Senior Science Questions
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Senior Science Questions Chemistry Solutions and Colloids: 1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a colloid? a. Styling gel b. Solid copper c. Whipped cream d. Milk 2. Which phase cannot contain colloids? a. Gas b. Liquid c. Solid d. All phases can contain colloids 3. What solvent is required for a hydrocolloid? a. Hydrophobic solvents b. Hydrophilic solvents c. Water only d. Any solvent may be used 4. What solute is required for a hydrocolloid? a. Hydrophobic solutes b. Hydrophilic solutes c. Water only d. Any solute may be used 5. Which of the following is NOT a typical interaction between colloid particles? a. Ionic b. Van der Waals c. Excluded volume repulsion d. Steric 6. Soap is which form of a fatty acid? a. Basic b. Salt c. Acidic d. Anionic 7. In solution, soaps form a. Solid spheres b. Chains c. Micelles d. Hooks 8. For a colloid, what is the distribution of the solute in the solvent? a. Even b. Odd c. Hypotonic d. Hypertonic 9. What is another name for the dispersion medium of a colloid? a. Dispersed phase b. Continuous phase c. Internal phase d. All of the above 10. What is another name for the internal phase of a colloid? a. Dispersed phase b. Continuous phase c. Dispersion medium d. All of the above 11. How many separate phases make up a colloid? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 12. Which of the following devices is unable to detect dispersed phase particles in a colloid? a. Optical Microscope b. Electron microscope c. Human eye d. Both A and C 13. Why might some colloids be translucent? a. The Tyndall effect b. Light absorption c. Colloid fluorescence d. Dynamic light scattering 14. Colloids have the appearance of a. Solutions b. Heterogeneous mixtures c. Solids d. Separated phases 15. Hydrocolloids can be which of the following? a. Reversible b. Irreversible c. Both A and B d. None of the above 16. Which of the following is an example of a hydrocolloid? a. Jell-O b. Styrofoam c. Fog d. All of the above 17. How many phases are in a solution? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 18. What does the concentration of a solution measure? a. The amount of solvent dissolved in the solute b. The amount of solute dissolved in the solvent c. The amount of solvent separated from the solute d. The amount of solute separated from the solvent 19. Which of the following occurs in a solution? a. Light scattering b. Solute visibility with the naked eye c. Possible filtered separated of solute from solvent d. None of the above 20. If the solvent of a solution is a gas, which of the following is a possible phase for the solute? a. Gas b. Liquid c. Solid d. Any of the above 21. If the solvent of a solution is a solid, which of the following is a possible phase for the solute? a. Gas b. Liquid c. Solid d. Any of the above 22. Which of the following is NOT a solution? a. An alcoholic beverage b. Air c. Milk d. Steel 23. Two substances that can never mixed to form a solution are deemed a. Miscible b. Supersaturated c. Immiscible d. Subsaturated 24. Properties that change with the concentrations of solutions are deemed a. Ideal b. Colligative c. Anti-colligative d. Noble 25. For non-ionic solutes, the general rule of dissolution is which of the following? a. Like dissolves like b. Like dissolves unlike c. Water dissolves all d. It depends on the chemical system 26. Which of the components of a solution makes up the majority of the composition? a. Solute b. Solvent c. Water d. Either A or B 27. A solution has the same physical state as which of the following? a. Solute b. Solvent c. Water d. Either A or B 28. How many different solutes can one solution contain? a. 1 b. 2 c. Up to 100 d. It depends on the miscibilities 29. Soaps and detergents are which of the following? a. Hydrophobic b. Hydrophilic c. Amphiphilic d. Any of the above 30. Which of the following is NOT a grouping of detergent? a. Anionic b. Cationic c. Zwitterionic d. Mitterionic 31. What is one main difference between the chemicals used in soaps and detergents? a. Soaps are more soluble in hard water b. Detergents are more soluble in hard water c. Soaps are mixtures of detergents d. None of the above 32. What is the name for the chemical reaction used to make