ERJ 175 Ground School Comprehensive Review Answers
General
o List all Flight Deck Emergency Equipment
5-5-3-3
Captain: Flashlight, 2 Life Vests, CB’s, Rope
FO: Flashlight, Life Vest, CB’s, Rope, and Gear and RAT Pins
Observer: Seat, Headset, O2
Doorway: Crash Axe, PBE, Halon Extinguisher
o After turning Batteries 1 and 2 to “ON” and “AUTO,” what three things are we looking for? Limitation?
Screen 2, 3 & IESS on. Airplane must not be moved until IESS is initialized within 90 seconds
o Under what voltage must a “battery recharge procedure” be accomplished? Under what voltage must
maintenance be called?
22.4-21.0 volts. Less than 21.0v
o Why is it important to wait approximately 30 seconds after energizing the batteries before running the
fire extinguisher panel test?
To verify there are no fire protection fail messages on the EICAS
o List all items that are part of the fire extinguisher panel test.
6-5-2-2-2. Six fire protection lights, 5 EICAS messages, 2 ITT Indications, 2 Warning Lights, and 2 Aural Warnings
o What else do we need to do when establishing AC power to the aircraft?
Nav lights on (logo too if at night), PACKS set to attendant. PACKS should be OFF when a ground air conditioning source
is being utilized.
o Understand Fuel Trend Monitoring. How are they determined? Is it against policy to land underneath?
Takes place upon reaching TOC and at least for every hour thereafter. It is NOT a violation to land underneath values
▪ Recite/Define Minimum Fuel
Cannot accept any undue delay, 45minutes endurance 1500 AFE green dot clean, 2250lbs
▪ Recite/Define Emergency Fuel
Will be landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel, 1500 AFE green dot clean, 1500lbs
▪ Hold fuel VS reserve fuel
Hold fuel: planned landing weight and 10,000 AFE destination
Reserve fuel: 45 minutes of TOD fuel burn rate. Will never be less than 2450lbs
Procedural
o When do you conduct the power up checklist and originating checklist and flow?
FFOD, Aircraft/Crew Change, Aircraft left unattended (switches only), after Mx has been done. Power Up can be skipped
if the aircraft is not in Cold and Dark and power is left on. Originating can be skipped if doing a quick turn and plane has
not been powered down and crew/aircraft has not changed
o How do you know your DVDR (flight data recorder) test is a “good test?”
There are no EICAS messages
o What test begins when AC power is applied to the aircraft?
Electrical Flight Control PBIT
▪ How do you know it is running? EICAS message
▪ How long does it take to complete? 3 minutes
▪ What does it check? Provides detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures on the FCMs and ACEs
▪ What interrupts this test? Any hydraulic pumps running, Flight control mode switches are cycled, or AC power is
interrupted
O What test begins when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized in the order 3A, 1, 2? How do you know
it is running?
Hydraulic PBIT
▪ How do you know it is running? EICAS message
▪ How long does it take to complete? 1 minute
▪ What does it check? Provides functional test of the flight control hydraulic actuators and will turn on only when
hydraulic systems 3A, 1, and 2 are pressurized in the correct order and hydraulic temp is above 10 degrees C
▪ What interrupts this test? Flight Control Movement
▪ What are the three ways to generate a manifest?
FliteView, ACARS, and Dispatch
• Recite ALL standard weights (UPDATE)
o Adult (summer/winter) 190/195
o Child (summer/winter) 82/87
o Standard Bag 30
o Valet Bag 30
o Heavy Bag 60
o Infant/ Service Animal 0/0
o Ticketed Bag (summer/winter) 82/87
o Crewmember/Jumpseater 185/190
▪ What tolerance does the target N1 have to fall within compared to the Manifest Projected N1?
-0.1% and +0.5%
o When should the Before Start To the Line flow begin?
Release Fuel Onboard, Received PDC
o When should the Before Start Below the Line flow begin?
Doors Closed, Ready to Taxi from FA
o What conditions must be met for a green light to illuminate on the nose wheel?
STEER OFF (EICAS), Parking brake off, Toe brakes off, AC Ground Power Panel switch in the Disengage
position
o What would cause a BRK LH FAULT or BRK RH FAULT EICAS message?
For pushback speeds >5knts and the Autobrakes will switch OFF and will need to reset
o Can the engine start during the pushback? Static?
Yes, when given the clearance from the push back operator. Static start parking needs to be set
o Contaminated ramp pushback considerations?
PIC will not permit pushback without headsets , except when the flight deck to ground audio system
is deferred. PIC must establish alternate communication procedures
o Taxiing on Engine 1 and 2 single engine taxi hydraulic considerations.
If on engine 1, ACMP 2 will come on with the parking brake released. If on engine 2, Hydraulic
Electrical Pump must REMAIN ON
o Starting Engine what are we looking for?
Start Timer
10s positive oil pressure
7% N2 IGN A on EICAS
20% N2 fuel flow
Light off within 30 seconds after fuel flow
N1 Rotation prior to start cutout (50% N2)
50 N2% verify IGN A (B) goes out
Engine Stabilization: ITT red mark moves down
o When do we abort an engine start?
No positive oil pressure within 10s
No N1 rotation prior to 50% N2
No light off within 30 seconds
ITT exceeds 815
Oil pressure stabilizes below 25 PSI
N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start)
An intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction before starter disengagement
o What protections does FADEC provide? In the air?
Hung Start, Hot Start, No Light Off. Memory item is STILL required. No air protection
o After an engine automatic abort how many times can we restart as long as there are no EICAS
messages?
Twice
o If target N1 value is not being attained what can you do?
Reduce FLEX to the OAT or update the T/O performance to the current OAT through ACARS or
Dispatch
o Where do I find the procedure for starting the engine with a Ground Pneumatic Cart?
QRH...Can only start the right engine, to start left engine do a crossbleed start
▪ Starting the engines with no AC source (Battery Start)? Hydraulic considerations?
QRH...Start the right engines first and have hydraulics off because hydraulics turns the EPBIT off.
o What is the process should you encounter an engine start malfunction?
Affected engine start/stop selector switch to OFF
o How do I cross-bleed start an engine?
Announce starting engine, ensure area is clear, advance thrust levers and verify 40-45
of duct pressure PSI, start desired engine and watch indications and set timer, set idle
verify N1 target and call out Normal Start
o What is a consideration during the Xbleed engine start?
If thrust is advanced to far forward the FADEC will swap from the 10th stage bleed HP
to the 6th stage LP bleed which could result in a hot start
o Taxi speed limits?
Straight Dry - 30knots
Straight Wet/Contaminated - 10knots
Turns Dry -10 knots
Turns Wet/Contaminated - 5knots
O Thrust limit while taxiing?
