1.Animal cells contain which of the following as a selective barrier:
A. endoplasmic reticulum
plasma membrane
B.
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
2.The control center or brain of the cell is the
A. nucleus
mitochondria
B.
C. cell membrane
D. endoplasmic reticulum
3.Animal cells have all of the following except
A. cell membrane
nucleus
B.
C. choloroplast
D. centrioles
4. Prokaryotes lack which of the following
A. nucleus
B. Cell membrane
C. DNA
D. Cytoplasm
5. Diffusion is the movement of particles from…
A. an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration
an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration
B.
C. an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
D. all of the above
6. Diffusion of water is called…
A. facilitated diffusion
active transport
B.
C. osmosis
D. exocytosis
7. Which of the following is the "powerhouse" of the cell that makes energy in the form
of ATP?
A. mitochondria
vacuole
B.
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. chloroplast
8. Which of the following is the site for protein synthesis?
A. cell membrane
nucleus
B.
C. ribosomes
D. lysosomes
9. This type of diffusion requires the help of protein channels. It allows for diffusion of
large molecules like glucose through the plasma membrane.
A. osmosis
diffusion
B.
C. active transport
D. facilitated diffusion or symport
10. Which of the following is the site of photosynthesis?
A. smooth ER
chloroplast
B.
C. mitochondria
D. cytoplasm
11. In our lab when we heated up the liver extract, heat denatured the enzyme catalase.
What was the indicator that this happened?
A. when we added hydrogen peroxide, it foamed
B. when we added hydrogen peroxide, it did not foam
C. there was a color change from blue to orange
D. there was a color change from blue to yellow
12. .For the above figure, F is which of the following?
A. ribosome
B. Golgi
C. mitochondria
D. Nucleus
13. G is what in the above figure?
A. ribosome
B. Golgi
C. mitochondria
D. Nucleus
14. An organism that uses hydrogen sulfide as a source of energy is categorized as which
of the following?
a. photoautotroph
b. chemoautotroph
c. heteroautotroph
d. thermoautotroph
15. What results from the removal of a phosphate group from ATP?
a.
b.
c.
d.
the production of mechanical energy
the release of energy
the creation of energy
the absorption of energy by chlorophyll
16. Infer why chloroplasts are found mostly in the leaves of plants.
a. The large surface area of leaves allows for maximum light absorption.
b. The waxy coating on the surface of leaves helps prevent evaporation.
c. Chlorophyll interferes with the xylem and phloem in the stems and trunks of
plants.
d. The large surface area of leaves allows for contact with oxygen.
17. . Where does the oxygen used in cellular respiration end up?
a. water
b. ATP
c. NADH
d. glucose
18. The movement of protons thru the ATP synthase channel to make ATP is called (A.
chemiosmosis B.hydrolisys).
19. The movement of protons thru the ATP synthase channel to make ATP is called (A.
chemiosmosis B.hydrolisys).
20. The balanced equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO2 + 6H2O --> C6H12O6 + (A. 6H2O
B. 6O2)
21. ATP is made of one adenine base, one ribose sugar, and (A. 2 B.3) phosphate groups.
22. The end product of glycolysis is
A) NADH
B) acetyl-CoA
C) lactate
D) pyruvate
23. Where does the Kreb cycle occur?
A) in chloroplast
B) in cytoplasm of cells
C) in the mitochondria of cells
D) in the nucleus
24. Glycolysis produces how much ATP totally?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 10
25.
. Pyruvate is the end product of the ______ reactions.
A) Krebs cycle
B) Calvin cycle
C) electron transport system
D) glycolysis
E) transition
26. Oxidizing which of the following substances yields the most energy?
A) proteins
B) glucose
C) fatty acids
D) alcohol
27. By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except ____.
A) tighter coiling of the chromosomes
B) breaking down of the nuclear envelope
C) disappearing of the nucleolus
D) lining up of chromosomes in the cell
28. Which of the following does not occur as a cell grows larger and larger in size?
a. difficulty obtaining nutrients
b. difficulty eliminating wastes
c. ratio of surface area to volume increases
d. diffusion gets more efficient
29. Why is the synthesis stage in the cell cycle called this?
a. because protein synthesis is taking place
b. because DNA synthesis is taking place
c. because it combines several smaller stages into one
d. because the chromosomes come together
30. A cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell
have?
a. 4
c. 12
b. 6
d. 24
31. It is often said that normal cells change into cancerous cells frequently in our
bodies. Which of the following explanations accounts for the relative rarity of
cancer?
a. The cancerous cells die on their own.
b. The DNA repair system fixes the mutation that causes cancer.
c. The cancer cells grow only very slowly at first.
d. The cancerous cells are normally crowded out by normal cell growth.
