CHAPTER 1 – STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION OF BODY SYSTEMS
1.
2.
3.
Which of the following substances regulates muscle actions?
a.
Potassium.
b.
Calcium.
c.
Troponin.
d.
Tropomyosin.
Which of the following substances as at the neuromuscular junction to excite the muscle fibres of a motor unit?
a.
Acetylcholine.
b.
Adenosine triphosphate (‘ATP’).
c.
Creatine phosphate.
d.
Serotonin.
When baseballers are throwing, their arm rapidly stretches just before releasing the baseball. Which of the following structures detects and
responds to that stretch by reflexively increasing muscle activity?
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
a.
Golgi tendon organ.
b.
Muscle spindle.
c.
Extrafusal muscle.
d.
Pacinian corpuscle.
From which of the following does the electrical impulse of the heart normally initiate?
a.
Atrioventricular node (‘AV node’).
b.
Sinoatrial node (‘SA node’).
c.
The brain.
d.
The sympathetic nervous system.
Which of the following occurs during the QRS complex of typical ECGs?
a.
Depolarisation of the atrium and repolarisation of the ventricle.
b.
Repolarisation of the atrium and depolarisation of the ventricle.
c.
Depolarisation of the atrium, repolarisation of the atrium, and repolarisation of the ventricle.
d.
Repolarisation of the atrium, repolarisation of the ventricle, and depolarisation of the ventricle.
What is the correct sequence of blood flow through the heart and lungs beginning with blood coming into the heart from the vena cava?
a.
Vena cava à right atrium à right ventricle à pulmonary artery à lungs à pulmonary vein à left atrium à left ventricle à aorta.
b.
Vena cava à left atrium à left ventricle à pulmonary artery à lungs à pulmonary vein à right atrium à right ventricle à aorta.
c.
Vena cava à left ventricle à left atrium à pulmonary artery à lungs à pulmonary vein à right ventricle à right atrium à aorta.
d.
Vena cava à right ventricle à right atrium à pulmonary artery à lungs à pulmonary vein à left ventricle à left atrium à aorta.
Compared to venous blood leaving the working muscles, blood in the arteries and the arterioles feeding the working muscles have ________.
a.
Less oxygen and more carbon dioxide.
b.
More oxygen and less carbon dioxide.
c.
More oxygen and more carbon dioxide.
d.
The same amount of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Blood flow through the heart always moves in which direction?
a.
From the right atrium to the left atrium.
b.
From the left ventricle to the right ventricle.
c.
From the right atrium to the right ventricle.
d.
From the left ventricle to the left atrium.
1
9.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
Ligaments connect muscles to bones, whereas tendons connect bones to bones.
b.
Isotonic contractions occur when constant speed is maintained during movement.
c.
Muscle spindles sense muscle stretches and cause reflexive contraction to prevent overstretching.
10. Which of the following statements are not true with respect to sarcomeres?
a.
The H-zone consists of myosin.
b.
The I-band and H-zone shorten with muscle contraction.
c.
The A-band spans the length of the myosin and shortens with muscle contraction.
11. The thin layer of connective tissue which surrounds muscle cells is known as the __________.
a.
Endomysium.
b.
Perimysium.
c.
Epimysium.
12. Which bones make up the axial skeleton?
a.
The skull and the vertebrae.
b.
The skull, the ribcage, and the vertebrae.
c.
The skull, the ribcage, the pelvis, and the vertebrae.
13. Which layer of connective tissue surrounds muscle fascicles?
a.
Epimysium.
b.
Perimysium.
c.
Endomysium.
14. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged within the capillaries through which tissue?
a.
Bronchi.
b.
Bronchioles.
c.
Alveoli.
15. Which substance is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to regulate muscle contraction?
a.
Acetylcholine.
b.
Calcium.
c.
Troponin.
16. Blood flowing from the vena cava enters which chamber of the heart?
a.
Left atrium.
b.
Right atrium.
c.
Left ventricle.
2
CHAPTER 2 – BIOMECHANICS OF RESISTANCE EXERCISE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Which of the following is the definition of power?
a.
Mass x acceleration.
b.
Force x distance.
c.
Force x velocity.
d.
Torque x time.
The classic formula used to compare performances of Olympic weightlifters with different body weights divides the load lifted by __________.
a.
The body weight of the athlete.
b.
The body weight of the athlete squared.
c.
The lean body weight of the athlete.
d.
The body weight of the athlete to the two-thirds power.
During free weight exercises, muscle force varies with which of the following?
a.
Perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint and joint angle.
b.
Perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint and movement velocity squared.
c.
Perpendicular distance from the weight to the body joint, joint angle, and movement acceleration.
d.
Joint angle, movement acceleration, and movement velocity squared.
The vertical jump involves movement at the knees, hips, and shoulders primarily in which of the following anatomical planes?
a.
Sagittal.
b.
Perpendicular.
c.
Frontal.
d.
Transverse.
An athlete performs concentric isokinetic elbow flexion and extension exercises. Which of the following type(s) of levers occur(s) at their elbow?
a.
First-class levers only.
b.
Second-class levers only.
c.
First-class levers and third-class levers only.
d.
Second-class levers and third-class levers only.
Person A and person B are completely identical aside from the insertion of their triceps brachii tendon, which attaches 5cm from the centre of
the elbow for person A and 7cm from the centre of the elbow for person B. Which of the two will have to generate more muscle force to perform
triceps extensions against 20kg of resistance?
7.
8.
a.
Person A.
b.
Person B.
c.
Neither person A nor person B – they will generate the same amount of force.
d.
There is not enough information to decide either way.
Tony asks you how he can improve his hitting distance from the tee. Which suggestion would you offer to help him improve his driving distance?
a.
Use shorter clubs which are easier to swing.
b.
Extend your arms to near full extension as you contact the ball.
c.
Reduce the swing distance before contact.
d.
Select the pitching wedge rather than the driver.
Dipping the chin to the chest and then back up to the upright position is neck movement in which plane?
a.
Frontal plane.
b.
Sagittal plane.
c.
Transverse plane.
3
9.
Dipping the chin to the chest and then back up to the upright position is an example of which kind of movement?
a.
Adduction and abduction.
b.
Flexion and extension.
c.
Rotation.
10. The biceps curl exercise involves movement in which plane?
a.
Frontal plane.
b.
Sagittal plane.
c.
Transverse plane.
11. When a player performs a sideward soccer kick in which the ball moves in a direction perpendicular to the direction the player is facing, the
thigh and hip movement takes place in which plane?
a.
Frontal plane.
b.
Sagittal plane.
c.
Transverse plane.
12. When an athlete punts a football, the action just before contract with the ball involves which movement at the hip?
a.
Abduction.
b.
Adduction.
c.
Extension.
d.
Flexion.
13. Which of the following gives an example and definition of a first-class lever?
a.
Plantar flexion à the resistance is between the effort and the fulcrum.
b.
Elbow flexion à the fulcrum is between the effort and the resistance.
c.
Elbow extension à the fulcrum is between the effort and the load.
14. Which of the following anatomical descriptions is correct?
a.
The ankle is proximal to the gastrocnemius.
b.
The elbow is distal to the glenohumeral joint.
c.
The piriformis is superior to the lumbar spine.
15. The pull-up exercise answers to which of the following descriptions?
a.
Sagittal plane / open chain.
b.
Sagittal plane / closed chain.
c.
Frontal plane / closed chain.
16. Which of the following would have the greater mechanical advantage?
a.
Bicep muscle with a moment arm of resistance of 30cm and a moment arm of muscle of 3cm.
b.
Triceps muscle with a moment arm of resistance of 35cm and a moment arm of muscle of 3cm.
c.
The mechanical advantage is equal for both muscles.
17. The tennis serve primarily occurs in which plane of motion?
a.
Sagittal plane.
b.
Frontal plane.
c.
Transverse plane.
18. Ben can accelerate 100kg at 1m/s2 and Sean can accelerate 90kg at 2m/s2. Which athlete can produce more force?
a.
Ben.
b.
Sean.
c.
Ben and Sean can produce the same amount of force.
4
19. Sophia completes her clean pull by lifting the barbell 1.2m with 800N of force and Mia completes her clean pull by lifting the barbell 1.4m with
650N of force. Which athlete does more work?
a.
Sophia.
b.
Mia.
c.
They do the same amount of work.
20. Alexis completes her jerk by producing 400J of work against a 60kg load in 0.25-seconds. Julie completes her jerk by producing 500J of work
against a 70kg load in 0.5-seconds. Which athlete produces more power?
a.
Alexis.
b.
Julie.
c.
They produce the same amount of power.
5
CHAPTER 3 – BIOENERGETICS OF EXERCISE AND TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Which of the following substances can be metabolised anaerobically?
a.
Glycerol.
b.
Glucose.
c.
Amino acids.
d.
Free fatty acids.
Which of the following reactions is the main cause of metabolic acidosis (i.e., the decrease in intramuscular pH during high intensity exercise)?
a.
ATP à ADP + Pi + H+.
b.
Pyruvate + NADH à lactate + NAD+.
c.
ADP + creatine phosphate à ATP + creatine.
d.
Fructose-6-phosphate à fructose-1, 6-biphosphate.
Which of the following energy systems produces ATP at the fastest rate?
a.
Phosphagen.
b.
Aerobic glycolysis.
c.
Fat oxidation.
d.
Fast glycolysis.
Approximately how many net ATP molecules are produced via the oxidative energy system from the metabolism of one glucose molecule?
a.
27.
b.
34.
c.
38.
d.
41.
Which of the following energy substrates cannot be depleted during extreme exercise intensities or durations?
a.
Creatine phosphate.
b.
Glycogen.
c.
Water.
d.
Adenosine triphosphate (‘ATP’).
Robert is mostly inactive and has decided to begin walking on a treadmill four times each week for 30-minutes. He has decided to start slowly
and walk at a comfortable pace. What is the primary energy system used by Robert during his walks?
7.
8.
a.
Phosphagen.
b.
Glycolysis.
c.
Oxidative.
d.
About equal proportions of glycolysis and oxidative.
Thad competes in triathlon events. What is the primary energy system that Thad would use during an Olympic-distance triathlon?
a.
Phosphagen.
b.
Glycolysis.
c.
Oxidative.
d.
About equal proportions of glycolysis and oxidative.
Julie regularly does interval training. Her favourite workout is one where she completes eight 150m efforts with each effort lasting 25-seconds.
Julie rests for 75-seconds between each effort. What are the primary energy systems that Julie uses during this type of exercise?
a.
Phosphagen and glycolysis.
b.
Phosphagen and oxidative.
c.
Glycolysis and oxidative.
d.
All systems to about the same extent.
6
9.
Amir goes to his local gym on Mondays, Wednesdays, and Fridays. His training requires him to perform six plyometric lunges on each leg.
What is the primary energy system used during this type of exercise?
a.
Phosphagen.
b.
Oxidative.
c.
Glycolysis.
d.
All systems to about the same extent.
10. Assume that A~B is a molecule made up of two individual molecules. A~B à A + B + Energy would be an example of which type of reaction?
a.
Endergonic.
b.
Exergonic.
c.
Enzyme.
d.
Unreasonable.
11. A + B + Energy à A~B would be an example of which type of reaction?
a.
Endergonic
b.
Exergonic
c.
Enzyme
d.
Delayed.
12. The likely name for the enzyme that catalyses either of the reactions above would be ____________.
a.
AB-breaker.
b.
AB-reactor.
c.
AB-ase.
d.
Ketamine.
13. Which of the following can serve as a fuel for the phosphagen system?
a.
Creatine phosphate.
b.
Carbohydrate.
c.
Fat.
d.
Protein.
14. Which of the following can serve as a fuel for glycolysis?
a.
Creatine phosphate.
b.
Carbohydrate.
c.
Fat.
d.
Protein.
15. Which of the following can serve as a fuel for the oxidative system?
a.
Carbohydrate.
b.
Fat.
c.
Protein.
d.
Carbohydrate, protein, and fat.
16. The contribution of ATP by the anaerobic pathways when the aerobic pathways lack the required oxygen is called ____________.
a.
EPOC.
b.
Oxygen consumption.
c.
Oxygen deficit.
d.
VO2max.
7
17. The rate of oxygen consumption when the mitochondria are producing ATP at their peak capacity is called ____________.
a.
EPOC.
b.
Oxygen consumption.
c.
Oxygen deficit.
d.
VO2max.
18. The state in which oxygen consumption is higher because it is measured during the recovery from exercise is called ____________.
a.
EPOC.
b.
Oxygen consumption.
c.
Oxygen deficit.
d.
VO2max.
19. Robert has been consistently walking four times per week for 30-minutes for 12-weeks. He would like to increase the intensity of his workouts.
You suggest that Robert now perform walk-jog intervals. Which is the appropriate range of work-to-rest ratios for Robert?
a.
1:12 to 1:20.
b.
1:3 to 1:5.
c.
1:1 to 1:3.
d.
1:1 to 1:6.
20. What would the above walk-jog routine look like using the appropriate work-to-rest ratio?
a.
Walk for 5-minutes à jog for 1-minutes à repeat, for a total of 30-minutes.
b.
Walk for 8-minutes à jog for 4-minutes à repeat, for a total of 32-minutes.
c.
Walk for 1-minutes à jog for 5-minutes à repeat, for a total of 30-minutes.
d.
Walk for 4-minutes à jog for 8-minutes à repeat, for a total of 32-minutes.
21. Which is the most appropriate range of work-to-rest ratios for Julie’s workout?
a.
1:12 to 1:20.
b.
1:3 to 1:5.
c.
1:1 to 1:3.
d.
1:1 to 1:6.
22. Which of the following are the most accurate pairings of an energy system and its associated activities?
a.
Phosphagen system à >10-seconds of work in aerobic conditions.
b.
Anaerobic glycolysis à running a marathon.
c.
Phosphagen system à <10-seconds of work using 90-100% of maximum power.
23. What is the difference between pyruvate and lactate?
a.
Pyruvate results from glucose breakdown in anaerobic glycolysis. Lactate results from glucose breakdown in aerobic glycolysis.
b.
Lactate results from glucose breakdown in anaerobic glycolysis. Pyruvate results from glucose breakdown in aerobic glycolysis.
c.
The Krebs cycle creates two pyruvate molecules whereas oxidative phosphorylation creates two lactate molecules.
24. Which of the following best describes beta oxidation?
a.
The catabolic process of fatty acid breakdown.
b.
The breakdown of acetyl CoA into CO2.
c.
The breakdown of triglycerides resulting in substrate-level phosphorylation.
25. What is the primary energy substrate for athletes competing in American football?
a.
Carbohydrate.
b.
Fat.
c.
Protein.
8
26. Work-to-rest rations of 1:3 to 1:5 are most appropriate when developing which energy system?
a.
Phosphagen.
b.
Fast glycolysis.
c.
Oxidative.
27. Which of the following is not one of the factors responsible for excess post-exercise oxygen consumption?
a.
Increased post-activation excitation contraction coupling.
b.
Replenishment of oxygen in the blood and muscle.
c.
ATP/CP resynthesis.
28. An athlete reports that their urine is dark in colour and smells like ammonia. They also report unusual feelings of fatigue. These symptoms could
be an indication of which of the following?
a.
Hyponatremia from excess water intake without adequate electrolyte intake.
b.
Lactic acidosis from exceeding tolerance for anaerobic exercise.
c.
Excess reliance on protein oxidation for energy.
29. The lactate threshold of untrained athletes typically begins at 50-60% of their maximal oxygen uptake. The lactate threshold of trained aerobic
athletes typically occurs at which percentage of their maximal oxygen uptake?
a.
60-70%.
b.
70-80%.
c.
80-90%.
9
CHAPTER 4 – ENDOCRINE RESPONSES TO RESISTANCE EXERCISE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
After bouts of resistance training, acute hormonal secretions provide all of the following information to the body aside from ________.
a.
Amount of physiological stress.
b.
Metabolic demands of exercise.
c.
Type of physiological stress.
d.
Energy expended.
Which of the following hormones enhance(s) muscle tissue growth?
a.
Growth hormone and IGF-I only.
b.
Cortisol and progesterone only.
c.
Growth hormone, cortisol, and IGF-I only.
d.
Cortisol, IGF-I, and progesterone only.
Which of the following is not one of the functions of growth hormone?
a.
Increase lipolysis.
b.
Decrease collagen synthesis.
c.
Increase amino acid transport.
d.
Decrease glucose utilisation.
Which of the following hormones has the greatest influence on neural changes?
a.
Growth hormone.
b.
Testosterone.
c.
Cortisol.
d.
IGF.
What type of resistance training workout promotes the highest growth hormone increases following an exercise session?
a.
30-seconds rest, high volume, 3-sets.
b.
30-seconds rest, low volume, 1-sets.
c.
3-minutes rest, high volume, 1-sets.
d.
3-minutes rest, low volume, 3-sets.
Which hormone promotes glucose sparing by increasing lipolysis?
a.
Insulin.
b.
IGF-I.
c.
Growth hormone.
Which anabolic hormone stimulates muscle protein synthesis, increases neurotransmitter count, and has an anti-catabolic effect?
a.
Growth hormone.
b.
IGF-I.
c.
Testosterone.
Which of the following hormones are released at high heart rates during intense exercises to stimulate the fight or flight response, increase
blood flow to working muscles, and increase glycogen breakdown?
9.
a.
Cortisol.
b.
Catecholamines.
c.
Insulin.
Which of the following hormones bind to androgen receptors?
a.
Growth hormone.
b.
Thyroid hormone.
c.
Testosterone.
10
10. Which hormone is produced by and released from the liver between 8- and 24-hours following stimulation by growth hormone?
a.
Thyroid hormone.
b.
IGF-I.
c.
Follicle stimulating hormone.
11. Which series of exercises is most likely to result in the largest anabolic hormone response?
a.
Leg extension, goblet squat, walking lunge.
b.
Barbell squat, hang clean, deadlift.
c.
Overhead press, hanging leg raise, hamstring curl.
12. Training protocols which involve 3-sets with 10RM loads and 1-minute rest periods have been shown to dramatically increase which hormone?
a.
Testosterone.
b.
Growth hormone.
c.
IGF-I.
13. Which hormone plays an important catabolic role when stimulating the conversion of amino acids into carbohydrates and increases the level
of proteolytic enzymes that break down proteins and inhibit protein synthesis?
a.
Cortisol.
b.
Thyroid hormone.
c.
Estrogen.
11
CHAPTER 5 – ADAPTATIONS TO ANAEROBIC TRAINING PROGRAMS
1.
2.
Augmented neural drive to the working musculature following resistance training results from which of the following?
a.
Increased agonist muscle recruitment, muscle hypertrophy, improved firing rate, and greater synchronisation.
b.
Increased agonist muscle recruitment and greater synchronisation only.
c.
Increased agonist muscle recruitment, muscle hypertrophy, and improved firing rate.
d.
Increased agonist muscle recruitment, improved firing rate, and greater synchronisation.
Which muscle fibres are bypassed through the principle of selective recruitment o generate sufficient force in an appropriate time (<200ms)
when someone is performing a box-to-box plyometric box jump?
3.
4.
a.
Type I fibres.
b.
Type IIA fibres.
c.
Type IIB fibres.
d.
Type IIC fibres.
Which of the following performance or psychological features is not often observed in non-functional overreaching (NFOR) athlete populations?
a.
Stagnation and a decrease in performance.
b.
Hormonal disturbances.
c.
Sleep disturbances.
d.
Increased levels of fatigue.
Following prolonged periods of detraining in elite strength and power athletes, which of the following physical characteristics will likely show
the largest reduction due to the removal of an anaerobic training stimulus?
5.
a.
Total fat mass.
b.
Fast-twitch fibre cross-sectional area.
c.
Slow-twitch fibre cross-sectional area.
d.
Total type I muscle fibre content.
Various physiological adaptations occur in numerous bodily systems following periods of chronic high-intensity resistance training that improve
athletic performance in strength and power activities. When an elite athlete undergoes 12-weeks of heavy strength training, which of the
following adaptations would not be expected due to this type of anaerobic exercise?
6.
a.
Transition from type IIB to type IIA muscle fibres.
b.
Increased pennation angle in certain muscle groups.
c.
Reduced sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-tubule density.
d.
Elevated sodium-potassium ATPase activity.
Which of the following athletes might be expected to have reduced bone mineral density (‘BMD’) levels due to the force vectors and physical
demands associated with their chosen sport?
7.
8.
a.
16-year-old gymnasts with 7-year gymnastics training histories.
b.
23-year-old offensive lineman with 8-year strength training histories.
c.
33-year-old track cyclists with 350lbs or 160kgs 1RM back squat.
d.
19-year-old 800m freestyle swimmers with 1-year dryland training histories.
The increased energy demand for anaerobic activity will be provided by which energy pathways? Select all that apply.
a.
ATP-CP / Phosphagen energy system.
b.
Anaerobic glycolysis energy system.
c.
Aerobic glycolysis / Krebs cycle / oxidative phosphorylation energy stem.
Which energy pathway will accommodate for the increased ATP demand of someone doing less than 10-seconds of maximum intensity work?
a.
ATP-CP / Phosphagen energy system.
b.
Anaerobic glycolysis energy system.
c.
Aerobic glycolysis / Krebs cycle / oxidative phosphorylation energy stem.
12
9.
Which of the following are critical factors when selecting appropriate exercises to stimulate new bone formation? Select all that apply.
a.
Multiple-joint exercises.
b.
Single-joint exercises.
c.
Heavy loads.
d.
Light loads.
10. Which exercises are recommended for increasing bone strength? Select all that apply.
a.
Back squat.
b.
Power clean.
c.
Snatch.
d.
Leg curl.
11. Which of the following chronic physiological adaptations can be expected following anaerobic resistance training?
a.
Decreased mitochondrial density.
b.
Increased stroke volume.
c.
Increased left ventricle size.
12. Which of the following might cause type II muscle fibres to atrophy and also increase mitochondrial density?
a.
Detraining during the post-season.
b.
Training only maximum strength and plyometric efforts.
c.
Transitioning from the pre-season to the on-season.
13. Which type of muscle fibre transition can be expected following a progressive heavy resistance training program?
a.
Type IIa to type I.
b.
Type IIa to type IIx.
c.
Type IIx to type IIa.
14. Which of the following adaptations is expected for athletes that perform aerobic training around 65-80% of their VO2 maximum?
a.
Increased lactate threshold.
b.
Decreased lactate threshold.
c.
Increased glycogen utilisation.
15. Resistance training may cause an increase in which receptors at the neuromuscular junction?
a.
Acetyl-CoA.
b.
Adenosine triphosphate (‘ATP’).
c.
Acetylcholine.
16. Unilateral resistance training has been shown to increase electromyography activity of the opposite limb and to increase strength by 22%.
Which phenomenon accounts for these results?
a.
Bilateral facilitation.
b.
Bilateral deficit.
c.
Cross education.
17. Sprint training has been shown to increase the release of ___________, which assists in increased speed and power production by promoting
actin and myosin cross bridge formation.
a.
Creatine phosphate.
b.
Calcium.
c.
Neurogenic factors.
18. Which type of training has been shown to delay fatigue and improve muscular endurance by increasing buffering capacity by 16-38%?
a.
High intensity interval training.
b.
Threshold training.
c.
High repetition with low load resistance training.
13
CHAPTER 6 – ADAPTATIONS TO AEROBIC ENDURANCE TRAINING PROGRAMS
1.
You are coaching a 17-year-old high school cross-country runner who has been training aerobically for six months. Which of the following
adaptations will have occurred in her muscles during that time?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
a.
Increased concentration of glycolytic enzymes.
b.
Hyperplasia of type II fibres.
c.
Transformation from type I to type II fibres.
d.
Hypertrophy of type I fibres.
The amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle during each heartbeat describes the ____________.
a.
Cardiac output.
b.
Arteriovenous oxygen difference (‘a-ṽO2 difference’).
c.
Heart rate.
d.
Stroke volume.
Which of the following measures does not normally increase during an aerobic exercise session?
a.
End-diastolic volume.
b.
Cardiac contractility.
c.
Cardiac output.
d.
Diastolic blood pressure.
The mean arterial pressure is defined as the _____________.
a.
Average blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle.
b.
Average of the systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
c.
Average systolic blood pressure during exercise.
d.
Average of blood pressure and heart rate.
Primary training adaptations of elite aerobically trained athletes include which of the following?
a.
Increased maximal oxygen uptake and increased running economy only.
b.
Decreased blood lactate concentration and decreased capillary density only.
c.
Increased maximal oxygen uptake, decreased blood lactate concentration, and increased running economy only.
d.
Decreased blood lactate concentration, increased running economy, and decreased capillary density only.
What is the heart rate reserve of a 38-year-old male with a resting heart rate of 64bpm?
a.
HRR = 115.
b.
HRR = 118.
c.
HRR = 119.
What heart rate should a 22-year-old female with a resting heart rate of 55bpm maintain to work at 75% intensity? Use the Karvonen method.
a.
Target heart rate = 159.6bpm.
b.
Target heart rate = 162.2bpm.
c.
Target heart rate =163.1bpm.
Which of the following features does not adapt to aerobic training?
a.
Respiratory capacity.
b.
Stroke volume.
c.
Mitochondrial density.
Which of the following is true regarding heart rate?
a.
Maximum heart rate increases in response to aerobic training.
b.
Heart rate is not proportional to VO2 maximum.
c.
Hear rate increases linearly in response to the demand of the activity.
14
CHAPTER 7 – AGE- AND SEX-RELATED DIFFERENCES AND THEIR IMPLICATIONS
1.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of an 8-year-old boy dramatically increasing his upper body strength after following an 8-month
resistance training program?
2.
3.
4.
5.
a.
Increased number of muscle fibres.
b.
Enhanced cross-sectional area.
c.
Greater muscle density.
d.
Improved neuromuscular functioning.
The growth cartilage of children is located at each of the following sites except ______________,
a.
The diaphysis.
b.
The epiphyseal plate.
c.
The joint surface.
d.
The apophyseal insertion.
What is the name of the condition characterised by bone mineral densities greater than 2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean?
a.
Sarcopenia.
b.
Osteopenia.
c.
Osteoporosis.
d.
Scoliosis.
Which of the following must be evaluated first when designing training programs for 68-year-old competitive female tennis players?
a.
Cardiovascular fitness.
b.
Lower body strength.
c.
Balance and agility.
d.
Medical history.
Deconditioned female college athletes who participate in sports such as basketball and soccer appear to be at an increased risk of developing
injuries to which part of the body?
6.
7.
8.
a.
The back.
b.
The knee(s).
c.
The wrist(s).
d.
The neck.
Peak height velocity (pubertal growth spurt) usually occurs at about age _______ for females and age _______ for males.
a.
10 and 12.
b.
12 and 14.
c.
12 and 10.
d.
14 and 12.
Unless affected by diet and resistance exercise, peak muscle mass occurs at about age _______ for females and age _______ for males.
a.
16 to 20 and 18 to 25.
b.
18 to 25 and 16 to 20.
c.
18 to 20 and 16 to 25.
d.
16 to 25 and 18 to 20.
Early-maturing adolescents tend to exhibit which body type?
a.
Mesomorph.
b.
Endomorph.
c.
Ectomorph.
d.
Combination.
15
9.
As compared to males, the potential for force production of females per muscle cross-sectional area is _______.
a.
Lower.
b.
Equal.
c.
Higher.
d.
Dependent on the type of muscle.
10. Female college athletes who participate basketball and soccer appear to be at increased risk for developing injuries to the _______.
a.
Back.
b.
Knee.
c.
Wrist.
d.
Neck.
11. At which intensity should an untrained older adult begin performing one set of 8- to 12-repetitions of a specific exercise?
a.
45% 1RM.
b.
55% 1RM.
c.
65% 1RM.
d.
75% 1RM.
12. Which factor should be evaluated first when designing a resistance training program for a 70-year-old recreational golfer?
a.
Cardiovascular fitness.
b.
Balance and agility.
c.
Medical history.
d.
Muscular endurance.
13. Sam is a collegiate football player and has performed resistance training regularly since his junior year in high school. To get ready for the
upcoming season, Sam trained four times per week during the summer at his local gym. What is Sam’s training status?
a.
Beginner.
b.
Intermediate.
c.
Advanced.
d.
Highly advanced.