40% N1
o When does EICAS declutter automatically? Is there a manual way?
30 seconds after gear up, flap up, APU off, spoilers stowed, fan vibration normal, and
engine oil normal
Yes, EICAS FULL button
▪ SKW Minimum holding speeds?
6000ft and Below: 200 or green dot whichever is higher
>6001ft: 210 or green dot whichever is higher
▪ SKW Maximum holding speeds?
200, 230, 265
o What are some techniques to help in turbulence?
Maintain S&L attitude and use Vb speeds don't chase altitude or attitude
o Define all four landing “v” speeds.
VRef - normal speed over threshold
Vapp - target speed in landing configuration
Vac - approach climb, engine out on go around
Vfs - final segment , engine out on go around
o Understand when a Landing Performance Assessment is required and understand how to calculate a
landing performance assessment.
ACARS
TLR from release need to request from Dispatch
QRH if airport conditions do not allow TLR (+/- 6 knots OAT & 0.1 in of HG difference)
QRH Unfactored Landing Distance
▪ Calculate VAPP for various wind directions and speeds
Vapp = Vref + ½ of HW + Gust Spread
• Understand differences in required wind additives for:
o Without Stall Protection Ice Speeds (SPIS) - Min Vapp has to be at least between +5 and +20
o With SPIS - Min Vapp has to be at least between +0 and +20
o Using Vref New - Min Vapp has to be at least between +0 and +20 (QRH)
o Recite Stabilized Approach Criteria
▪ 1,500ft or Final Approach Fix (whichever occurs later) - Gear, Flaps 3, <180 KIAS
▪ 1,000ft - On Vertical/Lateral profile, Landing Config, Before Landing Checklist done, +15/-5 of Vapp
▪ 500ft - airspeed needs to be in the speed bug, thrust above IDLE (except for momentary speed/descent deviations)
o What factors could cause a tail strike on T/O? Landing?
Improper Stabilizer Trim
Improper Rotation
Excessive Rotation Rate
Landing - flaring below Vref
o At what speed should the reverse thrust be set back to MIN REV? FWD Idle thrust?
80knots/60knots
• Bounced Landing Protection Logic?
Ground signal is kept for 5 seconds after bounced landing. If TLAs are in idle within those 5 seconds, the ground spoilers
will deploy regardless of altitude or actual weight on wheels
o What precautions should be taken when shutting down an engine on a taxi after landing?
Thrust lever needs to be at idle for at least 2 minutes before shutdown for thermal stabilization
o Can the aircraft be towed to the gate? Where is the procedure found?
Yes, the procedure is in the SOPM
o Can fueling be done with passengers on board? At the gate? Away from the gate? Engines off? Left
engine running?
Yes, direct communication must be maintained with the fueler, the emergency exits are not
obstructed, and the MCD is open.
Fueling can be done with PAX onboard AND MCD closed as long as communication is maintained,
PIC notifies FA when fueling starts and ends, areas outside emergency exits are unobstructed and
armed, fire services must be notified with at least one vehicle on standby
Only crew may be onboard when fueling with engines on and MCD be open
Doors/Slides
▪ How does one correctly open and close the MCD and Service doors?
Disarm the slide and check for green disarmed indication first then open.
When closing, after fully locked arm the slide and indication is showing armed
▪ What should be done in the event of inadvertent partial or full slide deployment?
Call Mx
o Are there scenarios where the Post Flight External Inspection can be waived for the inbound crew?
When the outbound crew arrives before the inbound crew and the aircraft remains powered up
Fire Protection System
o Engines:
▪ How many halon bottle(s) serve engine fire suppression?
2 Total on Aircraft.
▪ Pulling the fire handle does what?
Closes the Fuel SOV , Hydraulic SOV, Bleed Air SOV, and XFeed Bleed Air valves
▪ Rotating the fire handle does what?
Activates the Halon Bottle A or Halon Bottle B for the respective engine
▪ What are the indications of an Engine Fire?
Fire is displayed on the ITT gauge, Triple chime/fire bell, and fire handle illuminates
▪ In the event of fire protection system component failure what indications will there be?
An EICAS caution message will be displayed and fire on that system can no longer be detected
▪ When an extinguishing bottle is discharged, what also may happen?
The fire handle illumination may be lost, if the EICAS message is still active the fire condition persists
o APU:
▪ How many halon bottle(s) serve APU fire suppression? And what happens when the fire extinguishing button is pressed?
One. APU Fuel SOV closes, Halon extinguisher discharges, and the red striped bar on the APU EMER STOP button is
turned off
▪ What does pressing the APU EMER STOP button do?
Closes the APU Fuel SOV, Shutdowns the APU, and lights up the APU extin. Button. When pressed the bottom half
illuminates white
▪ Will the APU automatically shut down for fire? If so, when?
Yes. On the ground 10 seconds after fire detection. APU FADEC will shut down if: UFO/SHELF on ground or UFO in flight.
Anytime 1 minute has gone by since detection and the APU Emer Stop button hasn’t been pressed the APU extinguish
light will come on. Underspeed, FADEC Fault, Overspeed, Sensor Fail, High Oil Temp, EGT High Temp, Low Oil Temp, Fire
o Cargo
▪ How many fire detectors are in each cargo bin? Smoke detectors?
0 fire detectors. 3 smoke detectors in FWD bin, 2 smoke detectors in AFT bin
▪ How many halon bottle(s) serve Cargo fire suppression?
One high rate bottle and one low rate bottle (75 min of flow, 60 min to divert)
▪ Will any cargo bottle automatically discharge at any time?
With EICAS message: Press once for H rate, wait 1 min for L rate
Without EICAS message: Press twice for H rate, wait 1 min for L rate
***If on ground, press button again if H rate isn’t enough to start L rate***
▪ How do I discharge the low-rate bottle for a non-enunciated forward cargo fire on the ground?
Press twice for H rate, and press again for L rate. 3 times
(If there is no message, you have to arm the system; press twice for H)
▪ What closes if there is a cargo fire?
After smoke is detected in the FWD bin, the air circulation fan and FWD bin ventilation outflow valve is
closed and the hi rate bottle is armed in flight.
o Lavatory
▪ How is a lavatory fire detected?
One Smoke detector in each Lav, 2 Total
▪ What happens when a LAV SMOKE EICAS message appears?
Master warning light comes on, smoke alarm sounds and smoke detector light comes on
in the lavatory, and a flashing amber light on the FA panel illuminates
▪ Does LAV SMOKE mean the halon bottle has discharged?
Only when the temperature of the waste container exceeds a certain limit, the system automatically discharges the
halon extinguisher. FA can also use hand held halon to fight fire.
Electrical System
o General
▪ What are two main components on the DC HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2 that we, as pilots, care about?
