Semester Exam Review - Kenton County Schools

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NAME:__Key____________PERIOD:_____DATE:________
Scientific Method Test
Directions: In the blank to the left of the number write the letter
that the letter goes with the statement. (2 pts each)
__A__ 1. Tasha is testing the effect of blue-colored light on the growth of tomato plants.
Which is the independent variable in this experiment?
a. light color
c. amount of light
b. light intensity
d. temperature of light
_C__ 2. The 3 points to the nature of science are.
a. bias, prejudice, weird
c. collaborative, bias, tentative
b. experiment, hypothesis, title
d. title, purpose, results
_D___ 3. All living things ____ to make other living things.
a. Grow
c. develop
b. adapt
d. reproduce
_D___ 4. The key to the study of biology is learning about the ______.
a. rocks
c. chemicals
b. all of these
d. life around us
_D__ 5. A structured procedure for collecting information to test a hypothesis is a(n)
______________.
a. principle
c. control
b. theory
d. experiment
_C__ 6. A microscope that can view 3-D images of cell surfaces is called:
a. light microscope
c. scanning electron microscope
b. compound light microscope
d. video microscope
_B__ 7. The objective on a microscope that will magnify an object 40X is:
a. Low power objective
c. medium power objective
b. High power objective
d. eyepiece
_A___ 8. The objective on a microscope that will magnify an object 4X is:
a. low power objective
c. medium power objective
b. high power objective
d. eyepiece
_D____ 9. Students of a biology class ran an experiment on a type of flowering plant.
1
Their goal was to find the optimal time in the plant's life for flowering. What
time period will provide the most flowering plants? Use Table 1-1 to
determine your answer.
Table 1-1
Day
Number of Plants
Flowering
2
6
4
12
6
18
8
22
10
8
a. 5-6 days
b. 6-7 days
c. 7-8 days
d. 8-9 days
_D____ 10. Which of the following are likely topics for a course in biology?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Why does the Texas horned lizard squirt blood out of its eyes?
How is a banded pipefish able to hide in its environment of seaweeds?
What chemicals cause plant stems to lengthen or flowers to bloom?
All of these.
_B__ 11. Which of the following results from quantitative analysis of Figure 1-1?
Figure 1-1
a.
b.
c.
d.
The babies are cold.
There are 8 offspring.
There isn’t enough food.
These are the first offspring these rabbits have had
2
Ecology Test Ch. 3
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_B__ 1. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the biotic parts of the biosphere through _____.
a. burning of forests
c. combustion of fossil fuels
b. photosynthesis
d. all of these
_C__ 2. A ________ is several species in an area interacting with one another.
a. organism
c. community
b. population
d. ecosystem
Figure 2-1
_B__ 3. Referring to Figure 2-1, as energy move from grasses to coyotes, the amount of available
energy _____.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. decreases then increases
d. increases or decreases but population size remains the same
_D__ 4. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between
organisms and their environment is called
a. economy.
c. recycling.
b. modeling.
d. ecology.
_D__ 5. The part of Earth in which all living things exist is called the
a. biome.
c. ecosystem.
b. community.
d. biosphere.
_B__ 6. All of the members of a particular species that live in one area are called a(an)
a. biome.
c. community.
b. population.
d. ecosystem.
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_B__ 7. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?
a. carbohydrates
c. water
b. sunlight
d. carbon
Figure 3-1
_C__ 8. The algae at the beginning of the food chain in Figure 3-1 are
a. consumers.
c. producers.
b. decomposers.
d. heterotrophs.
_D__ 9. An organism that produces its own food supply from inorganic compounds is called a(an)
a. heterotroph.
c. detritivore.
b. consumer.
d. autotroph.
_A__ 10. An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)
a. heterotroph.
c. autotroph.
b. chemotroph.
d. producer.
_A__ 11. Organisms that break down and feed on wastes and dead organisms are called
a. decomposers.
c. autotrophs.
b. omnivores.
d. producers.
_B__ 12. What is an organism that feeds only on plants called?
a. carnivore
c. omnivore
b. herbivore
d. detritivore
_A__ 13. What is an ecological model of the relationships that form a network of complex
interactions among organisms in a community from producers to decomposers?
a. food web
c. food chain
b. an ecosystem
d. a population
_B__ 14. What animals eat both producers and consumers?
a. herbivores
c. chemotrophs
b. omnivores
d. autotrophs
_C__ 15. What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a biological
community?
a. energy path
c. trophic level
b. food web
d. food pyramid
4
_C__ 16. A bird stalks, kills, and then eats an insect. Based on its behavior, which ecological terms
describe the bird?
a. herbivore, decomposer
c. carnivore, consumer
b. producer, heterotroph
d. autotroph, herbivore
_B__ 17. Which type of pyramid shows the amount of calories at each trophic level in an
ecosystem?
a. a numbers pyramid
c. a biomass pyramid
b. an energy pyramid
d. a food pyramid
_A__ 18. The repeated movement of water between Earth’s surface and the atmosphere is called
a. the water cycle.
c. precipitation.
b. the condensation cycle.
d. evaporation.