soap? a. Saponification b. Soaponification c. Fatty acid reduction d. Lye reduction 33. Why are soaps made from different species so different? a. There is a large difference in fat composition b. There is a large difference in fat concentration c. Either A or B d. None of the above 34. Which of the following causes detergents to be foaming agents? a. The hydrophilicity of air b. The hydrophobicity of air c. The amphiphilicity of air d. None of the above Current Quantum Theory: 1. Quantum mechanics is critical for understanding system of sizes smaller than a. Atomic lengths b. Molecules c. Proteins d. The limit of the human eye 2. In quantum mechanics, light is described as a. A wave b. A particle c. Both A and B d. None of the above 3. The primary equation of quantum mechanics is which of the following? a. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle b. The Hamiltonian Equation c. Schrodinger’s Equation d. Planck’s Equation 4. Which of the following is considered the Father of Quantum Theory? a. Einstein b. Planck c. Schrodinger d. Heisenberg 5. Which equation states that position and velocity cannot both be known precisely for a quantum system? a. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle b. The Hamiltonian Equation c. Schrodinger’s Equation d. Planck’s Equation 6. What does Planck’s constant reflect? a. The size of energy quanta b. The relative position of a particle c. The relative velocity of a particle d. The size of wavelength quanta 7. Which of the following is a popular unit of energy in quantum mechanics due to its size? a. Watt b. Siemen c. Newton d. Electron volt 8. Atomic energies are a. Random b. Continuous c. Discrete d. Binomial 9. The wavefunction describes characteristics on quantum mechanical elements in terms of a. Probability b. Absolutivity c. Relativity d. Uncertainty 10. What is the term for the lowest possible energy state for a quantum system? a. Floor state b. 0th state c. 1st state d. Ground state 11. The mathematics described quantum energy states is closely related to that describing a. Acoustics b. Friction c. Special relativity d. Astronomy 12. When did quantum mechanics arise? a. Late 19th century b. Early 20th century c. Late 20th century d. Early 21st century 13. To mathematically manipulate wavefunctions, which of the following expressions are used? a. Multipliers b. Quantizers c. Operators d. Dictators 14. Light energy is proportionally related to which of the following? a. Wavelength b. Velocity c. Frequency d. Period 15. Which of the following does quantum mechanics explain which classical mechanics cannot? a. An electron staying in orbit b. A planet staying in orbit c. Protein assembly d. None of the above 16. Which of the following does quantum mechanics explain which classical mechanics cannot? a. Quantum entanglement b. Wave-particle duality c. Uncertainty principle d. All of the above 17. For simplicity, which type of symmetry is assumed in many quantum mechanical models? a. Cubical b. Spherical c. Triangular d. None 18. Which of the following is NOT an analytic solution of the Schrodinger equation? a. Particle in a box b. Harmonic oscillator c. Hydrogen atom d. Helium atom 19. Which of the following is NOT considered an observable in quantum mechanics? a. Position b. Momentum c. Energy d. None of the above 20. Which of the following fundamental forces does not have a quantum mechanical description? a. Gravity b. Strong nuclear force c. Weak nuclear force d. Electromagnetic force 21. Which objects obey the laws of quantum mechanics? a. Objects smaller than atoms b. Objects the size of atoms c. Objects larger than atoms d. All of the above 22. Which of the following is NOT a subatomic particle a. Electron b. Neutron c. Photon d. None of the above 23. Which of the following are devices aided by an understanding of quantum mechanics? a. MRI machine b. Laser c. Electron microscope d. Optical microscope 24. Which of the following was NOT a physicist who contributed to quantum mechanics? a. Dirac b. Planck c. Boltzmann d. Pauli 25. What is the de Broglie wavelength? a. The wavelength inversely related to the momentum of a particle b. The wavelength inversely related to the position of a particle c. The wavelength inversely related to the energy of a particle d. The wavelength inversely related to