Leader: Cody
Course: Biology 211 (1)
Supplemental Instruction
Instructor: Dr. Serb
Iowa State University
Date: 11/14/10
1. Things that prevent an egg from being fertilized are called ____ barriers to reproduction.
a. post-zygotic
b. mutational
c. phenotypic
d. pre-zygotic
Handout Title: Practice Exam 3
2. Traits that are developed during the course of an individual's life, such as muscle tone or a
particular skill set (knitting, baseball, driving) are termed _____ by biologists.
a. vestigial traits
b. evolutionary adaptations
c. acquired characteristics
d. uniformitarianism
3. The smallest unit that can evolve is the ___.
a. population
b. cell
c. ecosystem
d. individual
4. Vestigial structures are anatomical structures that ___
a. are found on the body wall.
b. look similar in different species, but have different functions.
c. have more than one function.
d. have no function
5. The sum of all allele frequencies at a given genetic locus ___.
a. is the square root of p2.
b. is equal to 1.
c. is equal to 2pq.
d. the genotype frequency of the population.
6. You are studying a recessive genetic disorder. The allele frequency of the disordered allele
(p) is 0.04% Which portion of the Hardy-Weinberg equation would you use to determine the
number of "normal individuals" (neither affected nor carriers) in a given population?
a. p2
b. p
c. q
d. 2pq
7. Which of the following would be considered an example of mechanical isolation as a barrier
to reproduction?
a. incompatible genitalia
b. mountain ranges that separate two populations
c. different mating seasons
d. incompatible gametes
Supplemental Instruction
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8. Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some ___ survive and reproduce more
successfully than others.
a. loci
b. individuals
c. populations
d. species
9. The biological species concept will NOT work with ____.
a. plants
b. invertebrate animals
c. organisms that reproduce asexually
d. fungi, since all fungi require water to reproduce
10. A population has a genotype frequency of 36% for the homozygous dominant individuals.
What is the genotype frequency for heterozygous individuals in the population?
a. 6%
b. 48%
c. 40%
d. 60%
11. The founder and bottleneck effects are both forms of ____.
a. genetic drift
b. gene flow
c. directional selection
d. phenotypic polymorphism
12. Two species of raven with different mating songs are separated by ____ barriers to
reproduction.
a. temporal
b. mechanical
c. gamete incompatibility
d. behavioral
13. A population of wildflowers was separated by a flash flood that changed the course of a
nearby river. The river split the east side of a meadow from the west side. After several
generations, the east side and west side flowers could no longer interbreed. This is an
example of ___.
a. mechanical isolation
b. temporal speciation
c. allopatric speciation
d. hybrid breakdown
14. Which of the following does not alter allele frequencies in a population?
a. founder effects
b. random mating
c. bottlenecks \
d. gene flow
15. You are studying carriers of a recessive genetic disorder. These people can have an affected
offspring, but aren't themselves affected. Which portion of the Hardy-Weinberg equation
would you use to determine the number of carriers in a given population?
a. p
b. q2
c. q
d. 2pq
16. Which of the following would be considered an example of a postzygotic barrier to
reproduction?
a. a fertilized egg that fails to develop into a viable offspring
b. different mating seasons
c. mountain ranges that separate two populations
d. incompatible gametes
17. An individual pine tree expresses a mutation that increases its pollen production, but changes
the timing of the maturation of its pollen cones. This change causes it to no longer interbreed
with trees nearby. According to the biological species definition ____ has occurred.
a. allopatric speciation
b. exaptation
c. sympatric speciation
d. anagenesis
18. A doctor may order an amniocentesis and ____ to determine the number and nature of fetal
chromosomes during a high-risk pregnancy.
a. genotype
b. karyotype
c. pleiotropic fusion
d. phenotype
19. If you describe an individual as being PpDDCc, you are giving the ___ of the individual.
a. test cross
b. phenotype
c. pleiotropic fusion
d. genotype
20. In humans, having a widow's peak is dominant to not having a widow's peak. If a man with a
widow's peak (Ww) married a woman with a widow's peak (Ww), what is the chance that
their first child would NOT have a widow's peak?
a. 50%
b. 33%
c. 25%
d. 100%
21. A couple find that they are both carriers for Ty-Sachs disease, what is the chance that any
child they have will develop Ty-Sachs?
a. 75%
b. 0%
c. 50%
d. 25%
22. According to Mendel, while we each have two alleles for every trait, we pass only one of
these alleles to an offspring. These two alleles separate during ___.
