, which are small openings or pores in the leaf. Guard cells
control the opening and closing of the stomatal pores.
____ 11. Read the information above. The guard cells determine whether or not the stomatal pores are open. When
guard cells absorb water, they swell, and the pores open. When guard cells lose water, they shrink, and the
pores close. When stomata are open the plant loses water through the pores in a process known as
transpiration. What is the most likely effect on the plant if the guard cells stay swollen on a hot day?
a. The plant will turn yellow.
c. The plant will lose its leaves.
b. The plant will wilt.
d. The plant’s roots will grow.
____ 12. Refer to the information above. Guard cells from a tomato plant are kidney-bean shaped. Which cell type
would you expect to look most similar to tomato guard cells?
a. root cells from a tomato plant
b. guard cells from a marigold plant
c. leaf palisade cells from a tomato plant
d. stem cells from a corn plant
____ 13. Ling is doing an experiment on some bean plants. She is growing two bean plants (A and B) under fluorescent
lights. Plant A and plant B both receive the same amount of water and light, but plant B sits in front of a
blowing fan for an hour every day. Plant A is kept far away from the fan. After two weeks Ling looks at the
plants under a microscope. She notices that the stem cells in plant B have thicker cell walls than the stem cells
in plant A. What can you conclude about this experiment?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cell walls are involved in water transport in plants.
Cell walls contain chlorophyll.
Cell walls undergo photosynthesis.
Cell walls help support plants.
____ 14. Suzanne is looking at muscle tissue using a microscope. She notices that cells from a stomach muscle (A) do
not look striped, while tissue from leg muscle appears to be striped (B). What is the reason that the two tissue
types look different?
a.
b.
c.
d.
The stomach muscle is full of dividing cells.
Stomach muscle functions differently than leg muscle.
The stripes in the leg muscle do not relate to its function.
The two muscles have similar functions despite their appearance.
____ 15. Specific biomolecules serve various functions in the body. Identify the molecule which is broken down during
respiration forming water and carbon dioxide releasing energy.
a. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
b. glucose
c. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
d. hemoglobin
____ 16. A special type of cell division, called meiosis, is used to form sex cells or gametes. Which statement is true
about this type of cell division?
a. The products of meiosis are two identical cells.
b. DNA is not copied at all during meiosis.
c. The new cells have half the DNA of the parent cell.
d. Meiosis is complete after only one round of cell division.
____ 17. Which of the following correctly shows a complementary base pair of nitrogenous bases in a DNA molecule?
a. adenine - guanine
c. cytosine - adenine
b. guanine - cytosine
d. guanine - thymine
____ 18. DNA is a polymer which is made up of subunits called nucleotides. Nucleotides have three basic parts. Which
of these is not a nucleotide component?
a. deoxyribose sugar
c. ribose sugar
b. phosphate group
d. nitrogenous base
____ 19. A nitrogenous base is an important component of the nucleotides making up DNA. Which of the following
correctly lists the four possible nitrogenous bases in DNA?
a. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
b. leucine, proline, tyrosine, phenylalanine
c. glutamine, proline, tyrosine, phenylalanine
d. adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
____ 20. RNA molecules use instructions from DNA to assemble proteins. There are three types of RNA molecules:
mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. What specific function does mRNA perform in the process of making proteins?
a. It brings instructions from DNA in the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm.
b. It clamps onto messenger RNA and uses its information to assemble amino acids.
c. It transports amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled into proteins.
d. It creates another molecule of DNA through replication.
____ 21. In order for DNA instructions to move from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of a cell, an RNA
copy of a DNA strand must be made. This process, which takes place in the cell nucleus, is called ____.
a. translation
c. mutation
b. DNA replication
d. transcription
____ 22. The chart below shows the ten countries which had the largest oil reserves in 2002. How was this data
collected to ensure a lack of bias?
2002
Rank
1
2
3
4
5
a.
b.
c.
d.
Country
Saudi Arabia
Iraq
Iran
Kuwait
United Arab
Emirates
Greatest Oil Reserves by Country, 2002
2002 Proved Reserves
2002
Country
(billions of barrels)
Rank
261.7
6
Russia
115.0
7
Venezuela
99.1
8
Libya
98.9
9
Nigeria
62.8
10
China
2002 Proved Reserves
(billions of barrels)
53.9
50.2
30.0
30.0
29.5
Only the largest countries in each major region were surveyed.
Countries in Northern Europe were not included in the data collection process.
Countries with proved oil reserves of any amount were included in the survey.
Only countries in Africa and Asia were included in the data collection process.