_A__ 19. What is the process by which organisms convert nitrogen gas in the air to ammonium?
a. nitrogen fixation
c. decomposition
b. excretion
d. denitrification
_C__ 20. Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by
a. humans.
c. bacteria.
b. plants.
d. ammonia.
_A__ 21. A food chain generally begins with
a. an autotroph
b. an omnivore
c. a decomposer
d. a heterotroph
_B__ 22. Besides energy, what moves through the organisms at each trophic level of an
ecosystem?
a. organisms
c. sunlight
b. nutrients
d. cycles
_D__ 23. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
a. Communities make up species which make up populations.
b. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
c. Species make up communities, which make up populations.
d. Species are grouped in populations, which make up
communities.
_B__ 24. The simplest grouping of more than one kind of organism in the biosphere is a (an)
a. population
c. ecosystem
b. community
d. species
_D__ 25. Different species can share the same habitat, but competition among them is reduced if
they
a. reproduce at different times
c. increase their populations
b. eat less
d. occupy different niches
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_D__ 26. An organism that uses energy to produce its own food supply from inorganic compounds
is called a(an)
a. heterotroph
c. detritivore
b. consumer
d. autotroph
_A__ 27. What is the process by which bacteria convert nitrogen gas in the air into ammonia?
a. nitrogen fixation
c. decomposition
b. excretion
d. denitrification
_B__ 28. Carbon cycles through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT?
a. photosynthesis
c. respiration
b. transpiration
d. decomposition
_D__ 29. What is the combined portions of the Earth called in which all living things exist?
a. biome
c. ecosystem
b. community
d. biosphere
_B__ 30. What is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems?
a. carbohydrates
c. water
b. sunlight
d. carbon
_A__ 31. Organisms that obtain nutrients by breaking down dead and decaying plants and animals
are called
a. decomposers
c. autotrophs
b. omnivores
d. producers
_D__ 32. All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food?
a. interaction
c. network
b. chain
d. web
_B__ 33. The process by which NH3 is converted into NO3?
a. nitrogen fixation
c. ammonification
b. nitrification
d. denitrification
_C__ 34. The process by which NH3 is converted into NH4.
a. nitrogen fixation
c. ammonification
b. nitrification
d. denitrification
_D__ 35. The process by which NO3 is converted into N2
a. nitrogen fixation
c. ammonification
b. nitrification
d. denitrification
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_C__ 36. Refer to the illustration above. Level A is composed of
a. carnivores.
c. producers.
b. herbivores.
d. omnivores.
_D__ 37. Refer to the illustration above. The diagram shows a(n)
a. population.
c. food web.
b. community.
d. Energy pyramid.
_C__ 38. Refer to the illustration above. How much energy is available to the organisms in level
C?
a. all of the energy in level A plus the energy in level B
b. all of the energy in level A minus the energy in level B
c. 10 percent of the energy in level B
d. 90 percent of the energy in level B
_B___39. Refer to the illustration above. The diagram represents the decrease in
a. the number of organisms from higher to lower trophic levels.
b. available energy from lower to higher trophic levels.
c. diversity of organisms between lower and higher levels.
d. trophic levels.
Ecology Test Ch. 4 & 5 2011-2012
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.(2pts each)
_C__ 1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
_C__ 2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?
average temperature of the ecosystem
type of soil in the ecosystem
number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem
concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem
Which two biomes have the least amount of precipitation?
tropical rain forest and temperate grassland
tropical savanna and tropical dry forest
tundra and desert
boreal forest and temperate woodland and shrubland
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_D__ 3. The average year-after-year conditions of temperature and precipitation in a particular
region is the
region’s
a. longitude
c. ecosystem.
b. latitude.
d. climate.
_A__ 4. Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT
a. plant life.
c. rainfall.
b. soil type.
d. temperature.
_C__ 5. Which biome is characterized by very low temperatures, little precipitation, and
permafrost?
a. desert
c. tundra
b. temperate forest
d. tropical dry forest
_C__ 6. Ponds and lakes are
a. wetlands.
c. standing-water ecosystems.
b. estuaries.
d. flowing-water ecosystems.
_D__ 7. There are 150 Saguaro cacti plants per square kilometer in a certain area of Arizona
desert. To which
population characteristic does this information refer?
a. growth rate
c. age structure
b. geographic distribution
d. population density
_A__ 8. What can cause a population to grow?
a. The birthrate becomes higher than the death rate.
b. The birthrate stays the same, and the death rate increases.
c. The birthrate becomes lower than the death rate.
d. The birthrate and the death rate remain the same.
_D__ 9. When individuals in a population reproduce at a constant rate, it produces a growth
pattern called
a. logistic growth.
c. demographic growth.
b. growth density.
d. exponential growth.
_C__ 10. Which are two ways a population can decrease in size?
a. immigration and emigration
b. increased death rate and immigration
c. decreased birthrate and emigration
d. emigration and increased birthrate
_A__ 11. If a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the environment, the
a. death rate may rise.
c. population will grow faster.
b. birthrate may rise.
d. carrying capacity will change.
_A__ 12. Which would be least likely to be affected by a density-dependent limiting factor?
a. a small, scattered population
b. a population with a high birthrate
c. a large, dense population
d. a population with a high immigration rate
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_B__ 13. In Rwanda, there are more young children than teenagers, and more teenagers than
adults. This age structure indicates a population that
a. has stopped growing.
b. will double in 30 years.
c. has a steady growth rate.
d. will decrease in 30 years.
_D__ 14. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that play a role in population
growth rate?
a. immigration
c. emigration
b. death rate
d. demography
_A__ 15. The movement of organisms into a given area from another area is called
a. immigration.
c. population shift.
b. emigration.
d. carrying capacity.
_A__ 16. When the birthrate in a population becomes higher than the death rate, the population
growth rate
a. increases.
c. levels off.
b. decreases.
d. decreases, then levels off.
_C__ 17. Any factor in the environment that causes population growth to decrease is a
a. carrying capacity.
c. limiting factor.
b. limiting nutrient.
d. growth factor.
_A__ 18. Which of the following describes the largest number of individuals that an
environment can support?
a. carrying capacity.
c. emigration.
b. immigration.
d. exponential growth.
_B__ 19. Each of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor EXCEPT
a. competition.
c. crowding.
b. unusual weather.
d. disease.
_A__ 20. Which of the following is a density-independent factor?
a. earthquake
c. emigration
b. disease
d. parasitism
_C__ 21. Demography is the scientific study of
a. parasitism and disease.
c. human populations.
b. modernized countries.
d. economic transitions.
_A__ 22. Which of the following is NOT involved in capture-recapture methods of population
sampling?
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. tags
c. collars
d. leg rings
_B__ 23. Zero population growth is achieved
a. when a population reaches the carrying capacity of the environment.
b. when emigration and immigration are balanced and the number of births equals the
number of deaths.
c. anytime that births exceed deaths.
d. anytime that deaths exceed births.
9
Refer to the figure illustrating logistic growth, to answer the following questions.
Figure 45-1
_C__ 24. Refer to Figure 45-1. The initial carrying capacity of an environment is indicated by
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
Figure 45-2
Refer to the age structure diagrams, to answer the following questions.
_A__ 25. Refer to Figure 45-2. A rapidly-growing population is indicated by
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
_C__ 26. Refer to Figure 45-2. A population with zero growth is indicated by
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
10
_D__ 27. Refer to Figure 45-2. A declining population is indicated by
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
_C__ 28. The effect of local population fluctuations in rapidly expanding suburbs may _____
schools, roads, police and fire services
a. eliminate
c. have no effect on
b. reduce the need for
d. none of these
Table 5-1 shows the population sizes for 5 different species in four different areas.
Area
Species U Species V Species W
Species X Species Y Species Z
A
3
7
2
2
2
4
B
0
6
8
0
6
6
C
0
0
2
0
0
2
D
4
3
1
6
0
11
Table 5-1
_A__ 29. From table 5-, which of species has teh highest average population size?
a. Species W
c. Species Y
b. Species X
d. Species Z
_B__ 30. If the four areas in table 5-1 were teh only places on earth to find these organisms,
which species most
likely faces the greatest chance of extinction?
a. Species U
c. Species Y
b. Species X
d. Species Z
_C__ 31. If all four areas in table 5-1 had identical climate and geology, which one would
probably have the smallest area?
a. Area A
c. Area C
b. Area B
d. Area D
_C__ 32. A graph of a population that grows until it reaches its carrying capacity usually has
the shape of a(n) ______.
a. I
c. S
b. J
d. M
_A__ 33. The symbiotic relationship between a flower and the insect that feeds on its nectar is
an example of
a. mutualism because the flower provides the insect with food, and the insect
pollinates the flower.
b. parasitism because the insect lives off the nectar from the flower.
c. commensalism because the insect doesn’t harm the flower, and the flower doesn’t
benefit from the relationship.
d. predation because the insect feeds on the flower.
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_B__ 34. What is one difference between primary and secondary succession?
a. Primary succession is slow, and secondary succession is rapid.
b. Secondary succession begins on soil, and primary succession begins on newly
exposed surfaces.
c. Primary succession modifies the environment, and secondary succession does not.
d. Secondary succession begins with lichens, and primary succession begins with
trees.
_B__ 35. What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-2?
Figure 3-2
a.
b.
c.
d.
primary
secondary
tertiary
climax
12
_A__ 36. At which stage in Figure 3-3 are the most pioneer species found?
_C__
_B__
_C__
_D__
Figure 3-3
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
37. The stable ecosystem that develops due to succession is called
a. a niche
c. a climax community
b. a forest
d. a biome
38. What type of relationship exists between E.coli inside your intestine
a. symbiosis
c. parasitism
b. mutualism
d. commensalism
39. What type of relationship exists between worms on your eyelashes
a. symbiosis
c. parasitism
b. mutualism
d. commensalism
40. What type of relationship exists between HIV and monkeys
a. symbiosis
c. parasitism
b. mutualism
d. commensalism
13
Ecology Test Ch. 6 2011-2012
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Table 5-1 shows the population sizes for 6 different species in four different areas.
Area
Species U Species V Species W
Species X Species Y Species Z
A
3
7
2
2
2
4
B
0
6
8
0
6
6
C
0
0
2
0
0
2
D
4
3
11
1
6
0
Table 5-1
_B__ 1. If the four areas in Table 5-1 were the only places in the world to find these
organisms, which species most
likely faces the greatest chance of extinction?
a. Species U
c. Species Y
b. Species X
d. Species Z
_A__ 2.
a.
b.
_B__ 3.
a.
b.
Which area in Table 5-1 has the greatest biodiversity?
Area A
c. Area C
Area B
d. Area D
The number of different species in the biosphere is called
biodiversity.
c. genetic diversity.
ecosystem diversity.
d. species diversity.
_C__ 4. The sulfur and nitrogen compounds in smog combine with water to form
a. ozone.
c. acid rain.
b. ammonia.
d. chlorofluorocarbons.
_A__ 5. The extinction rate of terrestrial and freshwater species is currently higher than the
extinction rate of
marine species. What is the most likely reason for this?
a. Human activities have a greater impact on terrestrial and freshwater ecosystems.
b. There are no economic incentives for humans to use ocean resources.
c. Marine organisms have had a longer time to adapt to their environment.
d. The oceans have a greater area than land and freshwater ecosystems combined.
_D__ 6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
All of the following are threats to biodiversity EXCEPT
biological magnification of toxic compounds.
habitat fragmentation.
invasive species.
species preservation.
14
Figure 5-3
_A__ 7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What effect did the loss of species B have on species A and D in Figure 5-3?
it caused the populations of A and D to decrease
it caused the populations of A and D to increase
it caused the populations of A and D to become extinct
it had no effect on the populations of A and D
_C__ 8. Examine the graph in Figure 5-3. Which species were not affected by the loss of
species B?
a. species A, C, and E
c. species C only
b. species C and E
d. species E only
_D__ 9. Which of the following resources can be considered renewable?
a. natural gas
c. uranium
b. quartz
d. wood
_A__ 10. The cheetah population was around 100,000 in 1900. Today, fewer than 12,000
cheetahs remain. What
type of natural resource are cheetahs considered to be?
a. nonrenewable
c. reusable
b. renewable
d. sustainable
_D__ 11. Which of the following practices can help conserve an area’s biodiversity?
a. biological magnification
c. species introduction
b. habitat fragmentation
d. sustainable usage
_D__ 12. Some scientists think that global warming is
a. a natural variation in climate.
b. a result of human activity.
c. melting the polar ice caps.
d. all of the above
_C__ 13. The major cause of ozone depletion is
a. nitric acid.
c. chlorofluorocarbons.
b. sulfuric acid.
d. ultraviolet light.
15
_B__ 14. The major threat to biodiversity is
a. habitat fragmentation
c. habitat degradation
b. habitat loss
d. exotic species
_C__ 15. Acid rain changes the pH of soil, killing some trees. This is an example of
a. habitat fragmentation
c. habitat degradation
b. global warming problems
d. exotic species
_B__ 16. Salvinia molesta, a floating aquatic plant, first entered Lake Naivasha in Kenya when
a person’s fish ponds flooded. The plant quickly grew, changing the habitat of parts of
the lake. This is an example of a problem due to
a. reintroduction programs
c. habitat fragmentation
b. exotic species
d. edge effect
_C__ 17. Which of the following species is extinct?
a. American bald eagle
c. passenger pigeon
b. manatee
d. giant panda
_B__ 18. Water and air pollution are examples of
a. habitat fragmentation
c. edge effect
b. habitat degradation
d. sustainable use
_D__ 19. When species lose their habitats, they may
a. lack food
c. be in danger of becoming extinct
b. lack shelter
d. all of the above
_C__ 20. The greatest source of air pollution is
a. volcanic eruptions
c. burning of fossil fuels
b. forest fires
d. CFC’s
_C__ 21. When exotic species are introduced into an area their populations may grow
exponentially because the species
a. are large
c. lack competitors and predators
b. are predators
d. are small
_C__ 22. Which of the following sequences is the most likely to occur?
