Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION VIII
SCHOOLS DIVISION OF SAMAR
SAN SEBASTIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
San Sebastian, Samar
__________________________________________________________________________________
FIRST QUARTER EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE 10
(Earth and Space)
S. Y. 2024 – 2025
Name: _____________________Year and Section: ______________Date: _____
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and write the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. What is the outermost layer of the Earth?
A. Crust
B. Inner core
C. Mantle
2. Which of the following is NOT a result of Plate Tectonics?
A. Earthquake
B. Fault lines
C. Landslides
D. Outer core
D. Mountains
3. Which theory states that the entire crust is broken and is continuously moving?
A. Continental Drift
C. Seafloor Spreading
B. Plate Tectonics
D. Titanic Theory
4. What Japanese term means “big wave in the port” that is caused by underwater
volcanic eruption or earthquake?
A. Earthquake
B. Tidal wave
C. Tornado
D. Tsunami
5. In the Plate Tectonic Theory, the lithosphere is divided into_______________.
A. 100 major plates
B. 50 major plates and many smaller
C. Many small plates, but no large plates
D. 7 major plates and many smaller plates
6. Based on the figure above, which plate is not the Pacific Ring of Fire?
A. Cocos
B. Eurasian
C. Nasca
D. North America
7. Which ocean has the ring of volcanoes around it?
A. Artic
B. Atlantic
C. Indian
D. Pacific
8. What is the common precursor (something that happened or existed before another
event) of the natural disasters?
A. Earthquake B. Landslide
C. Tsunami
D. Volcanic eruption
9. What can be the WORST and irreversible effect of negligence or failure to prepare
for natural geologic disasters?
A. Damage to properties
C. Disease
B. Death
D. Poverty
10. What type of plate boundary occurs between the Nazca Plate and the South
American Plate?
A. Transform boundary
B. Convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
C. Convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
D. Convergent continental-continental plate boundary
11. The youngest part of the ocean floor is found at the ___________.
A. Convergent boundary
C. Hot spot
B. Divergent boundary
D. Transform fault
12. Based on the figure above, all are Convergent Plate Boundaries, EXCEPT one.
A. Antarctic – South American Plate
B. Nazca Plate – South American Plate
C. North American Plate – Pacific Plate
D. Pacific Plate – Nazca Plate
13. What landform is created when Two Continental Crusts converge?
A. Oceanic Ridge B. Mountain Ranges C. Valley D. Volcanic Island Arc
14. The boundary between two plates moving together is called a __________.
A. Convergent boundary
C. Lithosphere
B. Divergent boundary
D. Transform boundary
15. Which of the following correctly illustrates seafloor spreading?
A.
C.
B.
D.
16. Which of the following is formed in the convergence of two oceanic or oceanic and
continental plates?
A. Mountain range
C. Rift valley
B. Oceanic ridge
D. Volcanic islands arcs
17. Which of the following is a depression of an oceanic crust produced by subduction
process as it converges with another crust?
A. Fault
B. Ridge
C. Trench
D. Volcano
18. The word “duck” in “duck, cover, and hold” safety tip means that you must
A. Kneel down on both knees
C. Lie down
B. Kneel down on one knee
D. Stand straight
19. Victims of disasters are provided with their needs by the government at
A. Evacuation centers
C. Orphanages
B. Event centers
D. Tall buildings
20. Which of the following DOES NOT describe a convection process?
A. A sea breeze
B. Boiling of macaroni pasta
C. Ocean water in the surface is warmer
D. The handle of a metal pot is hot while cooking
21. What is the source of heat generated by the core to the mantle?
A. Gases
C. Molten rocks
B. Magma
D. Decayed radioactive elements
22. Which of the following has a faster movement of molecules?
A. Hot materials
C. Cold materials
B. Warm materials
D. Room temperature materials
23. What do you call to the region in which one plate moves under another?
A. Magma chamber
C. Subduction zone
B. Rift valley
D. Vent
24. Which of the following is NOT a driving force of tectonic plates?
A. Drag push
C. Ridge push
B. Mantle convection
D. Slab push
25. Which of the following has a lesser density in a convection cell?
A. Hot fluid materials
C. Warm fluid materials
B. Cold fluid materials
D. Room temperature fluid materials
26. During World War II, he discovered and proposed that the origin of the plate
would be at the mid-oceanic ridge.
A. Alfred Einstein
C. Charles Darwin
B. Alfred Wegener
D. Harry Hess
27. What type of plate boundary is occurring in the Mid-Atlantic Ridge?
A. Convergent Plate Boundary
C. Divergent Plate Boundary
B. Destructive Boundary
D. Transform Fault Boundary
28. What is the idea proposed by Alfred Wegener to explain the continental shapes
and positions?
A. Pangaea
C. Plate tectonics
B. Continental drift
D. Seafloor spreading
29. Examine the figure on the right,
which two are the best examples
of different continental positions
in the past?
A. North America – Africa
B. North America – South America
C. South America – Asia
D. South America – Africa
Pangaea from Wikimedia Commons
30. Early observers thought continents might have been joined based on what
observation?
A. Coastline
C. Magnetism.
B. Earthquakes
D. Rocks and fossils
31. Which statement does best describe the location of the majority of earthquake
epicenters relative to the location of volcanoes around the world?
A. They are far adjacent.
B. They are not necessarily relevant.
C. They are situated at the same location.
D. They are always 3 kilometers away from each other.
32. Why is it important to be aware of places prone to earthquakes?
A. To locate where to stay best.
B. To identify when to evacuate.
C. To perform necessary precautions.
D. To identify what crop must be stored.
33. How do you describe the locations of earthquake epicenters, mountain rangers,
and moving plates in the Pacific Ring of Fire? They are _____.
A. All over the place
C. Located in the same location
B. Concentrated in one area
D. Strategically plotted in clusters
34. How will you relate the distributions of mountain ranges, earthquake epicenters
and volcanoes?
A. Mountain ranges are found only in places where volcanoes are situated.
B. Mountain ranges are found only in places where earthquake epicenters
are situated.
C. Mountain ranges are found in places where volcanoes and/or earthquake
epicenters are also situated
D. Mountain ranges are found in places between where volcanoes and
earthquake epicenters are also situated.
35. Describe what happened at the convergent plate boundary?
A. New crust is created
C. Plates side past one another
B. The crust separates
D. The older crust is recycled by subduction
36. This refers to a heat transfer process that involves the movement of energy from
one place to another. Due to temperature difference, the hot fluid tends to rise as it
expands, whereas cold fluid tends to sink because it contracts.
A. Convection current
C. Plate Tectonic
B. Magma Chamber
D. Tectonic Movement
37. What do you think is the basis of scientists in dividing Earth’s lithosphere into
several plates?
A. The uneven distribution of heat in the globe.
B. A cycle of high and low tides during full moon.
C.Brightness of stars and formation of constellations in the sky.
D.The occurrence of earthquake, volcanism and mountain formation.
38. In the convergence between a continental and an oceanic plate, there is
subduction. Which of the following statements does not support this fact?
A. One plate is denser.
B. One plate overrides the other.
C. One plate carries water along with it.
D. The temperature in the mantle is higher than in the crust.
39. How do the plates move when we feel that the ground is shaking?
A. Toward each other
C. Slide past each other.
B. Away from each other
D. All of the above.
40. What should you NOT DO during an earthquake?
A. Park your car.
C. Cover your head.
B. Run to a tall tree.
D. Duck under the table.
41. The following findings support Seafloor Spreading Theory, EXCEPT
A. Sediments are thinner at the ridge.
B. Rocks are older at the mid-ocean ridge.
C. Rocks far from the mid-ocean ridge are older.
D. Rocks at the ocean floor are older than those at the continents.
42. What will happen to the ocean if subduction is faster than seafloor spreading?
A. Disappears
C. Shrinks
B. Expands
D. Widens
43. Where can we locate the most active site of seafloor spreading with more than 14
cm movement per year?
A. Atlantic Ocean
C. Indian Ocean
B. East Pacific Rise
D. Pacific Ocean
Pangaea from Wikimedia Commons
44. In the figure above, what is the age of the seafloor off of the Bahamas?
A. younger than 9.6 million years
C. 33.0 – 83.0 million years
B. 9.6 – 33.0 million years
D. 83.0 – 141.9 million year
45. Peer scientists reviewing Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift rejected his
notion because____________.
A. He lied by including false evidence.
B. His evidence was too few to make a valid conclusion.
C. He did not explain how continents move and what moves them.
D. His evidence was not clear in showing how continents were joined.
46. Which of these phrases is FALSE about lithospheric plates?
A. Vary in thickness.
B. Thickest in the mountain regions.
C. Include the crust and upper mantle.
D. Have the same thickness everywhere.
47. In a hot spot, Volcano A is on top of the mantle plume, Volcano B is 10 km farther
from A while Volcano C is the farthest. What can you infer about the ages of the
volcanoes?
A. Volcano A is older than C
C. Volcano B is the youngest
B. Volcano B is the oldest
D. Volcano B is younger than C
48. If all the inner layers of the Earth are firm solid, what could have happened to
Pangaea?
A. It remained as a supercontinent.
B. It would have become as it is today.
C. It would have slowly disappeared in the ocean.
D. It would have stretched and covered the whole world.
49. Which of the following can you infer from the continuous movement of the
lithospheric plates over the asthenosphere?
A. All the continents will cease to exist.
B. All the volcanoes in the Philippines will become inactive.
C. The continents will not be located in the same place as they are now.
D. The islands of the Philippines will become scattered all over the world.
50. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the continental crust at the subduction
zone?
A. The oceanic crust has a greater density.
B. The oceanic crust is pushed from the ridge.
C. The continental crust has a denser composition.
D. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth’s magnetic field.
Prepared by:
Checked by:
JERAMIE M. JABAGAT
Secondary School Teacher III
JEWARD A. MABAET
MT-I/Department Head
Noted:
RONILA R. GABON
School Head
Directions: Choose the letter of the best answer. Write your answer on a separate sheet.
1. The air we breathe goes through the nose, nasal passages and then through the trachea which
separates into two branches called ___________________.
A. Alveoli
B. Bronchioles
C. Bronchial tubes
D.Windpipe
2. Which of the following is an empty tube that serves as passageway of air into the lungs?
B. Alveoli
B. Bronchioles
C. Bronchial tubes
D.Trachea
3. Which structure is responsible for the movement of the chest cavity during the
breathing process?
A. Bronchi and trachea
C.Nasal cavity and pharynx
B.Larynx and pharynx
D.Diaphragm and rib muscles
4. Which is the main organ of circulation?
A. Blood
B. Capillary
C. Heart
D. Blood vessel
5.Which blood vessel carries blood from all parts of the body to the heart?
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary vein
D. Vena cava
6.What type of circulation is responsible for removing oxygen-depleted blood cells from the
heart going to the lungs to receive proper amount of oxygen?
A. Open circulation
C. Systemic circulation
B. Coronary circulation
D. Pulmonary circulation
7.Smoking is the common cause of emphysema. What happens when you have emphysema?
A.The blood in your lungs becomes oxygenated
B. The amount of oxygen in your blood increases
C. The blood pressure in your pulmonary artery decreases
D. The amount of oxygen in your bloodstream ultimately decreases
8.What disease does not usually include shortness of breath as a symptom?
A. Asthma
B. Chronic Bronchitis
C. Common colds
D. Emphysema
9.What type of activity helps strengthen our lungs, muscles, and makes our heart more
efficient?
A. Eating
B. Exercising
C. Sleeping
D. Smoking
10. What is this disease that stimulates the increased secretion of mucus due to an irritant
reaching the bronchi and bronchioles?
A.Asthma
B. Bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Pneumonia
11. Who are you going to consult if you are having a difficulty in breathing?
A. Cardiologist
B.Neurologist
C.Pulmonologist
D. Urologist
12.What occurs when the blood supply to a part of your brain is interrupted due to an abrupt
blockage of arteries?
A.Anemia
B. Heart attack
C. Heart failure
D. Stroke
13.What are the possible phenotypic outcomes of an organism who is heterozygous for tallness
(Tt) mated with a recessive (tt) individual?
A. 3 tall offspring
C. 4 dwarfs’offspring
B. 4 tall offspring
D. 2 tall,2 dwarfs’ offsprings
14.What type of inheritance is expressed by genes located either on X or Y sex
chromosomes?
A. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
B. Multiple alleles
D. Sex-linked inheritance
15.What pattern of inheritance is determined by offspring having a series of phenotypes?
C. Codominance
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Multiple alleles
D. Sex-linked inheritance
16. Which of the following represents an individual who is heterozygous for two genes?
A. Aabb
B. AAbb
C. AaBb
D. AABb
B. AAbb
17. This refers to the family tree showing the inheritance of a trait over several generations.
A. Dominant
C. Pedigree
B. Karyotype
D. Punnet square
18. Which of the following best describes a genotype with a symbol of Dd?
A. Dominant
C. Homozygous
B. Heterozygous
D. Recessive
19.Which is the correct formula in calculating population density?
A. D = population/area
B. D = population x area
C. D = number of runs/total population
D. D = number of runs x total population
20.Which pertains to organisms that no longer exist at the present time, but have existed in the
past?
A. Exotic B. Extinct
C. Endemic
D. Endangered
21.Which pertains to the process of introducing unnatural chemicals that contaminate the air,
soil, and seas?
A. Pollution
C. Eutrophication
B. Acidification
D. Neutralization
22. Which of the following causes of extinction is directly brought about by human activity?
A. Glaciation
C. Cosmic radiation
B. Overharvesting
D. Volcanic eruptions
23. Which pertains to the largest number of individuals in a species that an environment
sustains for a long period of time?
A. Biodiversity
C.Carrying capacity
B. Limiting factor
D. Population density
24.Which refers to species of organisms whose population is so low that it has a great
tendency to become extinct?
A. Endangered
C. Exotic
B. Endemic
D. Threatened
25.Which structure makes plants capable of producing their own food?
A. Chloroplast
C. Stomata
B. Mitochondria
D. Thylakoid
26.Which structure allows carbon dioxide to enter a plant system?
A.Chloroplast
C. Stomata
B.Mitochondrion
D. Thylakoid
27.Which pigment is responsible for the green color of plants?
A.Carotene
C. Mesophyll
B.Chlorophyll
D. Xanthophyll
28.Which organisms can undergo photosynthesis?
I. Phytoplanktons
II. Blue-green algae
III. Amoeba and Paramecium
A.I and II only
C. II and III only
B.I and III only
D. I, II and III
29.A farmer is experiencing a problem in growing his crops. Most of the leaves of the crops
are turning yellow. Which of the following will likely result from the yellowing of the leaves
of the crops?
A.It will increase the production of the food
B.It will decrease the production of the food.
C.The production of food can stay the same.
D.None of the above
30.Which is the primary product of light-independent reactions?
A.ATP
C. Oxygen
B.Water
D. Glucose
31.What is the correct order of blood circulation starting from the different parts of
the body, lungs and, back to the body?
A. Superior and inferior vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs,
left atrium, left ventricle, aorta, body
B. Superior and inferior vena cava, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs,
right atrium, right ventricle, aorta, body
C. Superior and inferior vena cava, left ventricle, right ventricle, lungs,
left atrium, right atrium, aorta, body
D. Superior and inferior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle, lungs,
left atrium, right ventricle, aorta, body
32. Which best defines this pair of words: Respiratory system: Circulatory system?
A. Gets the oxygen needed by the cells: Delivers the oxygen to the cells
B. Ingests food and breaks it down into usable nutrients: Excretes solid
waste products
C. Cleans dissolved waste products from the blood and excretes them:
Excretes solid waste products.
D. Moves materials between body systems, including oxygen, nutrients,
hormones, and waste products: Allows gas exchange between cells
and environment
33. How do arteries differ from veins?
A. Arteries carry blood.
B. Arteries are thin-walled and are used for gas exchange.
C. Arteries have thicker wall layers to accommodate the changes in
pressure from the heart.
D. Arteries have thinner wall layers and valves and move blood by the
action of skeletal muscle.
34.Which practice may weaken our circulatory system?
A.Having a daily exercise
C. Taking vitamins everyday
B.Staying up late at night
D.Avoiding vices like smoking
35.What are the common symptoms of Covid-19?
A.Fast heartbeat and sweating
B.Fever, dry cough, and tiredness
C.Aching sensation of neck and jaw
D.Weight loss, chest pain, and coughing up blood
36.What are the common symptoms of Covid-19?
A.Fast heartbeat and sweating
B.Fever, dry cough, and tiredness
C.Aching sensation of neck and jaw
D.Weight loss, chest pain, and coughing up blood
37.Which is NOT an example of incomplete dominance?
A.A pink flower produced from red and white flowers
B.A flower that is both red and white produced from red and white flowers
C.Curly-haired and straight-haired individuals producing wavy-haired
offspring
D.A highly spotted dog and a non-spotted dog producing puppies with a
few spots
38.A man heterozygous for blood type A marries a woman heterozygous for blood type B.
What is the chance that their first child will have type O blood?
A. 0%
C. 50%
B. 25%
D. 75%
39.If an organism has two alleles for a gene that are the same and usually masked by another
type of allele, the organism is said to be __________?
B. Heterozygous
C. Homozygous recessive
C. Generally defective
D. Homozygous dominant
40.The amount of sunlight in a forest ecosystem determines the kind and population of plants
and trees that could thrive and survive to maintain balance in the said ecosystem. Which refers
to the “amount of sunlight” as mentioned above?
A. biodiversity
C. Carrying capacity
B. limiting factor
D. Population density
41.Which is NOT a common reason for a species to go extinct?
A. Random mutation in DNA
B. Habitat loss and destruction
C. New disease is introduced to a population.
D. New predators moving into or introduced into an area.
42.Which situation illustrates the relationship between a limiting factor and population
density?
A. When birth rate is greater than death rate, population increases.
B. When the population in a given area increases, the population density also
increases.
C. Population sizes change with the number of births or when organisms move out
of an ecosystem.
D. When the population of goats and cows in a field increases rapidly, there may not
be enough food for each of them.
43.Which best describes light-independent reactions?
A.They create energy rich ATP and NADPH
B.They are the first phase of photosynthesis.
C.They use carbon dioxide to make proteins
D.They utilize the energy stored in ATP and NADPH
44.Which is TRUE about light dependent reaction?
I. Glucose is produced. Reduced NADP is oxidized.
II. ATP and NADPH are produced.
III. This occurs in the thylakoid of the chloroplast.
A.I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only D. I, II, III
45. When cells break food into chemical energy, it undergoes three major processes:
glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport. Which of these processes provide the most
number of ATP molecules?
A.Glycolysis
C. Electron transport chain
B.Krebs cycle
D. none of these
46.How does the respiratory system work with circulatory system?
A. Always work independently from one another.
B.Work together to keep blood pumping to all parts of the body.
C.Work together only when we are active, and never when we are
resting or sleeping.
D.Work together to deliver oxygen to cells and remove carbon
dioxide from the body.
47.Why do most people like to eat fast foods, rather than eating healthy foods?
A.Because they are ready to eat
B.Because they taste better than fruits and vegetables
C.Because they are less expensive than fruits and vegetables
D.Because they look more delicious than fruits and vegetables
48.Which statement is TRUE about the Punnett squares in A and B?
Diagram A
Diagram B
B
B
R
r
B
B
R
B
Rr
R
B
B
R
B
B
R
W
rr
R
W
W
R
I. In diagram A, white is dominant over black while in diagram B red is dominant
over white.
II. Diagram A shows a codominance pattern of inheritance while diagram B shows an
incomplete pattern of inheritance
III. In diagram A, the parents produce offspring with a phenotype in which both
parental traits appear together while in diagram B, the parents produce offspring
with a phenotype that is a blending of parental traits.
IV. Diagram A describes a cross among parents of different phenotypes while diagram
B describes a cross between parents of the same
A. I
C. Both II and III
B. II
D. Both II and IV
For question 49, refer to the table below.
Species composition of two fields
Number of individuals
Flower species
Gumamela
Cattleya
Yellow bell
Total
Field A
300
330
370
1000
Field B
10
50
940
1000
49. How will you compare Field A with field B in terms of species richness, total
abundance and diversity?
A. Field A and B have the same species richness, total abundance and diversity.
B. Field A and field B have the same species richness total abundance, but Field A is
more diverse than Field B.
C. Field A and field B have the same species richness, but Field A has a greater total
abundance and is more diverse than Field B.
D. Field A and Field B have the same greater total abundance, but Field A has greater
species richness and is more diverse than Field B.
For number 50, refer to the diagram below:
water plant
50. Describe your observation observation from the experimental set-up above.
A. The plant is slowly increasing in length.
B. The plant is slowly wilting in the absence of its roots.
C. From the cut ends of the plant, new leaves are growing.
D. From the cut ends of the plant, some bubbles are coming out
Prepared by:
Checked by:
Noted:
JERAMIE M. JABAGAT
SST-III
JEWARD A. MABAET
MT-I/Department Head
RONILA R. GABON
School Head
1. A gas occupies 12.3 liters at a pressure of 40.0 mmHg. What is the volume when
the pressure is increased to 60.0 mmHg at constant temperature?
A. 7.2
B. 8.2
C. 9.2
D. 10.2
2. Which of the following states that the volume occupied by a gas is inversely
proportional to the pressure if the temperature remains constant.
A. Avogadro’s Law
C. Charles’ Law
B. Boyle's Law
D. Kinetic Molecular Theory
3. A gas occupies 1.56 L at 1.00 atm. What will be the volume of this gas if the pressure
becomes 3.00 atm?
A. 0.52
B. 0.53
C. 0.54
D. 0.55
4. A gas occupies 11.2 liters at 0.860 atm. What is the pressure if the volume becomes
15.0 L?
A. 0.64
B. 0.65
C. 0.66
D. 0.67
5. The following are applications of Boyle's Law except
A. Automobile
C. Spray nets
B. Medical respirator
D. Syringe
6. According to Charles’s Law, what will happen to the temperature of a gas as the
volume increases at constant pressure?
A. Decreases
C. Remains the same
B. Increases
D. Slightly decreases
7. Which of the items below is an application of Charles’s law
A. Automobile engine
C. Medical respirator
B. Incubator
D. Syringe
8. What property of gas molecule varies directly according to the kinetic molecular
theory?
a. Pressure
C. Temperature
b. Volume
D. Volume and pressure
9. Biomolecules are organic molecules being produced by living organisms. Which
group comprises the four main biomolecules?
A. Carbohydrate, protein, nucleic acid, amino acid
B. Carbohydrate, protein, lipid, nucleic acid
C. Protein, lipid, nucleic acid, triglyceride
D. Protein, lipid, carbohydrate, nucleotide
10. Which of the following elements is not present in carbohydrates?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
11. Disaccharides are double sugars. Which one is not a disaccharide?
A. Galactose
B.Lactose
.
C.Maltose
D.Sucrose
12. Which is not true about lipids?
A. They are hydrophilic.
B. They are hydrophobic
C. Glycerol and fatty acids are its building blocks.
D. They can be dissolved away by solvents that are non-polar like ether and
benzene.
13. Which of the following groups are all classified as polysaccharide?
A. Sucrose, glucose and fructose
B. Maltose, lactose, and fructose
C. Glycogen, sucrose and maltose
D. glycogen, cellulose and starch
14. The sugar in RNA is _________________, the sugar in DNA is____________.
A. Deoxyribose, ribose
C. Ribose, phosphate
B. Ribose, deoxyribose
D. Ribose, uracil
15. Amino acids are the building blocks of which group of biomolecules?
A. Carbohydrates
C. Nucleic acids
B. Lipids
D. Proteins
16. A nucleotide structure always has three components: a five carbon sugar
molecule, a molecule of nitrogen-containing base, and a molecule of_________.
A. Carbonate
C. Phosphate
B. Nitrate
D. Sulfate
17. Which of the following determines an atom’s ability to undergo chemical reactions?
A. Innermost electrons
C. Outermost electrons
B. Neutrons
D. Protons
18. A substance which is the starting point in a chemical reaction is called a
A. Coefficient
B. Mole
C. Product
D. Reactant
19. A substance that is formed by a chemical reaction is called a
A. Coefficient
B. Mole
C. Product
D. Reactant
20. When oxygen is available, sulfur dioxide is produced from the burning of sulfur.
Which of the following word equations best represent this reaction?
A. Sulfur + oxygen → sulfur dioxide
B. Sulfur dioxide → sulfur + oxygen
C. Sulfur dioxide + oxygen → sulfur
D. Sulfur → sulfur dioxide + oxygen
21. In a chemical equation, the symbol that takes the place of the words ‘reacts with’
is a/an
A. Equal sign
B. Plus sign
C. Coefficient
D. Arrow
22. In a chemical equation, the number of molecules of a given substance is denoted
by a
A. Coefficient
C. Subscript
B. Reaction number
D. Superscript
23. The subscript(s) written after a formula in a chemical equation stands for
A. Soluble
B. Solid
C. Solution
D. Synthesis
24. What name is given to the minimum amount of energy needed by particles for
them to react when they collide?
A. Activation energy
C. Molecular energy
B. Catalytic energy
D. Threshold energy
25.Which of the following would speed up a reaction?
A. Decreasing the temperature.
B. Using lumps instead of powder.
C. Removing the inhibitor or catalyst.
D. Increasing the concentration of an acid.
26. Which of the following will increase the frequency of successful collisions?
A. Increasing the temperature
B. Decreasing the pressure
C. Decreasing the concentration.
D. Decreasing the inhibitor or catalyst.
27. Which of the following statements about catalysts is false?
A. They speed up reactions.
B. They make the reaction unbalanced.
C. They become chemically changed at the end of the reaction.
D. They provide an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.
28. Which of the following will increase the proportion of successful collisions?
A. Increasing the temperature
B. Increasing the pressure
C. Increasing the concentration
D. Decreasing the catalyst or inhibitor
29. Which of the following would give a steeper curve on a graph of volume of gas
against time?
A. Low temperature
C. Using a catalyst
B. Low concentration
D. Low surface area
30. 2.5 g of a catalyst was added to speed up a chemical reaction. How much catalyst
was there at the end of the reaction?
A. Less than 2.5 g
C. Exactly 2.5 g
B. More than 2.5 g
D. None
31. At 127°C, a certain gas occupies a volume of 40. 0mL.Assuming that pressure and
number particles were held constant, what volume will it occupy at -73°C?
A. 182.0 mL
C. 80.0 mL
B. 88.0 mL
D. 20.0 mL
32. A sample of hydrogen occupies 600 L at 327°C. If the pressure is held constant,
what volume will the gas occupy after being cooled to 27°C?
A. 200 L
C. 300 L
B. 244 L
D. 522 L
33. Referring to item no. 32, what could happen to the temperature if the volume is
decreased? It will__________.
A. Eventually decreases
C. Remain the same
B. Rapidly increases
D. Not affect the system
34. Which among the units of measurement below can be the correct unit of
temperature?
(i). Celsius degree (°C)
(iii). Fahrenheit (°F)
(ii). cubic meter (m³)
(iv). Kelvin (K)
A. (i) only
C. (i), (iii), and (iv) only
B. (i) and (ii) only
D. (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
35. What carbohydrates are best to include in your eating habit?
A. Candy and white rice
C. Fruits and vegetables
B. Sweetened yogurt
D. White pasta and sugary breakfast cereals
36.Disaccharides are double sugars. Which one is not a disaccharide?
A. Cakes
C. Dark chocolate
B. Cookies
D. Honey
37. Carbohydrates are found in a wide array of both healthy and unhealthy foods.
Which of the following foods contain greater amount of carbohydrates?
A. Apple
C. Fruits
B. Bread
D. Vegetables
38. Fresh fish and meat that are not stored in a refrigerator show signs of spoilage in
less than a day. What has caused this spoilage?
A. Oxygen in air
C. Presence of microorganisms
B. Temperature changes
D. All of the above
39. Nutritional chemists have found that burning 1 gram of fat releases twice the
amount of heat energy as burning 1 gram of starch. Based on this information, which
type of biomolecule would cause a person to gain more weight?
A. Carbohydrate
C. Proteins
B. Fat
D. Nucleic acid
40. Which of the following is the major function of carbohydrates?
1. Structural framework
2. Storage
3. Energy production
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
41. When digesting a complex carbohydrate, water is added and simple sugar is
obtained through which process?
A. Condensation
C. Hydrolysis
B. Dehydration
D. Photosynthesis
42. Which of the following statements about collisions is correct?
A. Only fast – moving particles collide with each other.
B. Reaction will occur even without collision of molecules.
C. All colliding particles have the same amount of energy.
D. Reactions can happen if colliding particles have enough energy.
43. Reactions eventually stop. What is generally the reason for this?
A. Wrong catalyst was used.
B. The catalyst has been used up.
C. The particles have run out of energy.
D. One or more of the reactants has been used up.
44. The rate of reaction increases as the temperature increases. Which of the following
statements provides the best explanation for this?
A. Higher temperature has higher activation energy.
B. At lower temperature the particles do not collide with each other.
C. Increasing the temperature increases the number of particles, so they collide
more often.
D. At higher temperatures the particles have more energy, move faster, and
collide more often
45. Which of the following is correct balanced reaction?
A. 2 C₃H₈ + 10 O
6CO₂ + 8 H₂O
B. C₃H₈ + O₂
CO₂ + H₂O
C. C₃H₈ + O₂
3CO₂ + 2 H₂O
D. C₃H₈ + 5O₂
3CO₃ + 4 H₂O
46. Last summer vacation, the Cruz family decided to go to Pagudpod, Ilocos Norte to
have a beach party. On their way to Ilocos, all of them were surprised when the tire
suddenly exploded. What is the probable explanation for the blown out tire during a
long summer drive?
A. High temperature causes a decrease in volume.
B. The amount of gases inside the tire is increased.
C. The mass of the gases inside the tire increases causing a blown up tire.
D. The volume of gases increases as the temperature increases, causing a
blown up tire.
47. Manganese dioxide is a black powder that catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen
peroxide to water and oxygen. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Manganese dioxide will cause production of more water.
B. The mass of manganese dioxide will stay the same during the reaction.
C. The catalyzed reaction will produce more oxygen than the uncatalyzed
reaction.
D. The particles in the catalyzed reaction will have more energy than in the
uncatalyzed reaction.
48. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
A. No reaction takes place.
B. Iron salt and water are produced.
C. Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
D. Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
49. On immersing an iron nail in CuSO4 solution for a few minutes, you will observeA. No reaction takes place.
B. The color of the solution fades away.
C. The color of the solution changes to green.
D. The surface of iron nails acquires a black coating.
50. Using the particle theory, which of the following correctly explains why a higher
temperature increases the rate of reaction?
A. As temperature increases, particles gain more energy and more collisions
occur.
B. As temperature increases, particles lose energy resulting in fewer successful
collisions.
C. As temperature increases, particles lose energy resulting in a greater chance
of a successful collision.
D. As temperature increases, particles gain more energy resulting in a greater
chance of a successful collision
Prepared by:
Checked by:
Noted:
JERAMIE M. JABAGAT
SST-III
JEWARD A. MABAET
MT-I/Department Head
RONILA R. GABON
School Head
THIRD QUARTER EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE 10
S. Y. 2023 – 2024
Name: _____________________Year and Section: ______________Date: _____
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds to the
correct answer.
1. What do you call the body system that contains a group of glands that releases
hormones into the body?
A. Endocrine system
C. Reproductive system
B. Nervous system
D. Skeletal system
2. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
A. Adrenal gland
C. Penis
B. Pancreas
D. Pituitary
3. What hormone is being secreted by the testes?
A. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
B. Insulin
D. Testosterone
4. Which of the following produces ova and secrete estrogen and progesterone?
A. Hypothalamus
C. Pituitary
B. Ovary
D. Uterus
5. Which hormone thickens uterine lining (endometrium) in preparation for
implantation, and inhibits FSH and LH?
A. Estrogen
C. LH
B. FSH
D. Progesterone
6. Which refers to the “period” which occurs in females if no fertilization takes place?
A. Menstruation
C. Ovulation
B. Menopause
D. Puberty
7. What is the treatment for cerebral palsy?
A. Through surgery
C. Treated with antibiotics
B. Through chemotherapy
D. Treated with anticonvulsant drugs
8. Which of the following components of negative feedback is responsible for the
response to changes?
A. Control center
C. Receptor
B. Effector
D. Stimulus
9. Which of the following internal control systems is responsible in gathering
information about the conditions inside and outside of the body?
A. Communicating system
C. Sensor
B. Control center
D. Thalamus
10. Which molecule carries a copy of the genetic information out of the nucleus?
A. amino acid mRNA
C. rRNA
B. mRNA
D. tRNA
11. What do you call the sequence of three bases in mRNA that corresponds to an
amino acid?
A. Amino acid
C. Code
B. Anticodon
D. Codon
12. What do you call the sequence of three bases in tRNA that corresponds to an
amino acid?
A. Amino acid
C. Code
B. Anticodon
D. Codon
13. Which of the following is NOT a part of protein synthesis?
A. Elongation
C. Transcription
B. Replication
D. Translation
14. In the RNA molecule, which nitrogen base is found in place of thymine?
A. Cytosine
C. Thymine
B. Guanine
D. Uracil
15. If the DNA template reads “ATA”, which of the following would be the
corresponding mRNA codon?
A. ATA
C. UAU
B. TUT
D. UCU
16. What do you call the change or error in the gene?
A. Genetic engineering
C. Mutant
B. Mutagen
D. Mutation
17. Persons with Down syndrome usually have ______ copies of chromosome 21.
A. No
C. Two
B. One
D. Three
18. If a segment of a chromosome is present several times more than normal due to
unequal crossing-over, it is called ________.
A. A deletion
C. An inversion
B. Duplication
D. A translocation
19. The Theory of Use and Disuse was formulated by________________.
A. Alfred Russel Wallace
C. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
B. Charles Darwin
D. Robert Hooke
20. Vertebrate forelimbs are most likely to be discussed in ___________________.
A. Biogeography
C. Embryology
B. Ecology
D. Comparative anatomy
21. In what era do the oldest fossils locate?
A. Mesozoic
C. Paleozoic
B. Cenozoic
D. Pre Cambrian
22. This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
A. Gene flow
C. Natural Selection
B. Genetic Drift
D. Speciation
23. Who is the proponent of the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Alfred Russel Wallace
C. Gregor Mendel
B. Charles Darwin
D. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
24. He proposed that organism evolve in response to their environment.
A. Alfred Russel Wallace
C. Gregor Mendel
B. Charles Darwin
D. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
25. The variation of living organisms who lives on a certain environment like plants,
animal, fungus, bacteria etc.
A. Biodiversity
C. Stewardship
B. Stability
D. Sustainability
26. It is the state of balance of an ecosystem where biotic and abiotic factors
maintained in a suitable condition.
A. Biodiversity
C. Stewardship
B. Stability
D. Sustainability
27.When there’s a sudden disturbance in an ecosystem and the ecosystem cope up
and bring back to its original state.
A. Biodiversity
C. Resilience
B. Resistance
D. Sustainability
28. Which best describes the carrying capacity?
A. Total natality rate
B. The total mortality rates
C. Total amount of organisms can occupy a certain area
D. Ability of the ecosystem to supply enough resources for the organisms who
lives on it.
29. What can cause a population to grow?
A. The birthrate and death rate remain the same.
B. The birthrate becomes lower than the death rate.
C. The birthrate becomes higher than the death rate.
D. The birthrate stays the same, and the death rate increases.
30. As the population reaches its carrying capacity, resources become more scarce.
Which of the following would increase with the population?
A. Available shelter
C. Competition
B. Birthrate
D. Nesting Sites
31. Which of the following is NOT a function of the progesterone and estrogen secreted
by the ovaries?
A. Regulating blood sugar levels
B. Regulating the menstrual cycle
C. Thickening the lining of the uterus
D. Developing secondary female sex characteristics
32. What is the purpose of the thyroid gland?
A. I It releases thyroxin and calcitonin.
B. It releases thyroxin and insulin to stimulate growth.
C. It releases adrenaline to prepare the body for action.
D. It releases insulin and glucagon to regulate sugar level.
33. Physiological processes are commonly moderated via two distinct feedback
mechanisms –positive and negative feedback. Which of the pairs of events and
feedback regulation is incorrect?
A. Childbirth: positive feedback.
C. Ovulation: negative feedback
B. Lactation: positive feedback.
D. Menstruation: negative feedback.
34. Menstruation is a monthly occurrence. When will there be menstruation?
A. When the egg meets the sperm.
B. When the egg reaches the uterus.
C. When the egg is not fertilized by a sperm.
D. When the egg is released from the ovary.
35. Which of the following is TRUE about central nervous system?
A. It is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
B. It is composed of cranial and spinal nerves.
C. It is composed of the brain, spinal cord, and hormones.
D. It can be classified as somatic and autonomic nervous system.
36. You felt hungry because you haven’t eaten your food for lunch trying to finish home
works. Which of the following is the best response to the given stimulus?
A. Continue work.
C. Ignore the situation.
B. Eat.
D. Shout out loud.
37. Which of the following sequences of DNA bases is complementary to the
sequence: ATC-GTG-CCC
A. TAG-CAC-GGG
C. AUG-CAC-GGG
B. TAG-TAT-GGG
D. AUG-TAT-GGG
38.Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of RNA?
A. It consists of one strand.
B. Adenine always pair with thymine.
C. It is found in the cytoplasm of the cell.
D. It has three types namely mRNA, tRNA and rRNA.
39. What will happen when the code in a gene is changed?
A. Long message may result.
C. Different message may result.
B. No message maybe formed.
D. Same message maybe formed.
40. How do paleontologist determine the age of the fossils?
A. Appearance in the rock layers.
B. Position in the sedimentary rocks.
C. Position at the bottom layer of rocks.
D. Position at the upper layer of the crust.
41. Why is it important to know the age of the fossils?
A. To determine the type of ecosystem they live.
B. To identify the food which the organisms eat.
C. To classify based on how they reproduced on Earth.
D. To determine the Era or Period the organisms existed on Earth.
42. Which of the following statements explains Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
A. Body structures develop because of mutation.
B. Body structures develop because of competition.
C. Body structures develop because they are not in use.
D. Body structures develop because they are used extensively.
43. All of the following are examples of aesthetic value of organisms EXCEPT_____.
A. Calming beauty of a natural park.
B. Enjoyment from a forested landscape.
C. Spiritual medication in Prayers Mountains.
D. Maintain the quality of natural bodies of water.
44. Which is NOT a reason why biodiversity is very important?
A. It contributes to environmental stability.
B. It develops genetically modified organisms.
C. It withstand changes that may occur in the environment.
D. It sustains through flow of energy in the food web on Earth.
45. How does carrying capacity affect the population growth of species?
A. It kills excess population of species.
B. It controls the area for species to occupy.
C. It limits the ability of the organisms to reproduce.
D. It provides all the necessary resources for species to survive.
46. How important are the DNA and RNA to all living things?
A. They are the building blocks of proteins.
B. They are necessary for cell repair and growth.
C. They contain hereditary information of living things.
D. They are molecules essential for the expression of traits and production of
proteins.
47. Which of the following statements BEST describes the importance of DNA
replication?
A. DNA replication prevents the occurrence of mutation.
B. DNA replication protects the organisms from having diseases.
C. DNA replication ensures the adaptation of organisms to its
environment.
D. DNA replication ensures that all dividing cells will have a complete set of
DNA
48. How do mutations lead to genetic variation?
A. By changing the organism's behavior.
B. By changing the organism's appearance.
B. By changing the way that the organism reproduces.
D.By producing random changes in an organism's genetic code.
49. Which of the following statements best describes the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Developed characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
B. Organisms develop necessary structures to survive in a given environment.
C. Organs that are not used may fade, while organs that are constantly utilized
may develop.
D. In nature, the organism with necessary characteristics may survive, while
those with weaker traits may not.
50.A 40m² pond has a carrying capacity of 10,000 fishes. The rainy season provided
the pond a temperature that is suitable for growth that caused an increase in the
population of fishes up to 20,000. Will the whole population of fish survive? Why? Or
Why not?
A. No, because there will be over-crowding in the pond.
B. Not all, because the temperature of water will increase.
C. Yes, because the pond has enough water to sustain life.
D. Not all, because the pond exceeds its carrying capacity.
Prepared by:
Checked by:
Noted:
JERAMIE M. JABAGAT
SST-III
JEWARD A. MABAET
MT-I/Department Head
RONILA R. GABON
School Head