Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 1) In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, excess ketones are present in the blood and urine because of: 2) Glucagon -cells in the pancreas and when released causes elevated blood glucose. By what mechanism does glucagon promote hyperglycemia? 3) What is characteristic of type 1A diabetes mellitus? 4) Glycated hemoglobins are formed by the addition of glucose to the ___-terminal _____ residue. 5) Determining urinary albumin excretion (UAE) is critical in type 1 and type 2 diabetics because: 6) The role of the clinical laboratory in diagnosis of diabetes mellitus involves initial diagnostic criteria. For many years, the only diagnostic criterion required was demonstration of hyperglycemia in two or more fasting plasma glucose tests. What other laboratory analysis is now considered to be useful as a diagnostic criterion? 7) The syndrome that is considered a collection of associated clinical and laboratory findings that include insulin resistance, hyperinsulinemia, obesity, high triglyceride and low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, and hypertension is the: 8) Type 2 diabetes mellitus: 9) A pregnant woman at 27 weeks gestation is screened for gestational diabetes mellitus. Plasma venous glucose was measured at 1 hour following a 50 g oral glucose load. What value must this glucose be above or equal to for a glucose tolerance test to be performed? 10) Insulin regulates blood glucose levels by: 11) Factors identified as associated with (and possibly causing) type 1 diabetes mellitus include all of the following except: 12) A woman visits her physician with a complaint of polyuria and polydipsia. She has a family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is concerned that she is developing the disease. The physician notes that her previous hemoglobin A1c (Hb A1c) value was 6% (considered within healthy reference interval in the physician’s practice) with a fasting plasma glucose of 95 mg/dL. At this visit, her Hb A1c value is 8.5%. Why would the physician be correct to order an oral glucose increased breakdown of lipids (lipolysis). Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Circulating autoantibodies formed against pancreatic insulinsecreting cells. N; valine increased UAE is highly predictive of and is thought to precede diabetic nephropathy and endstage renal disease. Demonstration of elevated hemoglobin A1c insulin resistance syndrome. is associated with resistance to the action of insulin. The value must be 140 mg/dL glucose. stimulating the translocation of a glucose transporter and promoting glucose uptake into skeletal muscle and fat. insulin resistance. The Hb A1c result indicates an increase in average blood glucose and possible onset of type 2 diabetes. An OGTT would help to confirm this. 1 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 tolerance test (OGTT) for this individual? 13) Hb A1c makes up approximately what percentage of total Hb A1? 14) Retinopathy, neuropathy, microvascular, and macrovascular changes are all chronic complications of both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. One theory as to the cause of these chronic problems is the elevation of advance glycation end (AGE) products. These AGE products consist of: 15) Insulin deficiency in diabetes mellitus will cause: 16) What 2-hour plasma glucose oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) results would be classified as diagnostic for impaired glucose tolerance if an individual’s fasting blood glucose value is 120 mg/dL (healthy glucose reference interval is 74 to 99 mg/dL)? 17) A fingerstick glucose value was 120 mg/dL. If unhemolyzed serum or plasma were tested from the same individual at the same time, what might the glucose value be? 18) The development of ketoacidosis in an uncontrolled diabetic is caused by the: 19) An individual with a severe, uncontrolled case of type 1 diabetes mellitus will exhibit all of the following laboratory results except: 20) As a counter-regulator of glucose metabolism in a healthy individual, epinephrine has the effect of _____ blood glucose. 21) High albuminuria is defined as: 22) Although not a routine clinical laboratory screening test, measurement of insulin secretion in a potential diabetic is important because: 23) The hyperglycemia observed in a diabetic causes many toxic effects such as retinopathy and nephropathy. Although it is unclear how these outcomes are caused by elevated blood sugar, it is thought that hyperglycemia: 24) What antibodies is found most commonly in over 90% of children who develop type 1 diabetes before 5 years old? 25) What cardiac biomarkers is elevated about 50 times the upper limit of normal at 24 hours after onset of an acute myocardial infarction? 26) Why would high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (CRP) be an 80% proteins that have been irreversibly modified by nonenzymatic attachment of glucose. increased glucagon concentration, which contributes to hyperglycemia and ketosis. 