32. DNA replication occurs during
a. anaphase.
b. interphase.
c. metaphase.
d. prophase.
33. The numbers in the above figure represent the chromosome number found in
each of the dog cells shown. The processes that are occurring at A and B are ____.
a.
b.
mitosis and fertilization
meiosis and fertilization
c.
d.
mitosis and pollination
meiosis and pollination
34. A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring
when mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably ____.
a. homozygous recessive
c. homozygous dominant
b. heterozygous
d. haploid
35. In mink, brown fur color is dominant to silver-blue fur color. If a homozygous
brown mink is mated with a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced, how
many would be expected to be silver-blue?
a. 0
c. 6
b. 3
d. 8
36. Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?
a. when DNA is being replicated
b. when homologous chromosomes line up in pairs
c. when centromeres are separated
d. when cytokinesis begins
37. The typical human body cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many
chromosomes are found in a typical human sperm?
a. 23
c. 46
b. 45
d. 92
38. If two heterozygous individuals are crossed, what percent of their offspring are
also expected to be heterozygous?
a. 0
c. 75
b. 50
d. 100
39. Of the following species used in agriculture, which is most likely a polyploid?
a. cow
c. hen
b. goat
d. wheat
40. Consider the cell labeled X in the Figure above containing 4 chromosomes.
Which of the four cells below it represents a healthy gamete that could be
produced from this cell?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
41. Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?
a. chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide
b. cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide
c. nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus
d. cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome
42. In which part of the cell does this process shown in the above Figure take
place?
a. in the nucleus
c. at the ribosomes
b. in food vacuoles
d. on the chromosome
43. Structure III in Figure 12-2 represents a(n) ____.
a. gene
c. codon
b. amino acid
d. DNA molecule
44. A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ____.
a. frameshift mutation
b. substitution
c. insertion
d. deletion
45. Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central
dogma?
a. protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b. protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c. transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d. translation, transcription, protein synthesis
46. This is a template DNA sequence: 3'AATCGC5'. This is a partially-completed
mRNA strand transcribed from the DNA template: 3'GCGA5'. What is the next
nucleotide that RNA polymerase will attach?
a. A
c. T
b. C
d. U
47. DNA replication of a leading strand involves which enzymes?
a. primase, polymerase
c. helicase, primase, ligase
b. primase, polymerase, ligase
d. helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase
48. Within a decade of the introduction of a new insecticide, nearly all of the
descendants of the target insects are resistant to the usual-sized dose. What is the
most likely explanation for the resistance to the insecticide?
a. Eating the insecticide caused the insects to become more resistant to it.
b. Eating the insecticide caused the insects to become less resistant to it.
c. The pesticide destroyed organisms that cause disease in the insects, thus
allowing them to live longer.
d. The insects developed physiological adaptations to the insecticide.
49. Which answer best shows an animal's adaptation to the tropical rain forest?
a. camouflage in a tree frog
b. the long neck of a giraffe
c. an elephant's long trunk
d. migration of birds in winter
50. Which combination of characteristics in a population would provide the
greatest potential for evolutionary change?
a. small population, few mutations
b. small population, many mutations
c. large population, few mutations
d. large population, many mutations
51. When investigating shell color of a species of snail found only in a remote area
seldom visited by humans, scientists discovered the distribution of individuals that
is shown in the graph in the above Figure. Based on the information shown in the
graph, what form of selection is the snail population undergoing?
a.
b.
stabilizing selection
disruptive selection
c.
d.
artificial selection
directional selection
52. What type of adaptation is shown in the above Figure.
a.
mimicry
c.
artificial selection
b.
camouflage d.
homologous structure
53. Which term best describes the structures shown in the above Figure?
a.
ancestral
c.
analogous
b.
heterologous d.
vestigial
54. Which of the following is a correct statement about the relationship between
natural selection and evolution?
a. Natural selection results from evolution.
b. Natural selection includes evolution as a part of it.
c. Natural selection is one mechanism of evolution.
d. Natural selection and evolution are the same thing.