____ 23. The chart below shows how the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in Earth’s atmosphere changed
between 1935 and 1994. This data shows that ____.
Global Levels of Atmospheric CO2
Global Atmospheric CO2
Year
Concentration
(parts per million)
1935
306.6
1949
311
1958
312
1965
318
1974
330.1
1984
344.3
1994
358.8
a.
b.
c.
d.
the burning of fossil fuels causes global warming
global atmospheric CO2 increased steadily between 1935 and 1994
human activities are causing CO2 levels to rise
CO2 levels will continue to rise indefinitely
____ 24. The circle graph below shows the percentages of water which are used for various activities in the United
States. Which statement about the use of water in the United States is false?
a.
b.
c.
d.
More water is used for agricultural purposes than for any other reason.
Water use by the public and industry combined does not surpass that used in agriculture.
Industrial use of water is greater than the amount used to cool power plants.
Cooling power plants and agricultural use accounts for more than 75% of water use.
Rita conducted an experiment which involved placing a thermometer in each of four identical beakers
containing four unknown liquids, each of equal volume. All four beakers had just been removed from an oven
maintained at 92 degrees Celsius (°C) where they had been for the previous one hour. They were placed on a
lab table in a room that was maintained at a constant 22°C. Rita recorded the temperatures read on the four
thermometers every 15 minutes (min.) for one hour. The data collected is in the following table:
Liquid Temperatures in degrees Celsius (°C)
Liquid
A
B
0 min.
92
92
15 min.
82
73
30 min.
70
51
45 min.
64
39
60 min.
50
22
C
92
77
65
56
40
D
92
77
65
56
40
____ 25. Referring to the above data from Rita’s experiment, which liquid had the greatest temperature change during
the 60 minutes?
a. A
c. B
b. C
d. D
____ 26. The table below shows how the world population has changed between 1950 and 2000. Which statement
about this data is TRUE?
Total Midyear World
Population, 1950 - 2000
Year
Population
1950
2,555,078,074
1960
3,039,332,401
1970
3,707,610,112
1980
4,456,705,217
1985
4,854,602,890
1990
5,283,755,345
1995
5,690,865,776
2000
6,080,141,683
a.
b.
c.
d.
Between 1950 and 2000¸ the overall world birth rate exceeded the death rate.
World population showed a steady decline between 1950 and 2000.
Between 1950 and 2000¸ the overall world death rate exceeded the birth rate.
Between 1950 and 2000¸ the overall world birth and death rates were roughly equal.
____ 27. A researcher who wants to learn about the behavior of a particular gas examines the relationship between
temperature and gas volume when the gas is held at a constant pressure. The graph below shows the data
collected. What would the data show if the temperature were decreased to 100 Kelvin?
Kelvin Temperature vs. Volume
800
700
(348, 703)
Volume (mL)
600
(273, 551)
500
400
(198, 400)
300
200
100
50
100
150
200
250
300
350
400
Temperature (Kelvin)
a.
b.
c.
d.
The volume would decrease.
The volume would not change.
The volume would increase rapidly¸ then decrease.
The volume would increase.
____ 28. Study the chart below which gives information about Group 1A elements, the alkali metals. Which statement
about the data is TRUE?
Element
Lithium
Sodium
Potassium
Rubidium
Cesium
Francium
a.
b.
c.
d.
Group 1A Elements
Symbol
Atomic
Mass
Number
Number
Li
3
7
Na
11
23
K
19
39
Rb
37
85
Cs
55
133
Fr
87
223
Melting
Point (°C)
180.5
97.8
63.2
39.5
28.4
27.0
There is a relationship between atomic number and melting point of Group 1A elements.
Group 1A elements have low boiling points.
Alkali metals have high melting points.
There is no pattern evident in the data.
Numeric Response
The graphs below show how the number of acorns produced by oak trees in a forest determines the yearly
population of squirrels.
Population (% of Peak)
Yearly Population Cycles of
Squirrels and Acorns
Squirrels
Acorns
1997
1998
1999 2000
Year
2001
2002
Acorns Needed to Support
Squirrel Population
600
Number of Squirrels
500
400
300
200
100
10000 20000 30000 40000 50000 60000
Number of Acorns
29. Refer to the graphs above. How many squirrels could be supported by 40¸000 acorns?
30. Refer to the data above. If the acorn population increased from 10¸000 in the first year to 40¸000 in the second
year, how many more squirrels could be fed in the second year than in the first?
31. Study the graphs above. The peak in squirrel population in the year 2001 was most likely caused by a peak in
acorn production in what year?
32. Coral bleaching is a phenomenon that happens when part of a coral reef dies and turns white. One factor that
causes coral bleaching is a change in water temperature. Coral reefs are more likely to bleach when the
temperature of the surrounding water goes above 29°C. The chart below shows the fluctuation of water
temperature during the month of March for different years in a coral reef.
Average March Water Temperatures
Degrees Celcius (°C)
30
28
26
24
1995
1997
Year
1999
In what year was bleaching most likely to occur?
A meadow habitat has the following food chain:
grasses—grasshoppers—birds—owls
The grasses have 100% of the energy. As energy moves through the food chain, there is a 50% drop in
available energy with each change in organism.
33. Refer to the information above. The amount of energy the birds will have is ____ percent.
34. Refer to the information above. What percent of energy is available to the primary consumer?
The Calorie (C) is a unit used by nutritionists to measure how much energy you get from various foods. One
nutritional Calorie equals about 4.184 kilojoules (kJ).
35. Refer to the information above. How much energy does 325 Calories supply for the body? Answer to the
nearest whole kilojoule.
36. Refer to the data above. Some foods contain more Calories than others. One gram (g) of fat, for example,
contains approximately nine Calories. How much energy is supplied to the body by 3.5 grams of fat? Answer
to the nearest whole kilojoule.
37. Jin conducts an experiment to determine the pH of some common substances. The graph below shows the
data she collected. Based on this data, what is the pH of detergent?
Oven Cleaner
pH of Common Household Substances
16
15.5
15
14.5
14
13.5
13
12.5
Detergent
12
11.5
11
10.5
10
9.5
9
8
7.5
Milk
Water
pH
8.5
7
Coffee
6.5
6
4
3.5
3
2.5
Lemon Juice
5
4.5
Vinegar
5.5
2
1.5
1
0.5
Common Household Substances
38. The graph below shows the relationship between the germination percentage of a certain type of seed and the
amount of time the seeds are exposed to cold temperatures. What percentage of seeds will germinate after
being exposed to cold temperatures for 5 months?
Seed Germination Rate Following
Exposure to Cold Temperatures
80
75
70
65
Percent Germination
60
55
50
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
1
2
3
4
5
M onths Exposed to Cold Temperatures
39. The table below shows the relationship between the melting point of Group 1A elements and atomic number.
What is the melting point in degrees Celsius (ºC) of potassium (K), which has atomic number 19?
Melting Point in °C of Group
1A Elements
Element
Melting
Point (ºC)
Lithium (Li)
181
Sodium (Na)
98
Potassium (K)
63
Rubidium (Rb)
40
Cesium (Cs)
28
Francium (Fr)
27
40. Michael compared soil samples which were collected from six different locations across the United States.
The data table below shows the observations he made about the relative silt, sand, and clay content of each
sample. What percentage of soil sample number 6 is composed of clay?
Silt, Sand, and Clay Content
of Soil Samples
Soil
Percent
Percent
Percent
Sample
Silt
Sand
Clay
1
2
3
4
5
6
25
10
35
65
50
10
70
30
10
20
35
20
5
60
55
15
15
70
41. Jake uses the common objects shown in the chart below to determine the hardness of five unknown minerals.
Mineral number 1 can be scratched by a piece of copper¸ but a fingernail will not scratch it. What is the
hardness of this mineral?
Hardness of
Common Objects
Fingernail
2.5
Piece of copper
3.5
Iron nail
4.5
Glass
5.5
Steel file
6.5
Streak plate
7.0
Short Answer
42. The marsh plants, insects, frogs and raccoons form a community in and around a pond. The insects eat the
plants, the frogs eat the insects, and the raccoons eat the frogs. When the raccoon dies it is decomposed by
bacteria.
Part A Explain the flow of energy in this chain. What is the original source of energy in this food chain? Is
any energy lost as it moves through the food chain?
Part B Explain how materials are cycled in this food chain. Explain the role of decomposers in how materials
are cycled.
43. Organisms living in a community rely on each other in a variety of ways, even if they are not directly
connected by a feeding relationship. Organisms known as decomposers play a crucial role in how the
community functions.
Part A Give two examples of decomposers which might be found in a community.
Part B Explain the general role played by decomposers in the communityk.
44. Reeds and cattails are common plants in wetland ecosystems. Raccoons and herons move and hide among
these plants as they hunt for fish and other organisms. Ducks eat plant matter in the water and along the
bottom. Insects are food for frogs and newts. Deer feed on a variety of wetland plants. Identify consumers
described here which compete for the same food sources.
45. Your body weight is determined by many factors, including your age, how much you eat, and how active you
are. Explain the relationship between how much a person eats (their caloric intake), their level of activity, and
their body weight.
