Respiratory Problems of the Adult Client 1. The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which finding indicates the presence of a pneumothorax in this client? 1. A low respiratory rate 2. Diminished breath sounds 3. The presence of a barrel chest 4. A sucking sound at the site of injury Answer: 2 Rationale: This client has sustained a blunt or closed-chest injury. Basic symptoms of a closed pneumothorax are shortness of breath and chest pain. A larger pneumothorax may cause tachypnea, cyanosis, diminished breath sounds, and subcutaneous emphysema. Hyper-resonance also may occur on the affected side. A sucking sound at the site of injury would be noted with an open chest injury. 2. The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which findings would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? Select all that apply. 1. A low arterial PCo2 level 2. A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray 3. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise 4. A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray 5. Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity Answer: 2, 3 Rationale: Clinical manifestations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and at rest, oxygen desaturation with exercise, and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. Chest x-rays reveal a hyperinflated chest and a flattened diaphragm if the disease is advanced. Pulmonary function tests will demonstrate decreased vital capacity. 3. The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions for a client who has been hospitalized and treated for tuberculosis. Which instructions should the nurse include on the list? Select all that apply. 1. Activities should be resumed gradually. 2. Avoid contact with other individuals, except family members, for at least 6 months. 3. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. 4. Respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members already have been exposed. 5. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and put used tissues in plastic bags. 6. When 1 sputum culture is negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and usually can return to former employment. Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: The nurse should provide the client and family with information about tuberculosis and allay concerns about the contagious aspect of the infection. The client needs to follow the medication regimen exactly as prescribed and always have a supply of the medication on hand. Side and adverse effects of the medication and ways of minimizing them to ensure compliance should be explained. After 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone. Activities should be resumed gradually and a well-balanced diet that is rich in iron, protein, and vitamin C to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection should be consumed. Respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members already have been exposed. Instruct the client about thorough hand washing, to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and to put used tissues into plastic bags. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. When the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and can usually return to former employment. 4. The nurse is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which finding, if noted in the client, should be reported immediately to the primary health care provider? 1. Dry cough 2. Hematuria 3. Bronchospasm 4. Blood-streaked sputum Answer: 3 Rationale: If a biopsy was performed during a bronchoscopy, blood-streaked sputum is expected for several hours. Frank blood indicates hemorrhage. A dry cough may be expected. The client should be assessed for signs of complications, which would include cyanosis, dyspnea, stridor, bronchospasm, hemoptysis, hypotension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hematuria is unrelated to this procedure. 5. The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a client who has suffered a fractured rib. The nurse should expect to note which finding? 1. Slow, deep respirations 2. Rapid, deep respirations 3. Paradoxical respirations 4. Pain, especially with inspiration Answer: 4 Rationale: Rib fractures result from a blunt injury or a fall. Typical signs and symptoms include pain and tenderness localized at the fracture site that is exacerbated by inspiration and palpation, shallow respirations, splinting or guarding the chest protectively to minimize chest movement, and possible bruising at the fracture site. Paradoxical respirations are seen with flail chest. 6. A client with a chest injury has suffered flail chest. The nurse assesses the client for which most distinctive sign of flail chest? 1. Cyanosis 2. Hypotension 3. Paradoxical chest movement 4. Dyspnea, especially on exhalation Answer: 3 Rationale: Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures. This results in a “floating” section of ribs. Because this section is unattached to the rest of the bony rib cage, this segment results in paradoxical chest movement. This means that the force of inspiration pulls the fractured segment inward, while the rest of the chest expands. Similarly, during exhalation, the segment balloons outward while the rest of the chest moves inward. This is a characteristic sign of flail chest. 7. The nurse is assessing a client with multiple trauma who is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse should assess for which earliest sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome? 1. Bilateral wheezing 2. Inspiratory crackles 3. Intercostal retractions 4. Increased respiratory rate Answer: 4 Rationale: The earliest detectable sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome is an increased respiratory rate, which can begin from 1 to 96 hours after the initial insult to the body. This is followed by increasing dyspnea, air hunger, retraction of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Breath sounds may be clear or consist of fine inspiratory crackles or diffuse coarse crackles. 