195 mg/dL Approximately 132 mg/dL hydroxybutyric acid. hyperinsulinemia. stimulating glycogenolysis to increase increased urinary albumin excretion between the range of 20 to 200 µg/min that is measured by the laboratory in the chronic management of diabetes mellitus. a decrease in glucose-stimulated insulin secretion is the first functional abnormality in both types of diabetes. causes increased production of advanced glycation end products, which might contribute to microvascular complications. Insulin autoantibodies Troponin It is an acute phase reactant 2 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 indicator of a potential myocardial infarction? 27) An ideal cardiac marker should be elevated in the circulation for how long following a cardiac event? 28) A 55-year-old man is taken to a hospital emergency department by helicopter following a rural automobile accident that occurred approximately 3 hours ago. The man, who is having difficulty speaking to the EMTs, is clutching his chest. Upon the man’s arrival, the emergency room physician orders a cardiac marker panel that includes serum CK, CK-2 (CK-MB), troponin, and myoglobin. The CK-2 value was less than 2% of total CK, which was slightly increased; troponin was normal; and the myoglobin was increased 3 times the upper limit of normal. The physician has asked the laboratory to explain the findings. What represents the lab’s explanation? 29) What cardiac markers is elevated for the longest period of time after a myocardial infarction? 30) What is considered to be the most specific marker for adverse ventricular remodeling following an acute myocardial infarction? 31) In regard to cardiac anatomy, the myocardium: 32) What specimen types and collection methods is best for laboratory assessment of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) in the evaluation of congestive heart failure? 33) Laboratory measurements for brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) be reported in: 34) A cardiac marker that increases progressively with increasing severity of disease and is not increased (or decreased) in conditions that mimic congestive heart failure is: 35) The most common laboratory method used to assess brain natriuretic peptides is: 36) What troponins appears as uncomplexed or free following myocardial injury? 37) In a point-of-care (POC) test for a cardiac biomarker used in the evaluation of an individual with possible acute coronary syndrome, what is a Laboratory Medicine Practice guideline of the National Academy of Clinical Biochemistry (NACB)? 38) Chest pain that is associated with a decrease in oxygen supply to the heart muscle but that exhibits no cellular necrosis based on cardiac troponin value and is considered a less severe event is referred to as: 39) In the process of atherosclerotic plaque formation, what is plasma protein that rises in response to inflammation and the atherosclerotic process. At least several days Trauma caused by the accident with possible crush injury to the chest caused elevated myoglobin with normal troponin and CK-MB. Troponins Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) contains bundles of striated muscle fibers. EDTA-anticoagulated whole blood or plasma in plastic blood collection tubes only nanograms/liter. B-type natriuretic peptide. immunoassay. Cardiac troponin I POC assays should provide quantitative results. angina. Damage to the endothelium of 3 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 the typical precipitating event? 40) The protein in cardiac muscle fibers that regulates contraction is: 41) Regarding assessment of congestive heart failure, NTproBNP can be measured. This protein is: 42) In your clinical chemistry laboratory, you use an immunoassay to detect blood levels of NT-proBNP. You receive a filled green-top anticoagulant-containing plastic blood collection tube with a request for NT-proBNP. What is your next step? 43) What are the laboratory results for CK-MB and cardiac troponin in the following conditions: muscular dystrophy, polymyositis, and extreme physical activity? 44) A 36-year-old individual visits her physician with a complaint of nausea, loss of appetite, weakness, and an inability to concentrate. Laboratory results indicate increased serum urea and creatinine, increased potassium, reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR), low blood pH, anemia (low red blood cell count), and hypocalcemia. What is the likely diagnosis? 45) The portion of a nephron considered the most metabolically active and that is involved in the reabsorption of 60% to 80% of the glomerular filtrate and that secretes 90% of hydrogen ion excreted by the kidney is the: 46) A patient with elevated serum nitrogen compounds, markedly reduced GFR, increased serum sodium and potassium, and metabolic acidosis is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI). What is a likely cause? 47) What laboratory results would point to a diagnosis of acute nephritic syndrome in an individual who exhibits hypertension and edema? 48) The functional unit of the kidney is the: 49) If a physician requests a creatinine clearance on an individual, what is the physician attempting to determine? 50) What components of the renal system is most important for regulation of plasma electrolytes and acid-base balance? 51) In homeostatic regulation of plasma acid-base concentrations, sodium is both actively and passively exchanged in the tubules for what ions? 52) What statements regarding creatinine is correct? 