55. How do fossils demonstrate evidence of evolution?
a. They show that ancient species share similarities with species now on Earth.
b. They show evidence of species that are now extinct.
c. They are the primary source of evidence of natural selection.
d. Fossils reveal that many species have remained unchanged for millions of
years.
56. Which of the following is an accurate comparison of derived traits and
ancestral traits?
a. Derived traits result from artificial selection; ancestral traits result from
natural selection.
b. Derived traits appear in species; ancestral traits appear in genera or higher
taxa.
c. Derived traits are primitive; ancestral traits are contemporary.
d. Derived traits are recent features; ancestral traits are more primitive features.
57. The loss of and perceived function of a structure in a species is classified as
what kind of structures?
a. vestigial
c. analogous
b. homologous
d. comparative
58. According to Darwin, which of the following best explains why the mara is
more similar to other South American mammals than it is to the European
rabbit?
a. Its genotype is similar to the South American animals.
b. It shares amino-acid sequences with other South American animals.
c. species in the same geographical location are more similar.
d. Its geographic distribution indicates very little variation over time.
59. Which of the following must occur for speciation to develop?
a. populations have to be small
b. populations have to be made up of several species
c. populations must be over-populated
d. populations must be separated
60. When allelic frequencies remain unchanged, a population is in genetic
equilibrium. This statement expresses which of the following?
a. genetic drift
b. Hardy-Weinberg principle
c. sympatric speciation
d. pre-zygotic isolating mechanism
61. Which of the following tissues would limit the rate of transpiration the most?
a. cuticle
c. trichomes
b. phloem
d. xylem
62. A Banana tree has unripen fruit compared to other trees around it. Which of the
following hormone is likely to be found in low in concentration?
a. auxin
c. ethylene
b. cytokinins
d. gibberellins
63. Which picture shown in the above Figure is the most likely outcome?
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
64. Which of the following tissues would limit the rate of transpiration the most?
a. cuticle
c. trichomes
b. phloem
d. xylem
65. The stems of a plant growing out of the side of a cliff will grow upward
because of
a. geotropism.
c. phototropism.
b. photoperiodism.
d. thigmotropism.
66. Changes in which of the following would result in the opening and closing of
stomata.
a. parenchyma cells lose water.
b. Water moving into and out of the guard cell causes it to swell or shrink.
c. gibberellins accumulate in the leaf.
d. Sugar crystals in the walls of the collenchyma can move from a pentagonal
shape to a hexagonal shape.
67. Which type of stem bends and is the most flexible?
a. woody
c. dichotymous stems
b. older woody stems
d. herbaceous
68. A plant grows in regions that receive little annual precipitation. Which type of
root structure would this plant most likely have?
a. adventitious
c. pneumatophores
b. fibrous
d. taproot
69. Which plant structure moves water throughout the plant
a. xylem
b. phloem
c. gaurd cells
d. stomata
70. This plant tissue is responsible for growth
a. Dermal
b. vascular
c. meristemic
d. ground
71. Th
71. AA leafs cuticle is most closely associated with what plant tissue?
a. meristematic
b. ground
c. vascular
d. dermal
____ 26. 72. Which of the following plant tissue has the most diverse function.
a. dermal tissue
c. meristematic tissue
b. ground tissue
d. vascular tissue
____ 27. 73. What structure is found between the epidermis and endodermis of roots?
a. root hairs
c. cortex
b. pericycle
d. casparian stipes
____ 28. 74. Which function do stems and roots share?
a. transpiration
c. support of the plant body
b. photosynthesis
d. All the above
_
____ 30. 75. Which of the following best describes Dicot...a type of stem structure.
a. vascular bundles arranged in a ring c. vascular bundles are scattered
b. lack of any vascular bundles
d. vascular bundles found in very
center