8. The nurse has conducted discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has been receiving medication for 2 weeks. The nurse determines that the client has understood the information if the client makes which statement? 1. “I need to continue medication therapy for 1 month.” 2. “I can’t shop at the mall for the next 6 months.” 3. “I can return to work if a sputum culture comes back negative.” 4. “I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy.” Answer: 4 Rationale: The client is continued on medication therapy for up to 12 months, depending on the situation. The client generally is considered noncontagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy. The client is instructed to wear a mask if there will be exposure to crowds until the medication is effective in preventing transmission. The client is allowed to return to work when the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative. 9. The nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with tuberculosis. The nurse should wear which items when performing this care? 1. Surgical mask and gloves 2. Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves 3. Particulate respirator and protective eyewear 4. Surgical mask, gown, and protective eyewear Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse who is in contact with a client with tuberculosis should wear an individually fitted particulate respirator. The nurse also would wear gloves as per standard precautions. The nurse wears a gown when the possibility exists that the clothing could become contaminated, such as when giving a bed bath. 10. A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess for which symptom, which is most commonly reported? 1. Hot, flushed feeling 2. Sudden chills and fever 3. Chest pain that occurs suddenly 4. Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken Answer: 3 Rationale: The most common initial symptom in pulmonary embolism is chest pain that is sudden in onset. The next most commonly reported symptom is dyspnea, which is accompanied by an increased respiratory rate. Other typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include apprehension and restlessness, tachycardia, cough, and cyanosis. 11. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)–positive has had a tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding? 1. Positive 2. Negative 3. Inconclusive 4. Need for repeat testing Answer: 1 Rationale: The client with HIV infection is considered to have positive results on tuberculin skin testing with an area of induration larger than 5 mm. The client without HIV is positive with an induration larger than 10 mm. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client. It is possible for the client infected with HIV to have false-negative readings because of the immunosuppression factor. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations. 12. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has histoplasmosis. The nurse should assess the client for which expected finding? 1. Dyspnea 2. Headache 3. Weight gain 4. Hypothermia Answer: 1 Rationale: Histoplasmosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that can occur in the client with AIDS. The infection begins as a respiratory infection and can progress to disseminated infection. Typical signs and symptoms include fever, dyspnea, cough, and weight loss. Enlargement of the client’s lymph nodes, liver, and spleen may occur as well. 13. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client indicates to report which early sign of exacerbation? 1. Fever 2. Fatigue 3. Weight loss 4. Shortness of breath Answer: 4 Rationale: Dry cough and dyspnea are typical early manifestations of pulmonary sarcoidosis. Later manifestations include night sweats, fever, weight loss, and skin nodules. 14. The nurse is taking the history of a client with occupational lung disease (silicosis). The nurse should assess whether the client wears which item during periods of exposure to silica particles? 1. Mask 2. Gown 3. Gloves 4. Eye protection Answer: 1 Rationale: Silicosis results from chronic, excessive inhalation of particles of free crystalline silica dust. The client should wear a mask to limit inhalation of this substance, which can cause restrictive lung disease after years of exposure. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not necessary. 15. The nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume? 1. Sitting up in bed 2. Side-lying in bed 3. Sitting in a recliner chair 4. Sitting up and leaning on an overbed table Answer: 4 Rationale: Positions that will assist the client with emphysema with breathing include sitting up and leaning on an overbed table, sitting up and resting the elbows on the knees, and standing and leaning against the wall. 16. The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select 1608 all that apply. 1. Dyspnea 2. Headache 3. Night sweats 4. A bloody, productive cough 5. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Tuberculosis should be considered for any clients with a persistent cough, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats, hemoptysis, shortness of breath, fever, or chills. The client’s previous exposure to tuberculosis should also be assessed and correlated with the clinical manifestations. 17. The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis? 1. Chest x-ray 2. Bronchoscopy 3. Sputum culture 4. Tuberculin skin test Answer: 3 Rationale: Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy. 18. A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin. The nurse determines that the client understands the proper administration of this medication if the client states that she or he will perform which action? 