53) Secretion of renin and aldosterone is induced by low blood pressure and volume. Renin is synthesized in the _____ and aldosterone is made in the _____. 54) Secretion of renin and aldosterone is induced by low blood cardiac blood vessels troponin. the N-terminal fragment of proBNP. Proceed, because this tube contains heparin and provides plasma after centrifugation, which is acceptable for the NT-proBNP assay. CK-MB elevated, troponin normal Uremia proximal tubule. Decreased cardiac output Hematuria, sodium retention, decreased GFR, proteinuria nephron. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) Distal convoluted tubule Hydrogen Normal plasma creatinine does not always indicate normal kidney function. kidney; adrenal gland Antidiuretic hormone 4 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 pressure and volume. What other hormone would be released in the event of low blood pressure and volume? 55) A 45-year-old man visits his physician with complaints of insatiable thirst, sudden onset of fatigue, polydipsia, and polyuria. Laboratory results indicate a normal fasting blood sugar. Serum sodium was slightly elevated. Urine was clear and had low specific gravity (hypotonic). The most likely cause of these symptoms and laboratory results would be: 56) Upon microscopic examination, an individual’s urine shows many bacteria, white blood cells, and cellular casts composed of polymorphonuclear leukocytes. It is likely that this individual has: 57) If an individual has a normal GFR and a hyperchloremic normal anion gap metabolic acidosis with a freshly voided early morning urine specimen which has a pH of 6.5, what is the likely diagnosis? 58) Damage to the glomerulus would be suspected when the urine sediment contains: 59) Why is bone disease a consequence of chronic kidney disease (CKD)? 60) You have been asked what laboratory tests should be requested to assess the electrolyte balance regulatory function of an individual’s kidneys. What is your reply? 61) The major artery that expands into the capillary bed that forms the glomerulus is the: 62) The most common glomerular disease worldwide is: 63) A 46-year-old patient visits her physician with a complaint of chest pain, blood in her urine, and oliguria. She states that these symptoms have gotten worse over the past 2 to 3 months. Urine and blood samples are collected. Urine GFR is calculated to be 40 mL/min/1.73 m2 and hemoglobin is 8 g/dL. Urine protein was elevated, with the presence of red blood cell casts. Upon review of her health history, it was noted that she was a cigarette smoker with hypertension. The most likely diagnosis in this case would be: 64) In an individual with chronic kidney disease, what might be the predominant cause of the low hemoglobin value and anemia? 65) An individual presents to his physician with generalized weakness and fatigue. Blood is collected and an elevated WBC count with lymphocytosis is noted. Serum protein is moderately decreased, but the urine reagent dipstick does not indicate proteinuria. Upon confirmatory testing with a diabetes insipidus. pyelonephritis. There is likely the onset of distal renal tubular acidosis (RTA). red blood cell casts. When glomerular filtration declines, vitamin D activation decreases resulting in reduced calcium, which further leads to resorption of calcium from bone. Serum sodium and potassium, and arterial blood pH renal artery. IgA nephropathy. chronic kidney disease (CKD). Decreased erythropoietin synthesis Reagent dipsticks respond mostly to urine albumin and not to other proteins. 5 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 precipitation test, the urine protein is 4+. Based on other symptoms, the physician suspects multiple myeloma. What might be the cause of the discrepancy in urine protein values? 66) In multiple myeloma, what protein is likely causing an elevated value in the urine protein confirmatory test? 67) The volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed by the kidneys per unit of time is the definition of: 68) What is the correct formula for determining glomerular filtration rate? 69) An individual is brought to the emergency department of a local hospital with signs of narcotic overdose and respiratory depression. What acid-base status would this individual have? 70) A person suspected of having chloride responsive metabolic alkalosis caused by prolonged vomiting would exhibit what? 71) In regard to respiration, peripheral chemoreceptors located in the carotid arteries and aorta are stimulated by: 72) An overweight 55-year-old single woman from a rural farming area was brought to the emergency department by her neighbor. The woman had a large abscess on the bottom of her foot; she was irritable and complained of blurred vision and of being thirsty. Her breathing was rapid. The neighbor said that the only medication the woman was using was for blood pressure and sometimes an aspirin. Blood and urine samples were collected. Arterial blood gas results were: pH 7.2; PCO2 47 mm Hg; HCO3 8 mmol/L. Blood glucose was 340 mg/dL and a high anion gap was calculated. Urine glucose and ketones were markedly increased. Based on the laboratory values, what state of acid-base balance is this patient in? 73) An overweight 55-year-old single woman from a rural farming area was brought to the emergency department by her neighbor. The woman had a large abscess on the bottom of her foot; she was irritable and complained of blurred vision and of being thirsty. Her breathing was rapid. The neighbor said that the only medication the woman was using was for blood pressure and sometimes an aspirin. Blood and urine samples were collected. Arterial blood gas results were: pH 7.2; PCO2 47 mm Hg; HCO3 8 mmol/L. Blood glucose was 340 mg/dL and a high anion gap was calculated. Urine glucose and ketones were markedly increased. Based on the laboratory values and symptoms of the woman, what is the Bence Jones protein clearance. GFR = ([urine concentration of the concentration of the substance] Respiratory acidosis Primary bicarbonate excess pH and PO2 content of blood. Metabolic acidosis Diabetic ketoacidosis 6 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 most likely cause of her acid-base disorder? 74) Hypernatremia commonly occurs with: 75) Hypokalemia may be seen in all of the following except: 76) What is the anion gap given the following serum electrolyte data: Na = 132 mmol/L, Cl– = 90 mmol/L, HCO3– = 22 mmol/L, K = 4 mmol/L? 77) Determine the anion gap given the following serum electrolyte data: Na = 132 mmol/L, Cl = 90 mmol/L, HCO3– = 22 mmol/L, K = 4 mmol/L. Is the anion gap you calculated within the healthy reference interval? 78) What conditions will cause an increased anion gap? 79) All of the following are causes of hyponatremia with concomitant decreased plasma osmolality and normal volume status except: 80) Metabolic organic acidoses typically present with an increased anion gap. In contrast to these, inorganic acidosis with a normal anion gap is typically caused by: 81) An individual visits a physician with the complaint of nausea, mental confusion, and needing an excessive amount of salt all the time. Laboratory results indicate decreased serum sodium and low serum osmolality. Physical examination reveals hypovolemia with low orthostatic blood pressure and tachycardia. A urine sodium analysis was suggested by a laboratorian and urine sodium was found to be increased; the physician diagnoses a salt-losing nephropathy (a renal tubule disease). What type of electrolyte disorder is this? 82) A hospitalized patient in the ICU has cirrhosis. After a period of time, the heart and kidneys begin to fail and the patient develops edema. What type of electrolyte disorder would develop from this situation? 83) How do healthy kidneys compensate for the excess hydrogen ions and concurrent low pH observed in metabolic acidosis? 84) How do healthy lungs compensate for the decrease in pH in a state of metabolic acidosis? 85) Physiologically important buffers maintaining body pH include all of the following except: 86) At physiological pH of 7.4, what contributes most to the total serum CO2 (think about the equilibrium of the reaction in the formula)? 87) Hypokalemia (<3.0 mmol/L) is considered a serious health threat because decreased synthesis of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). decreased glucocorticoid concentration in blood. 20 mmol/L No Salicylate intoxication diarrhea. loss of bicarbonate-rich fluid via the kidneys or gastrointestinal tract. Depletional hyponatremia Dilutional hyponatremia Increasing excretion of acid Stimulating hyperventilation lactate. Carbonic acid the heart rate increases, leading to weakness, difficulty in breathing, and eventual cardiac arrest. 7 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 88) The most important buffer of plasma is the _____ system. 89) The metabolic component of acid-base regulation is the renal system. What statements concerning this component is incorrect? 90) What hormones is an active regulator of water retention/reabsorption in the kidney? 91) What hormones is an active regulator of sodium (and passive controller of water) in the kidney? 92) A 17-year-old woman was brought by her friends to the emergency room in an agitated state. She stated that she had broken up with her boyfriend and he had threatened her. Her temperature was 101° F, and she was breathing rapidly. She claimed that she could not slow her breathing down despite attempts to have her breathe deeply. An arterial blood gas revealed a pH of 7.54, HCO3 of 18 mmol/L, and PCO2 of 28 mm Hg. What is occurring in this patient? 93) The major risk factor for development of hepatocellular carcinoma is: 94) __ In chronic liver failure, such as cirrhosis, there is a significant impairment of normal ammonia metabolism and eventual hyperammonemia. Elevated ammonia can lead to: 95) _ The functional unit of the liver is the: 96) _ You operate a laboratory that receives many serum specimens from the Billy Rubin Memorial Liver Clinic next door. The patients who go to this clinic have serious acute and chronic liver diseases. Would you expect to see increased or decreased plasma albumin from the liver patients who go to this clinic? 97) _ Bilirubin that is attached to albumin before it is transported across the hepatocyte membrane is called: 98) The type of RNA virus that is considered to be the cause of the most common type of acute hepatitis that does not lead to chronic hepatitis is: 99) _ A 53-year-old man notices the whites of his eyes seem a bit yellow, there is swelling in his abdomen, and he is often fatigued. He tells his physician that he enjoys “a few” martinis every night. Upon physical examination, the physician notes decreased weight, elevated blood pressure, jaundice, and ascites, and laboratory results indicate decreased albumin, low platelet count, increased prothrombin time, and increased serum liver enzymes with AST activity higher than ALT. All viral hepatitis and cholestasis testing is negative. What is the likely diagnosis? 