a. endangered species, to threatened species, to extinct species
b. extinct species, to threatened species, to endangered species
c. threatened species, to endangered species, to extinct species
d. threatened species, to extinct species, to endangered species
_B__ 23. Which of the following animals would be least affected by habitat fragmentation?
a. wolves
c. zebras
b. hawks
d. lions
_C__ 24. The removal of coral reefs by people is an example of habitat
a. fragmentation
c. loss
b. degradation
d. preservation
_A__ 25. National parks help prevent the extinction of many species by
a. preserving the species habitats
c. introducing exotic species
b. reducing pollution
d. allowing the sustainable use of
resources
16
_C__ 26. Materials that are used to soak up oil spills are called
a. booms
c. sorbents
b. skimmers
d. chemical dispersants
_A__ 27. ______ is used to contain an oil spill.
a. boom
c. sorbents
b. skimmer
d. chemical dispersants
_C__ 28. Amur honeysuckle and Kudzu are examples of
a. biodiversity
c. exotic species
b. native species
d. endangered species
_C__ 29. Habitat fragmentation often leads to
a. increased species diversity within an
area
b. larger habitats for species
c. decreased species diversity
d. an increased food supply for species
_A__ 30. What is an example of a renewable resource?
a. air
c. coal
b. oil
d. old growth forest
_B__ 31. A harmful material that can enter the biosphere through the land, air or water is
a. smog
c. bioremediation
b. pollutant
d. all of the above
_B__ 32. The variety of life in an area is called
a. species diversity
c. genetic diversity
b. biodiversity
d. animal diversity
_A__ 33. Renewable sources of energy
a. can replenish themselves naturally.
b. must be created in laboratories.
c. are manufactured from fossil fuels.
d. were never utilized until the 20th century.
_C__ 34. Coal is considered a nonrenewable resource because it
a. can be recycled
c. forms over millions of years.
b. can be readily replaced.
d. is polluting.
_C__ 35. Ozone in the atmosphere
a. leads to formation of acid precipitation.
b. combines readily with water vapor.
c. absorbs harmful radiation from the sun.
d. is a renewable resource.
_B__ 36. The heat-trapping ability of some gases in the atmosphere can be compared to
a. the melting of snow.
b. the way glass traps heat in a greenhouse.
c. condensation because of heating.
d. heating water on a stove.
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_B__ 37. The extinction of species
a. is a problem limited to the tropics.
b. has been sped up by the activities of people.
c. is a problem only where topsoil and groundwater are limited.
d. is not a problem today.
_C__ 38. The steps needed to solve environmental problems include
a. waiting for the affected species to leave an ecosystem that is in trouble.
b. leaving the problems to United Nations committees to address.
c. educating the public about the problems and the costs of their solutions.
d. taking any necessary action, regardless of the consequences or adverse effects.
_B__ 39. Protecting ecosystem diversity is a goal of
a. the green revolution.
c. the captive breeding program.
b. conservation biology.
d. the United Nations.
_D__ 40. The wearing away of surface soil by water and wind is known as
a. deforestation.
b. desertification.
c. overgrazing.
d. soil erosion.
_C__ 41. An endangered species is
a. a diseased animal.
b. a dangerous predator.
c. a group of organisms near extinction.
d. all organisms at the top of a food chain.
_D__ 42. The arrival of Europeans in the Hawaiian Islands changed the islands by introducing
a. new crops.
c. pigs and rats.
b. new ways of farming.
d. all of the above
_B__ 43. Which is a way to limit deforestation?
a. use more wood products
b. plant and harvest trees on tree farms
c. increase carbon dioxide levels
d. fertilize the soil
_D__ 44. The goals of conservation biology include all of the following EXCEPT
a. wise management of natural resources.
b. protection and management of individual species.
c. preservation of habitats and wildlife.
d. introducing foreign species into new environments.
18
For many years orchid collectors searched Exotic Islands for the beautiful Kimmarie
Orchid, which is found no place else in the world. After they found the orchid, they
brought it back to their homes. In the last couple of years the Kimmarie Orchid has not
been found on the island. As a result, hobbyists are now sending the Kimmarie Orchid to
be replanted on the islands.
_D__ 45. The Kimmarie Orchid became extinct in the wild due to ____.
a. habitat loss
c. habitat degradation
b. exotics
d. overcollection
_B__ 46. The hobbyists are trying to correct the Kimmarie Orchid problem they caused by
using ____.
a. exotic species
c. habitat corridors
b. a reintroduction program
d. habitat fragments
_D__ 47. If the communities in Figure 5-4 were put in order of least to most biological
diversity, they would be
____.
Figure 5-1
a. ABCD
b. CADB
c. DBCA
d. BDAC
19
Figure 5-2
_B__ 48. What does the graph in Figure 5-2 tell you?
a.
b.
c.
d.
the farther from land, the more biodiversity
the larger the islet, the more biodiversity
islet size and biodiversity are not related
biodiversity decreases with islet size
Island
Area (km2)
A
B
C
850,000
300,000
90,000
Initial No.