1. Take an extra dose if fever develops 2. Take the medication with meals only 3. Take the tablet with a full glass of water 4. Decrease the amount of daily fluid intake Answer: 3 Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant and should be taken with a full glass of water to decrease the viscosity of secretions. Extra doses should not be taken. The client should contact the primary health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache. Fluids are needed to decrease the viscosity of secretions. The medication does not have to be taken with meals. 19. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone intravenously to a client with an opioid overdose. Which supportive medical equipment should the nurse plan to have at the client’s bedside? 1. Nasogastric tube 2. Paracentesis tray 3. Resuscitation equipment 4. Central line insertion tray Answer: 3 Rationale: The nurse administering naloxone for suspected opioid overdose should have resuscitation equipment readily available to support naloxone therapy if it is needed. Other adjuncts that may be needed include oxygen, a mechanical ventilator, and vasopressors. 20. The nurse teaches a client about the effects of diphenhydramine, which has been prescribed as a cough suppressant. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if the client makes which statement? 1. “I will take the medication on an empty stomach.” 2. “I won’t drink alcohol while taking this medication.” 3. “I won’t do activities that require mental alertness while taking this medication.” 4. “I will use sugarless gum, candy, or oral rinses to decrease dryness in my mouth.” Answer: 1 Rationale: Diphenhydramine has several uses, including as an antihistamine, antitussive, antidyskinetic, and sedative-hypnotic. Instructions for use include taking with food or milk to decrease gastrointestinal upset and using oral rinses, sugarless gum, or hard candy to minimize dry mouth. Because the medication causes drowsiness, the client should avoid use of alcohol or central nervous system depressants, operating a car, or engaging in other activities requiring mental awareness during use. Test- 21. A cromolyn sodium inhaler is prescribed for a client with allergic asthma. The nurse provides instructions regarding the adverse effects of this medication and should tell the client that which undesirable effect is associated with this medication? 1. Insomnia 2. Constipation 3. Hypotension 4. Bronchospasm Answer: 4 Rationale: Cromolyn sodium is an inhaled nonsteroidal antiallergy agent and a mast cell stabilizer. Undesirable effects associated with inhalation therapy of cromolyn sodium are bronchospasm, cough, nasal congestion, throat irritation, and wheezing. Clients receiving this medication orally may experience pruritus, nausea, diarrhea, and myalgia. 22. Terbutaline is prescribed for a client with bronchitis. Which disorder in the client’s medical history requires caution by the nurse? 1. Osteoarthritis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Polycystic disease Answer: 3 Rationale: Terbutaline is a bronchodilator and is contraindicated in clients with hypersensitivity to sympathomimetics. It should be used with caution in clients with impaired cardiac function, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, or a history of seizures. The medication may increase blood glucose levels. 23. Zafirlukast is prescribed for a client with bronchial asthma. Which laboratory test does the nurse expect to be prescribed before the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Neutrophil count 3. Liver function tests 4. Complete blood count Answer: 3 Rationale: Zafirlukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used in the prophylaxis and long-term treatment of bronchial asthma. Zafirlukast is used with caution in clients with impaired hepatic function. Liver function laboratory tests should be performed to obtain a baseline, and the levels should be monitored during administration of the medication. It is not necessary to perform the other laboratory tests before administration of the medication. 24. A client has been taking isoniazid for 2 months. The client complains to the nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which problem? 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Peripheral neuritis 3. Small blood vessel spasm 4. Impaired peripheral circulation Answer: 2 Rationale: Isoniazid is an antitubercular medication. A common side effect of isoniazid is peripheral neuritis, manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This can be minimized with pyridoxine (vitamin B6 ) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not associated with the information in the question. 25. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid. The nurse should plan to teach the client to take which action? 1. Use alcohol in small amounts only. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. 3. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses. 4. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy. Answer: 2 Rationale: Isoniazid is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately, which include yellow skin and sclera. For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine, because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of isoniazid therapy. 26. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin. The nurse should provide which information to the client about the medication? 1. Should always be taken with food or antacids 2. Should be double-dosed if 1 dose is forgotten 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces 4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months Answer: 3 Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions and will stain soft contact lenses permanently. Rifampin should be taken exactly as directed. Doses should not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so by a primary health care provider. It is best to administer the medication on an empty stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food. Antacids, if prescribed, should be taken at least 1 hour before the medication. 