Engine fire protection system and refueling panel
▪ What type(s) of circuit breakers do(es) the E170 have? How do I access them?
Thermal and Electrical. Electrical CBs are found on the MCDU/FMS
o DC Electrical System
▪ What is the primary purpose of a TRU?
Convert AC to DC
▪ In an electrical emergency, the batteries will provide at least ___ minutes of electrical power.
10 minutes, 2 APU Starts
▪ Briefly explain the purpose of the RAT
Provides emergency AC power in case of IDG/APU failure.
▪ A DC GPU can replace battery ___ in the event it is inoperative for APU starts.
Battery 2, only powers BUS 2 OR APU Start Bus. Th e DC GPU hookup only powers the APU Start BUS
•Can the AC STBY BUS start the engine?
Yes. It is powered from a DC Bus and Inverter which allows for engine start with no AC power.
•When Battery 1 is switched on what happens? What about Battery 2 to AUTO?
Battery 1 ON supplies power to the DC BUS 1 and the Hot Battery Bus. Battery 2 automatically powers
EITHER DC BUS 2 OR APU Start Bus
o AC Electrical System
▪ Sources of AC power include…
2 IDGs, APU, GPU, RAT, Inverter
▪ What considerations are there when disconnecting an IDG?
Mechanically disconnects IDG from gear box and switch must be held in 1-3 seconds. A reset by Mx is required when
disconnecting IDG
▪ What does the amber light on the IDG panel indicate?
System senses low oil pressure or high oil temperature. EICAS message will display
▪ What do the AC Bus Ties do? What happens when the switch is turned to 1 OPEN or 2 OPEN?
Connects the Bus 1 and 2 in case a bus fails the system can still be powered. Opes the Bus Tie Contactor (BTC)
segregating the BUS from the other BUS
▪ What happens to protect against an overload on the system if one AC power source fails?
The system will load shed the galleys and right windshield heat.
▪ What is “Electrical Power Priority?”
AC Bus 1 and 2 independently will seek out Onside, Inside, Outside, Cross-Side
• After starting the left engine with the APU on, what generator will power AC BUS 2? What powers AC BUS
1?
APU, IDG 1
•When the GPU AVAIL light comes on what does that mean?
The system will check that it is providing the proper voltage, amps, and frequency
o RAT
▪ How long does it take the RAT to deploy and begin producing AC Power?k
8 seconds, will automatically deploy and can be manually extended. During the powerup the
batteries supply essential loads for 10 minutes
▪ What AC BUS does the RAT connect to?
AC ESS BUS
• What items are on the AC ESS BUS?
AC Fuel Pump 2A, ACMP 3A, SF-ACE 1 Flap, and SF-ACE 2 Slat
▪ What EICAS message should go away when the RAT deploys?
Batt Discharge
▪ What speeds are required to get the RAT spinning and to keep it spinning?
150 to get the RAT spinning, 130 to keep the RAT spinning
▪ What kind of batteries do we have in the ERJ 175?
2 Sealed Lead Acid Batteries (SLABs) at 24V in a 28V system
Flight Controls
o Primary
▪ All primary flight controls except for the ailerons are ____?
Fly-By-Wire. Electronically activated, hydraulically actuated
▪ What are the secondary flight controls?
Trim Stabilizer, Flaps/Slats, Spoilers
▪ How many hydraulic sources are there for the rudder and elevator?
2 actuators and 2 different hydraulic systems. Only one actuator is active at a time (alternating each day) to allow for
even wear
▪ Briefly explain the signal path for a pitch change from control column to elevator in normal mode.
Direct mode?
Control Column -> ACE -> FCM -> ACE -> PCU
Control Column -> ACE -> PCU
▪ What is the purpose of the ACE?
Connects the control column to the respective control surface electronically
▪ What is the purpose of the FCM?
Augments pilot inputs with software limits and higher level functions
▪ Name a few important Higher Level Functions
Yaw damper, AoA limiting, AFCS (Autopilot)
▪ What does Shaker Cutout do? Can we fly with the PLIs?
Pushed In Cuts the shaker, Pushed out shaker channel active and will activate when nearing stalling AOA or when
pitched to the PLIs. Operations with the PLIs continuously displayed is prohibited
o Flaps
▪ Flaps are ___ actuated through the SF-ACE.
Electrically. Two Power Drive Units (PDUs)
▪ What do amber and dashed indications mean on EICAS?
Amber means surface has failed, dashed means position is unknown
▪ Do the Slats/Flaps have protection logic? If so, what is it?
Skew Protection (prevents asymmetrical extension)
Strike Protection (prevents extension if force is too great to extend)
▪ What is the difference between Flaps 4 and Flaps 5?
The only difference is that there is gate and Flap 5 is used for landing
▪ What flap settings are used for takeoff? Landing? Go around?
T/O: 1, 2, and 4
Landing: 5 and Full
Go Around: 2 if Flaps were at 5, 4 if flaps were at Full
▪ Maximum flap speeds are…
230, 215, 200, 180, 165 respectively.
o Speed Brakes
▪ Speed brakes are ___ activated and ____ actuated.
Electronically, Hydraulically
▪ What is the difference between Ground Spoilers and Multifunction Spoilers?
Ground spoilers only activate on the ground
MF Spoilers can be roll spoilers, speed brakes, and ground spoilers
▪ Under what three scenarios will the speed brakes automatically retract in flight?
Airspeed slower than 180, flaps greater than 1, and thrust lever greater than 70 degrees TLA
▪ After landing, when will the GRD spoiler panels rise?
Spoilers must be in Normal MODE
Weight on Wheels
Wheel speed is above 45 knots or airspeed is above 60 knots
TLA is below 26 degrees
▪ When will the GRD spoilers retract? How about in direct mode?
When wheel speed is below 45knots for 5 seconds
If TLA is >35 degrees
GRD spoilers are not available in direct mode
o Trim
▪ All pilot trim commands are limited to ___ seconds before the trim cuts out. What happens at 7
seconds if half the switch is activated?
3 seconds, will get aural trim caution for pitch trim
The switch is disabled
▪ Trim priority order?
Pedestal (Backup), Captain, FO, Autopilot
▪ Which trim is not commanded by the autopilot?
Yaw trim
▪ What does pressing SYS 1 CUTOUT and SYS 2 CUTOUT buttons do?
Disables the HS-ACE Channel 1 & 2
▪ What do the Aileron/Elevator disconnect handles do?
Separates the control columns and the pilot with the non-jammed side retains control on
their side.
▪ What is the electrical flight control PBIT?
Provides detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures on the FCMs, P-ACE, and SF
ACEs. Automatically performed after the airplane has AC power and takes 3 minutes to
complete.
▪ How long are the PBITs valid for?
50 hours
▪ What interrupts the electrical flight control PBIT?
