Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 1) The function (or functions) of a hematology laboratory is (are) to confirm the physician’s impression of a possible hematological disorder, establish or rule out a diagnosis, screen for asymptomatic disorders protect the patient and laboratory personnel 2) The major intended purpose of the laboratory safety manual is to 3) What is not an appropriate safety practice? C A. Disposing of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof containers B. Frequent handwashing C. Sterilizing lancets for reuse D. Keeping food out of the same areas as specimens 4) If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench absorb blood with disposable towels or floor area, the first step in cleanup should be 5) What procedure is the most basic and effective in Washing hands between patient contacts preventing nosocomial infections? 6) The likelihood of infection after exposure to HBVA infected or HIV-infected blood or body fluids depends on all of the following factors except the A. source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluid B. concentration of the virus C. duration of the contact D. presence of nonintact skin 7) HBV and HIV may be directly transmitted in the D occupational setting by all of the following except A. parenteral inoculation with contaminated blood B. exposure of intact skin to contaminated blood or certain body fluids C. exposure of intact mucous membranes to contaminated blood or certain body fluids D. sharing bathroom facilities with an HIV-positive person 8) Standard precautions have been instituted in D clinical laboratories to prevent _____ exposures of healthcare workers to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV and HBV. A. parenteral B. nonintact mucous membrane C. nonintact skin D. all of the above 9) Exposure to _____ constitutes the major source of blood HIV and HBV infection in healthcare personnel. 10) The transmission of HBV is _____ probable than B transmission of HIV. A. less B. more 1 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 11) Gloves for medical use may be A. sterile or nonsterile B. latex or vinyl C. used only once D. all of the above 12) Diluted bleach for disinfecting work surfaces, equipment, and spills should be prepared daily by preparing a _____ dilution of household bleach. 13) The above dilution requires _____ mL of bleach diluted to 100 mL with H2O. 14) The laboratory procedure manual does not need to include 15) What statements is not a nonanalytical factor in a Quality Assessment system? 16) In what laboratory situations is a verbal report permissible? 17) Accuracy is _____ 18) Calibration is _____ 19) Control is _____ 20) 21) Precision is _____ Standards is _____ 22) Quality is _____ 23) What is not a function of a quantitative QC program? 24) Define Mean 25) Define Range 26) Define Variance 27) Define Standard Deviation 28) The coefficient of variation is the 29) The z score measures 30) 31) Acceptable limits of a control value must fall A trend change in QC data is 32) A continuously increasing downward variation in a control sample in one direction from the mean can indicate A. deterioration of reagents used in the test B. deterioration of the control specimen C. deterioration of a component in an instrument D. all of the above D 1:10 10 the name of the supplier of common laboratory chemicals Monitoring the standard deviation and reporting results of normal and abnormal controls When emergency test results are needed by a physician Closeness to the true value Comparison to a known physical constant The value is known in a specimen similar to a patient’s whole blood or serum. How close test results are when repeated. A purified substance of a known composition. The process of monitoring accuracy and reproducibility of known control results. Confirms the correct identity of patient specimens The arithmetic average The difference between the upper and lower measurements in a series of results The degree to which test data vary about the average The expression of the position of each test result to the average standard deviation expressed as a percentage of the mean how many standard deviations a particular number is from the R/L of the mean within ±2 standard deviations of the mean a progressive change all in one direction away from the mean for at least 3 days D 2 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 33) What statements is true of a gaussian curve? 34) Two standard deviations (2 SD) from the mean in a normal distribution curve would include 35) Which agency is responsible for ensuring safe and healthful working conditions for every U.S. worker? 36) What mandated regulation did the Occupation Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) implement to improve safety against bloodborne pathogens in the laboratory? 37) Standard Precautions was implemented by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as a way to protect healthcare workers from 38) Basic personal protective equipment includes all of the following except A. Gloves B. Gowns C. Face mask D. Respirator 39) What does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) estimate to be the approximate number of needlestick injuries that occur each year in the United States? 40) What type of container is appropriate for the disposal of needles and other sharp objects that have come into contact with blood or body fluids? 