a. Anaphase of meiosis I
b. Fertilization
c. cytokinesis of meiosis II
d. anaphase of mitosis
23. If two genes are linked, they are ___.
a. epistatic to one another, like the B genes and C genes that determine mouse fur color
b. found on the same chromosome
c. likely to be inherited independently of one another
d. going to segregate into different gametes most of the time
24. In humans sex linked recessive disorders are most commonly found in ___ because ___.
a. females: they are on the Y chromosome
b. males: they are on the Y chromosome
c. males: they are on the X chromosome
d. females: they are on the X chromosome
25. Given the cross of AaBBCcdd x aaBbCcDd, what is the chance of having an offspring with
an AABbccdd genotype?
a. 1/64
b. 0%
c. 1/8
d. 1/16
26. A carrier (someone who may pass on a disorder but is not affected by the disorder) of a
genetic disorder must be ____.
a. a heterozygote
b. carrying co-dominantly expressed traits
c. carrying harmful alleles linked to the X chromosome
d. homozygous dominant
27. Crossing an organism with an unknown genotype and dominant phenotype to an organism
with a recessive phenotype is called a ____.
a. cytogenetic map
b. aneuploid splint
c. pleiotrophic shunt
d. test cross
28. A gene that affects more than one phenotypic trait is said to be ___.
a. dihybrid
b. polygenic
c. pleiotropic
d. wild type
29. The most "fit" individuals in terms of evolution are those that ___.
a. are the most prolific
b. have the largest range or territory
c. have the longest phylogenetic tree
d. live the longest
30. Which of Mendel's laws cannot be observed with a monohybrid cross (Pp x Pp)?
a. existence of alleles
b. dominance/recessiveness
c. segregation
d. independent assortment
31. You find a new plant that has 3 copies of every chromosome in its genome. You would
describe this plant as ___.
a. polyploid
b. aneuploid
c. having a monosomy
d. having a trisomy
32. Alternate version for a gene are called _____.
a. acquired characteristics
b. alleles
c. homozygotes
d. heterozygotes
33. Mendel's rule of ___ states that while each individual has two alleles, they only pass one on
to their offspring.
a. independent assortment
b. allelic exclusion
c. segregation
d. co-dominant gene expression
34. Given three independently assorting gene pairs, Aa, Bb and Cc, where each demonstrates
complete dominance. What is the probability of obtaining an offspring that is Aa bb Cc from
parents which are Aa Bb CC and AA Bb Cc
a. 9/16
b. 1/16
c. 1/64
d. 1/32
35. For every human gene (with the exception of those found on the sex chromosomes), each
person has ___.
a. no alleles - alleles are only found in plants
b. three or more alleles
c. one allele
d. two alleles
36. The concept of use and disuse and the inheritance of traits acquired during the lifetime of an
individual were key point to ____.
a. Darwin's theory of descent with modification
b. Malthus's essay on overpopulation
c. Lamarck's theory of evolution
d. Hutton's concept of gradualism
37. A baby is born with type O blood. The mother is type B, which of the the following is NOT a
possible blood type for the father?
a. Type AB
b. Type A
c. Type B
d. Type O
38. A cell in G1 phase has 30 chromatids. How many centromeres are in this cell?
a. 40
b. 30
c. 60
d. 15
39. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized in eukaryotic cells?
a. S phase
b. G1 phase
c. G2 phase
d. metaphase of mitosis
40. Which of the following is NOT a use of mitosis in multicellular animals?
a. wound healing
b. growth
c. producing gametes
d. development
41. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis it would be ___.
a. haploid
b. in G2 phase instead of G1
c. a cell with no nuclei
d. a cell with 2 nuclei
42. Which of the following is required for sexual but not asexual reproduction?
a. Somatic cell recombination
b. meiosis
c. mitosis
d. cytokinesis
43. Which of the following processes does NOT add to genetic diversity?
a. meiosis
b. transduction
c. sexual reproduction
d. binary fission
44. Chromosomes are made up of _____.
a. cytokinesis
b. karyotypes
c. chromatin
d. crinolines
45. Which of the following is diploid?
a. spores
b. zygotes
c. gametes
d. eggs
46. Which of the following statements is true about Mitosis and Meiosis:
a. Meiosis produces non-identical, haploid cells
b. Mitosis produces non-identical diploid cells
c. Meiosis is required for asexually reproducing species to reproduce
d. Tetrads form in mitosis II
47. If 49% of a population is homozygous recessive, what is the allele frequency of the dominant
allele?
a. 51%
b. 3%
c. 0%
d. 30%
48. If a new species form as a branch from the original species, with the original species still
remaining,____ has occurred.
a. gene flow
b. cladogenesis
c. arnopatric speciation
d. allopatric speciation
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. D
28. C
29. A
30. D
31. A
32. D
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. B
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. B
43. D
44. C
45. B
46. A
47. D
48. B