14. Eli is a freshman high school baseball player. After having completed the first 2 weeks of a 4-week preseason conditioning program, Eli believes
that he is getting stronger. This is Eli’s first training experience in a weight room and using dumbbells and barbells. What is Eli’s training status?
a.
Beginner.
b.
Intermediate.
c.
Advanced.
d.
Highly advanced.
15. Amy is a former basketball player at a local university and now serves as a basketball coach. As an avid exerciser, Amy likes to perform Olympic
lifts during one of the three days that she does resistance training each week. What is Amy’s training status?
a.
Beginner.
b.
Intermediate.
c.
Advanced.
d.
Highly advanced.
16. When are young athletes at an increased risk of injury?
a.
When they are prepubescent.
b.
When they reach their peak height velocity.
c.
When they reach the onset of sports participation.
16
17. Prepubescent children can expect which kind of response from strength training due to which factors?
a.
10-20% increase in strength primarily from muscle growth.
b.
No increase in strength but improved motor control.
c.
30-40% increase in strength primarily due to neural development.
18. How do adult men compare with adult women with respect to absolute strength?
a.
Adult women tend to have two-thirds the absolute strength of adult men.
b.
Adult women tend to have the same absolute strength of adult men.
c.
Adult women tend to have more relative strength than adult men but less absolute strength.
19. Bone mineral densities that are two standard deviations below the mean indicate which condition?
a.
Female athlete triad (‘REDs’).
b.
Osteoporosis.
c.
Osteopenia.
17
CHAPTER 8 – PSYCHOLOGY OF ATHLETIC PREPARATION AND PERFORMANCE
1.
When an Olympic weightlifter attempts their personal record and can ignore the audience to concentrate solely on the performance, which of
the following abilities are they most likely using to their advantage?
2.
3.
a.
Selective attention.
b.
Somatic anxiety.
c.
Guided discovery.
d.
Self-efficacy.
The desire of an athlete to perform at his or her potential is an example of which of the following?
a.
Motive to avoid failure.
b.
Autogenic training.
c.
Selective attention.
d.
Achievement motivation.
The coach of an American football team decides to place the name of players on the gym wall once they can squat twice their body weight.
This is an example of which of the following?
4.
5.
a.
Negative reinforcement.
b.
Positive reinforcement.
c.
Negative punishment.
d.
Positive punishment.
How does the optimal level of arousal change when the athlete has limited skill and ability to perform the chosen activity?
a.
Increases.
b.
Decreases.
c.
Stays the same.
d.
The optimal level of arousal is not related to the activity.
Which of the following is an example of segmentation with pure-part training integration with respect to coaching the push press?
a.
Practice the push press without any equipment; progress to practicing with a PVC pipe; and end with practicing with an unloaded bar.
b.
Practice the dip; progress to practicing the dip with the drive; and end with practicing the entire push press.
c.
Practice the dip, the drive, and the catch independently before practicing the entire push press.
d.
Practice the dip and the drive independently; progress to practicing the dip with the drive; practice the catch independently; and end with
practicing the entire push press.
6.
Katie plays basketball for one of the top-ranked teams. Her ability to make free throws will be important for her team to win the championship,
so she mentally rehearses the successful completion of two free throws to capture the championship every night. Which psychological skill
technique is Katie practicing?
7.
a.
Goal setting.
b.
Physical relaxation
c.
Mental imagery
d.
Systematic desensitisation.
Andrew was the best player for his high school soccer team and is now starting his freshman season. Andrew is nervous about pre-season.
To calm himself, he performs diaphragmatic breathing. Which psychological skill technique is Andrew practicing?
a.
goal setting.
b.
Physical relaxation.
c.
Mental imagery.
d.
Systematic desensitisation.
18
8.
Isaiah is the running back for his college football team. He understands the importance of getting stronger and more powerful, so he regularly
trains with the strength and conditioning coach. He knows that his improvements will help his team achieve better results and so her targets
specified monthly strength gains. Which psychological skill technique is Isaiah practicing?
9.
a.
Goal setting.
b.
Physical relaxation.
c.
Mental imagery.
d.
Systematic desensitisation.
You notice that some of your basketball athletes are repeatedly bench pressing with incorrect technique. You decide to add 50-push-ups to
the training plan to decrease this behaviour. This is an example of which of the following?
a.
Negative reinforcement.
b.
Positive punishment.
c.
Negative punishment.
10. According to the inverted-U theory, which sport is likely to display optimal performance at lower levels of arousal?
a.
Golf.
b.
Javelin.
c.
Cross country running.
11. Which theory accounts for trait anxiety when determining the optimal arousal level for performance?
a.
Drive theory.
b.
Inverted-U theory.
c.
Reversal theory.
12. Which type of motivation is most likely to enable an athlete to succeed when facing challenging goals such as winning high-pressure games?
a.
An athlete with high motivation to achieve success.
b.
An athlete with high motivation to avoid failure.
c.
An athlete with low motivation to avoid failure.
13. An athlete tells herself that she is not skilled enough to help her team. She feels anxious that her teammates will be upset with her poor
performance, and this causes her to play even worse than she normally would. After one of her teammates tells her to loosen up and have fun,
her mindset shifts towards a more positive and excited state. This is an example of which of the following?
a.
Reversal theory.
b.
Motivation to achieve success.
c.
Self-controlled practice.
14. Which of the following is an example of an athlete experiencing somatic anxiety?
a.
Having thoughts of failure before competition.
b.
Feeling sick to the stomach prior to participating in competition.
c.
Experiencing mental stress from being watching during competition.
15. How might an athlete measure their arousal?
a.
Basal metabolic rate, rate of perceived exertion, and heart rate.
b.
Blood pressure, heart rate, catecholamine levels, and self-report measures.
c.
Caffeine ingestion, heart rate, and resting metabolic rate.
16. When pole vaulters practice diaphragmatic breathing before their event, they do each of the following except ___________.
a.
Decrease vagal tone.
b.
Increase parasympathetic activity.
c.
Contract diaphragm on inhalation.
19
17. You notice one of your gymnasts using sub-optimal form during her jumps. As she is doing her next series of jumps, you yell out to her that
she needs to connect the jumps. This is an example of which type of feedback?
a.
Concurrent feedback (good for long-term learning but not for performance).
b.
Concurrent feedback (good for performance but not for long-term learning).
c.
Delayed feedback (good for long-term learning but not for performance).
18. You direct your novice weightlifter athlete to begin learning to clean by using a light PVC pipe to perform the movement. You instruct him to
perform 5-repetitions of the first pull and then 1-repetition with the transition included. You then instruct him to perform the first pull, transition,
and second pull together. This is an example of which type of training method?
a.
Simplification and repetitive part training.
b.
Simplification and observational practice.
c.
Random practice and fractionalisation.
20
CHAPTER 9 – BASIC NUTRITION FACTORS IN HEALTH
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Maintaining adequate glycogen stores _______________.
a.
Spares the use of protein for energy.
b.
Improves maximum power.
c.
Decreases endurance performance.
d.
Helps athletes gain weight.
Which of the following is the most likely contributor to fatigue and poor performance?
a.
Low protein intake.
b.
Iron deficiency.
c.
Low calcium intake.
d.
Omega-3 fatty acid deficiency.
Which of the following is recommended for lowering undesirably high levels of blood lipids?
a.
Reduce complex carbohydrate intake.
b.
Limit saturated fatty acid intake to 30% of total calories.
c.
Consume a minimum of 500mg of dietary cholesterol per day.
d.
Replace saturated fatty acids with monounsaturated or polyunsaturated fatty acids.
Which of the following protein sources does not contain all essential amino acids in appreciable quantities?
a.
Poultry.
b.
Eggs.
c.
Lentils.
d.
Beef.
You are coaching a 20-year-old female basketball athlete who is 182cm tall and weighs 59kg. Your athlete requires approx. 2,600kcal per day.
Roughly which quantity of foods in the dairy group should your athlete be consuming per day?
6.
7.
8.
a.
2-cups or 473ml.
b.
3-cups or 710ml.
c.
4-cups or 946ml.
d.
5-cups or 1,183ml.
Which foods count towards your athlete’s daily requirements for the protein foods group? Select all that apply.
a.
Cottage cheese.
b.
Egg salad.
c.
Cooked oatmeal.
d.
Sunflower seeds.
The MyPlate guidelines are based on a _____ calorie-per-day diet. Which option correctly completes this sentence?
a.
1,000kcal.
b.
1,250kcal.
c.
2,000kcal.
d.
2,500kcal .
You are coaching a 28-year-old male powerlifting athlete who is 185cm tall and weighs 111kg. Your athlete trains for 5-days per week for
roughly 2-hours per session and consumes lots of protein while avoiding carbohydrates. How much carbohydrate should this athlete consume?
a.
111g per day.
b.
557g per day.
c.
891g per day.
d.
1,114g per day.
21
9.
How much protein would you recommend this athlete consume per day?
a.
89g.
b.
111g.
c.
156g.
d.
189g.
10. Kyleah is a 25-year-old triathlete that is 167.6cm tall and weighs 61.4kg. She trains for 2-hours twice per week, and she swims, runs or cycles
for 1-hour thrice per week. She is trying to maintain her weight. How much carbohydrate would you recommend that Kyleah consume per day?
a.
184g.
b.
307g.
c.
430g.
d.
553g.
11. How much protein would you recommend for Kyleah?
a.
49g per day.
b.
61g per day.
c.
86g per day.
d.
123g per day.
12. Which percentage of calories from saturated fats would generally be considered acceptable for Kyleah to consume?
a.
Less than 10%.
b.
15%.
c.
20%.
d.