41) What viruses is stable in dried blood at room temperature for 7 days? 42) In 1991, what did OSHA issue as a federal mandate that all employers must provide to their employees? 43) What diseases must a laboratory worker and phlebotomist demonstrate immunity against? 44) What is the minimum contact time that bleach or an EPA-registered disinfectant must be in contact with a work surface to properly destroy human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? 45) Implementation of Standard Precautions eliminates 46) According the CLSI, the minimum components of a laboratory procedure document must include A) Principle of the procedure and clinical application B) Reagent, supplies, and equipment information C) Limitation of the procedure D) All of the above 47) What did the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) act establish? 48) What component is not part of laboratory quality assessment? It represents a normal bell-shaped distribution 95% of all values Occupation Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Bloodborne pathogen exposure D 380,000 Red biohazard puncture resistant containers Hepatitis B virus (HBV) Hepatitis B vaccine Measles and HBV, HBV and rubella 10 minutes Need for separate isolation for infectious patients, Need for warning labels on specimens D Levels of testing Standardized break time 3 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 49) What is the most common source of laboratory error? 50) If a delay is encountered in the analysis of a whole blood specimen, it should not be 51) ISO 15189 is 52) 53) 54) Accuracy describes the Precision describes the Quality control assay 55) Calibration 56) A standard 57) Proficiency testing 58) Calculate the mean for the following series of numbers. 12, 15, 18, 19, 11, 17, 16 59) Calculate the median for the following series of numbers. 12, 15, 18, 19, 11, 17, 16 60) In terms of standard deviations, what is the confidence limit that laboratories should meet? 61) What is not a type of changes in the LeveyJennings approach? 62) You are the quality control supervisor reviewing the results of last week. You notice that during the first part of the week the results for hemoglobin were trending down with a result on the 4th at the minus 2 SD line. The next day the results rebounded and were above the plus 2 SD line. What do you think happened? 63) The fire department inspector enters the lab asking you about your chemical safety protocol. What do you do? 64) What is the best way for you to dispose of extra HCl after you finish using it? 65) When the coagulation of fresh whole blood is prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the cellular elements is 66) Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA? 67) Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood by neutralizing the effect of State the color of the stopper with the appropriate anticoagulant. 68. _____ EDTA 69. _____ Heparin 70. _____ Sodium citrate 71. _____ No anticoagulant Preanalytical/preevaluation Frozen or left at room temperature An optional accreditation in the United States Closeness to the true value Closeness of values with repeated analyses Monitors accuracy and reproducibility of assay results Is comparison of instrument to known constant Contains a known concentration of purified substances Involves multiple labs 15.4 16 2 SD Drop off of results The tech noticed that the results were out and opened a new bottle of control material. Show the inspector the safety manual with MSDS sheets for all chemicals in the lab Pull out your chemical safety manual and look for the MSDS sheet for HCl plasma Is used for most routine coagulation studies thrombin 68. Lavender 69. Green 70. Blue 71. Red 4 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 The following five procedural steps are significant activities in the performance of a venipuncture. Place these steps in the correct sequence. A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site. B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves. C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure to site, and label all tubes. D. Apply the tourniquet and perform the venipuncture. E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure to the patient. 77) The appropriate veins for performing a routine venipuncture are the 78) A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in both arms. What is an acceptable procedure? 79) The bevel of the needle should be held _____ in the performance of a venipuncture. 80) A hematoma can form if a. improper pressure is applied to a site after the venipuncture b. the patient suddenly moves and the needle comes out of the vein c. the needle punctures both walls of the vein d. all of the above 81) Phlebotomy problems can include a. the use of improper anticoagulants b. misidentification of patients c. improper angle of the needle or having the needle up against the side of the vessel wall d. all of the above 82) What skin puncture areas is (are) acceptable for the collection of capillary blood from an infant? 