100) In the liver, ammonia is metabolized to form: 101) An autoimmune disease caused by an antibody directed toward the mitochondria of biliary epithelial cells that results bicarbonate/carbonic acid In the metabolic component, the renal system responds immediately to a change in acid-base status. Antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone Excess elimination of acid via the respiratory route infection with hepatitis B or C viruses. hepatic encephalopathy. acinus. Decreased unconjugated bilirubin. hepatitis A virus. Chronic alcoholic hepatitis transitioning to cirrhosis urea. primary biliary cirrhosis. 8 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 in hepatic inflammation and portal hypertension is: 102) The first protein marker to appear approximately 1 to 2 months after infection with the hepatitis B virus and also the last marker to disappear is the: 103) What is not a consequence of portal hypertension in an individual? 104) A new intern calls the laboratory to ask which liver enzymes would be best to assess to differentiate between hepatocellular and cholestatic disease. You respond: 105) Which type of hepatitis is a leading cause of chronic hepatitis and is caused by a mutating RNA virus? 106) What is considered a mechanism by which a membranebound enzyme, such as alkaline phosphatase, is released from a hepatocyte into blood? 107) A 30-year-old man sees his physician with complaints of pruritus, fever, and pain around his abdomen and right side that he says “have been there a while but suddenly got really bad.” Laboratory results on his blood sample indicate elevated conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin and elevated alkaline phosphatase activity. There are no signs of chronic hepatitis or ascites. Gallstones are ruled out, and the physician notes that a previous diagnosis of ulcerative colitis had been made. What is the likely current diagnosis? 108) Prognosis in cirrhosis is based on a MELD score, which is also used to prioritize cases for liver transplantation. What laboratory values are used to calculate the MELD score of an individual? 109) Liver disease is classified as either acute or chronic. Acute liver disease takes the general form of either acute hepatitis or: 110) Regarding the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, the function of gastrin is to: 111) What peptide hormones acts to increase intestinal motility and stimulate gallbladder contractions? 112) What substances is not synthesized by the pancreas? 113) Extremely elevated serum levels of gastrin are typically indicative of: 114) What special specimen requirements must be met when collecting and preparing a sample for gastrin analysis? 115) What statements concerning secretin is correct? 116) A problem with the use of noninvasive testing for hepatitis B surface antigen. Hemochromatosis AST, ALT, and ALP. Hepatitis C Bile acids solubilize membranebound enzymes. Primary sclerosing cholangitis Bilirubin, creatinine, and INR cholestasis. stimulate release of GI hormones, such as secretin and insulin. Cholecystokinin (CCK) Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Blood must be collected into a heparin-containing tube, separated in a refrigerated centrifuge, and frozen within 15 minutes of collection. Secretin stimulates release of pancreatic hormones. lacks the clinical sensitivity and 9 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 assessing pancreatic exocrine function is that this type of testing: 117) An autoimmune disorder produced by ingestion of gluten and characterized by inflammatory damage to intestinal lining cells and malabsorption is: 118) The use of the urea breath test for detection of H. pylori involves: 119) A consequence of Crohn disease is bacterial overgrowth of the small bowel that normally contains few bacteria. Bacterial overgrowth further leads to: 120) Secondary acquired lactose intolerance can occur from reduced lactase activity following diffuse intestinal damage caused by, for example, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). What IBDs affects the large bowel in particular? 121) During the gastric phase of the digestive process, HCl will be released from parietal cells following the _____ of gastrin from the mucosal endocrine cells in the stomach. 122) Chronic pancreatic damage leads to pancreatic insufficiency. In children, this is most commonly associated with: 123) A peptide secreted by the upper intestinal mucosa that causes gallbladder contraction and release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas, and is also localized in the nervous system, is: 124) Mucosal inflammation of the stomach that is associated with peptic ulcer disease or gastric carcinoma is referred to as: 125) Fecal osmot Fecal osmotic gap measurements are done to: 126) Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumors are either carcinoid tumors of enterochromaffin cells or, as in the case of somatostatinoma, tumors of the: 127) A 23-year-old man visits his physician with symptoms of abdominal discomfort and diarrhea. The man states that the diarrhea has been present off and on for approximately 6 weeks. He especially notes symptoms after a breakfast of wheat cereal and milk. His physician considers the possibility of two disorders, celiac disease and lactose intolerance. What pairs of laboratory tests would provide a definitive answer? 