AP Bio Practice Final
1. Natural selection tends to act at which of the following
levels? (1.4)
a. Population
b. Phylum
c. Class
d. Species
e. Kingdom
Name:
6. Which one of the following has negligible mass? (2.2)
a. Proton
b. Electron
c. Element
d. Neutron
e. Atom
2. A polar covalent bond is a bond that ________. (2.3)
a. Is found only in H2O
b. Shares electrons equally between atoms
c. Has shared electrons pulled closer to the more
electronegative atom
d. Is found only in molecules containing oxygen
e. Ionizes
7. A mole of ethyl alcohol weighs 46 g. How many grams of
ethyl alcohol are needed to produce 1 L of a 2-millimolar (2
mM) solution? (3.2)
a. 92 g
b. 9.2 g
c. 0.92 g
d. 0.092 g
e. 0.0092 g
3. When the pH of a solution shifts from 7 to 3, how has the
hydrogen ion concentration changed? (3.3)
a. It has increased by 4 times
b. It has increased by 10,000 times
c. It has not changed
d. It has increased by 4 times
e. It has decreased by 10, 000 times
8. Choose the pair of terms that completes this sentence:
Sulfhydryl is to ____ as ____ is to amine (4.3)
a. Hydroxyl … alcohol
b. Carbon … nitrogen
c. Thiol … amino
d. Ketone … amino
e. Aldehyde … ketone
4. Which of the following domains is not prokaryotic? (1.3)
a. Eukarya
b. Archaea
c. Bacteria
d. Fungi
e. The domain bacteria, the domain archaea and the
domain eukarya all contain at least some prokaryotic
members
9. The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are _____ because they
______. (5.3)
a. Hydrophobic …. Dissolve easily in water
b. Hydrophilic … consist of units assembled by
dehydration reactions
c. Hydrophobic … consist of units assembled by
dehydration reactions
d. Hydrophobic … have no charges to which water
molecules can adhere
e. Hydrophilic … are easily hydrolyzed into their
monomers
5. Manufacturers make vegetable oils solid or semisolid at
room temperature by ______. (5.3)
a. Adding hydrogen atoms to the double bonds in the
fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
b. Removing hydrogen atoms and forming additional
single bonds in the fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
c. Removing hydrogen atoms and forming additional
double bonds in the fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
d. Adding hydrogen atoms to the single bonds of the
fatty acid hydrocarbon chains
e. None of the above.
10. Copper has an atomic number of 29 and a mass number of 64.
What would result if an uncharged copper atom lost two
electrons? (2.3)
a. The atom would have a double negative charge and be
an ion.
b. The atomic number would remain 29, the mass number
would increase to 66, and the atom would be a cation
with a -2 charge.
c. The atomic number would remain 29, the mass number
would remain 64, and the atom would be a cation with a
+2 charge.
d. The atomic number would remain 29, the mass number
would be reduced to 62, and the atom would be an anion.
e. The atomic number would be reduced to 27, the mass
number would remain 64, and the atom would be an
anion with a +2 charge.
11. There are thought to be about _______ genes in a human cell.
(chapter 2 overview)
a. 25
b. 2500
c. 250, 000
d. 250
e. 25,000
12. Which is not involved in, or is not relevant to, hydrogen
bonding? (2.3)
a. Attraction of electrons by one atom more than
another
b. Attraction between unlike partial charges
c. Polar molecules
d. Partial electrical charges
e. Loss of electrons
13. Which one of the following pairs matches the name of a
membrane transport process with the primary function of that
process? (7.5)
a. Phagocytosis—secretion of large particles from the
cell by fusion of vesicles with the plasma membrane
b. Pinocytosis—the uptake of water and small solutes
into the cell by formation of vesicles at the plasma
membrane
c. Exocytosis—the movement of water and solutes out
of the cell by vesicle fusion with the plasma
membrane
d. Osmosis—passive diffusion of water and small
solutes across a membrane
e. None of the above are correct matches
14. A single plant cell is placed in an isotonic solution. Salt is
then added to the solution. Which of the following would
occur as a result of the salt addition? (7.3)
a. The added salt would enter the cell, causing the cell
to take up water and swell.
b. Water would leave the cell by osmosis, causing the
volume of the cytoplasm to decrease.
c. The added salt makes the solution hypotonic
compared to the cell. Water will enter the cell by
osmosis.
d. Water would enter the cell by osmosis, and the cell
would swell.
e. There would be no osmotic movement of water in
response to the added salt.