83) The proper collection of capillary blood includes a. wiping away the first drop of blood b. occasionally wiping the site with a plain gauze pad to avoid the buildup of platelets c. avoiding the introduction of air bubbles into the column of blood in a capillary collection tube d. all of the above E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the procedure to the patient. B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions, assemble equipment, wash hands, and put on latex gloves. A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site. D. Apply the tourniquet and perform the venipuncture. C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure to site, and label all tubes. cephalic, basilic, and median cubital Obtain sample from below the IV site with special restrictions. upward D D Medial or lateral plantar surface D 5 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 84) A peripheral blood smear can be prepared from a. EDTA-anticoagulated blood within 1 hour of collection b. free-flowing capillary blood c. citrated whole blood d. both A and B 85) Identify the characteristic(s) of a good peripheral blood smear. a. It progresses from thick at the point of origin to thin. b. It has a blunt feathered termination. c. The outer margins do not touch the edges of the slide. D. All of the above. 86) Poor blood smears can be caused by a. a delay in preparing the smear once the drop of blood has been placed on the slide b. a drop of blood that is too large or too small c. holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor drying conditions d. all of the above 87) If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by 88) The examination of bone marrow is useful in a. diagnosing a bleeding disorder b. diagnosing some disorders associated with erythrocytes and leukocytes c. diagnosing acute leukemias d. both B and C 89) Appropriate bone marrow aspiration sites in an adult are the Name the color the following stains gives to blood cells. 90) 91) 92) _____ Basic stain _____ Acidic stain _____ Neutrophilic Identify the following as Romanowsky-type or non– Romanowsky-type stains 93) 94) 95) _____ Wright _____ May-Grünwald _____ Giemsa 96) _____ Methylene blue 97) If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic examination of a Wright-stained preparation, possible causes include that D D D increasing the angle of the pusher slide D anterior and posterior iliac crest and sternum 90. Blue-purple color 91. Orange-red color 92. Pink-lilac color 93. Romanowsky-type 94. Romanowsky-type 95. Romanowsky-type 96. Non–Romanowsky-type the buffer was too acidic and the exposure time was too short 6 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 98) Identify the red blood cell layer. A. 99) Name the most common anticoagulant used in the hematology laboratory. 100) Choose the correct ratio of anticoagulant to blood in the citrate evacuated tube used for aPTT testing. 101) Thrombin is inactivated by which anticoagulant? 102) What is the correct “order of draw” when using multiple evacuated tubes? 103) A specimen for complete blood count (CBC) is dropped off in the lab and you notice that the doctor has drawn a green-top tube. What do you tell the physician? 104) The mode of action for the EDTA anticoagulant is 105) The agency that posted the Safety and Health Information Bulletin regarding the reuse of phlebotomy supplies was 106) What evacuated tube stopper color and anticoagulant additive combinations is incorrect? 107) You recently moved to Denver. On your first day of performing phlebotomies, you notice that all of your tubes are underfilling. Why is this happening? 108) After greeting the patient, what is the first thing the phlebotomist must do? 109) You enter a patient’s room to draw blood from a patient named Mr. Jones. Upon inspection of the name bands, you find that both patients are named Jones. Choose your next course of action. Bottom layer EDTA 9:1 Heparin Yellow, light blue, red, lavender (light purple) The incorrect tube was drawn and the specimen cannot be used for a CBC. Chelation Occupational and Safety Health Administration (OSHA) Blue and sodium fluoride You are using out-of-date plastic evacuated tubes. Have patients say and spell their name Refuse to draw blood from either patient 7 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 110) Identify the median cubital vein. Should point to the median cubital 111) You need to collect blood from a left breast mastectomy patient with an intravenous tube (IV) in her right arm. Which option is your best for this patient? 112) You are the supervisor of the outpatient phlebotomy laboratory and one of your patients just fainted. In which order do you perform the following first aid steps? 113) Hematoma formation at the site of venipuncture is considered what type of complication? 114) What is the second most common complication of venipuncture? 115) A hematoma that occurs during the phlebotomy procedure is usually due to 116) Which finger on the adult patient is best when performing a capillary blood collection? 117) Which site on the infant patient is best when performing a capillary blood collection? 118) Why should the first drop of blood from a capillary puncture be wiped away? 119) What is the best way to increase blood flow in an infant’s foot? 120) What is the proper angle for the pusher slide when making a bedside peripheral blood smear? 121) When making a blood smear at the bedside, you notice that all of your smears are too short. What two things can you do to increase the length? 122) What components of a Romanowsky-type stain is considered to be the acidic stain? 123) What components of a Romanowsky-type stain is considered to be the basic stain? Draw the blood specimen from at least 3 inches below the IV on the right side Lie the patient down, loosen tight clothing, and elevate the patient’s legs Vascular Infection The needle going through the vein and too slowly Ring (third) finger Heel Contamination with alcohol and lymphatic fluid Use a heel warmer or warm water 45 degrees Use a bigger drop of blood and decrease the angle of the pusher slide Eosin Methylene blue 8 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 124) When drawing blood from a pediatric or adult patient with small veins, what is the most appropriate needle size? 125) What area of the body is the most common site for bone marrow aspiration and collection? 126) What is not a technique for preparing a bone marrow slide? 127) You are in charge of the blood slide staining station today and are getting complaints from the laboratory staff performing the microscopic differential white blood cell slide examination that the blood slides are “too red”. What do you need to do? 128) The smallest organized unit of living tissue is the 129) The cell membrane’s major components are 130) What is a characteristic of osmosis? 131) What is a characteristic of active transport? A. Requires energy (ATP) B. Movement of molecules up the concentration gradient C. Requires a carrier molecule D. All of the above 132) Phagocytosis is A. a type of endocytosis B. the engulfment of fluid molecules C. the engulfment of particulate matter D. Both A and C Match the following organelles with their appropriate function. 133) _____ Centrioles 134) _____ Rough ER 135) _____ Smooth ER 136) _____ Golgi apparatus Match the following organelles with their appropriate function. 137. _____ Lysosomes 138 _____ Microtubules 139 _____ Mitochondria 149. _____ Ribosomes 141) Glycogen is a 142) A cellular inclusion that represents a common storage form of iron is 143) The nucleus of the cell contains 144) The overall function of DNA is 145) Heterochromatin is 23G Iliac crest Thick prep Increase the pH of the staining solution cell proteins and lipids Movement of water molecules D D 133. Points of attachment of the spindle fibers 134. Protein production 135. Lipid synthesis 136. Concentration of secretory granules 137. Intracellular digestion 138. Cytoskeleton 139. Energy production and heme synthesis 140. Protein synthesis carbohydrate ferritin chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm control of cellular function and transmission of genetic information genetically inactive and found in patches or clumps 9 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 146) Chromosomal translocation is a. a frequent activity of homologous chromosomes in meiosis b. a rearrangement of genetic material c. the process in which a segment of one chromosome breaks away from its normal location D. All of the above 147) A chromosomal deletion is Match the following activities with the appropriate period of time. Use an answer only once. 140. _____ G1 141. _____ S 142. _____ G2 143. _____ G0 Match the following mitotic activities with the appropriate cellular activity. Use an answer only once. 144. _____ Prophase 145. _____ Metaphase 146. _____ Anaphase 147. _____ Telophase 148. _____ Cytokinesis 149) In meiosis, the cells produced contain 150) Hematologists are interested in inherited disorders. What are inherited disorders? a. Sickle cell trait b. Sickle cell anemia c. Hemophilia d. All of the above 151) Molecular techniques are being used to detect abnormalities of a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. some coagulation factors d. All of the above 152) The first inherited hematologic disorder to be diagnosed using molecular biologic assay was 153) PCR testing is useful in a. forensic testing b. genetic testing c. disease diagnosis d. All of the above 154) The traditional PCR technique 155) PCR protocol a. doubles the specific amount of DNA with each cycle b. typically has three temperature steps c. repeats the number of cycles about 30 d. all of the above D loss of a segment of chromosome 140. An active period of protein synthesis and cellular metabolism 141. DNA replication 142. Immediately precedes actual mitotic division 143. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity 144. Chromosomes tightly coil and condense 145. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s equator 146. Chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the mitotic spindle 147. Two identical daughter cells form 148. Division of the cellular cytoplasm 23 chromosomes D D sickle cell anemia D amplifies low levels of specific DNA sequences D 10 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 156) Variations of PCR include D a. nested primers b. real-time PCR c. microarray analysis d. both A and B 157) The method considered to be the “gold standard” of DNA sequencing molecular methods is 158) The Southern blot procedure has diagnostic D applications for diseases or disorders associated with a. significant changes in DNA (e.g., deletion) b. determination of clonality in lymphomas of T- or B-cell origin c. detection of restriction fragment length polymorphisms d. all of the above 159) The Northern blot procedure can be used for analysis of the proximal product of gene expression 160) All of the following are true of FISH except _____ D a. The acronym stands for fluorescent in situ hybridization. b. It is a tissue-based molecular diagnostic assay. c. It is a prenatal diagnosis of a genetic disorder. d. It is useful in the diagnosis of various anemias. 