Any hydraulic pumps running, Flight control mode switches are cycled, or AC power is
interrupted
Hydraulics
▪ What does the hydraulic PBIT do and when will it automatically run?
Provides functional test of the flight control actuators and will turn on only when hydraulic systems 3A, 1 and 2 are
pressurized in the correct order
▪ What will interrupt the Hydraulic PBIT? How long will it take to complete?
Movement of the flight controls. 1 minute
▪ What does it mean if a hydraulic quantity indication is Cyan?
Reservoir requires refilling
o System 1
▪ What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 1?
(Engine Driven Pump) EDP 1 and (AC Motor Pump) ACMP 1, accumulator stores power
▪ When will EDP1 begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?
When the respective engine turns on and if switch is in AUTO then it is automatic
▪ When will ACMP1 turn on automatically?
Takeoff:
Flaps greater than 0 AND 50 Knots GS OR Thrust Levers at TO/GA
In Flight:
Flaps greater than 0, or EDP/Engine Failure
o System 2
▪ What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 2?
(Engine Driven Pump) EDP 1, (AC Motor Pump) ACMP 1, and Power Transfer Unit (PTU), accumulator stores power
▪ What does the accumulator do?
Stores hydraulic pressure from system 1 and 2 to provide 6 uses of the parking brake
▪ When will EDP2 begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?
When the respective engine turns on and if switch is in AUTO then it is automatic
▪ When will ACMP2 turn on automatically?
Taxi: Engine 1 running AND parking brake released (Will automatically turn off 6m after the park. brake has been set)
Takeoff: Flaps greater than 0 AND 50 Knots GS OR Thrust Levers at TO/GA
In Flight: Flaps greater than 0, or EDP/Engine Failure
▪ Which hydraulic system controls nosewheel steering? Landing gear?
System 2
o System 3
▪ What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 3?
AC Motor Pumps 3a and 3b with a reservoir
▪ When will ACMP 3A begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?
When the 3A switch is turned to ON and this switch is not automatic.
▪ When will ACMP 3B turn on automatically?
If ACMP 3A fails in flight ONLY
o PTU
▪ What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
Assists the retraction or extension of the landing gear if EDP 2 or right engine has failed. ACMP2 is too weak to operate
landing gear. PTU moves hydraulic force from system 1 and moves it to system 2 (does not move fluid) 100% mechanical
does not require AC Power
▪ Will the PTU run on the ground in AUTO?
No because it will not run with weight on wheels
▪ When will the PTU automatically activate?
When flaps not set to 0 OR Gear not up and locked
Weight not on wheels
EDP 1 has not failed
Reservoir 2 quantity is above 12%
When the EDP 2 or right engine has failed
▪ What happens when the Hydraulic overheats?
100 degrees, yellow caution EICAS
125 degrees, system automatically shutdowns respective EDP
145 degrees,red warning on EICAS
▪ What does the hydraulic eng pump shutoff button do?
Closes the hydraulic SOV, isolating the EDP from the system
APU
o According to the SOPM, when should the APU be turned on?
10 minutes prior to pushback,
During COVID, during boarding and deplaning
o What electrical requirements are there for the APU?
If AC external is not available batteries 1 & 2 must be on
DC GPU may replace Batt 2 but not Batt1
o ECS
▪ ECS ON, APU ___.
OFF
▪ ECS OFF, APU ___.
ON
o Recite APU Starter Duty Cycle Limits
1 & 2 60s OFF, 3rd Attempt 5 min OFF
o APU Limitations
33,000 for use. 30,000 to start. 21,000 to start the engine with APU bleed air. 15,000 to power PACKS with APU bleed air
o What do the APU switches do?
OFF: Initiates shutdown sequence, APU bleed closes immediately, after 1 min fuel, FADEC and GEN power is off
ON: Powers FADEC and opens APU fuel shutoff valve wait 30s to start
START: Initiates start sequence (momentary position)... 3 seconds after APU has reached 95% power and air are avail
o Where does the APU receive fuel from? Which pumps?
The right fuel tank.
When only DC power is available then the DC fuel pump
AC fuel pump if we have AC power
Ejector fuel pump if engine is running (can Xfeed from another engine)
o When will the APU automatically turn off? In flight? On the ground?
UFO/SHELF on Ground, UFO in flight
o How do I shut the APU off? Is there a cooldown period? What happens during the cooldown period? Can
the cooldown period be canceled systematically? Operationally? Can I turn the APU back ON during the
cooldown period? Spool Down period?
Switching knob to OFF closes APU bleeds immediately and there is a one minute cooldown. APU slows
and cools down. You can turn it back on during the 1 minute cooldown. After the 1 minute period you
must re do the start sequence
o What is the APU shutdown procedure when powering down the aircraft?
Make sure APU indication is off and wait an additional 80 seconds to receive an APU FUEL SOV CLOSED EICAS message
before turning off the batteries. Failure to do so can cause an APU Fault
Engines
o What type of engine does the ERJ have?
GE CF34-8E5, High Bypass, Dual rotor turbofan, FADEC rated @ 13,000lbs of thrust
o How does the FADEC operate?
Changs thrust modes to extend engine life
Automatically switches from the 10th stage bleed to the 6th stage bleed during times of high thrust demand
T/O Climb/Cruise = 6th Stage Bleed (LP)
Pulls less energy than from the 10th stage with just enough pressure to run PACKS
Descent/Approach = 10th stage Bleed (HP)
Pulls lots of energy. Must provide enough pressure to run anti-ice at near idle settings so aircraft can stay ice
free during the descent
o What do the Cyan and Green N1 chevrons mean?
Cyan = target N1
Green = MAX Thrust
o What is ATTCS?
Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System.
▪ When will the Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS) change?
White is means ATTCS is armed
Green is engaged and will engage when thrust levers reach TO/GA position
o Thrust Rating Modes
• TO to CLB 1 and 2
Landing gear retracted
Airplane is above 400 AGL
Any change in vertical mode
• CLB to CRZ
Airplane is level at the preselected altitude for 90 second and airspeed within 5 knots from preselected airspeed
• CON?
Automatically if engine fails at or above 3000 AGL
Manually selected in the MCDU TRS menu
• CRZ to GA
Flaps are >0 and Gear Down OR
From CRZ, CON, CLB if TOGA is pressed
▪ Can you change the thrust mode manually?
Yes through the MCDU in the TRS menu
o Name a few Thrust Modes the airplane has.
TO1/2/3 - T/O thrust calculated from the MCDU
TO RSV - Whenever ATTCS is active and TLA at TO/GA
GA - Landing gear down, flaps down or in a different mode and TO/GA is pressed
GA-RSV - highest rated engine thrust for extreme situations
CON - highest thrust engines can be continuously run in EMER situations
CLB - Maximum climb rating
CRZ - Maximum N1 for Cruise
Idle - Flight, Approach, Final, Ground
▪ When will ATTCS provide reserve thrust automatically?