128) What statements concerning insulin is incorrect? specificity for early disease detection. celiac disease. bacterial hydrolysis of ingested labeled urea producing labeled bicarbonate, which is absorbed into the blood and exhaled as 14 CO2 or 13CO2. bile salt deficiency and fat malabsorption. Ulcerative colitis release cystic fibrosis. CCK. nonerosive gastritis. distinguish between osmotic and secretory diarrhea. pancreatic endocrine cells. Analysis of tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies and breath hydrogen testing Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP) inhibits insulin release. 10 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 129) A test that is considered diagnostic for cystic fibrosis in infants over the age of 2 weeks and for other assessment of pancreatic insufficiency is: 130) The primary physiological regulator of parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion is: 131) Rickets is sometimes associated with deficiency of what vitamins? 132) Hypoparathyroidism is most commonly caused by: 133) What makes up the organic matrix component of bone? 134) In bone: 135) The major cause of the decrease in total bone mass in an aging osteoporotic woman is: 136) An individual’s serum phosphate level is decreased but his physician cannot determine a physiological basis for this abnormal result. What could possibly have caused this result? 137) Telopeptides: 138) An individual has the following laboratory test results: increased serum calcium, decreased serum phosphorus, increased parathyroid hormone. This individual most likely has: 139) Total serum calcium: 140) In a case of severe osteomalacia, would bone-specific alkaline phosphatase be increased, decreased, or remain unchanged? 141) A noncollagenous protein marker of bone formation that is released from bone during bone resorption, regulated by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D, and synthesized by osteoblasts and that regulates insulin secretion and sensitivity is: 142) Hypercalcemia occurs in humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM) because: 143) The clinical usefulness of calcitonin measurement is: 144) What diseases is characterized by a loss in bone mass? 145) What analytes is most useful in distinguishing primary from secondary hyperparathyroidism? 146) In a case of osteomalacia related to vitamin D deficiency, would serum calcium be increased, decreased, or remain unchanged? 147) A blood specimen is collected in a heparin-containing tube for calcium and magnesium determination. Upon centrifugation, the plasma appeared hemolyzed. How would fecal elastase-1 the concentration of free calcium in blood or extracellular fluid. Vitamin C parathyroid gland destruction. Calcium, protein, and collagen osteoblasts are the bone-forming cells. being postmenopausal and estrogen deficient. Use of IV carbohydrate therapy to stimulate insulin secretion are proteins found in bone whose serum level can reflect bone formation. hyperparathyroidism. hyperparathyroidism. Increased osteocalcin. PTH-related protein (PTHrP) is synthesized by tumors and stimulates bone resorption. as a tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma. Osteoporosis Vitamin D Decreased Because erythrocytes contain magnesium, hemolysis would increase its apparent value. 11 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 this affect the magnesium value? 148) Hypophosphatemia is seen in all of the following except: 149) Magnesium: 150) Hypermagnesia may be observed in all of the following except: 151) A factor that would alter protein binding of calcium and its redistribution among the three plasma pools would be: 152) What is a recognized clinical feature of hypercalcemia? 153) Specimen requirements for assessing free calcium using ion-selective electrode methodology include: a. heparinized whole blood. b. heparinized plasma. c. serum. d. all of the above. 154) Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by tissues that are resistant to the effects of circulating levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). What sets of values presents expected laboratory findings in this disorder? 155) The release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates thyrotropin release from the pituitary, which further leads to synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland. When the concentration of thyroid hormone in the blood turns off the release of thyrotropin from the pituitary, this is referred to as what type of feedback? 156) The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are important in the reproductive function of the male and female and are released in response to: 157) A 35-year-old man visits his physician with complaints of sudden onset of fatigue, polydipsia, and polyuria. Laboratory results indicate a normal fasting blood sugar. Serum sodium was slightly elevated. The most likely cause of these symptoms and laboratory results would be: 158) What hormones is classified as a glycoprotein? 