Year 12 Chemistry Chemical Monitoring and Management Quiz 1
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1. Why are industrial combustion reactions monitored? Multiple Choice: 1 mark each
a) To maximise incomplete combustion.
b) To minimise incomplete combustion.
c) To oxidise the fuel.
d) To determine which type of fuel is the most suitable.
2. Identify four industrial uses of ammonia.
4 marks
3. Write a balanced equation for the Haber process and identify two ways the rate of reaction can be
increased.
4 marks
4. Why are the gases leaving the reactor in the Haber process cooled?
3 marks
5. Explain the effect of adding a catalyst on the reaction temperature required for the Haber process. 2 marks
6. Identify and explain the compromise that must be made when determining the reaction conditions for the
industrial synthesis of ammonia via the Haber process.
3 marks
7. Why does the yield of ammonia decrease with temperature in the Haber process?
a) The forward reaction absorbs heat
b) The ammonia produced in the reaction is increasingly decomposed as the temperature increases
c) Ammonia is unstable because it lacks hydrogen bonding
d) The forward reaction is endothermic
8. Define Le Châtelier's principle.
9. Identify the factors which can affect the equilibrium in a reversible reaction.
2 marks
2 marks
10. Analyse the impact of increasing the pressure in the reaction vessel during the synthesis of ammonia via the
Haber process.
4 marks
11. Why must the raw materials for the Haber process be monitored?
2 marks
12. Which test could be performed to test for the presence of barium ions?
a) Add a soluble sulfate salt
b) Add an insoluble sulfate salt
c) Dissolve by adding hydrochloric acid
d) Heat at high temperature until white barium oxide solid is observed
13. Which ion could be qualitatively tested using the flame test?
a) 𝑁𝑂3−
b) 𝐶𝑢2+
c) 𝑆𝑂42−
d) 𝐶𝑙 −
14. A 1.000g sample of lawn fertiliser was analysed for sulfate content. The fertiliser was ground into a fine
powder then dissolved in water and filtered. The sulfate ions in the filtrate were precipitated by adding 50ml
of 0.1M BaCl2 solution then filtered using new filter paper. The clean filter paper had a mass of 2.007g and
the dried filter paper and precipitate had a mass of 2.077g. Calculate the percentage composition of sulfate
in the fertiliser.
2 marks
15. Identify one way the validity of the above procedure could be improved?
16. How could the reliability of the above procedure be improved?
1 mark
1 mark
17. Why is it necessary to monitor the levels of phosphate ions in waterways?
a) Phosphate ions are extremely toxic to fish so even a small amount of phosphate will kill fish.
b) Phosphorus is a plant nutrient that can result in excessive plant growth and therefore high BOD.
c) Phosphorus glows at night and can attract parasitic insects that harm aquatic organisms.
d) Phosphorus is a radioactive element that emits gamma rays that can cause genetic mutations in fish.
18. Identify two sources of lead pollution.
2 marks
19. A manufacturer of multivitamins claims that its tablets contain the RDI of zinc for adult males (14mg). A
tablet was selected at random from a bottle and analysed for zinc content. The tablet was ground into a
powder then 400ml of 1M hydrochloric acid was added to the powder to dissolve the zinc. The solution was
divided into five 80ml aquilots and analysed using AAS. The average absorbance was found to be 0.195. Use
the average absorbance and the AAS calibration curve below to evaluate the manufacturer’s claim. 4 marks
concentration (ppm)
0
20
40
60
80
100
absorbance
0.003
0.097
0.204
0.306
0.428
0.515
20. What are the layers of the atmosphere in order from ground level?
a) Atmosphere, hydrosphere, ozone layer, ionosphere
b) Troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
c) Biosphere, ozone layer, stratosphere, thermosphere
d) Stratosphere, ozone layer, mesosphere, ionosphere
21. Write balanced chemical equations for the production and decomposition of ozone by UV light and the
destruction of ozone by chlorine free radicals.
6 marks
22. Identify five significant pollutants found in the lower atmosphere and give one source for each.
23. Ozone helps sustain life on Earth yet is also considered a pollutant. Discuss.
10 marks
2 marks
24. Ozone has co-ordinate covalent bonding. A co-ordinate covalent bond is a bond where both electrons in the
bond are provided by the same atom. Draw a labelled Lewis Dot diagram of ozone to illustrate this. 2 marks
25. Account for the fact that ozone is more soluble in water than diatomic oxygen in terms of atomic structure.
2 marks
26. What does the word allotrope mean?
a) An old name for ozone.
b) An old name for isotope.
c) Atoms of an element arranged in a covalent network structure.
d) Different arrangements of atoms in an element.
27. Rank diatomic oxygen, ozone and oxygen free radicals in order of increasing reactivity.
28. Draw the molecule 2-bromo-4-flurobutane and write its chemical formula.
1 mark
2 marks
29. Draw, name and write the chemical formula for the molecule formed when the bromo and fluoro
groups are swapped in the molecule 2-bromo-4-flurobutane.
3 marks
30. What word is used to describe the two compounds described in questions 28 and 29?
a) isotopes.
b) CFCs.
c) isomers.
d) argons.
31. What word is used to describe the two compounds described in questions 28 and 29?
a) halons.
b) BFCs.
c) teflons.
d) polymers.
32. Identify one disadvantage of using CFCs.
1 mark
33. What has been done to reduce the negative effects of CFCs.
1 mark
34. Identify six key parameters that are commonly used to determine water quality.
35. Explain what causes temporary hardness?
3 marks
36. Explain what causes permanent hardness?
3 marks
6 marks
37. Identify three factors that affect the concentrations of ions in solution in natural bodies of water. 3 marks
38. Outline the steps used to purify and sanitise mass water supplies.
6 marks
39. Compare and contrast the use of chlorine, chloramines or ozone for sterilising mass water supplies. 4 marks