More than 25%.
13. Lupe is a collegiate soccer player who weighs 71.4kg. She trains daily for 2- to 4-hours. What is Lupe’s estimated daily caloric expenditure?
a.
3,020kcal.
b.
3,140kcal.
c.
3,570kcal.
d.
6,908kcal.
14. Trey is a collegiate tennis player who weighs 79.5kg. He practices daily for 1-hour. What is Trey’s estimated daily caloric expenditure?
a.
3,260kcal.
b.
3,690kcal.
c.
4,310kcal.
d.
5,105kcal.
15. What is the threshold for high total cholesterol?
a.
200mg/dL.
b.
220mg/dL.
c.
240mg/dL.
d.
260mg/dL.
16. HDLs are considered ‘good’ cholesterols. What is the minimum level of HDLs that provide protection against heart disease?
a.
30mg/dL.
b.
40mg/dL.
c.
50mg/dL.
d.
60mg/dL.
17. What is the threshold for the optimal level of LDLs?
a.
50mg/dL.
b.
100mg/dL.
c.
150mg/dL.
22
18. Fat intake should generally include limited amounts of which of the following types of fatty acids to protect against heart disease?
a.
Saturated.
b.
Monounsaturated.
c.
Polyunsaturated.
d.
Trans-unsaturated.
19. You are coaching a 28-year-old male powerlifting athlete who is 185cm tall and weighs 111kg. Your athlete trains for 5-days per week for
roughly 2-hours per session and consumes lots of protein while avoiding carbohydrates. What is the adequate intake of water for this athlete?
a.
2.2L per day.
b.
3.2L per day.
c.
3.7L per day.
d.
4.7L per day.
20. What is a quick, reasonably reliable way for someone to determine whether their hydration level is adequate?
a.
Measure their urine output throughout the day.
b.
Monitor their level of thirst throughout the day.
c.
Track their bodyweight before and after their workout.
d.
Observe the colour of their urine throughout the day.
21. Kyleah is a 25-year-old triathlete that is 167.6cm tall and weighs 61.4kg. She trains for 2-hours twice per week, and she swims, runs or cycles
for 1-hour thrice per week. She is trying to maintain her weight. What is Kyleah’s adequate intake (AI) of water?
a.
2.2L per day.
b.
2.7L per day.
c.
3.7L per day.
d.
4.7L per day.
22. Kyleah plans to consume 590mL of fluid per hour during her runs. Which fluid would be ideal for her to consume during her long runs?
a.
Plain water.
b.
Sport drink containing carbohydrate and electrolytes.
c.
100% fruit juice.
d.
Beverage containing 500 milligrams of caffeine per 240mL.
23. Which of the following is the best source of high-quality protein?
a.
Cheddar cheese.
b.
Peanut butter.
c.
Refried beans.
d.
Soy milk.
24. Which of the following is a high-quality source of vitamin D?
a.
Asparagus.
b.
Kale.
c.
Tuna.
d.
Walnuts.
25. Which of the following is a high-quality source of magnesium?
a.
Beef tenderloin.
b.
Black-eyed peas.
c.
Cottage cheese.
d.
Wheat bran.
23
26. Simon has a resting metabolic rate of 2,600kcal, a daily energy expenditure of 1,000kcal, and eats 3,300kcal per day. How long will it take
Simon to lose 2lbs?
a.
14-days.
b.
16-days.
c.
23-days.
27. Maeve weighs 84kg and eats 114g of protein per day. She wants to begin strength training. How should she modify her current protein intake?
a.
Increase her protein intake.
b.
Decrease her protein intake.
c.
Maintain her protein intake.
28. Marathon athletes who hydrate using only water are at risk of which condition during their race?
a.
Hyponatremia.
b.
Depletion of glycogen stores.
c.
Hyponatremia and depletion of glycogen stores.
29. Which of the following is an appropriate meal for consumption by a 65kg midfielder 4-hours before her soccer match?
a.
70g carbohydrate.
b.
140g carbohydrate and 15g protein.
c.
100g carbohydrate, 15g protein, and 10g fat.
24
CHAPTER 10 – NUTRITION STRATEGIES FOR MAXIMISING PERFORMANCE
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The primary macronutrient that is addressed in the pre-competition meal is _____________.
a.
Fat.
b.
Carbohydrate.
c.
Protein.
d.
Vitamin.
Which of the following makes the greatest contribution in total energy expenditure?
a.
Resting metabolic rate.
b.
Physical activity energy expenditure.
c.
Thermic effect of food.
d.
Resting blood sugar levels.
Which of the following is characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
a.
Normal body weight.
b.
Very low dietary fat intake.
c.
Preoccupation with food.
d.
Secretive eating.
When an eating disorder is suspected, the strength and conditioning professional should __________.
a.
Monitor the daily food intake of the athlete.
b.
Require frequent weigh-ins.
c.
Encourage further assessment by an eating disorder specialist.
d.
Provide nutritional information.
Brett would like to gain 4.5kg and will therefore need to increase his daily caloric intake and follow a resistance training program. Assuming
there are no confounding factors, approximately how many calories per day above his regular intake should Brett consume to gain the weight?
6.
a.
250kcal.
b.
500kcal.
c.
1,000kcal.
d.
1,500kcal.
Seth would like to drop 2.3kg by eating 500 fewer calories per day and following a resistance training program. Approximately how many weeks
would it take for him to reach his desired weight?
7.
8.
a.
3-weeks.
b.
5-weeks.
c.
25-weeks.
d.
35-weeks.
Which of the following is the best recommendation for aerobic endurance athletes during prolonged activity in a hot environment?
a.
Water.
b.
Orange juice.
c.
Milk.
d.
Sports drink.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding fluid replacement during activity?
a.
Athletes should drink only water, not commercial sport beverages.
b.
Athletes should start drinking before they feel thirsty.
c.
Athletes should drink once an hour whether they feel thirsty or not.
d.
Fluid replacement is not necessary if the athlete has had sufficient pre-exercise hydration.
25
9.
For every 0.5kg of body weight lost through sweating, the athlete should consume at least how much fluid?
a.
0.5L.
b.
0.9L.
c.
1.4L.
d.
1.9L.
10. Which statement about minimizing gastrointestinal issues during competition is true?
a.
Sugar alcohols such as xylitol and sorbitol should be consumed 1 hour prior to competition.
b.
High-fibre foods increase the rate of digestion.
c.
Smaller amounts of food shall be consumed as the competition start time gets closer and closer.
d.
A new food shall be tried during competition only if it is palatable to the athlete.
11. A 50kg marathon runner chooses to consume carbohydrates during her performance. To improve the rate of carbohydrate utilization by the
body, she should consume multiple types of carbohydrate instead of an isocaloric amount of just one sugar.
a.
True.
b.
False.
12. How many grams of high-quality protein should an athlete consume after a resistance training workout to maximally stimulate protein synthesis?
a.
5g.
b.
10g.
c.
15g.
d.
20g.
13. Which of the following best explains the need for increased protein intake by athletes?
a.
Decreased protein oxidisation during aerobic exercise.
b.
Increased need for tissue repair.
c.
Restriction of calories to lose weight.
d.
The quality of protein consumed.
14. What amount of fluid loss as a percentage of bodyweight indicates that an athlete may not be adequately replacing fluids lost through sweat?
a.
2%.
b.
5%.
c.
8%.
15. Nathan is a 148lb wrestling athlete with a daily energy expenditure of 3,100kcal. He wants to move up to the 165lb weight class by gaining
approximately 1lb per week. How many weeks will it take Nathan to reach his desired weight class?
a.
5-weeks.
b.
12-weeks.
c.
17-weeks.
16. Adaline wishes to lose some body fat while maintaining as much muscle mass and strength as possible. What would be the minimum amount
of protein you would recommend Adaline to consume during her weight loss program?
a.
1.0g per pound of body weight.
b.
1.4g per kilogram of bodyweight.
c.
1.8g per kilogram of bodyweight.
17. You notice one of your athletes is lethargic and fatigue when she arrives for her competition. You ask her if she is feeling okay and she tells
you that she has been voluntarily dehydrating herself so that she could make her weight class for the competition. What should you immediately
do to assist your athlete?
a.
Allow her to compete as she normally would.
b.
Assist your athlete with rehydration and recommend a medical referral.
c.
Tell your athlete to go home.
26
CHAPTER 11 – PERFORMANCE ENHANCING SUBSTANCES AND METHODS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Which of the following dietary supplements are considered a stimulant?
a.
Creatine and caffeine.
b.
Caffeine and citrus aurantium.
c.
HMB and citrus aurantium.
d.
Creatine and HMB.
Which of the following is not part of caffeine’s role in improving athletic performance?
a.
Increased power production.
b.
Decreased glycogen depletion.
c.
Increased fat oxidation.
d.
Decreased urine production.
Which of the following is the best reason for aerobic endurance athletes to avoid erythropoietin use?
a.
Haematocrit and haemoglobin levels may decrease.
b.
Red blood cell production may increase unpredictably.
c.
Resistance to infectious disease may be impaired.
d.
The ability of the blood to carry oxygen may be reduced.
Creatine supplementation improves each of the following variables except:
a.
Lean body mass.
b.
Maximal strength.
c.
Endurance performance.
d.
Power.
Which of the following performance-enhancing substances is most likely to increase lean body mass?
a.
Anabolic steroids.
b.
Arginine.
c.
Ephedrine.
d.
β-alanine.
What is another term for performance enhancers?
a.
Anabolic steroids.
b.
Dietary supplements.
c.
Drugs.
d.
Ergogenic substances.
Acromegaly is a potential side effect of which substance?
a.