27. The nurse has given a client taking ethambutol information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that they will immediately report which finding? 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Gastrointestinal side effects 3. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions 4. Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green Answer: 4 Rationale: Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client also is taught to take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin. 28. A client with tuberculosis is starting antituberculosis therapy with isoniazid. Before giving the client the first dose, the nurse should ensure that which baseline study has been completed? 1. Electrolyte levels 2. Coagulation times 3. Liver enzyme levels 4. Serum creatinine level Answer: 3 Rationale: Isoniazid therapy can cause an elevation of hepatic enzyme levels and hepatitis. Therefore, liver enzyme levels are monitored when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in the client who is older than 50 years or abuses alcohol. The laboratory tests in options 1, 2, and 4 are not necessary. 29. The nurse has a prescription to give a client salmeterol, 2 puffs, and beclomethasone dipropionate, 2 puffs, by metered-dose inhaler. The nurse should administer the medication using which procedure? 1. Beclomethasone first and then the salmeterol 2. Salmeterol first and then the beclomethasone 3. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the salmeterol 4. Alternating a single puff of each, beginning with the beclomethasone Answer: 2 Rationale: Salmeterol is an adrenergic type of bronchodilator, and beclomethasone dipropionate is a glucocorticoid. Bronchodilators are always administered before glucocorticoids when both are to be given on the same time schedule. This allows for widening of the air passages by the bronchodilator, which then makes the glucocorticoid more effective. 30. Rifabutin is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse should monitor for which side and adverse effects of rifabutin? Select all that apply. 1. Signs of hepatitis 2. Flu-like syndrome 3. Low neutrophil count 4. Vitamin B6 deficiency 5. Ocular pain or blurred vision 6. Tingling and numbness of the fingers Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5 Rationale: Rifabutin may be prescribed for a client with active MAC disease and tuberculosis. It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis. Side and adverse effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophil count), red-orange–colored body secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flu-like syndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities are associated with the use of isoniazid. 31. A client begins therapy with theophylline. The nurse plans to teach the client to limit the intake of which items while taking this medication? 1. Coffee, cola, and chocolate 2. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp 3. Melons, oranges, and pineapple 4. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers Answer: 1 Rationale: Theophylline is a methylxanthine bronchodilator. The nurse teaches the client to limit the intake of xanthine-containing foods while taking this medication. These foods include coffee, cola, and chocolate. 32. The nurse has just administered the first dose of omalizumab to a client. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse of a life-threatening effect? 1. “I have a severe headache.” 2. “My feet are quite swollen.” 3. “I am nauseated and may vomit.” 4. “My lips and tongue are swollen.” Answer: 4 Rationale: Omalizumab is an anti-inflammatory and monoclonal antibody used for long-term control of asthma. Anaphylactic reactions can occur with the administration of omalizumab. The nurse administering the medication should monitor for adverse reactions of the medication. Swelling of the lips and tongue are an indication of an anaphylaxis. The client statements in options 1, 2, and 3 are not indicative of an adverse reaction. 33. The nurse is teaching a client who is beginning antiviral therapy for influenza. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. “I must take the medication exactly as prescribed.” 2. “Once I start the medication, I will no longer be contagious.” 3. “I will not get any colds or infections while taking this medication.” 4. “This medication has minimal side effects and I can return to normal activities.” Answer: 1 Rationale: Antiviral medications for influenza must be taken exactly as prescribed. These medications do not prevent the spread of influenza, and clients are usually contagious for up to 2 days after the initiation of antiviral medications. Secondary bacterial infections may occur despite antiviral treatment. Side effects occur with these medications and may necessitate a change in activities, especially when driving or operating machinery if dizziness occurs. 34. The nurse is caring for a client receiving an albuterol/ipratropium nebulized breathing treatment. Which report from the client should the nurse note as an expected side effect of this combination medication? 1. “I feel like my heart is racing.” 2. “I feel more bloated than usual.” 3. “My eyes have been watering lately.” 4. “I haven’t had a bowel movement in 4 days.” Answer: 1 Rationale: Albuterol/ipratropium is a combination agent—one is a β2 -adrenergic agonist and the other is an anticholinergic medication, and in combination they produce an overall bronchodilation effect. Common side and adverse effects include headache, dizziness, dry mouth, tremors, nervousness, and tachycardia. Therefore, option 1 is correct. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not specifically associated with this medication.