of Species
175
140
80
Extinctions
25
35
50
Table 5-2
_C__ 49. According to the data in Table 5-2, which factor has the greatest impact on species
loss?
a. the original number of species
c. the area of the island
b. the distance from the mainland
d. the climate
_C__ 50. Which of the following species is extinct?
a. American bald eagle
c. passenger pigeon
b. bison (buffalo)
d. giant panda
20
Biochemistry & The Cell Test
Multiple Choice (2 points each)
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_B__ 1. If something is organic we know that it ___________ _____________.
a. is natural
c. is expensive
b. contains carbon
d. contains oxygen
_C__ 2. What are the basic building blocks of proteins?
a. nucleic acids
c. amino acids
b. peptide bonds
d. glycerol and fatty acids
_A__ 3. Unlike carbohydrates and fats, proteins contain _____.
a. nitrogen
c. hydrogen
b. carbon
d. oxygen
_C__ 4. Who concluded that all animals are made of living cells?
a. Virchow
c. Schwann
b. Hooke
d. Schleiden
_A__ 5. All living things are made up of _____.
a. cells
b. cork
c. wastes
d. cellulose
_A__ 6. The scientist who viewed pond water under a microscope and found tiny critters was
_____.
a. van Leeuwenhoek
c. Hooke
b. Schleiden
d. Schwann
_B__ 7. If a cell contains a nucleus, it must be a(n) _____.
a. plant cell
c. animal cell
b. eukaryotic cell
d. prokaryotic cell
_D__ 8. What is a protein that changes the rate of a chemical reaction?
a. steroids
c. nucleic acid
b. nucleotides
d. enzymes
_A__ 9. DNA and RNA are representatives of what organic compound?
a. Nucleic Acids
c. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids
_C__ 10. What element(s) make up carbohydrates?
a. carbon and hydrogen
b. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and
nitrogen
c. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
d. carbon
_D__ 11. Which of the following is not a type of carbohydrate?
a. polysaccharide
c. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
d. triglyceride
21
_A__ 12. The thin, flexible barrier around a cell is called the
a. cell membrane.
c. cell envelope.
b. cell wall.
d. cytoplasm.
_C__ 13. Prokaryotes lack
a. cytoplasm.
c. a nucleus.
b. a cell membrane.
d. genetic material.
_A__ 14. The main function of the cell wall is to
a. support and protect the cell.
c. direct the activities of the cell.
b. store DNA.
d. help the cell move.
_D__ 15. Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
a. stores DNA
b. controls most of the cell’s processes
c. contains the information needed to make proteins
d. all of the above
_A__ 16. Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?
a. helps a cell keep its shape
b. contains DNA
c. surrounds the cell
d. helps make proteins
_C__ 17. Which organelle would you expect to find only in plant cells?
a. mitochondrion
c. chloroplast
b. ribosome
d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
_C__ 18. Which structures carry out cell movement?
a. cytoplasm and ribosomes
b. nucleolus and nucleus
c. cilia and flagella
d. chromosomes
_D__ 19. Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?
a. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods
b. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates
c. keeps the cell wall in place
d. regulates which materials enter and leave the cell
_B__ 20. Carbohydrates have a ratio of ___ carbon, ___ hydrogen, and ___ oxygen.
a. 4:10:4
c. 2:1:1
b. 1:2:1
d. all of these answers
_C__ 21. Your body likes to use these rather than fats because they are easier to burn
a. lipids
c. carbohydrates
b. proteins
d. nucleic acids
_B__ 22. How does an enzyme influence a reaction?
a. It increases the energy difference between reactants and products.
b. It decreases the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
c. It increases the energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to collide.
d. None of the above
22
_B__ 23. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following statements regarding the graph is
true?
a. Reaction 2 occurs faster than Reaction 3 because Reaction 2 requires more energy
than Reaction 3.
b. The difference between the graphs shown for Reaction 2 and Reaction 3 occurs
because of a difference in the activation energy of these reactions.
c. Reactant A contains more energy at the beginning of the reaction than product C
has at the end of the reaction.
d. Product B contains more energy at the end of the reaction than reactant A has at
the beginning of the reaction.
_A__ 24. Refer to the illustration above. Reaction 3 in the graph
a. probably occurred in the presence of an enzyme.
b. requires more activation energy than Reaction 2.
c. is the same as Reaction 1, but faster.
d. is slower than Reaction 2.
_D__ 25. When an enzyme becomes denatured
a. the substrate will fit into the enzyme and cause a reaction
b. the tubstrate will not fit into the enzyme and cause a reaction
c. the substrate will fit into the enzyme and not cause a reaction
d. the substrate will not fit into the enzyme and not cause a reaction
_B__ 26. What is the term used to describe the energy needed to get a reaction started?
a. adhesion energy
c. cohesion energy
b. activation energy
d. chemical energy
23
Cell Membrane & Mitosis Test
Multiple Choice (1pt each)
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_D__ 1. Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?
a. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods
b. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates
c. keeps the cell wall in place
d. regulates which materials enter and leave the cell
_A__ 2. Diffusion occurs because
a. molecules constantly move and collide with one another.
b. the concentration of a solution is never the same throughout a solution.
c. the concentration of a solution is always the same throughout a solution.
d. molecules never move or collide with one another.