46. In a salt marsh community, water plants and marsh plants are the primary producers. First-order consumers of
these plants include bay shrimp, mud snails, and crickets. Second-order consumers include billfish and
redwing blackbirds. Third-order consumers in this community are ospreys, terns, and great herons.
Explain what would happen if the crickets were eliminated from this community.
47. Cellular respiration is an essential process in the human body. Explain the importance of this process to body
function. What happens in cells when aerobic respiration cannot take place?
48. The diagram below shows a pyramid of energy within an ecosystem. Each level represents the energy
available within that trophic level. Compare the amount of energy available at successively higher trophic
levels. How does the law of conservation of energy apply to the process of energy movement through
ecosystems?
49. Organisms within a community exist on different trophic levels in the passage of energy and materials. These
trophic levels are often diagramed as a pyramid showing the organisms found at each level. One tree can be
food for many insects. What would a pyramid that shows this relationship look like?
50. The diagram below shows the structure of the phospholipid layer of the plasma membrane. Describe the
structure and function of this cellular boundary.
51. The diagram below illustrates how feedback controls blood sugar levels in the body. Using the information
provided, as well as your knowledge of this process, describe how insulin and glucagon function to regulate
glucose levels within the body.
52. In many countries, including the United States, children receive vaccinations between birth and about 13
years of age. When a child receives certain vaccinations, it becomes unlikely he will catch certain diseases,
including things like measles, mumps, and chicken pox.
Part A Predict how these vaccinations affect the general health of children in countries where children
receive them.
Part B How might the rate of childhood illness be different in the United States than in countries where these
kinds of vaccinations are not available? Does the availability of vaccinations for certain diseases have a
positive or negative effect on the health of children?
53. In a population of spiders living in a given area, size is related to survival. Larger spiders in this group are
easily seen and therefore captured by predators, while smaller spiders have difficulty finding food. Define the
process at work in determining the size of spiders in this population, and describe what size surviving spiders
are most likely to be.
54. Some species of disease-causing bacteria which could be killed by penicillin 50 years ago, today cannot be
destroyed by this drug. Explain the mechanism that allows this to happen.
55. Alonzo collects and records data about the properties of an unknown piece of metal. How might Alonzo form
a hypothesis about the identity of this metal?
Color
Gray
Luster
Shiny
Metal Observations
Mass
34.3 g
Volume
4.7 cm3
Density
7.3 g/cm3
56. Experimental data shows that there is a relationship among the pressure, volume, and temperature of a fixed
amount of gas. If an experimenter wants to determine the relationship between volume and temperature only,
how should he establish these three factors as variables and constants in the experiment?
57. Rachel is interested in comparing the permeability of soils in different parts of the county in which she lives.
She collects soils from a variety of areas, including a forested area in which there has been no development, a
new housing subdivision, beside a small stream in her neighborhood, and a playground at her school. At each
site, she collects a 1000 milliliter (ml) volume of soil from a depth of 3 centimeters (cm), and records
observations about its composition. Rachel identifies the soil from the forested area as the standard to which
she will compare the other soils, as it contains a mixture of silt, sand, and clay. Because the soil from the
housing subdivision is mostly clay, Rachel believes its permeability will be the lowest of any soils she
collects.
In the classroom, Rachel performs an experiment in which she pours 200 ml of water into each soil sample,
then observes and records the amount of time required for the water to drain through the soil. What is the
purpose of this experiment? Describe the hypothesis.
58. Carla notices that she has gained about five pounds during the last several months. To understand why this
has happened, Carla decides to write down everything she eats, and at what time of day. She decides to record
data each day for one week. Carla plans to analyze the data by looking for trends or patterns in her eating
habits.
Part A Why is it important for Carla to keep a written record of her food intake in this experiment?
Part B How can Carla use this data to make decisions about food choices in the future?
Essay
59. During the latter part of the 1900s, a great deal of land in rainforest regions was cleared to create farmland
and supply wood. The effects of deforestation are far-reaching, ultimately affecting both biotic and abiotic
factors within the rainforest region and worldwide.
Part A Identify specific ways that removal of rainforest vegetation has altered the local
ecosystem.
Part B Describe specific impacts rainforest destruction has on environmental and other
conditions worldwide.
60. Making observations and developing hypotheses are critical steps in a scientific method. Based on your
knowledge of scientific investigations, compare a hypothesis to an observation. Be sure to explain and
include:
• a description of both a hypothesis and an observation;
• an explanation of how a hypothesis and an observation differ; and
• the importance of both hypotheses and observations in experimental design.