Anabolic steroids.
b.
Creatine monohydrate.
c.
Erythropoietin.
d.
Human growth hormone.
Although it may lead to gains in muscle mass in men, which substance is associated with the side effect gynecomastia?
a.
Anabolic steroids.
b.
Creatine monohydrate.
c.
Erythropoietin.
d.
Human growth hormone.
27
9.
Increasing haematocrit and oxygen-carrying capacity is the primary effect of which substance?
a.
Anabolic steroids.
b.
Erythropoietin.
c.
Human growth hormone.
d.
Creatine monohydrate.
10. Which dietary supplement has a great deal of research supporting its effectiveness as a performance enhancer?
a.
Creatine monohydrate.
b.
Human growth hormone.
c.
L-carnitine.
d.
Vitamin C.
11. Which products may benefit athletes during exercise in high heat and humidity lasting more than 2-hours? Select all that apply.
a.
Beverages that contain 6% to 8% carbohydrate plus sodium and potassium.
b.
Beverages that contain 9% to 12% carbohydrate plus sodium and potassium.
c.
Water plus carbohydrate gels or gummies.
d.
Protein plus carbohydrate gels or gummies.
12. A sport bar that includes 15 grams of protein is probably appropriate for which situations? Select all that apply.
a.
As a pre-exercise snack consumed 4 or more hours before exercise.
b.
As a during-exercise snack for exercise lasting longer than 2 hours.
c.
As a snack for immediate postexercise recovery.
d.
As part of a meal consumed several hours after exhaustive exercise.
13. An energy bar has 240-calories and contains 12-grams of protein. What is the percentage of calories from protein in this bar?
a.
5%.
b.
10%.
c.
20%.
d.
25%.
14. An energy bar has 240-calories and contains 35-grams of carbohydrate. What is the percentage of calories from carbohydrate in this bar?
a.
32%.
b.
48%.
c.
58%.
d.
60%.
15. Mateen is 20-years of age, 190-centimeters tall, weight 64-kilograms and plays college basketball. He wants to improve his stamina for better
speed and lose 4.5-kilograms mostly via body fat. An energy bar that contains 300-calories, 8-grams of protein, 60-grams of carbohydrate,
and 3-grams of fat would be ideal for Mateen to consume at what time in his exercise regimen?
a.
About 2-hours before exercise.
b.
During exercise.
c.
Post-exercise recovery.
d.
None of the above.
16. Mateen says that he is tired of having just protein shakes after workouts. He wants to know what else he can eat that has different flavours and
the right amount of protein and carbohydrate to help him prepare for his twice daily workouts. Which meal would you recommend for Mateen?
a.
Scrambled eggs with vegetables, toast, and low-fat milk.
b.
Lean ground beef burger with hummus, vegetables, and yogurt.
c.
Baked codfish with black bean and corn salsa salad.
d.
All of the above.
28
17. By the third week of her summer training, Rica is getting tired of consuming sport drinks during practice. What alternatives would you suggest
so that she can meet her training needs? Select all that apply.
a.
Try different flavours or brands of sport drink.
b.
Try plain, cool water in combination with a sport gel or chew.
c.
Try a meal replacement beverage halfway through the workout.
d.
Eat a high-calorie energy bar during practice and wash it down with plain water.
18. Over the previous 10-weeks, Rica’s body fat has decreased by 2%. However, she feels tired all day after practice, and you’ve noticed that she
is dragging into morning practices and looks exhausted. What recommendations would you suggest to Rica? Select all that apply.
a.
Take a week away from practice to rest.
b.
Consume a recovery shake that has a lot of carbohydrate and adequate protein immediately after each practice.
c.
Try half of a meal replacement beverage as soon as you get up in the morning.
d.
Consume 3 cups (710 ml) of caffeinated coffee before each practice.
19. Bryce is 22-years of age, 177-centimeters tall, weighs 102-kilograms, and is preparing for a bodybuilding competition scheduled in 4-months.
His training program is excellent, but he has been unable to gain muscle mass quickly enough, so he is considering taking either a whey protein
supplement with 45-grams of protein, 30-grams of carbohydrate, and 300-total calories; or a mass gainer with 25-grams of protein, 70-grams
of carbohydrate, 7-grams of fat, and 440-total calories. What should you do to help him decide which product to choose?
a.
Compare his energy expenditure to his caloric intake.
b.
Determine his protein needs based on grams per kilogram of body weight and compare that to his intake of dietary protein.
c.
Confirm with Bryce that he will be able to consume the additional calories and protein he needs to gain lean tissue.
d.
all of these.
20. Bryce has discovered the following four statements of ‘fact’. Which statement would you advise that Bryce take most seriously?
a.
Protein supplements and weight gainers are completely safe.
b.
Supplements that are macronutrient based are safer than those that are not.
c.
If a product works well and is commercially available, using it safely should be a minor concern.
d.
Protein supplements and weight gainers could contain ingredients that are on a list of unsafe or banned substances.
21. Which of the following dietary supplements have been shown to effectively improve the performance of endurance athletes?
a.
Caffeine and β-alanine.
b.
Caffeine and creatine.
c.
β-alanine and erythropoietin.
22. Which of the following substances might blunt the heart rate response and should not be paired with heart rate intensity targets?
a.
Caffeine.
b.
Insulin.
c.
Beta blockers.
23. Which of the following dietary supplements is legal for consumption by athletes?
a.
Epinephrine.
b.
Ephedrine.
c.
Hydroxymethylbutyrate (‘HMB’).
24. Which of the following substances is not involved in the muscle buffering process?
a.
Sodium bicarbonate.
b.
L-Carnitine.
c.
Sodium citrate.
29
CHAPTER 12 – PRINCIPLES OF TEST SELECTION AND ADMINISTRATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
You want to know which of your basketballers has the most muscular power. Which of the following is the most valid test for muscular power?
a.
Vertical jump.
b.
1RM Bench press.
c.
5RM Squat.
d.
100-meter sprint.
When measuring maximal strength for soccer players, which of the following might adversely affect the test-retest reliability of the results?
a.
Using multiple testers and an athlete’s inexperience with the tested exercise.
b.
Retesting at a different time of day and using an established testing protocol.
c.
Using multiple testers, retesting at a different time of day and an athlete’s inexperience with the tested exercise.
d.
Retesting at a different time of day, an athlete’s inexperience with the tested exercise, and using an established testing protocol.
Each of the following procedures should be followed when testing the cardiovascular fitness of an athlete in the heat except:
a.
Performing the test in an indoor facility.
b.
Using salt tablets to retain water.
c.
Scheduling the test in the morning.
d.
Drinking fluids during the test.
The bench press, vertical jump, and 10-meter sprint are the most valid tests for which of the following NFL positions?
a.
Quarterback.
b.
Defensive back.
c.
Wide receiver.
d.
Defensive lineman.
Which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results?
a.
1RM power clean, T-test, 2.4-kilometer run, 1RM bench press.
b.
T-test, 1RM power clean, 1RM bench press, 2.4-kilometer run.
c.
2.4-kilometer run, 1RM bench press, T-test, 1RM power clean.
d.
1RM bench press, 1RM power clean, T-test, 2.4km run.
The body mass index does estimates rather than measures body fatness. What type of validity does the bod mass index lack?
a.
Concurrent validity.
b.
Content validity.
c.
Convergent validity.
d.
Discriminant validity.
You compare skinfold tests with hydrostatic weighing for their accuracy at estimating body density. Which type of validity are you checking?
a.
Discriminant validity.
b.
Convergent validity.
c.
Face validity.
d.
Predictive validity.
You are required to remove some tests from your testing battery due to time restraints. You suspect that some of the current tests are redundant
because they show the same results as other tests. Which type of validity will you consider to decide which tests to remove from the battery?
a.
Convergent validity.
b.
Discriminant validity.
c.
Predictive validity.
d.
Concurrent validity.
30
9.
You find that one test designed to measure muscular strength and another designed to measure muscular endurance are poorly correlated.
This would be a good sign if you were evaluating which type of test validity?
a.
Discriminant validity.
b.
Face validity.
c.
Content validity.
d.
Convergent validity.
10. You conduct an agility test with your freshman soccer team. Athletes who have performed well on this test previously went on to become some
of your best midfielders. What type of validity does the agility test appear to demonstrate?
a.
Predictive validity.
b.
Content validity.
c.
Convergent validity.
d.
Face validity.
11. At summer camp, you run athletes through a series of fitness tests. One athlete tells you that his school coach measured his triceps skinfold
last week and got a measure that was 5-millimetres lower than the one you recorded. Which of the following is likely affecting the results?
a.
Intrasubject variability.
b.
Intrarater variability.
c.
Interrater variability.
d.
Test-retest reliability.
12. Allison is a 20-year-old collegiate soccer goalkeeper. Many shots go over her head when she is defending the goal, so you want to test her
ability to jump and block the shots. This maximum output movement primarily involves which of the following athletic parameters?
a.
Agility.
b.
Anaerobic capacity.
c.
Muscular power.
d.
Speed.
13. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate for testing the muscular power required by soccer goalkeepers?
a.
1RM back squat.
b.
1RM bench press.
c.
Margaria-Kalamen test.
d.
Vertical jump.
14. Which instruction should you give to an athlete before they start the vertical jump test?
a.
“Stand facing the wall, about 6 inches (15 cm) from it.”
b.
“Stand with your dominant shoulder about 15cm from the wall.”
c.
“Stand one large step away from the wall.”
d.
“Stand on your dominant leg only.”
15. How should athletes perform their maximum vertical jump?
a.
Take one large step forward, bend down (hip and knee flexion), and swing her arms back before jumping as high as possible.
b.
Jump from a fully standing position because no countermovement is allowed in this test.
c.
Perform a two- or three-step approach before jumping, whichever allows her to jump the highest.
d.
From the standing position, bend down (hip and knee flexion) and swing her arms back before jumping as high as possible.
16. Michael’s training goal is to increase cardiorespiratory endurance. Which test will best assess his current level?
a.
15RM back squat.
b.
Margaria-Kalamen test.
c.
300-yard (274 m) shuttle.
d.
1.5-mile (2.4 km) run.
31
17. Which instruction should you give to Michael to help him prepare for the 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run test?
a.
“Stretch out.”
b.
“Warm up and stretch.”
c.
“Warm up and take two practice runs.”
d.
“Perform a lower-body resistance training exercise to warm up.”
18. Another athletic parameter that is pertinent to a cross country runner is body composition. If you choose a three-site skinfold measurement
testing protocol for Michael, which anatomical sites should you typically include? Select all that apply.
a.
Abdomen.
b.
Chest.
c.
Suprailium.
d.
Thigh.
19. Where should you mark the skin before measuring Michael’s abdominal skinfold?
a.
2.5cm to the right of the umbilicus.
b.
1cm to the right of the umbilicus.
c.
2.5cm to the left of the umbilicus.
d.
1cm to the left of the umbilicus.
20. The first skinfold trial resulted in a measurement of 7mm whereas the second gave a measurement of 10mm. What should you do?
a.
Average the two measurements to the nearest 0.5mm.
b.
Take on additional measurement and average the three measurements to the nearest 0.5mm.
c.
Take one or more additional measurements until two of the measurements are within 10% of one another, then average those two
measurements to the nearest 0.5mm.
21. Which of the following administrative steps should you take before the day of the testing? Select all that apply.
a.
Evaluate the accuracy and reliability of the testers.
b.
Prepare all the scorers to conduct specific tests.
c.
Tell your least athletic players to stay home during training while the tests are being administered.
d.
Create scoring forms that have room on them for all the tests.
22. Which of these recommendations should you follow when conducting aerobic endurance tests in hot environments? Select all that apply.
a.
Check the heat and humidity index before testing.
b.
Allow athletes coming from cool climates to adjust to the heat and humidity before they participate in testing.
c.
Athletes should avoid drinking fluids 1 hour before the test to avoid stomach cramping.
d.
Have the athletes wear light-coloured, loose-fitting clothes that are breathable.
23. You should sequence test batteries such that the efforts given on one test has minimal effect on the outcomes of subsequent tests. Which of
the following sequences complies with this principle?
a.
(1) 1RM back squat (2) 40-yard sprint (3) sit-and-reach (4) partial curl-up (5) T-Test.
b.
(1) Sit-and reach (2) T-Test (3) 1RM back squat (4) 40-yard sprint (5) partial curl-up.
c.
(1) T-Test (2) 1RM back squat (3) 40-yard sprint (4) 1.5-mile run (5) partial curl-up.
d.
(1) 40-yard sprint (2) T-Test (3) sit-and-reach (4) 1RM back squat (5) 1.5-mile run.
24. Your college soccer athlete scores the following at the start of pre-season: bodyweight – 208lbs; 1RM bench press – 240lbs; 1RM back squat
– 310lbs; 1RM power clean – 200lbs; pro agility test – 4.6s; vertical jump test – 22’’; 300-yard shuttle run – 55s. What do they need to improve?
a.
Anaerobic capacity.
b.
Agility.
c.
Power.
32
25. Which of the following is not recommended prior to testing?
a.
Stretching before flexibility testing.
b.
Practicing the test at sub-maximal intensities prior to testing.
c.
Ramp protocol sprinting 40 meters 80%, 90%, 100%.
26. Your female college basketball guard scores the following: bodyweight – 135 lbs; body fat – 22%; 1RM bench press – 130lbs; 1RM back squat
– 135lbs; vertical Jump test – 13’’. What do they need to improve?
a.
Body composition.
b.
Lower body strength.
c.
Power.
27. Which of the following tests should not be paired within the same testing session?
a.
Vertical jump and power clean.
b.
300-yard shuttle and 1.5-mile run.
c.
Pro agility and 40-yard sprint.
28. Your female collegiate field hockey athlete scores the following: bodyweight – 110 lbs; 1RM bench press – 90 lbs; 1RM back squat – 130 lbs;
VO2 max – 45ml/kg/min; vertical jump test – 14.25’’; 5/10/5 test – 5.1s. Which exercise should be a priority in her preseason training program?
a.
Bench press.
b.
Lateral change of direction.
c.
Power clean.
29. Which of the following correctly describes the technique for the pro agility test?
a.
Shuffle 5-yards to the left, 10-yards to the right, and 5-yards to the left, touching each line with hand or foot.
b.
Straddle the start line. Turn and sprint 5-yards to the right, 10-yards to the left, and 5-yards to the right, touching each line with your hand.
c.
Straddle the start line. Turn and sprint 5-yards to the left, 10-yards to the right, and 5-yards to the left, touching each line with your hand.
33
CHAPTER 13 – ADMINISTRATION, SCORING, AND INTERPRETATION OF SELECTED TESTS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Anaerobic capacity is quantified as the maximal power output achieved during activity lasting:
a.
Less than 10-seconds.
b.
30- to 90-seconds.
c.
2- to 3-minutes.
d.
Longer than 5-minutes.
Which of the following is not used to measure maximum muscular power?
a.
Margaria-Kalamen test.
b.
Vertical jump.
c.
40-yeard sprint.
d.
1RM Power clean.
The sit-and-reach test measures flexibility of which of these muscle groups or body areas?
a.
Hamstrings and lumbar spine.
b.
Erector spinae and hip flexors.
c.
Hamstrings, erector spinae, and lumbar spine.
d.
Erector spinae, lumbar spine, and hip flexors.
Which of the following is a reason to disqualify T-Test results?
a.
Touching the base of cone D.
b.
Shuffling from cone C to cone D.
c.
Crossing the feet from cone B to cone C.
d.
Running from cone A to cone B.
When compiling results from the volleyball team’s vertical jump testing, you notice that most scores are similar, but there are three scores that
are much higher than the rest. Which of the following measures of central tendency is most appropriate for this group?
6.
7.
8.
a.
Mean.
b.
Median.
c.
Mode.
d.
Variance.
What equipment is needed to perform the vertical jump test without using a VERTEC or similar device? Select all that apply.
a.
Measuring tape.
b.
Two cones.
c.
Smooth wall.
d.
Chalk.
What equipment is needed to conduct the T-test? Select all that apply.
a.
Adhesive tape (to mark the path between the cones).
b.
Four cones.
c.
Tape measure (to determine the space between the cones).
d.
Stopwatch.
What equipment is needed to conduct the partial curl-up test? Select all that apply.
a.
Adhesive tape.
b.
Metronome.
c.
Stopwatch.
d.
Ruler.
34
9.
What equipment is needed to perform the YMCA bench press test? Select all that apply.
a.
A 15kg barbell.
b.
A 35kg barbell.
c.
Flat bench with upright racks.
d.
Metronome.
10. How many people performing what roles are required to administer the T-test?
a.
One person who tests and records.
b.
One person who tests and one person who records.
c.
One person who tests and records and one person who spots.
d.
One person who tests, one person who records, and one person who spots.
11. How many people performing what roles are required to administer Michael’s partial curl-up test?
a.
One person who tests and records.
b.
One person who tests and one person who records.
c.
One person who tests and records and one person who spots.
d.
One person who tests, one person who records, and one person who spots.
12. Allison is 1.78-centimeters tall and weighs 60-kilograms. What is her body mass index?
a.
18.0.
b.
18.9.
c.
33.7.
d.
41.6.
13. Based on Allison’s body mass index, what is her classification for the risk of cardiovascular disease?
a.
Normal.
b.
Overweight.
c.
Obesity class I.
d.
Obesity class II.
14. Michael is 183-centimeters tall and weighs 81.8-kilograms. What is his body mass index?
a.
12.3.
b.
22.9.
c.
24.5.
d.
25.4.
15. Based on Michael’s body mass index, what is his classification for the risk of cardiovascular disease?
a.
Underweight.
b.
Normal.
c.
Overweight.
d.
Obesity class I.
16. Allison jumped 56-centimeters in the vertical jump test. For her category, college soccer women, what is her performance classification?
a.
Above average.
b.
Average.
c.
Below average.
d.
Well below average.
17. Allison completed the T-test in 11.1 seconds. For her category, college soccer women, what is her performance classification?
a.
Well above average.
b.
Above average.
c.
Average.
d.
Below average.
35
18. Michael completed the 2.4-kilometer run in 7-minutes and 28-seconds. What is his estimated VO2max?
a.
41.7 ml/kg/min.
b.
45.6 ml/kg/min.
c.
51.1 ml/kg/min.
d.
>60.5 ml/kg/min.
19. Assume that Michael has an estimated VO2max greater than 60.5ml/kg/min but less than 61.5ml/kg/min. What is his aerobic fitness category?
a.
Extremely high.
b.
Very high.
c.
High.
d.
Average.
20. Your female high school basketball player scores the following: bodyweight – 120lbs; VO2 max – 47ml/kg/min; vertical jump test – 11’’; T-test
– 10.4s. What does she need to improve?
a.
Power.
b.
Agility.
c.
Endurance.
21. The underwater weighing technique for assessing body composition tends to have results that are consistent with the DEXA scan. The handheld
Bioelectric impedance analysis (‘BIA’) device results are inconsistent with DEXA scan results. This is an example of high and low ___________.
a.