15. Mitochondria are found in ______. (6.5)
a. All cells
b. Plant cells only
c. Animal cells only
d. Animal cells and bacteria cells, but not in plant cells
e. Both plant and animal cells
16. Movement of phospholipids from one side of a membrane to
the other does occur under appropriate circumstances. Based
on your understanding of membrane structure and transport,
which of the following is likely to describe this movement of
phospholipids between the two sides of a membrane? (7.3)
a. Free movement of phospholipids between the two
sides of the membrane
b. Making the phospholipids more unsaturated
c. Making the phospholipids more saturated
d. Providing a protein channel for the phospholipid
e. None of the above could facilitate movement of the
phospholipids from one side of the membrane to the
other.
17. Which of the following is not a true statement about
chloroplasts and mitochondria? (6.5)
a. Each contains a small amount of DNA.
b. Both are composed of two separate membranes.
c. Neither are components of the endomembrane system.
d. Each organelle synthesizes some of its own proteins
e. All of the above are correct.
18. A plant was grown in a test tube containing radioactive
nucleotides, the molecules form which DNA is built. Later
examination of dividing cells in the plant showed the
majority of the radioactivity to be concentrated in the
__________ (6.3/6.4)
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Lysosome
d. Central vacuole
e. Nucleus
19. Disaccharides can differ from each other in all the following
ways except ____ (5.2)
a. In the number of monosaccharides they contain
b. In the type of monomer involved
c. In the fatty acids they contain
d. In the location of the glycosidic linkage
e. In the type of carbonyl functional groups associated
with the monosaccharide monomers
20. The overall three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is
called the _____(5.4)
a. Double helix
b. Secondary structure
c. Quaternary structure
d. Primary structure
e. Tertiary structure
21. The subunits (monomers) in cellulose are linked together by
_________ (5.2)
a. Ionic bonds
b. Peptide bonds
c. Ester linkages
d. Glycosidic linkages
e. Phosphodiester linkages
26. A substance that acts at a long distance from the site at
which it is secreted is a _____. (11.1)
a. Neurotransmitter
b. Local regulator
c. Synaptic signal
d. Paracrine gland
e. Hormone
22. Which of the following sequences is incorrect? (11.3)
a. Diffusion of a signalling molecule across the plasma
membrane  binding of the signalling molecules to
its receptor  movement of the signal moleculereceptor complex into the nucleus  transcription
b. Binding of a growth factor to its receptor 
phosphorylation cascade  activation of
transcription factor  transcription
c. Binding of a signalling molecule to its receptor  Gprotein activation  adenylyl cyclase activation 
cAMP production  protein phosphorylation
d. Binding of a signalling molecule to its receptor  Gprotein activation  phospholipase C activation 
IP3 production  increase in cytoplasmic calcium
concentration
e. Binding of a signalling molecule to its receptor  Gprotein activation  phosphodiesterare activation 
increase in cytoplasmic cAMP levels  protein
kinase A activation
27. Individuals with the disorder xeroderma pigmentosum
_______. (16.2)
a. Are hypersensitive to sunlight
b. Have high rates of skin cancer
c. Have difficulty repairing thymine dimers
d. Often have inherited defects in the nucleotide
excision repair system
e. All of the above
23. Cholera develops when the bacterial toxin ____. (11.2)
a. Inhibits the enzyme that normally breaks down
cAMP
b. Inhibits adenylyl cyclase, preventing the cell from
producing cAMP
c. Phosphorylates the cAMP, producing ADP
d. Blocks the receptor site for cAMP
e. Prevents G-protein inactivation, which leads to the
continuous production of cAMP
24. Phosphorylation _______ (11.3)
a. Always inactivates a protein
b. Can either activate or inactivate a protein
c. Always activates a protein
d. Activates G-protein linked receptors
e. Is accomplished by phosphatases
25. Telomeres ______ (16.2)
a. Get longer with continued cell division
b. Are shorter for young individuals
c. Get shorter with continued cell division
d. Are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
e. Remain the same regardless of cell division
28. Gene expression in animals is regulated primarily by ______.
(19.2)
a. Controlling gene packing and unpacking
b. Controlling the transcription of genes into mRNA
c. Transcription factors encoded for by mitochondrial
DNA
d. Controlling the translation of mRNA into protein
e. Selectively breaking down the proteins encoded by
the genes
29. In humans, the hormone testosterone enters cells and binds to
specific proteins, which in turn bind to specific sites on the
cells’ DNA. These proteins probably act to __________.