the period of a particle 26. Which experiment gave experimental evidence to wave-particle duality? a. Neutron diffraction b. Electron diffraction c. Photon diffraction d. Proton diffraction 27. What does the Pauli Exclusion Principle state? a. No two fermions may occupy the same state b. Orbital subshells are all occupied singly before doubling occurs c. Atoms fill up subshells in an energy-related order d. A spectral line splits in the presence of a static magnetic field 28. What does the Aufbau Principle state? a. No two fermions may occupy the same state b. Orbital subshells are all occupied singly before doubling occurs c. Atoms fill up subshells in an energy-related order d. A spectral line splits in the presence of a static magnetic field 29. What does the Zeeman Effect state? a. No two fermions may occupy the same state b. Orbital subshells are all occupied singly before doubling occurs c. Atoms fill up subshells in an energy-related order d. A spectral line splits in the presence of a static magnetic field 30. What does Hund’s rule state? a. No two fermions may occupy the same state b. Orbital subshells are all occupied singly before doubling occurs c. Atoms fill up subshells in an energy-related order d. A spectral line splits in the presence of a static magnetic field 31. If a proton and electron have the same kinetic energy, which has the longer de Broglie wavelength? a. A proton, because of its larger mass b. An electron, because of its smaller mass c. A proton, because of its positive charge d. An electron, because of its negative charge 32. Which of the following is NOT a possible energy state for a particle in a box? a. 0 b. c. 1 4 1 2 π π d. V 33. On which of the following is the wavefunction dependent? a. Frequency b. Time c. Position d. Both B and C Stoichiometry: 1. Balance the following reaction: π2 + π»2 → ππ»3 a. b. c. d. 3π2 + π»2 → 2ππ»3 π2 + 3π»2 → 2ππ»3 2π2 + 3π»2 → ππ»3 2π2 + π»2 → 3ππ»3 2. Which products are always produced by combustion of a hydrocarbon? a. Water; Carbon dioxide b. Water; Carbon monoxide c. Hydroxide; Hydrogen d. Water; Ozone 3. Balance the following reaction: a. b. c. d. 7 πΆ2 π»6 2 πΆ2 π»6 2 πΆ2 π»6 7 πΆ2 π»6 + + + + 2 π2 7 π2 7 π2 2 π2 → → → → 6 πΆπ2 6 πΆπ2 4 πΆπ2 4 πΆπ2 + + + + πΆ2 π»6 + π2 → πΆπ2 + π»2 π 4 π»2 π 4 π»2 π 6 π»2 π 6 π»2 π 4. Balance the following reaction: πΎπΆππ3 → KCl + π2 a. b. c. d. 2πΎπΆππ3 → KCl + 3π2 2πΎπΆππ3 → 2KCl + π2 πΎπΆππ3 → 2KCl + 3π2 2πΎπΆππ3 → 2KCl + 3π2 5. Balance the following reaction: π»2 + π2 → π»2 π a. b. c. d. 2π»2 + π2 → 2π»2 π 2π»2 + π2 → π»2 π π»2 + π2 → 2π»2 π π»2 + π2 → π»2 π 6. Balance the following reaction: π»2 Sπ4 + Ca → π»2 + πΆπSπ4 a. b. c. d. π»2 Sπ4 + 2Ca → π»2 + 2πΆπSπ4 2π»2 Sπ4 + Ca → π»2 + πΆπSπ4 π»2 Sπ4 + Ca → π»2 + πΆπSπ4 π»2 Sπ4 + Ca → 2π»2 + πΆπSπ4 7. The molecular weights of π»2 and π2 are 2 π π ⁄πππ and 32 ⁄πππ, respectively. What is the molecular weight of π»2 π? π a. 16 ⁄πππ π b. 18 ⁄πππ π c. 34 ⁄πππ π d. 36 ⁄πππ 8. A chemist weighs 9 g of π»2 π. How many moles of the molecule are present? a. 2 mol b. 1.5 mol c. 1 mol d. 0.5 mol 9. Stoichiometry is founded on which law? a. Conservation of mass b. Conservation of momentum c. Conservation of chemicals d. Conservation of composition 10. Balance the following reaction: π΄π2 (πΆπ3 )3 → π΄π2 π3 + πΆπ2 a. b. c. d. 3π΄π2 (πΆπ3 )3 → π΄π2 π3 + 3πΆπ2 π΄π2 (πΆπ3 )3 → π΄π2 π3 + 3πΆπ2 π΄π2 (πΆπ3 )3 → π΄π2 π3 + 3πΆπ2 π΄π2 (πΆπ3 )3 → 3π΄π2 π3 + 3πΆπ2 11. What is the conversion factor from volume of gas to moles at STP? a. 11.2 L/mol b. 22.4 L/mol c. 44.8 L/mol d. 89.6 L/mol 12. Which of the following does NOT occur during a chemical reaction? a. Conservation of mass b. Transmutation of elements c. Chemical interactions d. All of the above occur 13. In a chemical reaction, when one reactant is in shortage it is deemed the a. Limiting reagent b. Limiting constituent c. Yield factor d. Dependent component 14. What is the value of Avogadro’s constant? a. 6.02 ∗ 10−23 ππππππ’πππ ⁄πππ b. 6.02 ∗ 1023 ππππππ’πππ ⁄πππ c. 6.02 ∗ 1046 ππππππ’πππ ⁄πππ d. 6.02 ∗ 10−46 ππππππ’πππ ⁄πππ 15. Which of the following is NOT a type of chemical reaction? a. Single replacement b. Decomposition c. Combustion d. None of the above 16. What is the stoichiometric coefficient of carbon dioxide in the following reaction? 