Commands reserve whenever engaged, thrust levers set to TO/GA, AND:
Difference between both engine N1 valve is greater than 15%
One engine failure during takeoff
One engine failure during go around
Windshear warning
RSV can be manually activated if Thrust set to MAX
▪ What is the difference between MAX and TOGA? TO-x RSV vs GA RSV?
TOGA - Will give you the thrust used for a normal takeoff from the T/O data in MCDU
MAX - Will give you TO-x RSV thrust or GA RSV depending if taking off or going around. Extra boost of thrust.
▪ When is engine vibration more likely?
In moderate to severe ice conditions and caused by asymmetric ice shedding
▪ What do the Start/Stop selectors do?
STOP: Commands FADEC to shutdown engine if thrust levers in Idle
RUN: Normal position for engine operation
START: Initiates start procedure and automatically introduces fuel at 20% as long as the ITT is <120 degrees
▪ What do the Ignition knobs do? Do we have automatic relight with the igniters?
OFF: Deactivates ignition and inhibits fuel flow. FADEC ignores OFF in flight
AUTO: FADEC turns ignition on when N2 is 7% and can auto relight engines
OVRD: Enables FADEC to continuously activate both igniters
Landing Gear/Brakes
o What type of brakes does the ERJ have? How are they actuated?
Carbon, Hydraulically System 1 and 2
▪ How many ways can you activate the brakes?
3 ways Feet, Hands, Automatically
o What is the difference between HI and RTO?
HI- 4m/s deceleration
RTO - Maximum deceleration
O Will the plane stop in the same distance with Autobrakes and Thrust Reverser and No Thrust Reverser?
Yes, the thrust reverser just takes some of the work away from the brakes. Auto Brakes are just a deceleration rate
o What gives a green light to the pushback crew?
Steering OFF
Brakes released
Nose Gear Towing light is green
o How many ways to disconnect nose wheel steering?
Hydraulic system 2 fail
Steering disconnect switch
External Steering Switch Off
o What conditions must be met for the auto brakes to be ARMED to RTO?
Selector Knob Position - RTO
Weight on Wheels
Wheel Speed Below 60 knts
No Faults
Any Brake Pedal Position
Thrust levers at Idle or REV
o What conditions must be met for RTO to recognize a reject?
Selector Knob - RTO
Weight on Wheels
Wheel speed above 60 knots
No Faults
Brakes not pressed
Thrust levers at Idle or REV
o What conditions must be met for the auto brakes to be DISARMED from RTO?
Selector Knob - Not in RTO
In Flight
Faults detected below 60knots of wheel speed
20% Brake pressure applied
Thrust levers > idle
o What releases the autobrakes?
20% brake pressure applied
System faults
Thrust levers > idle
o When would you press the DN LOCK REL button?
When you need the gear up to clear obstacles
o How many ways are there to lower the landing gear? What are they?
3, landing gear lever, alternate gear extension, and electrical override
▪ What does the electrical override switch do?
Electrically bypasses the sensors and evaluation computers and extends the gear
▪ What does the Alternate Gear Extension lever do?
If hydraulic pressure is not available it will release hydraulic pressure in the lines and mechanically releases all uplocks.
Gear extends via gravity may be necessary to yaw to fully extend
o Systematically, what happens when the landing gear lever is selected up or down?
Selecting down releases hydraulic pressure for the nose and main uplocks as well as the retraction
actuators. The landing gear doors are mechanically opened
o How does aircraft know to give a green down indication on the EICAS (what component verifies this
signal)? What does amber and red mean?
The Proximity Sensor. Amber means wheels in transit. Red means gear disagree.
o What causes a LG LEVER DISAG message? How is this fixed?
When the Proximity Sensor Evaluation Module (PSEM) senses a wheel not locked down. We would use the electrical
override to bypass the PSEM and commands the same extension sequence as normal operation.
• What does the landing gear warning inhibit button do?
Inhibits the warning and aural warning in the event of dual RA failure only if the Slat/Flap lever is in the 0, 1, 2, 3, or 4
position
o When would someone use the DN LOCK REL button?
To raise the gear for terrain avoidance
o Steering limitations?
Pedals: 7 degrees left and right
Tiller: Up to 76 degrees
Minimum Turn Width: 59ft 2in
Minimum Taxiway Width: 50ft
o Describe the following brake protections:
▪ Automatic wheel braking - stops the main gear during gear retraction
▪ Touchdown protection - only allows braking when wheel speed above 50 knots or 3 seconds after touchdown
▪ Locked wheel protection - prevents locked wheels by comparing inboard/outboard speeds if wheel speed is 33% or below the
other wheel the brake pressure will be 0 on the slower wheel to speed the slower wheel up...active above 30 knots
▪ Anti-skid protection - prevents tire skidding and maximizes brake efficiency by reducing hydraulic pressure if necessary...active
at 10knots or greater wheel speed
o Can the Emergency/Parking Brake be used to stop the aircraft after landing? When would a pilot need
to do this? Considerations?
`Yes, when hydraulic system 1 and 2 fails. Wheel protections are no longer available (auto wheel
braking is still available)
Ice and Rain Protection
o What areas on the 175 are protected with Anti-Ice? How many detectors? How long does A/I stay on for?
Wing, Engine, Windshield, Air Data Smart Probes detected by two detectors
Engine and Wing anti ice valves stay open for 2 minutes after icing is no longer detected
▪ What are the Windshield Wiper settings? Limitations and Logic?
Timer = 8 second delay between wipes
Max speed is 250 and will stop if operating on a dry window (torque sensor)
▪ When will the ADSP heat turn on automatically?
When One Engine is running or airborne
2 TATs and 4 ADSPs electrically heated
▪ What happens when the potable water dump button is pressed?
Starts dump sequence, bar illuminates, and drainage begins
▪ When will potable water drainage stop?
Landing Gear extended
Fault in the water drain mast
Button pressed again
▪ Will there be a test for the windshield heat?
Yes, when a single AC power is established the windshield heating heating controller performs a 120 second BIT routine
and heats up each windshield then removes power from both windshields.
▪ When will the windshield heat turn on automatically?
The system only operates normally if there are at least TWO AC electrical sources
• What about a single AC source?
Only the left windshield heating is powered when there is a single AC power source.
If the left windshield heating system fails, the right windshield heating becomes available
o When are the engines heated on the Ground
Upon engine start if ENG or ALL is selected in the T/O Dataset in the MCDU
o When are the engines heated in Flight?
When the airplane detects ice once it reaches 1700 AFE or the aircraft has been airborne for 2 minutes
o When are the wings heated in Flight?
When the airplane detects ice once it reaches 1700 AFE or the aircraft has been airborne for 2 minutes
o When are the wings heated on the Ground?
Upon reaching 40 knots wheel speed if ALL is selected in the T/O Dataset in the MCDU
o What needs to happen if one or both ice detectors are failed?
The crew must set the ice protection mode to ON to run both the engine and wing A/I
o What kind of bleed does the A/I system need?
Engine Bleed. APU bleed Air is not sufficient
Bleed air can be used for A/I, PACKs, Water Pressurization, and Starting APU/Engine
o What slats are heated with wing A/I? And does the tail get heated?
The outer 3 and the tail does not have A/I capability
▪ When will the Ice and Rain Protection Self Tests happen and how long do they last for?
Wing anti ice system (SAI IBIT) will self test 10 min after T/O or at 10,000ft AFE whichever occurs first
The (SAI IBIT) duration is 60 seconds (maximum) the test can be finished earlier if all slat temp sensors have an increase
of 10 degrees Fahrenheit
▪ If we lose our detectors, do we lose our anti ice system?
No just the detection, we just have to manually turn on the A/I
▪When you land and taxi on contaminated surfaces what switch needs to be turned on?
Anti-Ice System - ON, will turn on both the engines, not the wings on ground
• MCDU TO Dataset OFF, ENG, and ALL
OFF when there is no visible moisture of ANY kind reported reported below 1700 AFE
ENG when there is visible moisture anywhere between 5 and 10 degrees reported below 1700 AFE
ALL when there is visible moisture anywhere below 5 degrees reported below 1700 AFE
AFCS
o Lateral Guidance
▪ Understand the following lateral modes (how to engage, when you would use, difference in color):
• ROLL - Bank angle at 6 degrees = airplane will level
Bank angle 6-35 degrees = AP will hold current angle
Bank angle greater than 35 degrees = AP will roll back to 35 degreesi
▪ What bank angle does BANK limit you to?
15 degrees airplane needs to be in HDG mode
• TRACK - plane takes a snapshot and draws a line out and will fly that track
• HDG - Will just hold the heading selected
• LNAV - Will fly along the course plugged in to the MCDU
• LOC - Will track a localizer course
• HOLD - A/T servos disengage so that we can reject a T/O easier
o Vertical Modes
▪ Understand the following vertical modes (how to engage, when you would use, difference in color):
• FPA - will hold a selected specific angle through the air
• TO - Vertical Navigation is in T/O Phase
• VNAV VNAV - changes vertical mode from green to magenta and will fly the profile in the MCDU
• ASEL ASEL - ASEL means it is shallowing the climb for a smooth level off
• FLCH FLCH green will climb/descend at a certain speed. Pink will climb/descend at a certain speed and follow constraints
• ALT ALT - green will hold preselected. Pink will hold FMS altitude.
• VS - will fly the manually selected climb/descent rate
• OVSP - will indicate when you are overspeeding
• GS - Tracking the Glideslope and will ignore altitude pre-select
• GA - A/T sets go around thrust
• GP - LPV WAAS vertical guidance will ignore altitude pre-select
• PTH - a curved ILS-like descent. You need LNAV, VNAV, lowest altitude set, and intercept vertical profile
o Speed Modes
▪ Understand the following speed modes (when they engage, what they mean)
• SPDE - rate of climb/descent will vary to hold speed only in FLCH
• SPDT - Throttles move to hold bugged airspeed
• LIM - A/T cannot hold the speed you pre selected for the climb or descent
• A/T limitation on T/O?
Ensure A/T is in TO/GA prior to 60 knots to not get an EICAS message
▪ When will A/T engage on ground? Flight?
Ground: No faults, armed, and TLAs past 50 degrees
Flight: No faults, A/T pressed, and at or above 400 AGL
▪ Understand Manual Speeds vs FMS speeds
Manual speeds allow the pilot to directly control speed by using the speed selector. FMS speeds is controlled by
referencing the MCDU and will follow constraints in the Flight Plan
• How does FMS speed pick which speed to fly?
Constraints. Will honor slowest speed programmed and limits
• Where does the FMS tell you what speed is selected?
Flight Plan on the MDCU.
O Green Dot
▪ Understand Green Dot (define, operational use)
Vx Clean
1.3g above shaker with 40 degrees bank protection
Single Engine Driftdown speed
Flap Extension Speed
Approach speed during an emergency
Green + 10 knots if F-bug disappears
▪ What will happen when TCS is pressed on? Off?
When pressed the FPA is synced to the Flight Director. Off will return aircraft back to what A/P was tracking
Temporarily inhibits A/P
Warning System
o Define the EICAS Priority Levels
▪ WARNING - requires immediate corrective action
▪ CAUTION - requires immediate crew awareness
▪ ADVISORY - requires crew awareness
▪ STATUS - indicates information
o Root EICAS message priority?
Warning
Electrical Bus
Modular Avionics Unit (MAU)
o How can I “scroll through” EICAS messages? How many messages can appear?
With the CCD. Up to 15 messages can appear. You cannot scroll through warning messages
o When will a windshear warning appear? Caution? Will a caution provide escape guidance? What
altitude?
Between 10ft and 1500ft on the RA
Warning is a decrease in performance, loss of airspeed/altitude... will have escape guidance
Caution is an increase in performance increasing HW...caution will not provide guidance
o Can you manually activate windshear escape guidance?
Yes, when you press the TO/GA during a caution windshear advisory
o Define Upset
>25 degrees nose up
>10 degrees nose down
Bank angle >45 degrees
Airspeed inappropriate for the conditions
▪ Recite procedures to cure an upset
Recognize, Disconnect, Push, Roll, Thrust, Stabilize
Declare Emergency if in RVSM
o When will and EGPWS warning occur?
Terrain/Terrain around an Airport
Windshear
o When would you inhibit EGPWS?
Only when flying into airports not in the GPWS database
o When will you get a Flap or Gear warning?
1700ft RA when gear is not down or Flaps set 0
Gear warning when flaps are 5 or full independent of the Radar Altimeter
▪ Proper EGPWS recovery technique
▪ When will a TA populate? RA?
TA: 35-45 seconds
RA: 20-30 seconds
▪ PF and PM duties during TA and RA
▪ Requirements
PF
Disconnect A/P
Pitch to the Guidance with the FPA
Manage Thrust
PM
Monitors airspeed and altitude
Scans for traffic
Talks to ATC
Fuel
o What are the different compartments of each main fuel tank?
Main - storage tank with 3 motive flow scavenge pumps that keep collector full
Collector - keeps the main ejector and AC/DC fuel pumps submerged that feeds the engine
Surge - during uncoordinated maneuvers and high bank this tank is a spill over for the main that uses gravity
o How many total pumps on each wing?
5 pumps on the left wing and 6 pumps on the right wing
o Where can we see fuel temperature?
Only in the left tank on the Fuel synoptic page
o AC Fuel Pumps
▪ Where in the fuel system are the ACFPs
Left and right wings’s collector tanks
▪ What is the purpose of the ACFPs?
The AC fuel pumps serve as a backup to the main ejector pumps in case of engine failure. They will automatically run as
long as AC power is established.
▪ When will ACFP 1 turn on in AUTO?
Engine 1 is starting
Xfeed selected to LOW2
Left Main Ejector Pump fails
Not powered during an electrical emergency
▪ When will ACFP 2 turn on in AUTO?
Engine 2 is starting
APU start without engine 2
Xfeed selected to LOW 1
Right Main ejector pump fails
RAT powers this fuel pump
▪ What does XFEED do?
There is no direct transfer of fuel from tank to tank. The Xfeed valve permits fuel supply to both engines from one tank.
The amount of fuel supplied to the low level side is higher than the actual burn causing an indirect transfer to balance
the tanks. AC pump feeds the other side’s EDP.
o DC Fuel Pump
▪ Where is the DC pump located?
Right wing collector tank and supplies fuel only from the right side
▪ What purpose does the DCFP serve?
It is a backup start pump to start the right engine or start and sustain the APU when there is no AC power. It is operative
during an electrical emergency through the DC Essential BUS and if switched to ON
▪ DCFP in AUTO?
Commands the pump on when engine 2 is running or APU is started AND AC Fuel Pump 2 is not available.
o Non-Electric Fuel
• Where are the main ejector pumps?
In the collector tanks
• What purpose does it serve?
Relies on motive flow (venturi effect) to supply fuel to the engine driven pump with no moving parts or electricity. It
relies on pressure from the EDP. Comes on when the engine comes on
o How can the aircraft be refueled? What about 20,935lbs?
Pressure refueling on the right side. EICAS message will display. HOT BATT BUS 2 powers this panel
Overwing gravity refueling on both sides. Can look out PAX window to check the caps
In order to get to 20,935lbs it needs to be gravity fed
o Can the plane be refueled while engines are running? What about with no engines running?
If engines are running then only crew may be onboard. If no engines are running then refueling can happen while PAXs
are boarding as long as crew maintains communication with the refuelers
o What is the only way we can close the Fuel SOV?
The fire extinguishing handle.
o What causes a FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message?
800lbs of imbalance or more will show this message, message will disappear when fuel tanks are within 100lbs of one
another. We can still take off as long as the imbalance is less than 794lbs and the Xfeed knob is in off
o What causes a FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS message?
If the collector tank is not fully submerged (fuel leak, pump failure, etc.) less than 660 lbs. Wing tank may still have
plenty of fuel
o How many ways are there to measure fuel?
2. EICAS and 3 Magnetic Level Indicators (MLIs) on each wing however must call Mx when using those
o When will the fuel quantity on the EICAS turn Amber? Red?
One side red: 660lbs
One side amber: 1320lbs
Total Red: 1320lbs
Total amber: 2640lbs
Electrical Emergency
o What defines an electrical emergency?
A loss of normal AC power to AC BUS 1 and 2 (IDG/APU)
o What will we have left until RAT deploys?
Cockpit Dome light medium intensity/Cabin EMER Lights for 10 minutes
STBY compass light
PFD on Screen 2
EICAS on Screen 3
IESS
CAP: NAV 1, IRS 1, COMM 1 , CCD 1
FO: FMC2, MCDU 2, GPS 2
DC ESSEN BUSES and AC STBY BUS because of Inverter
o What flap setting will we land with when the RAT is stuck out?
Flap 3
o Pump unloader valve vs flow limiter valve?
Pump unloader valve reduces discharge pressure of ACMP 3A on startup which reduces electrical power to start the
pump.
Flow limiter valve reduces amount of flow in ACMP 3A which limits the electrical power it can draw so that it prevents
the pump from hindering the RAT
Air Management System
o What are the 4 things that the engine/APU bleed air can provide for?
Anti Ice (Engine Only)
Water Pressurization
PACKS/ECS (APU can up to 15,000ft)
Engine Start
Where does the bleed air come from?
Engines and APU
o Takeoff ECS ON or ECS OFF differences
ECS ON = Engine providing bleed air for ECS
ECS OFF = APU providing bleed air for ECS
o Purpose and function of the Air Recirculation Fans? When will AUTO shut down?
Recycles the cabin air and will turn on automatically when one PACK comes on
Will automatically turn off if both PACKs are off and when smoke is detected in the cargo or recirculation bay
O Total flow and consistency of recirculation fans?
52% fresh air and 48% recycled
o What are the components of the pressurization system?
• 2 CPCs - Cabin Pressure Controllers. Regulators that control the cabin pressure.
• OFV - Outflow Valve. Modulates airflow and controls pressurization
• NPRV - Negative Pressure Relief Valve. Automatically opens and keeps the max differential pressure above -0.5psi
• Safety Valve - Positive Pressure Relief Valve. Automatically opens if cabin differential pressure exceeds 8.6 PSI.
Keeps the max differential pressure below 8.8psi
Spring loaded/mechanical (requires no power)
• Static Port - a heated port that sends information to the Safety Valve to keep plane within tolerances
O Where is the Ram Air Valve and what is the purpose?
Underneath on the belly of the aircraft
Provides emergency ventilation in case of PACK shutdown or smoke removal
The Ram Air Valves are automatically commanded OPEN if both PACKs are OFF below 25,000ft
Includes a check valve that only allows ram air into the cabin when ram air pressure > cabin air pressure
O What is a PACK?
Pneumatic Air Conditioning Kit that provides cabin heating, A/C, and pressurization from the same side engine. There is
a Xfeed for the PACKs bleed air if engine or pack fails however aircraft is limited to FL310
O When will the PACK come on and off in AUTO?
Will come on when engine or APU bleed air is available
Will turn off during engine start or an associated bleed duct leak is suspected (amber light on button)
O When will the XBleed come on and off in AUTO?
Will come on when bleed air is available on one side but not the other
Will turn off bleed leak is detected (unless starting an engine) or when the engine fire extinguisher handle is pulled
O What are the external air connections?
High Pressure for engine starting (Huffer Cart) and is used when APU is INOP. IS shown on ECS synoptic page
Low Pressure for cabin heating and cooling (used at most airports). IS NOT shown in cockpit
O When will Engine Bleed come on and off in AUTO?
Will come on when respective engine bleed is available
Will turn off if fire is detected in respective engine or there is a bleed duct leak or overpressure detected
O When will APU Bleed come on and off in AUTO?
Will come on when APU bleed is available
Will turn off if bleed duct leak is detected, A/I comes on, or when left engine bleed is available
o Pressurization Panel
▪ Mode Selector
• What does MAN do?
Allows the flight deck to open and close the outflow valve. Moving Down closes the outflow valve pumping more air in.
Moving Up opens outflow valve letting air flow out
• What does AUTO do?
Generates a pressurization schedule based on the departure, cruise, and destination heights set in the FMS
• What does LFE CTRL do? How do you know it is on? Is pressurization still AUTO?
If destination elevation is not in the FMS database we can manually set it; however the pressurization will still be
automatic.
Manual elevation will have a cyan M on the EICAS
• When would you use the CABIN ALT knob?
When the QRH says to manually take over the pressurization.
• Does the function of this knob rely on a position of the MODE knob?
Yes, you need to be in Manual mode.
• Does the function of the LFE knob rely on the position of the MODE knob?
Yes, you need to be in LFE mode.
• Where does the LFE altitude read out in the aircraft?
On the EICAS screen
• What happens when I press the dump button with the mode selector in AUTO? LFE CTRL? MAN?
In Auto and LFE it will shut off the re-circ fans, shut off the PACKs, and open the outflow to allow a 2000fpm climb in
cabin altitude up to 12,400.
In Manual, the re-circ and PACKs shut off only.
Crew Oxygen
▪ Where is the crew oxygen tank?
RH FWD Cargo Compartment
▪ Where is the crew oxygen pressure read out on the airplane?
On the EICAS.
• What color indications are required for dispatch?
Green for 3 crewmembers. Cyan for 2 crewmembers. Amber call Mx
▪ What settings are available to you on your oxygen mask? When does the flow start?
Opening the stowage box’s mask automatically initiates the oxygen flow
100% - pure O2. 22 minutes 41,000-10,000
Normal - diluted mix will give 98 minutes more after the emergency descent
EMER - pure O2 with positive pressure to force smoke out. Makes communication more difficult
▪ What happens to the speaker and internal mask mic when you take the mask out of the holder?
As long as mic is in Auto the speaker and mask mic will automatically activate
o Passenger Oxygen
▪ How many masks are in each PSU?
3 masks per side. 6 per row
▪ How long can each PSU provide oxygen to passengers?
12 minutes
▪ Can I manually deploy the oxygen masks?
Yes
▪ When will oxygen masks deploy automatically?
Between 14,000-14,750 ft of cabin altitude
▪ What are the three ways you know the PAX O2 masks deployed?
There is an indication on the PAX O2 panel.
The fasten seatbelt sign and no smoking sign automatically turn on
The PAX O2 generators produce a lot of heat. As dust particles burn off a small amount of smoke is normal
Flight Instruments
o How many Air Data Systems does the ERJ have?
ADS 1 : TAT 1, ADSP 1 & 2, ADA 1
ADS 2: TAT 2, ADSP 3 & 4, ADA 2
ADS 3: TAT 1, ADSP 3 & 4, ADA 3
ADS 4: ADSP 3 & 4 and IESS
ADS 5 Flight Control System: ADSP 1 & 2
▪ What are the components of the Air Data System?
Total Air Temperature (TAT), Air Data Smart Probe (ADSP), and Air Data Applications (ADA)
▪ Which pilot gets ADS1? ADS2? ADS3? ADS4?
Captain: ADS 1 -> ADS 3 -> ADS 2
FO: ADS 2 -> ADS 3 -> ADS 1
o Primary Source of Navigation for the PFDs?
CA: IRS 1
FO: IRS 2
o How does the aircraft calculate AOA?
Interface between the static pressure of the smart probes
o What is the primary navigation system of the ERJ? What sub components make up this primary system?
FMS. IRS, VOR/DME, and GPS
▪ How long does it take the IRS to align? Can this happen in flight?
Up to 17 minutes and it can align in flight using data from the GPS
o Understand automatic reversion and how to change what you see on your respective MFD.
Screen 1 & 5 will always be a PFD
Screen 3 will always be an EICAS
Airplane does not care about the MFD
o Speed Trend Tape and Altitude Trend Tape?
IAS is 10 seconds. Altitude is 6 seconds
o Acceleration Pointer vs Speed Error Tape?
Accel. Pointer if below the airplane shows slowing down if above shows speeding up
Speed Error Tape shows difference between actual airspeed and selected airspeed
o When will stick shaker happen?
3-7% above aerodynamic stall and at PLI
o What is Radar Altimeter (RA)? How do you know one failed?
Will display within 2500 AGL and shows the height above terrain. If one fails the indication will be amber on both PFDs
o When are the preview needles automatically activated?
150 miles away from destination
o What is a consideration with the standby compass?
While transmitting in VHF 1, the compass indication is not valid
Communication/Navigation System
o How many ACPs are there?
3. One for the Captain, one for the FO, and one for the Jumpseater
o What is the difference between rectangles and circles on the audio control panel (ACP)?
Square is to Talk to one person at a time
Circle is to Listen to as many people as you want
All the lights are colored GREEN
PA Circle allows you to listen to the FAs in the back
▪ How many rectangles along the top row can be illuminated at once?
One
▪ How many circles can be illuminated at once?
As many as you want
o What does the MIC button do?
In Auto, when the O2 mask is pulled and activated, the mic will work with the mask
o Understand the function and operation of the EMER, RAMP, and CAB buttons.
EMER lights up the flight attendant panel’s red and gives them a triple chime to talk to them
RAMP allows us to talk to the ground crew
CAB allows us to talk to the cabin flight attendant
o How many VHF (com) radios does the ERJ have? Can you use all three for voice?
3. Comm 3 is ACARS and can be used for voice.
o Can you change the comm frequency with the PFD?
Yes, with the CCD
o What does the ID Filter button do?
Eliminates voice on VOR and ADF audio so the identification can be heard. Used for flying an approach with using a
separate navaid.
o How many minutes of audio does the DFDR record?
Starts recording at power up and stores the last 120 minutes of audio.
o What is the primary navigation system and what feeds information to it?
FMS.
IRS 1 & 2, GPS 1 & 2, VOR/DME
o Purpose of XPDR being on Source Side?
XPDR 1 is the default and it sends altitude information from the side toward which the A/P is pointing its source arrow
to
o MFD Weather Radar Settings?
SECT - Reduces scan from 60 degrees either side of nose to 30 degrees and doubles the sweep rate from 12 to 24/min
STAB OFF - turns off the stabilization with the IRS
VAR GAIN - allows the pilot to manually select the gain
TGT - Displays a green TGT and turns amber if a cell is detected beyond the zoom range (limited to 7.5 degrees either
side of the nose and 200 miles
RCT - Increases gain as weather is detected in an attempt to see beyond the weather. If it cannot see past the cell it will
paint a cyan area on the radar shadow. Shows where the radar is attenuated.