(19.2)
a. Help RNA polymerase transcribe certain genes
b. Promote recombination
c. Alter the pattern of DNA splicing
d. Unwind the DNA so that its genes can be transcribed
e. Cause mutations in the DNA
30. A nucleic acid probe is used to ______. (20.1)
a. Clone genes
b. Make DNA from RNA
c. Produce a large amount of DNA from a tiny amount
of DNA
d. Make exact copies of DNA sequences
e. Identify genes that have been inserted into bacterial
plasmids or separated by electrophoresis
31. A sequence of pictures of polypeptide synthesis shows a
ribosome holding two transfer RNAs. One tRNA has a
polypeptide chain attached to it; the other tRNA has a single
amino acid attached to it. What does the next picture show?
(17.4)
a. The polypeptide chain is transferred to the single
amino acid.
b. The tRNA with the single amino acid leaves the
ribosome.
c. The tRNA with the polypeptide chain leaves the
ribosome.
d. A third tRNA with an amino acid joins the pair on the
ribosome.
e. The amino acid is transferred to the polypeptide chain.
32. Which of the major tissue types is responsible for elasticity
in the heart? (40.2)
a. Epithelial
b. Connective
c. Muscle
d. Nervous
e. Blood
33. The immune response is initiated by the presence of which
molecules? (43.2)
a. Complement
b. Histamine
c. Antigen
d. Antibody
e. Interferon
34. Which choice best describes an antigen? (43.2)
a. An antigen is a protein molecule that helps defend the
body against disease.
b. An antigen could be an invading virus or bacteria
c. An antigen is a protein attacked by an invading
microorganism
d. An antigen induces development of white blood cells
in the bone marrow
e. An antigen is a foreign molecule that evokes a
specific response by a lymphocyte
35. The antigen-binding sites of antibody molecule are formed
from the molecule’s variable regions. Why are these regions
called variable? (43.2)
a. The can change their shapes to fit different antigens.
b. Their specific shapes are unimportant
c. Their sizes vary considerably from one antibody to
another
d. The change their shapes when they bind to an antigen
e. They can be different shapes on different antibody
molecules
36. The body uses the vitamin A precursors from some foods to
make a substance called retinal, which _______. (49.4)
a. Is a visual pigment that absorbs light
b. Colours the iris of the eye
c. Keeps the lens clear and transparent
d. Provides energy for the function of rods and cones
e. Stimulates the neurons in the retina to form branches
and connections
37. Sitting too close to the amplifiers at a concert may _______.
(49.2)
a. Affect the alighment of the semicircle canals
b. Cause the hammer to damage the anvil and stirrup
bones
c. Cause the pinnae to curl
d. Cause fluid leakage from the cochlea
e. Cause permanent damage to the hair cells in the ears
38. Incapacitating the muscles of a mammalian eye would result
in an inability ______. (49.4)
a. To regulate the amount of light entering the eye and
an inability of the photoreceptor cells to transduce
light energy
b. Of the photoreceptor cells to transduce light energy
c. To focus light and an inability of the photoreceptor
cells to transduce light energy
d. To regulate the amount of light entering the eye and
an inability to focus light
e. To expel aqueous humor from the eye, resulting in
glaucoma
39. Bone cells are called _____. (40.2)
a. Osteocytes
b. Neurons
c. Erythrocytes
d. Chondrocytes
e. Osteoblasts
40. Which statement is correct about T-independent antigens?
(43.3)
a. The response to T-independent antigens is important
in defending against viruses and cancer cells
b. Typical T-independent antigens contain a single
epitope.
c. The response is stronger than the response to Tdependent antigens because B cells are activated
immediately with the release of cytokines
d. The response to T-independent antigens generates
memory B cells
e. Typical T-independent antigens are polysaccharides
of bacteria capsules and proteins of bacterial flagella.
Written
1. Draw the functional groups hydroxyl, carbonyl, carboxyl, amino, sulfhydryl and phosphate.
2. Explain how the Trp operon and Lac operon work.
3. Use diagrams to help explain how enzymes can be inhibited by competitive inhibition and non-competitive inhibition.
4. Explain what would happen to a red blood cell if it was placed in a
a) hypotonic solution
b) isotonic solution
c) hypertonic solution
5. Label the diagram and explain what is happening.
6. Describe antibody-mediated disposal of antigens. Use diagrams to help.