2πΆπ + π2 → 2πΆπ2 a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 17. In actual reaction mechanisms, stoichiometric coefficients will always be a. Even b. Odd c. Integers d. Fractions 18. The molecular weights of carbon and hydrogen are 12 π⁄πππ and 1 π⁄πππ, respectively. What is the mass of 1 mol of πΆ3 π»8? π a. 44 ⁄πππ b. 44 g π c. 46 ⁄πππ d. 46 g 19. 2 moles of an ideal gas are present at STP. What volume does the gas occupy? a. 11.2 L b. 22.4 L c. 44.8 L d. 89.6 L 20. Balance the following reaction: πΆ6 π»12 π6 + π2 → π»2 π + πΆπ2 a. πΆ6 π»12 π6 + 6π2 → 6π»2 π + 6πΆπ2 b. 6πΆ6 π»12 π6 + 6π2 → 6π»2 π + 6πΆπ2 c. πΆ6 π»12 π6 + π2 → 6π»2 π + 6πΆπ2 d. πΆ6 π»12 π6 + 6π2 → 6π»2 π + πΆπ2 21. What is the missing reactant in the following equation? 2πΆ6 π»14 + ? → 14π»2 π + 12πΆπ2 a. 19π2 b. 17π2 c. 19πΆπ d. 17πΆπ 22. Balance the following reaction: πΆ3 π»8 + π2 → π»2 π + πΆπ2 a. b. c. d. πΆ3 π»8 + 4π2 → 4π»2 π + 4πΆπ2 πΆ3 π»8 + 5π2 → 4π»2 π + 3πΆπ2 πΆ3 π»8 + 3π2 → 3π»2 π + 3πΆπ2 πΆ3 π»8 + 5π2 → 3π»2 π + 4πΆπ2 23. How many moles of HCl are present in 200 mL of a 2 M solution? a. 400 b. 40 c. 4 d. 0.4 24. How many moles of HCl are present in 1 L of a 0.1 M solution? a. 10 b. 1 c. 0.1 d. 0.01 25. How many moles of chlorine gas would react with 10 moles of sodium in the following equation? 2ππ + πΆπ2 → 2πππΆπ a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 26. What is the mass percentage of carbon in πΆ2 π»6 ? a. 40% b. 60% c. 75% d. 80% 27. What is the mass percentage of oxygen in π»2 π? a. 33% b. 50% c. 66% d. 89% 28. How many moles are present in 3.01 ∗ 1023 molecules of a substance? a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 1.5 d. 2 29. Which of the following gases is NOT diatomic in nature? a. Fluorine b. Iodine c. Krypton d. Hydrogen 30. Which of the following is NOT a hydrocarbon? a. πΆ2 π»6 b. πΆ3 π»8 c. πΆ6 π»14 d. None of the above 31. What is the general form of a hydrocarbon? a. πΆπ π»π+2 b. πΆπ π»π+1 c. πΆπ π»π d. πΆπ π»π−1 32. What is the written equation for the reaction of phosphorous with oxygen to yield π4 π10? a. π4 + 5π2 → π4 π10 b. 2π4 + 5π2 → π4 π10 c. 4π4 + 5π2 → 4π4 π10 d. 4π4 + 5π2 → π4 π10 33. What is the stoichiometric ratio of a catalyst? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 Physics Greek contributions to astronomy: 1. The language that preserved the Greek astronomical knowledge long after the original Greek writings had passed was which of the following? a. Italian b. French c. Chinese d. Arabic 2. The Greek view of the universe was which of the following? a. Heliocentric b. Geocentric c. Hadescentric d. Equicentric 3. Which of the following was the first of the Greek astronomers? a. Thales b. Pythagoras c. Aristotle d. Hipparchus 4. Which of the following Greek astronomers was known as “The Great Compiler?” a. Thales b. Pythagorus c. Ptolemy d. Eratosthenes 5. Which of the following Greek contributions to astronomy was not from Aristarchus? a. Estimation of the size of the Earth b. Proposed elementary laws of motion c. Proposed heliocentric cosmology d. Measured relative Earth-Sun distance 6. Thales believed that all of the planets were composed of different forms of which of the following? a. Ether b. Water c. Air d. Rock 7. Which of the following was the first Greek astronomer to assert that celestial bodies were not gods? a. Thales b. Pythagorus c. Ptolemy d. Eratosthenes 8. Which of the following did Aristarchus use to determine the relative size of the EarthMoon distance? a. The curvature of the Earth’s shadow on the Moon during solar eclipses b. The point when the moon was exactly at first half phase c. The point when the moon was exactly at first quarter phase d. The curvature of the Earth’s shadow on the Moon during lunar eclipses 9. For about how many stars did Hipparchus find the approximate brightness? a. 100 b. 600 c. 1100 d. 2000 10. Why did Aristarchus believe in a heliocentric cosmology? a. He observed the Sun to be much bigger than the Earth b. He believed the sun to be unchanging and more important c. He believed the sun was a deity d. He did not believe in a heliocentric cosmology 11. What is the major difference between the cosmological measurements made by Aristarchus and Eratosthenes? a. Aristarchus made absolute measurements while Eratosthenes made relative measurements b. Aristarchus made less precise measurements than Eratosthenes c. Aristarchus made relative measurements while Eratosthenes made absolute measurements d. Aristarchus made more precise measurements than Eratosthenes 12. Which of the following was not an element in Aristotle’s chemistry? a. Earth b. Wind c. Quintessence d. Star dust 13. Which of the following best represents Aristotle’s theory of gravity? a. The ocean attracts water b. A star falls to earth c. Two objects of unequal mass fall at an equal rate d. The ocean attracts fire 14. Which of the following is considered the first great Greek observational astronomer? a. Thales b. Pythagoras c. Aristotle d. Hipparchus 15. Which of the following was the first to measure precession? a. Eudoxus b. Plato c. Hipparchus d. Eratosthenes 16. Which of the following was the first to model planetary motion using 3-D geometric models? a. Eudoxus b. Callippus c. Heraclides d. Both A and B 17. The Greeks treated astronomy as a branch of which field? a. Physics b. Chemistry c. Mathematics d. Theology 18. Which of the following proposed that the earth rotates around its axis? a. Eudoxus b. Callippus c. Heraclides d. Both A and B 19. Greek astronomers initially modeled planetary motion as concentric spheres, but transitioned into which other model? a. Epicycle b. Precession c. Complex spheres d. Celestial mechanics 20. Which of the following proposed the model of concentric spheres? a. Eudoxus b. Aristotle c. Plato d. Hipparchus 21. Which of the following was a Greek device for calculating the movements of the Sun and Moon? a. Antikythera mechanism b. Kythera mechanism c. Sextant d. Epicircular mechanism 22. What was the major difference between the universe proposed by Ptolemy and the one proposed by Aristarchus? a. Location b. Magnitude c. Composition d. Age 23. Ptolemy’s great contribution to astronomy was which of the following? a. Antikythera mechanism b. Almagest c. Precession d. Heliocentricity 24. Which of the following was NOT included in Almagest? a. Star charts b. Predictive model for planetary motion c. Texts on trigonometry d. None of the above 25. Aristarchus estimated that the Sun was about how many times larger in diameter than the Moon? a. 10 b. 20 c. 100 d. 200 26. The planets were described by Greek astronomers by moving around the earth on great a. Planes b. Circles c. Gods d. Spheres 27. Greek astronomy was prominent for about how long? a. 500 years b. 700 years c. 1000 years d. 1200 years 28. Pythagoras believed that the planets should be arranged in ratios that are a. Musically harmonious b. Mathematically harmonious c. Philosophically harmonious d. Artistically harmonious 29. The people of the Renaissance referred to which Greek astronomer as “The Philosopher?” a. Pythagoras b. Aristotle c. Ptolemy d. Hipparchus 30. Which Greek astronomer believed stars to be unchanging? a. Pythagoras b. Aristotle c. Ptolemy d. Hipparchus 31. In Aristotle’s theory of cosmology, how are the heavenly spheres situated? a. The earth and planets are on the same sphere and the stars are on a second sphere b. The earth and stars are on the same sphere and the planets are on a second sphere c. The planets and stars are on the same sphere and the earth is on a second sphere d. All of the heavenly bodies are on different spheres 32. Which of the Greek astronomers first believed that stars are enormously different? a. Aristarchus b. Eratosthenes c. Hipparchus d. Pythagoras 33. Which of the following did Aristarchus NOT directly determine? a. Earth-Moon relative size b. Earth-Sun relative size c. Sun-Moon relative distance d. Earth-Sun relative distance 34. How did Eratosthenes measure the size of the Earth? a. Earth’s orbit b. Shadows cast from sticks c. Lunar eclipse data d. Planetary motion 35. Eratosthenes added to the work of Aristarchus by providing which of the following? a. Absolute scale b. Relative scale c. Brightness measurements d. All of the above 36. The catalog of brightness measurements made by Hipparchus remained unparalleled until how many years afterwards? a. 150 b. 300 c. 400 d. 1600 37. How did Hipparchus discover precession a. Comparing old planetary position data to his data b. Comparing old planetary position data to that of Ptolemy c. Comparing old star brightness data to his data d. Comparing old star