Part 1 MRCOG
Format and regulation
• The written examination consists of two
question formats:
• single best answer questions (SBAs),
described below
• true / false multiple choice questions
(MCQs), described below
• The examination consists of two written
papers. The time allowed to fully complete
each paper is two hours and thirty minutes
(five hours examining time in total).
The marking split and distribution of
questions are also outlined below.
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Paper 1: 60 SBAs; 30 5-part MCQs
SBAs = 150 marks
MCQs = 150 marks
Paper 2: 60 SBAs; 30 5-part MCQs
SBAs = 150 marks
MCQs = 150 marks
The SBA section
• The answer sheet is numbered 1-60 and against each
number there are five lozenges labelled from A to E.
Each question in the question booklet will consist of an
option list (lettered to reflect the answer sheet), a lead-in
statement (which tells you clearly what to do), and then a
list of one to five questions (each numbered, again to
match the answer sheet). Indicate your judgment of each
particular question by boldly blacking out the letter that
corresponds to the single best answer in the option list.
Candidates may mark their responses in the question
book and then transfer these to the answer sheet.
Please be aware that this will take longer, and all
transfers must be done fully within the time allowed for
the examination.
• The most important element of the format
is that you must select the single answer
that best fits. You may feel that there are
several possible answers, but you must
choose only the most likely one from the
option list.
Specimen answer sheet:
• Marking: Incorrect answers are not penalised. It is in
your best interests to ensure for each of the 60 answers,
one lozenge is filled in by the end of the examination. If
you mark two or more boxes on the same question, no
mark will be awarded, even if one of the answers you
choose is the correct one. Please ensure that any
mistakes are clearly and fully erased.
• Each correct SBA answer will be worth the same number
of marks as 2½ individual correct MCQ answers. Time
management is candidate’s responsibility, but we
recommend spending approximately 75 minutes on the
EMQs and 75 minutes on the MCQs.
• Question 1:
• A 24-year-old woman has a miscarriage at
9 weeks’ gestation. The next day she has
a full blood count done and the results are
tabulated below. Her blood pressure is
84/40 and pulse 95 beats per minute.
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Which management option is most appropriate?
A. Blood transfusion with 2 units of blood
B. Colloid infusion
C. Iron tablets 200 mg daily for one month
D. Iron tablets 200-300 mg 2-3 daily for two
months
• E. Parenteral iron infusion
• Answer: A
• Question 2:
• A 24-year-old presents at 27 weeks into
her second pregnancy feeling unwell, with
backache, fever and rigors. She has a
temperature of 39.5°C. Urinalysis shows
leucocytes and protein +++. Her blood
pressure is 80/50. Which action is most
appropriate?
• A. Admit to ICU/HDU for intravenous
antibiotics and supportive care
• B. Arrange ultrasound of renal tract
• C. Commence 7-day course of oral
antibiotics
• D. Give intramuscular steroids to promote
fetal lung maturity
• E. Make referral for physicians to review
• Answer: A
• Question 3:
• Where in the body is angiotensin 1
converted to angiotensin II under the
influence of angiontensin-converting
enzyme?
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A. Adrenal cortex
B. Blood vessel wall
C. Kidney
D. Liver
E. Lung
Answer: E
• Question 4:
• Which chromosome contains the gene that
codes for the alpha globin chain (a
constituent component of Haemoglobin)?
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A. Chromosome 5
B. Chromosome 11
C. Chromosome 16
D. Chromosome 18
E. Chromosome 21
Answer: C
• Question 5:
• Regarding CTG analysis, what is the
accepted normal range for variability?
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A. 1-5 beats per minute
B. 1-15 beats per minute
C. 5-15 beats per minute
D. 10-20 beats per minute
E. Greater than 15 beats per minute
Answer: C
• The MCQ section
• Answering the questions: The answer sheet is
numbered 61 to 90 and each question number
has five components, lettered A to E. Against
each letter there are two lozenges labelled T (=
True) and F (= False). Indicate your judgment of
each particular question by boldly blacking out
either the T or F lozenge. Candidates may mark
their responses in the question book and then
transfer these to the answer sheet. Please be
aware that this will take longer and all transfers
must be done fully within the time allowed for
the examination.
• The pudendal nerve A. derives its fibres from
the second, third and fourth sacral segments B.
runs between the pyriformis and coccygeus
muscles before leaving the pelvis C. has the
pudendal artery on its medial side as it lies of the
ischial spine D. gives off the inferior
haemorrhoidal (rectal) nerve in the pudendal
canal D. innervates the clitoris
• Answers A, B, D and E are ‘True’, answer C is
‘False’. Your answer sheet relating to these
questions would look like this
• Marking: Each answer correctly answered (i.e.
a true statement indicated as T or a false
statement indicated as F) is awarded one mark
(+1). For each incorrect answer no mark (0) is
awarded. All questions must be answered T
or F. If both lozenges or neither lozenge is
marked no mark (0) is awarded. Please ensure
that any mistakes are clearly and fully erased.
Incorrect answers are not penalised. It is in your
best interests to ensure for each of the answers,
one lozenge is filled in by the end of the
examination.
• Division of marks
• For each of the two papers, marks will be
evenly distributed between the SBA and
EMQ components of that paper, and each
paper will contribute the same proportion
of marks to the overall total: