Anatomy and Physiology Semester I Applied
Concept Review Answers
The semester exam emphasizes applying the factual knowledge you have acquired
during your study of the human body. This applied review will help you practice
the type of questions that are found on the exam, but this review is very limited in
its scope. Answering these questions will not prepare you for the final. You need to
also review the main ideas and facts that were presented in each unit.
Unit I: Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology
1.
The fact that a single defective protein causes cystic fibrosis, a multisystemic illness, proves that
a. All organisms are composed of cells
b. All levels of organization within an organisms are interdependent
c. Chemical molecules make up cells
d. All cells are independent of each other
e. Congenital defects can be life threatening
2.
Each of the following is an example of negative feedback EXCEPT one. Identify the exception.
a. Increased pressure in the aorta triggers mechanisms to lower blood pressure
b. A rise in blood calcium levels triggers the release of a hormone that lowers blood calcium.
c. A rise in estrogen during the menstrual cycle increases the number of progesterone receptors in the
uterus.
d. Increased blood sugar stimulates the release of a hormone from the pancreas that stimulates the
liver to store blood sugar
e. A decrease in body temperature triggers a neural response that initiates physiological changes to
increase body temperature.
3. As a surgeon, you perform an invasive procedure that necessitates cutting through the peritoneum. Are you
more likely to be operating on the heart or on the stomach? Stomach because the peritoneum lines the
abdominal cavity
4.
In which body cavity or cavities would each of the following organs or systems be found?
a. Cardiovascular, digestive and urinary systems Ventral
b. Heart, lungs Thoracic
c. Stomach, intestines. Abdominal
5. An anatomist wishes to make detailed comparisons of medial surfaces of the left and right sides of the brain.
This work requires sections that show the entire medial surface. Which kind of sections should be ordered
from the lab for this investigation? Transverse or Frontal
6.
Why is it life-threatening to have a high fever? Heat causes certain proteins such as enzymes to become
denatured. When this happens the proteins become non-functional and if they catalyze reactions necesdary
to life, life will cease.
7. A certain pathway consists of four steps. Why would decreasing the amount of enzyme that catalyzes the
second step affect the amount of product produced at the end of the pathway? Decreasing the amount of
enzyme at the 2nd step would slow down the whole series of reactions because less substrate would be
available for the next two steps. Less product will be produced.
8. The element sulfur has an atomic number of 16 and an atomic mass of 32. How many neutrons are in the
nucleus of a sulfur atom? Assuming that sulfur forms covalent bonds with hydrogen, how many hydrogen
atoms could bond to one sulfur atom? 16 neutrons and 2 covalent bonds.
9. An important buffer system in the human body involves carbon dioxide (CO2) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)
as shown:
CO2 + H2O  H2CO3  H+ + HCO3If a person become excited and exhales large amounts of CO2, how will his or her body’s pH be affected?
The pH will increase or become more alkaline.
Unit II: Cells and Tissues
10. Two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane with the same properties as a cell membrane.
Solution A is 5 percent glucose and solution B is 10 percent glucose. Under these circumstances,
a. Water will move from solution A to solution B.
b. Water will move from solution B to solution A.
c. Glucose will move from solution A to solution B
d. Glucose will move from solution B to solution A
e. At equilibrium the concentration of glucose will be higher in solution B.
11. If someone sweats profusely and loses large amounts of water, the result will be that the blood plasma
becomes _____ to the cells.
a. Hypertonic
b. Isotonic
c. Hypotonic
d. Osmotic
e. None of the above.
12. Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that facilitated diffusion
a. Expends no ATP
b. Moves molecules from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration
c. Limits the rate of molecular movement by limiting the number of available carrier molecules
d. Never eliminates the concentration gradient
e. Does NOT limit the rate of molecular movement by the number of available carrier molecules.
13. Briefly explain the process of filtration as it relates to the function of the kidneys, specifically explain how
the kidney uses hydrostatic pressure and differential membrane permeability to filter waste materials from
metabolism from the blood. In filtration hydrostatic pressure forces water across the membrane. The
membrane serves as a barrier with holes of a certain size that allow some substances to pass while retaining
others. Substances like sugars and proteins are too big to pass into the filtrate so they remain in the blood.
14. Diffusion is important in body fluids because this process tends to
a. Increase local concentration gradients
b. Eliminate local concentration gradients
c. Move substances against their concentration gradients.
d. Create concentration gradients.
15. What is the complementary mRNA sequence to the following DNA sequence?
CTC ATA CGA TTC AAG TTA
GAG UAU GCU AAG UUC AAU
16. Why are infections always a serious threat after a severe burn or an abrasion?
Breaks the skin barrier and allows bacteria to enter the body.
17. Identify the three types of muscles in just two steps. Draw this out and explain what characteristics you are
using to separate the different muscle types.
3 muscle types Striated--------multinucleated = skeletal, (could also have used cell shape, intercalated disks
single nucleus= cardiac
Non-striated smooth muscle
18. What type of epithelium would you expect to find lining the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs?
a. Squamous
b. Columnar
c. Cuboidal
d. Transitional
19. Analysis of a glandular secretion indicates that it contains some DNA, RNA, and membrane components such
as phospholipids. What kind of secretion is this and why?
a. Merocrine
b. Apocrine
c. Holocrine destroys the cell and therefore you would find nucleic acids and membrane components
in the secretion
20. Your lab partner loses the label of two prepared slides—one of contains a cross section of tissue that shows
only a single layer of squamous cells, and the other contains a cross section of tissue that shows stratified
squamous cells. Where in the body could these tissues be from and why?
Single layer of squamous cell from the alveoli of the lungs where quick diffusion of gasses is important
Stratified squamous from the skin or the lining of your cheek where there are lots of mechanical stresses.
Unit III: Skeletal System
21. The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification:
1. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium
2. Ostsoclasts create a marrow cavity
3. Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify
4. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.
5. The perichondrium is converted into periosteum, and the inner layer produces bone.
The correct order for these events is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3,1,5,4,2
1,3,5,4,2
1,5,3,4,2
2,3,1,5,4
3,1,4,5,2
22. Structural characteristics of the pectoral girdle that adapt it to a wide range of movement include
a. Heavy bones
b. Relatively weak joints
c. Limited range of motion at the shoulder joint
d. Joints stabilized by ligaments and tendons
e. All of the above
23. Why is it more likely that a person who suffers from osteoporosis will break a hip rather than a shoulder?
The hip bears more weight than the shoulder
24. Ed “turns over” his ankle while playing tennis. He experience swelling and pain, but after examination he is
told that there are no torn ligaments and that the structure of the ankle is not affected. Has Ed experienced
a sprain or a strain?
Strain since the ligaments are intact
Unit IV: The Muscle System
25. Mary wants to enter a weight-lifting competition and consult you as to what type of muscle fibers she
needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?
Fast fibers
26. Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to
a excessive ATP and decreased permeability to calcium
b. Decreased ATP and increased permeability to calcium
c. Excessive ATP
d. Lack of oxygen
e. Lactic acid buildup.
27. Muscle relaxing drugs are administered to a patient during major surgery. Which of the two chemicals
described next would be good skeletal muscle relaxant and why?
a. Chemical A binds to and block ACh receptors of muscle cells.
b. Chemical B floods the muscle cell’s cytoplasm with Ca2+
28. Invertebrates possess muscles similar to vertebrate skeletal and smooth muscles. An interesting adaptation
has been discovered in the muscles that hold clam shells closed. The thick filaments of these muscle fibers
contain a unique protein called paramyosin that allows the muscles to remain in a fixed state of contraction
for as long as a month. From your knowledge of the cellular mechanisms of contraction, propose a
hypothesis to explain how paramyosin might work. Calcium ions must be remain in the cytoplasm and the
amount of ATP available must be very low.
29. Place these structures of the skeletal muscle in order from largest to smallest:
1. fascicle
2. myofilament
3. muscle fiber (cell)
4. myofibril
5. sarcomere
A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
D) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
E) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
The Digestive System
30. Absence of either bile or pancreatic juice indicates that no fat digestion or absorption is occurring.
This can lead to blood-clotting problems because the liver needs vitamin K to make prothrombin.
31. Match the following nutrients with their associated digestive enzymes:
A) pepsinogens
B) bile
C) nuclease
D) lipase
E) hydrochloric acid
F) lactase
G) pepsinogen
H) amylase
1) Proteins
2) Lactose
3) Starch
4) Fat
5) Nucleic acids
Answers: 1) A 2) F 3) H 4) D 5) C
32. Identify the digestive organ that is primarily associated with the following digestive function:
A) mouth
B) anus
C) small intestine
D) esophagus
E) large intestine
F) stomach
G) duodenum
H) ileum
I) rectum
6) Primary site of water absorption
7) Site where starch digestion begins
8) Tube through which food is propelled but no digestion takes place
9) Site where protein digestion begins
10) Site where pancreatic enzymes and bile enter the alimentary canal
11) Site of vitamin K synthesis by bacteria
12) Site where defecation reflex is initiated
Answers: 6) E 7) A 8) D 9) F 10) G 11) E 12) I
33. What is it necessary for the stomach contents to be so acidic and how does the stomach protect itself
from digestion? To activate pepsinogen pepsin and begin protein digestion
34. Identify three ways the small intestine is modified to increase surface area for digestion and absorption.
Plicae, villi, and microvilli
The Urinary System
35. Identify the process that occurs in the kidney.
A) glomerular filtration
B) tubular reabsorption
C) tubular secretion
1) Fluid passes from the blood into the glomerular capsule of the nephron
2) Needed substances are moved from the filtrate back into the blood
3) Aldosterone promotes sodium and thus water to move from the filtrate through the tubule cells into the blood
4) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) promotes the movement of water from the filtrate back into the blood of the
peritubular capillaries
5) Substances are moved from the blood of the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate
6) Urine is produced during this process
Answers: 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) C
36. Explain how antidiuretic hormone (ADH) compensates for blood that contains too many solutes.
Answer: Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus react to changes in blood composition, such as less water and too
many solutes. The posterior pituitary is alerted to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) which travels through the
blood to its target organ, the kidney. In the kidney, the collecting ducts respond to ADH by reabsorbing more
water. As a result, more water returns to the blood while small amounts of concentrated urine are formed. ADH
is released and additional water is reabsorbed from the filtrate until blood solute concentration returns to
normal.
37. Long-haul truck drivers are on the road for long periods of time between restroom stops. Why might that
lead to kidney problems? Infrequent urination stresses the bladder and sitting for long periods puts pressure
on the kidneys.
38. Mannitol is a sugar that is filtered by not reabsorbed by the kidneys. What effect would drinking a
solution of mannitol have on the volume of urine produced? Drinking mannitol would increase the solute
concentration of urine which could cause the volume of water excreted to increase, increasing urine volume.
39. Physicians often ask for urine samples to be collected over a 24 hour period. Why?
Because the content of the urine changes throughout the day, a specific component of the urine may not be
present in a particular urine collection.
40. If blood pressure drops suddenly in a patient in shock as a result of a severe injury, how would you expect
urine production to change? Why? The kidney would respond by decreasing urine volume in an effort to
increase the blood volume and therefore the blood pressure.