_A__ 3. An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because osmosis
causes
a. water to move into the cell.
c. solutes to move into the cell.
b. water to move out of the cell.
d. solutes to move out of the cell.
_C__ 4. The cells of multicellular organisms are
a. smaller than those of unicellular organisms.
b. simpler than those of unicellular organisms.
c. specialized to perform particular functions.
d. not dependent on one another.
_A__ 5. As cell size increases, its ________________ increases faster than its
______________.
a. volume, surface area
c. volume, mass
b. surface area, volume
d. mass, surface area
_C__ 6. An organ system is a group of organs that
a. are made up of similar organelles.
b. are made up of similar cells.
c. work together to perform a specific function.
d. work together to perform all the functions in a multicellular organism.
_A__ 7. The thin, flexible barrier around a cell is called the
a. cell membrane.
c. cell envelope.
b. cell wall.
d. cytoplasm.
_B__ 8. Diffusion is the movement of particles from
a. an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.
b. an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
c. an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration.
d. all of the above
_B__ 9. The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called
a. diffusion.
c. facilitated diffusion.
b. osmosis.
d. active transport.
24
_B__ 10. Which term refers to cells having different tasks in an organism?
a. multicellular
c. levels of organization
b. cell differentiation
d. unicellular
_A__ 11. Which of the following is an example of an organ?
a. Heart
c. digestive system
b. epithelial tissue
d. nerve cell
_B__ 12. Which type of molecule forms the cell membrane?
a. protein
c. nucleic acid
b. phospholipid
d. carbohydrate
_B__ 13. In order for diffusion to be efficient, cells must stay ______________.
a. large
c. still
b. small
d. dry
_A__ 14. The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of
a. diffusion.
c. active transport.
b. osmosis.
d. endocytosis.
_B__ 15. Phospholipids are molecules that have
a. one hydrophilic phosphate head and two hydrophilic fatty acid tails.
b. one hydrophilic phosphate head and two hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
c. one hydrophobic phosphate head and one hydrophobic fatty acid tail.
d. one hydrophobic phosphate head and two hydrophilic fatty acid tails.
_D__ 16. Refer to the illustration above. The structures labeled A are
a. cell-surface markers.
c. enzymes.
b. sugar molecules.
d. transport proteins.
_B__ 17. Large molecules, like sugar, cross the cell membrane from an area of high
concentration to an area of low concentration by
a. active transport.
c. osmosis.
b. facilitated diffusion.
d. simple diffusion.
_A__ 18. Which of the following does not require energy?
a. diffusion
c. active transport
b. endocytosis
d. exocytosis
_B__ 19. As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a. always remains greater inside a membrane.
b. eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c. always remains greater outside of a membrane.
d. becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
25
_D__ 20. Refer to the illustration above. The process shown is called
a. osmosis.
c. active transport.
b. facilitated diffusion.
d. diffusion.
_D__ 21. Diffusion is the movement of a substance
a. only through a lipid bilayer membrane.
b. from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c. only in liquids.
d. from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration.
_B__ 22. Osmosis is a type of
a. active transport.
c. simple diffusion.
b. passive transport.
d. endocytosis.
_A__ 23. Which of the following statements about an isotonic solution and a cell is
correct?
a. The solution has the same solute concentration that the cytoplasm does.
b. The solution has a higher solute concentration than the cytoplasm does.
c. A cell in the solution will lose water.
d. A cell in the solution will gain water.
_A__ 24. Unlike passive transport, active transport
a. requires energy.
b. moves substances with their concentration gradient.
c. does not involve carrier proteins.
d. moves water across the cell membrane.
_C__ 25. A hypertonic salt solution has a higher concentration of solutes than a blood
cell. What happens when a blood cell is placed in a hypertonic salt solution.
a. no change - equilibrium
c. cell shrivels
b. cell swells
26
A
B
_C__ 26. What process is illustrated in figure A above?
a. diffusion
c. endocytosis
b. exocytosis
d. osmosis
_B__ 27. What process is illustrated in figure B above.
a. diffusion
c. endocytosis
b. exocytosis
d. osmosis
_C__ 28. What model is used to describe your cell membrane?
a. Stiff Flat Model
c. Fluid Mosaic Model
b. Fluid Flat Model
d. Stiff Mosaic Model
_A__ 29. The movement of large particles from high concentration to low
concentration through
transport proteins is called _________________.
a. facilitated diffusion
c. osmosis
b. diffusion
d. active transport
_B__ 30. (QC) Red blood cells have a salt content of 0.9% NaCl. When a
microbiologist places red blood cells in pure water, osmosis occurs. What net
movement of a substance occurs in this instance of osmosis?
a. Water molecules move out of the cells. c. Salt ions move out of the cells.
b. Water molecules move into the cells. d. Salt ions move into the cells.