159) An example of a hypothalamic hormone would be: 160) The insulin tolerance test is used to assess what hormones? 161) Inhibition of growth hormone (GH) occurs through the action of: 162) The anterior portion of the pituitary gland synthesizes many protein hormones. Another name for this part of the pituitary gland is the: 163) The hypothalamic hormone that inhibits prolactin is referred to as prolactin-inhibiting hormone but is actually: 164) What is not a function of thyrotropin? hyperparathyroidism. decrease produces neuromuscular excitability. gastrointestinal disorders. liver disease. Muscle weakness D Decreased calcium, elevated phosphorus, elevated PTH Negative feedback gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). diabetes insipidus due to hypothalamic dysfunction. Follicle-stimulating hormone antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Growth hormone somatostatin release-inhibiting hormone. adenohypophysis. dopamine. Action as a carrier protein of circulating thyroid hormones 12 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 165) What statements concerning hormonal regulation via the feedback loop is correct? 166) What statements regarding FSH/LH is incorrect? 167) The most common hypothalamic-pituitary disorder in clinical endocrinology is: 168) A 45-year-old female complains of fatigue, heat intolerance, and hair loss. Serum thyroxine is abnormally low. What test would confirm that this might be a pituitary disorder? 169) What hormones is responsible for normal development of cartilage bone, mobilizing fat stores, and stimulation of protein synthesis? 170) Oxytocin is: When a stimulating hormone induces production of a hormone, elevated levels of that hormone shut off further release of the stimulating hormone. This is referred to as negative feedback. LH triggers release of the ovum from the ovarian follicle and produces an initial decrease in estrogen. hyperprolactinemia. Thyrotropin GH released upon stimulation of cell bodies in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus. Decreased prolactin (PRL) 171) A 28-year-old man and his wife visit a fertility clinic. His sperm count is low, but his wife’s tests (LH/FSH, estrogen, etc.) all fall within the healthy reference intervals. His history indicates that he had a motor vehicle accident one year previously and was suffering from visual problems. What might be the cause of his oligospermia? 172) Use of the cosyntropin stimulation test: is indicated when a morning cortisol result is low in addition to indications of adrenal insufficiency. 173) The most common assay used to assess serum concentration immunoassay. of adenohypophyseal hormones is: 174) An individual using antidepressants visited her physician Syndrome of inappropriate ADH with a complaint of water retention. Laboratory results indicated secretion (SIADH) decreased urine volume, low serum sodium, low plasma osmolality, decreased serum uric acid, and urea. Antidiuretic hormone was measured and found to be elevated. What is the likely diagnosis? 175) What steroid hormones is (are) synthesized and secreted Androstenedione by the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex? 176) Following multiple-day cosyntropin stimulation, an fail to demonstrate increased individual with Addison disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) cortisol production. will: 177) The most reliable screening test for _____ is Cushing syndrome 13 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 measurement of 24-hour urinary free cortisol. 178) The primary glucocorticoid is: 179) During an evaluation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determinations in the morning after awakening and in the evening at approximately 7:30 PM. Laboratory results indicated that the evening value was approximately half as high as the morning concentration. This is indicative of: 180) The adrenal cortical hormone that promotes sodium resorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion by the renal tubules and thus affects water balance in the body is: 181) Glucocorticoids: 182) A patient with Cushing syndrome has plasma cortisol measured at 8 AM. The nighttime cortisol level will be _____ from the 8 AM value. 183) Renin is synthesized in the _____ and stimulates the production of angiotensin I, which eventually leads to _____. 184) The major site of cortisol synthesis is the _____ of the adrenal gland. 185) What statement concerning cortisol is incorrect? 186) A hypertensive, hypokalemic patient with increased aldosterone production and decreased plasma renin activity likely has: 187) Deficiency of what enzymes can lead to congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? 188) How would CAH affect cortisol and adrenal androgen levels in blood? 189) What statements concerning androstenedione is incorrect? . cortisol. a normal finding. aldosterone. repress inflammatory genes. unchanged kidney; stimulation of aldosterone production zona fasciculata A cortisol-secreting tumor can lead to Cushing disease. Conn syndrome. 17-Ketosteroidase Cortisol decreased, adrenal androgens increased In adrenal carcinoma, cortisol is greatly elevated, but androstenedione is greatly decreased. 