161) Microarrays are DNA probes bonded on glass chips 162) Molecular techniques provide a diagnostic tool to D a. detect MRD in hematological malignancies b. monitor patients following bone marrow transplantation c. detect an early relapse in a patient treated for a hematological malignancy d. all of the above 163) The composition of cellular membranes is made of C all of the following except a. Proteins b. Cholesterol c. Triglycerides d. Phospholipids 164) The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane is a Protein dynamic structure composed of ________ floating in lipids. 165) What is the definition of osmosis? The process of net movement of water molecule through a semipermeable membrane that allows water to move at an equal rate 166) Why is diffusion important in cellular physiology? A passive process in which substances It is ____. move from areas of high to low concentration 167) The process of active transport is important to Sodium-potassium pump to move against cellular function because it drives the ____. the concentration gradient 168) Endocytosis is the process in which a phagocytic Engulfs and transports to the cellular cell does what to particle(s) or molecule(s)? cytoplasm where it is formed into a vacuole 11 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 169) Dysplasia is defined as 170) The term metaplasia can be defined by what? 171) What is considered the functional unit of the cell? 172) What is the visible effect of hypotonic solution on the shape of RBCs? 173) What is the visible effect of hypertonic solution on the shape of RBCs? 174) Ribosomes, the small dense granules found in cells, contain what? 175) The cells lysosome contains what? 176) Genetic material composed of nucleic acids and protein is known as 177) Where is the most likely location in the body to find the storage form of iron known as ferritin? 178) Heterochromatin is a substance that is characterized by all of the following except a. Appears condensed and darkly staining in the nucleus of the cell b. Is the genetically inactive area of the nucleus c. Replicates in the later parts of the S phase d. Is the pale staining uncoiled areas in the cell 179) Histones are thought to be 180) A chromosomal trisomy is a term that is used to describe what chromosomal characteristic? 181) Which is not one of the phases of mitosis? 182) What is the programmed cell death that is associated with normal physiology known as? 183) A patient being seen in by the oncology practice has been informed that his lab results are showing low levels of leukemic cells but has been reassured that he is in remission. What is this condition known as? 184) The in vitro method of polymerase chain reaction takes low levels of what substance and amplifies it to higher quantities for laboratory testing? 185) The physician calls the lab to order ‘the lab test for DNA deletion’. What test is the physician requesting? 186) Which is the correct order for the four basic phases of mitotic division? 187) What blood cell would most likely have the highest concentration of glycogen due to its body defense functions? 188) In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes finish arriving at the opposite poles of the dividing cell? 189) What are the base pair combinations of deoxyribonucleic acid? The appearance of abnormal cytologic features and tissue organization The change from one adult cell type to another cell type Organelles They rupture and release hemoglobin (hemolysis). They shrivel up (crenate). Ribonucleic acid Hydrolytic enzymes Chromatin Spleen and bone marrow D Important to structural integrity of chromatin A chromosome that fails to separate from its sister chromatid that leads to a set of three chromosomes Cellophase Apoptosis Minimal residual disease ADeoxyribonucleic acid Southern blot Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Neutrophilic leukocyte Telophase Adenine with thymine; cytosine with guanine 12 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 190) You are the technologist performing polymerase chain reactions testing today. How long should your primers segments be? 191) Why is deoxyribonucleic acid sequencing the best laboratory technique or ‘gold standard’? 192) The Southern blot procedure examines what proximal product of gene expression? 193) The normal sequence of blood cell development is 194) The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte (platelet) is 195) The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is (are) 196) The cell maturation sequence of the segmented neutrophil is 197) As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in most cases 198) As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to cytoplasm (N:C) in most cases 199) The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell matures 200) The presence of nucleoli is associated with a. immature cells b. all young cells, except myeloblasts c. only erythroblasts d. disintegrating cells 201) In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the cytoplasm of the cell Describe the cellular characteristics of the appropriate mature leukocyte. 202) Segmented neutrophil 203) Monocyte 204) Lymphocyte 205) Band form neutrophil 206) Eosinophil 207) Choose the most immature form of stem cell found in the human body. 208) The multipotential hematopoietic stem cell found in the bone marrow can produce 209) What is the name of the connective tissue cell that originates from mesenchymal origins? 