brightness data to that of Ptolemy 38. The Antikythera mechanism was the first precursor to which of the following? a. Astronomical telescope b. Astronomical sextet c. Astronomical computer d. Astronomical diopter 39. The Antikythera mechanism became famous for which of its parts? a. Rotating gears b. Solid bronze cogs c. Differential gear d. Differenial cogs 40. Why was Almagest so corrupting to astronomy? a. It contained incorrect planetary distance data b. It presented geocentric astronomy c. It was improperly transcribed d. All of the above 41. Which astronomer was the first to propose the model of epicycles? a. Aristarchus b. Aristotle c. Antikythera d. Apollonius 42. Aristarchus measured the Earth-Moon distance. What was its magnitude? a. 10 earth diameters b. 10 moon diameters c. 25 earth diameters d. 25 moon diameters 43. How many volumes did Almagest contain? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 13 44. Ptolemy was able to calculate future planetary motion within about how much percent? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 45. Hipparchus proposed the modern system of which of the following? a. Absolute magnitude b. Relative magnitude c. Apparent magnitude d. Brightness 46. During the Renaissance, which astronomer’s writings were considered as reliable as Bible passages? a. Eratosthenes b. Aristarchus c. Aristotle d. Ptolemy 47. Hipparchus determined the positions of which of the following? a. The moon b. Planets c. Stars d. All of the above 48. The epicycle was developed with the idea that a. Circular motion is not enough to compensate for planetary motion b. Elliptical motion is not enough to compensate for planetary motion c. Circular motion is not enough to compensate for stellar motion d. Circular motion is not enough to compensate for stellar motion 49. When did the first major Greek contributions to astronomy occur? a. 4th century B.C. b. 1st century B.C. c. 1st century A.D. d. 4th century A.D. 50. When did the major Greek contributions to astronomy occur? a. 5th century B.C. b. 2nd century B.C. c. 2nd century A.D. d. 5th century A.D. Greek contributions to mechanical inventions: 1. Which Greek inventor developed the idea of the “simple machine?” a. Aristotle b. Plato c. Archimedes d. Newton 2. Which of the following was NOT an Archimedean simple machine? a. Lever b. Screw c. Gear d. Pulley 3. Archimedes discovered the principle of force multiplication by machines. What is the proper term for this description? a. Mechanical advantage b. Machine advantage c. Principle advantage d. Exponential advantage 4. When did the idea of the simple machine originate? a. 5th century B.C. b. 3rd century B.C. c. 1st century B.C. d. 1st century A.D. 5. How many classical simple machines were known to Greek philosophers? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 6. For which of the following systems were the late Greek philosophers unable to calculate mechanical advantage? a. Lever b. Pulley c. Screw d. Inclined plane 7. Which Greek inventor described five machines to “set a load in motion?” a. Archimedes b. Philo c. Hero d. Ctesibius 8. Of which of the following did the Greek’s have a firm understanding? a. Work b. The tradeoff between force and distance c. Statics d. Dynamics 9. Which of the following is NOT a Hero simple machine? a. Windlass b. Wedge c. Hand axe d. Pulley 10. Which of the following was NOT a Hero invention? a. Windmill b. Steam-powered device c. Vending machine d. Screw pump 11. The first vending machine by the Greeks dispensed which of the following? a. Holy water b. Bath water c. Potable water d. All of the above 12. Which of the following did the Greek thermometer lack? a. Scale b. Temperature sensor c. Closed tube d. Tube partially filled with air 13. Many Greek inventions were inspired by which need? a. Food b. Money c. War d. Exploration 14. Which of the following was the earliest machine to harness natural forces? a. Solar panel b. Steam engine c. Windmill d. Geothermal engine 15. Which of the following is NOT an example of Greek water technology? a. Fountains b. Wind vane c. Aqueducts d. Sakia gear 16. Anyone trying to apply science to manual labor was likely to receive which of the following? a. Drop in social status b. Rise in social status c. Wealth d. Reassignment 17. How did the crane assist Greek construction? a. It reduced labor size b. It increased movable loads c. It increased efficiency d. All of the above 18. Philo’s washstand construction was similar to that of Greek a. Clocks b. Thermometers c. Aqueducts d. Cranes 19. Philo authored a large text on mechanics entitled a. Ancient Discoveries b. Compendium of Mechanics c. Almagest d. Assistance in Mechanics 20. Hero derived many of his ideas from which Greek inventor? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. All of the above 21. Which Greek inventor wrote the first treatise on applications of compressed air? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 22. Which of the following war devices did the Greeks develop? a. Bow and arrow b. Crossbow c. Cannon d. Both B and C 23. Which of the following comfort devices did the Greeks develop? a. Showers b. Central Heating c. Plumbing d. All of the above 24. What power source operated the automatic doors developed by Hero? a. Electricity b. Wind c. Steam d. Sun 25. Which of the following invented the fire hose? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 26. Which of the following was the first to develop a large collection of maps? a. Ctesibius b. Archimedes c. Alexander d. Anaximander 27. Which of the following is considered the “Father of Pneumatics?” a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 28. Who is considered the “greatest experimenter of antiquity?” a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 29. Archimedes greatest inventions were in a. Physics b. Engineering c. Mathematics d. Chemistry 30. Which invention by Archimedes did NOT involve warfare? a. Heat ray b. Claw of Archimedes c. Orrery d. Siege engine 31. Which Greek inventor’s written work did not survive? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 32. This type of lock was invented by Greeks in order to secure their homes: a. Tumbler lock b. Pin lock c. Combination lock d. Detector lock 33. This rescue service device was invented by Hero: a. Ladder b. Fire hose c. Ancient ambulance d. Sakia device 34. Philo invented an object called a gimbo; what is it? a. Type of gear b. Wheelbarrow c. Unspillable ink pot d. Vending machine 35. Greek engineers were able to construct the Suez Canal by inventing a. Canal locks b. Canal gears c. Aqueducts d. Crane 36. The precursor to the railway was constructed by the Greeks for which purpose? a. Moving vendor carts b. Transporting fish from the sea c. Moving mining products d. Transporting boats across land 37. Which of the following invented a syringe-like device? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 38. Hero developed an almost entirely mechanical a. Musical instrument b. Play c. Weather machine d. Bath house 39. Archimedes’ principle functions on the basis of which of the following? a. Buoyancy b. Hydrostatic equilibrium c. Astronomical observation d. Work done by an inclined plane 40. Which of the following is a quote by Archimedes related to invention? a. Eureka! b. Give me a place to stand on and I will move the Earth c. Both A and B d. None of the above 41. An Ancient Greek machine required which of the following? a. Lever b. Display c. Moving parts d. Stationary parts 42. Machines do which of the following? a. Create energy b. Destroy energy c. Transfer energy d. All of the above 43. The first Greek windmill powered which device? a. Bath house b. Organ c. Canal lock d. Crane 44. Which of the following invented the first steam engine? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 45. Which of the following first described the watermill? a. Ctesibius b. Philo c. Archimedes d. Hero 46. Which of the following was NOT a Greek invention for travel? a. Odometer b. Chain drive c. Rutway d. Canal lock 47. Which of the following was NOT a Greek civil engineering development? a. Urban planning b. Surveying tools c. Streets d. Escapement 48. The clock invented by Ctesibius was unsurpassable for about how many years? a. 500 b. 1000 c. 1300 d. 1800 49. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Greek machine? a. Alarm clock b. Cannon c. Vending machine d. None of the above 50. How did the odometer revolutionize Greek road construction a. Allowing accurate distance measurement b. Placement of milestones c. Removal of dirt paths d. Both A and B