190) In the classic plasma renin activity assay that measures the Angiotensin I main function of the enzyme and uses inhibitors of angiotensinase, what is actually measured at the end of the assay? 191) Because of the biochemical properties of steroid hormones, are bound with high affinity to a the majority of these hormones, at physiological concentration: carrier protein in the circulation. 192) The urinary metabolite of cortisol and adrenal androgens is: 17-ketosteroid. 193) In the corticotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, an Decreased plasma ACTH and individual with secondary adrenal insufficiency (pituitary ACTH decreased serum cortisol response deficiency) will have what laboratory test results? times 194) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies can Graves disease be detected in serum of patients having what disorder? 195) What causes the total thyroxine (T4) levels to be increased hCG-induced thyrotoxicosis in pregnant women? 196) Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is hyperthyroidism. decreased in individuals with: 14 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 197) An amorphous material enclosed within each follicle of the thyroid gland and that is composed mainly of thyroglobulin is: 198) What is not a function of the thyroid hormones? 199) Regarding thyroid hormones, the primary secretory product of the normal thyroid gland is in the form of: 200) Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid: 201) A 45-year-old woman visits her physician with complaints of fatigue, heat intolerance, goiter, and unusual hair loss. Blood is collected and serum T4 value is below the healthy reference interval. What laboratory assay would confirm that this might be a pituitary disorder? 202) What statements is correct regarding reverse T3 (rT3)? 203) Increased TSH, decreased T3, and decreased T4 with the presence of goiter indicate: 204) An individual’s thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) concentration is 2.8 mg/dL, T3 value is 10.5 µg/dL, and T4 value is 12.5 µg/dL. What is the estimate of free T4 value? 205) Another term used to describe hyperthyroidism is: 206). A 30-year-old man visits his physician for an annual health check. He complains that he has been feeling fatigued of late and has lost weight. Blood is collected and the following laboratory results are noted: total T3, elevated; total T4, elevated; free T4, elevated; TSH, slightly elevated. Magnetic resonance imaging indicates a mass in the area of his pituitary gland. What disorder do the results suggest? 207) Severe hypothyroidism that develops during the newborn period is referred to as: 208) What hormones require transport proteins to move them through the circulation and are more than 99% bound to these proteins? 209) Myxedema is a skin and tissue mucopolysaccharide disorder caused by severe and prolonged: 210) What is required for normal thyroxine synthesis? 211) The limited clinical information that is available from the results of a total T4 measurement is a due to: 212) The secretory unit of the thyroid gland is the: 213) A woman with thyroid cancer has her thyroglobulin (Tg) level checked to assess return of thyroid function following surgery. The Tg value was markedly decreased. Her physician calls the laboratory asking for an explanation of the result. You respond that: 214) What effect does exercise have on blood glucose? 215) What effect does C-Peptide have on blood glucose? 216) What effect does Somatostatin have on blood glucose? For each of the cardiac biomarkers, match the biochemical colloid. Removal of defective RBCs free thyroxine (T4). tyrosine. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) rT3 is formed in the blood by central deiodination of T4. primary hypothyroidism. 4.3 thyrotoxicosis. Central hyperthyroidism cretinism. T3 and T4 hypothyroidism. TSH, iodine, and thyroglobulin total T4 measurements reflect inactive, protein-bound hormone. thyroid follicle. your laboratory uses a Tg assay that likely has been interfered with by Tg autoantibodies, which limits the accurate measurement of Tg. increases no effect decreases 15 Chem TB Flashcards Unit 4 classification: a) BNP b) CK-MB c) Troponin d) Myoglobin 217) Protein involved in muscle fiber contraction 218) Protein hormone 219) Enzyme isoform 220) Oxygen-binding protein Match the action of acid-base balance regulation with the correct component of acid-base balance: a) metabolic component b) respiratory component c) both component 221) Hydrogen ions are exchanged for sodium or potassium 222) Hydrogen ion are attached to hemoglobin 223) Can alter blood pH Match the disorder with the correct cause of that condition: a) decreased flow of bile b) inflammation of bile ducts c) gallstones in the bile duct d) fibrosis of the liver 224) Cirrhosis 225) Choledocholithiasis 226) Cholestasis 227) Cholangitis 228) True or False? The most common cause of toxic hepatitis in North America leading to direct damage of hepatocytes is acetaminophen overdose. 229) True or False? Alkaline phosphate is a soluble enzyme localized in the cytosol of hepatocytes. 230) True or False? The principal site of steroid metabolism is the liver B C A D A B C D C A B True False True 16