210) These cells are present several days after fertilization and can develop into any cell type except they cannot become a fetus. Name this cell. A. Multipotential B. Pluripotential C. Totipotential D. Omnipotential 16–20 base pairs It displays the exact base sequence of a fragmented specimen. Fragmented deoxyribonucleic acid yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone marrow megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte—thrombocyte rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte— metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature erythrocyte myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte— metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented neutrophil (PMN) decreases decreases becomes more clumped A light blue and lacks granules 202. Averages approximately 56% of normal adult leukocytes in the peripheral blood 203. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus 204. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm 205. An elongated and curved nucleus 206. Large orange granules Totipotential Red blood cells Tissue mast cells B 13 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 211) This type of cell is derived from pluripotential stem cells, is found in adults, and is limited to form specific types of tissues. Name this cell. 212) During the second trimester of pregnancy, which site becomes the primary site for blood cell development? 213) . During fetal development, when does the liver first take over as the primary site for blood cell development? 214) . During fetal development, when does the bone marrow become the primary functional location for the production of blood cells? 215) Bone marrow contains all of the following except A. Fat tissue B. Hematopoietic cells C. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts D. Muscle 216) Bone marrow storage and production are most likely to be found in which areas of an older adult? 217) The progression of multipotential stem cell into colony-forming units (CFU-GEMM) influences which cell line(s) development? 218) The hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) that exist in the bone marrow contain a diverse population of stromal cells and all of the following except A. Fibronectin B. Collagens C. Interleukin-5 D. Proteoglycans 219) Hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) can be found in what source that can be cryopreserved for autologous transplantation if needed? 220) The location of erythopoiesis in the adult human is located within 221) Myeloid cells account for a maximum percentage of _____ in normal bone marrow? 222) What developmental feature of lymphoid cells distinguishes them from other cells? Lymphoid cells develop in the ____, a feature that distinguishes them 223) A macrophage that has ingested iron-rich hemosiderin is called? 224) When trying to determine the maturity of a cell by using the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio (N:C ratio), what statements about the nucleus is true? 225) In which cell line does the mature cell have an anuclear appearance? 226) In a mature monocyte, the chromatin pattern is best described by which statement? 227) In a mature granulocyte, the chromatin pattern is best described as? Multipotential Liver Second month of gestation Fourth month of gestation D Axial skeleton Granulocyte-erythrocyte-monocytemegakaryocyte C Umbilical cord blood Erythopoietic islands 85% Lymphoid follicles Siderophage As the N:C ratio decreases, the cell is more mature. Erythrocytes The chromatin pattern is loose and lacy. The chromatin pattern is highly clumped. 14 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 228) All of the following mature cells have segmented nuclei attached by fine filaments, except A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Basophils 229) A mature lymphocyte’s nuclear shape is best described by which statement? 230) When examining a Wright-stained blood smear, the smear appears to have many cells with a high N:C ratio and dark-blue staining cytoplasm. The cells staining dark blue are ___. 231) Which cell line does not exhibit granules during the entire maturation sequence? 232) In which cell line are you most likely to observe pseudopod formation? 233) In which cell line are you most likely to observe vacuolization throughout its life cycle? 234) All of the following situations may cause cells to exhibit vacuoles except A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Malignancies D. Slow blood flow during the collection process 235) In which cell line are you most likely to see a paleblue cytoplasm in a normal mature cell? 236) The presence of nucleoli in cells is associated with Match the Growth Factors with the cells 237) EPO 238) IL-7 239) IL-15 240) IL-4 241) G-SF What test measures the percentage of blood volume that consists of erythrocytes by measuring the ratio of packed red blood cells to total blood volume? What is the normal percentage of erythrocytes in blood? Hematocrit measures the percentage of blood volume that consists of what cells? What is the most abundant type of WBC? What WBC is the first to respond to infection? How do they destroy bacteria? Which WBCs are the ones that primarily destroy the dissolved toxins that bacteria secrete into body fluids? A