_A__ 31. (QC) A Paramecium lives in an environment that is hypotonic to its
cytoplasm. How does the Paramecium maintain homeostasis under these
conditions?
a. It expels excess water using contractile c. It absorbs additional water through
vacuoles.
osmosis.
b. It expels excess sodium using the
d. It absorbs additional sodium through
sodium-potassium pump.
facilitated diffusion.
_B__ 32. (QC) A scientist places a cell in a solution, and over time the cell gains mass
and swells. What is the most likely explanation for the cell’s gain in mass?
a. The solution is hypertonic to the cell. c. The solution and the cell have equal
concentrations of solutes.
b. The solution is hypotonic to the cell.
d. The solution and cell have equal
concentrations of water.
27
_C__ 33. (QC) Biochemists have created an artificial cell membrane that they hope to
insert into artificial red blood cells for future dehydration and transportation
into outer space.
When scientists stain natural cell membranes with a heavy metal, they can view the
membranes with an electron microscope. The heavy metal stains the polar hydrophilic
heads of the phospholipid membranes. If the artificial membranes resemble natural
membranes, what area(s), when viewed under a microscope, would appear stained?
(Note: Shading represents stains.)
a.
c.
b.
d.
_C__ 34. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
a. only during interphase
c. only during cell division
b. only when they are being replicated
d. only during the G1 phase
_C__ 35. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a. G1 phase
c. S phase
b. G2 phase
d. Mitosis
_A__ 36. The cell cycle is the
a. series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell.
c. time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.
Figure 10–2
_A__ 37. The structure labeled A in Figure 10–2 is called the
a. centromere.
c. sister chromatid.
b. centriole.
d. spindle.
28
_C__ 38. The structures labeled B in Figure 10–2 are called
a. centromeres.
c. sister chromatid.
b. centrioles.
d. spindles.
_C__ 39. Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?
a. cytokinesis
c. prophase
b. interphase
d. S phase
_A__ 40. The first phase of mitosis is called
a. prophase.
c. metaphase.
b. anaphase.
d. interphase.
_C__ 41. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle
of the dividing cell?
a. prophase
c. metaphase
b. telophase
d. anaphase
_A__ 42. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper
sequence?
a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b. interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
d. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
_D__ 43. The two main stages of cell division are called
a. mitosis and interphase.
c. the M phase and the S phase.
b. synthesis and cytokinesis.
d. mitosis and cytokinesis.
_B_ 44. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having four chromosomes
will produce two daughter cells, each containing
a. two chromosomes.
c. eight chromosomes.
b. four chromosomes.
d. sixteen chromosomes.
_B__ 45. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by
a. the centrioles.
c. the spindles.
b. cyclin.
d. chromosomes.
_C__ 46. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
a. size.
c. growth rate.
b. spindle fibers.
d. surface area.
_A__ 47. Cancer cells form masses of cells called
a. tumors.
c. growth factors.
b. cyclins.
d. metaphases
_A__ 48. Which event occurs during interphase?
a. The cell grows.
b. Centrioles move to opposite ends
c. Spindle fibers begin to form.
d. Centromeres split.
_A__ 49. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called
a. cell division.
c. interphase.
b. metaphase.
d. anaphase.
29
Figure 10–2
_D__ 50. Cell division is represented in Figure 10-2 by the letter?
a. A.
c. C.
b. B.
d. D
_B__ 51. Together, G1, S, and G2 are called _________________.
a. prophase
c. cytokinesis
b. interphase
d. cell division
30
Figure 10–5
_C__ 52. The structure labeled X in picture A of Figure 10-5 is called _______.
a. centromere
c. Centrioles
b. spindle fibers
d. Chromatin
_B__ 53. The structure labeled Y in picture A of Figure 10-5 is called ___________.
a. centromere
c. Centrioles
b. spindle fibers
d. Chromatin
_B__ 54. What is the chromosome number of the cell shown in picture D of Figure 105?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
_C__ 55. What do the pictures in Figure 10-5 represent?
a. cell cycle
b. cytokinesis
c. mitosis
d. interphase
_D__ 56. Which diagram in Figure 10-5 occurs 1st?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
_A__ 57. Which diagram in Figure 10-5 occurs 2nd?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
_C__ 58. Which diagram in Figure 10-5 occurs 3rd?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
_B__ 59. Which diagram in Figure 10-5 occurs last?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
_B__ 60. A protein disk that attaches two chromatids to each other in a chromosome is
called a
a. chloroplast.
c. gamete.
b. centromere.
d. centriole.
31
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