Has a round or oval nucleus that is small and may contain a cleft Immature cells Erythrocytes Granulocytes Monocytes D Lymphocytes Ribosomal RNA 237.RBCs 238.T cells 239.NK cells 240.B cells 241.Neutrophils Hematocrit 45% erythrocytes NEUTROPHILS NEUTROPHILS Phagocytize bacteria Neutrophils 15 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 What WBC secretes histamines? What is it called when it leaves the circulation to enter the tissues? Which WBC fights allergies and parasitic infections, and during these conditions, their numbers increase. What are MONOCYTES called when they leave the circulation and enter the tissues? Which WBCs phagocytize bacteria? Do monocytes and neutrophils kill viruses? What WBC kills viruses? What WBC acts against a specific foreign molecule What are the two main classes of lymphocytes? Which WBC attacks organs after an organ transplant? How do B cells fight infection? What are the actual cells that produce the antibodies? What are the two main features of mononucleosis? BASOPHILS MAST CELL EOSINOPHILS MACROPHAGES Monocytes (macrophages) and neutrophils. No Lymphocytes (specifically, the Tlymphocytes, also called T-cells) All lymphocytes (B-cells and T-cells) act against a specific foreign molecule. T cells (T-lymphocytes) and B cells (B lymphocytes) T cells by becoming cells that produce antibodies Plasma cells Inflammation of lymph vessels (lymphangitis) Infection of B lymphocytes with the Epstein-Barr virus T cells (T-lymphocytes). Which immune system cell type is preferentially destroyed by the AIDS virus? By secreting hormones, the thymus causes which T cells (T-lymphocytes). cells to become active? Why are most people sick more often as children than We build up many varieties of memory as adults in their 20s through 30’s? lymphocytes during childhood, providing immunity from more and more antigens during adulthood What is a plasma protein involved in blood clotting? fibrin What are platelets responsible for? Blood clotting List the blood cells in order of longevity (life span), lymphocytes, erythrocytes, platelets, from longest—lived to shortest—lived. neutrophils What is a condition in which the blood’s capacity for ANEMIA carrying oxygen is diminished? What blood disease is a form of anemia where the THALASSEMIA RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin that deforms the cells into strange shapes (target cells, spheres, but not sickled) Which form of anemia is found especially in the SICKLE CELL DISEASE African race; always characterized by sickle-shaped erythrocytes 16 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 Which form of anemia is from a single amino acid mutation resulting in a valine amino acid substituted for glutamic acid? Which form of anemia is characterized by very large erythrocytes? What type of anemia is from loss of intrinsic factor; a frequent result of gastric bypass surgery? What type of anemia can occur due to a blood transfusion of mismatched blood? What type of anemia is it when a person cannot maintain iron in a reduced state? What type of anemia is from chronic blood loss? What type of disorder of the blood cells causes them to shrink over time due to problems with the red blood cell membrane? What disorder of blood is characterized by too few mature white blood cells? What condition is too few platelets (abnormally low concentration)? What is a hereditary disease of males, where they are unable to clot properly because they are missing some clotting factors? What blood type is the universal donor? What blood type is the universal acceptor? What disorder happens to an RH positive baby of an Rh negative mother? What type of immunity is when the body is naturally exposed to an infectious agent and launches an immune reaction? What type of immunity is when a person receives a vaccination? What type of immunity is when a baby receives antibodies through mother’s milk? What type of immunity is when a person receives an infusion of antibodies? What types of allergies are immediate and deadly? What type of allergic response is when the body’s first exposure to the substance will not cause a reaction, but all exposures afterward will trigger the response, such as with poison ivy? What is a hereditary problem where the body thinks its own tissues are foreign bodies, and it constantly tries to kill off its own tissues? SICKLE CELL DISEASE Megaloblastic anemia Megaloblastic anemia Acquired Hemolytic anemia G6PD deficiency Hemorrhagic anemia Hereditary spherocytosis LEUKEMIA Thrombocytopenia Hemophilia Type O negative Type AB positive HDN (Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn) Naturally acquired active immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Naturally acquired passive Artificially acquired passive immunity Anaphylactic Delayed allergic reaction Autoimmune disease 17 Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1 What can cause hypoxia (decreased oxygen to the tissues) What is the antidote for arsenic poison (found in rat poison) What is the effect of baby aspirin on prostaglandin synthesis? What does a decrease in PG synthesis do to clotting times? A) Ischemia (reduced blood flow to a tissue) B) Malfunctioning hemoglobin C) Increasing altitude I.V. injection of vitamin K It blocks the ability of COX to cleave arachidonic acid into prostaglandin (decreases PG synthesis) Increases them so it takes longer to form blood clots 18