Content validity.
b.
Concurrent validity.
c.
Predictive validity.
22. What would be an appropriate order to administer the following tests?
a.
(1) Pro agility test (2) 40-yard dash test (3) 1RM back squat test.
b.
(1) 40-yard dash test (2) Pro agility test (3) 1RM back squat test.
c.
(1) Pro agility test (2) 1RM back squat test (3) 40-yard dash test.
23. Which of the following tests is most appropriate for a volleyball athlete?
a.
40-yard dash test.
b.
300-yard shuttle run test.
c.
12-minute run test.
24. Which of the following accurately describes the correct procedure for administering the vertical jump test?
a.
No countermovement and a 2- to 3-second hold with knee joint angled to 110o.
b.
Best of three trials with a countermovement.
c.
Average of three trials with a countermovement.
25. Which of the following tests measures strength?
a.
Push-up test.
b.
1RM back squat test.
c.
Both the push-up test and the 1RM back squat test.
26. Which of the following would be an error during the T-Test?
a.
After sprinting forward 10-yards, the athlete turns and sprints to 5-yards.
b.
The athlete backpedals the final 10-yards of the test.
c.
The athlete remains facing forward during the entire test.
27. Which of the following 300-yard shuttle times indicates a need for improvement?
a.
Female volleyball athlete @ 77-seconds.
b.
Male basketball athlete @ 63-seconds.
c.
Male cricket athlete @ 68-seconds.
36
28. An assistant strength coach asks the athletic director to coordinate access to a DEXA machine for his athletes. He notes that his current method
for body fat testing has low __________ validity. Although skinfold measurements are less costly, the results of skinfold testing do not closely
align with the results given by the DEXA machine. Which of the following correctly fills in the blank space?
a.
Construct validity.
b.
Predictive validity.
c.
Convergent validity.
29. You want to predict how well your soccer athletes will be able to follow plays at the end of their game. Which of the following tests has high
predictive validity for soccer player performance in the second half of a match?
a.
Yo-yo intermittent recovery test.
b.
300-yard shuttle run.
c.
5-0-5 agility test.
37
CHAPTER 14 – WARM-UP AND FLEXIBILITY TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which one of the following is a non-temperature-related effect of warm-ups?
a.
Enhanced neural function.
b.
Disruption of transient connective tissue bonds.
c.
Elevation of baseline oxygen consumption.
d.
Increase in muscle temperature.
When stimulated during proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching, Golgi tendon organs allow the relaxation of what?
a.
Stretched muscle by contracting the reciprocal muscle.
b.
Reciprocal muscle by contracting the stretching muscle.
c.
Reciprocal muscle by its own contraction.
d.
Stretched muscle by its own contraction.
Which of the following stretching techniques decreases muscle spindle stimulation?
a.
Dynamic.
b.
Ballistic.
c.
Static.
d.
Passive.
Stimulation of muscle spindles induces what?
a.
Relaxation of Golgi tendon organs.
b.
Relaxation of the stretched muscle.
c.
Contraction of the stretched muscle.
d.
Contraction of the reciprocal muscle.
After performing the hold-relax with agonist contraction proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretch for the hamstrings, which of the
following explains the resulting increase in flexibility?
6.
7.
8.
9.
a.
Autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition.
b.
Stretch inhibition and crossed extensor inhibition.
c.
Autogenic inhibition, stretch inhibition, and reciprocal inhibition.
What process leads to the decreased ranges of motion associated with age and inactivty?
a.
Sarcopenia.
b.
Atrophy.
c.
Fibrosis.
How long should static stretches be held?
a.
10- to 15-seconds.
b.
15- to 30-seconds.
c.
60-seconds or more.
How long should the pre-stretch be held during proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching?
a.
10-seconds.
b.
30-seconds.
c.
60-seconds.
The Golgi Tendon Organ provides which type of inhibition during contract-relax proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching?
a.
Autogenic inhibition of the stretched muscle.
b.
Reciprocal inhibition of the opposing muscle.
c.
Reciprocal inhibition of the stretched muscle.
38
CHAPTER 15 – EXERCISE TECHNIQUE FOR FREE WEIGHT AND MACHINE TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Which of the following exercises requires a spotter?
a.
Lat pulldown.
b.
Wrist curl.
c.
Power clean.
d.
Step-up.
During which of the following exercises should a spotter’s hands be placed under the athlete’s forearms near the wrists?
a.
Bench press
b.
Incline dumbbell bench press.
c.
Upright row.
d.
Lying barbell triceps extension.
Which of the following grips should be used during the deadlift exercise?
a.
Overhand and open.
b.
Closed and alternated.
c.
Overhand, closed, and alternated.
d.
Closed, open and alternated.
Which of the following is the correct foot pattern in the step-up exercise?
a.
Step up left foot, step up right foot, step down left foot, step down right foot.
b.
Step up right foot, step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot.
c.
Step up left foot, step down left foot, step down right foot, step down right foot.
d.
Step up right foot, step up left foot, step down right foot, step down left foot.
The primary movement during the second pull phase of the power clean exercise is:
a.
Hip flexion.
b.
Hip extension.
c.
Knee flexion.
d.
Dorsiflexion.
When both hands grip the barbell with palms facing away from the athlete and thumbs wrapped around the fingers, the grip is called what?
a.
Alternated.
b.
Supinated.
c.
Pronated.
d.
Hook.
When both hands grip the barbell with palms facing towards the athlete and thumbs wrapped around the fingers, the grip is called what?
a.
Alternated
b.
Supinated.
c.
Pronated.
d.
Hook.
What guideline(s) should you give an athlete for performing the low-bar back squat? Select all that apply.
a.
Place the bar above the posterior deltoids at the base of the neck.
b.
Use a grip slightly wider than shoulder-width apart.
c.
Place the bar on top of the posterior deltoids at the middle of the trapezius.
d.
Use a grip much wider than shoulder-width apart.
39
9.
The barbell shoulder press and the dumbbell shoulder press exercises have which grip types in common? Select all that apply.
a.
Closed grip.
b.
Neutral grip.
c.
Pronated grip.
d.
Overhand grip.
10. What is an appropriate recommendation to make regarding proper technique during the upward movement phase of the barbell step-up?
a.
Focus the eyes on the floor.
b.
Lean the torso backward.
c.
Drive off the floor with the trailing foot.
d.
Push down on the top of the box with the leading foot.
11. Which of the following exercises involves placing the feet on the bench instead of the floor?
a.
Flat dumbbell fly.
b.
Lying triceps extension.
c.
Incline barbell bench press.
d.
None of these.
12. Which of the following are technique errors for the bent-over barbell row? Select all that apply.
a.
The back is rounded during each repetition.
b.
The feet are positioned in a shoulder-width stance.
c.
The bar is allowed to hang with the elbows fully extended.
d.
The eyes are focused straight down.
13. By moving their feet down on the platform on a leg press, an athlete will increase the involvement of which muscles?
a.
Rectus femoris.
b.
Gastrocnemius.
c.
Gluteus maximus.
d.
Semimembranosus.
14. When an athlete uses the shorter of two boxes for a single leg box squat, how does the technique of the exercise change? Select all that apply.
a.
Torso is more erect.
b.
Centre of gravity lowers closer to the floor.
c.
Range of motion in the hip of the support leg increases.
d.
Range of motion in the knee of the extended leg increases.
15. You see a spotter hold his hands near the elbows of an athlete doing a dumbbell bench fly. The spotter has taken a half-kneeling position.
What would be a safer and more effective way for the spotter to spot this exercise?
a.
Grasp the upper arms of the athlete during the exercise.
b.
Stand up and bend over the athlete as they perform the exercise.
c.
Kneel on both knees during the exercise.
d.
Spot with the hands near the wrists.
40
CHAPTER 16 – EXERCISE TECHNIQUE FOR ALTERNATIVE MODES AND NON-TRADITIONAL TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
You notice an athlete’s hips rise faster than their shoulders during the initial pushing motion of the tire flip. What is an effective correction?
a.
Start with a higher hip position.
b.
Keep the hips slightly below the shoulders in this position.
c.
Lift the tire upward instead of driving it forward.
d.
Push with the arms first.
What might the strength and conditioning professional expect when strong athletes incorporate only unilateral training into his or her program?
a.
A bilateral facilitation will occur.
b.
A bilateral deficit will be developed.
c.
A reduction in bilateral asymmetries will occur.
d.
Only unilateral strength will increase.
When should instability exercises be applied with regard to core training?
a.
With untrained athletes who are relatively weak.
b.
With trained athletes who are rehabilitating from an injury.
c.
With trained athletes who are trying to optimise strength and power.
d.
With untrained athletes who are new to the exercise.
Which of the following is a rationale for using variable-resistance training methods?
a.
To accommodate the changing mechanical advantages associated with constant-load exercises.
b.
To minimise force application throughout the full range of motion.
c.
To increase the time spent decelerating during the lifting motion.
d.
To keep the applied resistance constant during changes in joint angle.
Training on instability devices can reduce the overall agonist force production capacity and power output of the athlete to less than which
percentage of what can be achieved under stable conditions?
6.
a.
20%.
b.
50%.
c.
70%.
d.
90%.
There are many similarities between the log clean and press and the power clean exercise. Which of the following is an example of a difference
between the two exercises?
a.
The power clean uses more lower body muscles than the log clean and press.
b.
The hips and knees are allowed to flex farther during the transition phase of the log clean and press than during the transition phase of
the power clean.
7.
c.
The starting position of the feet in the log clean and press is narrower than the starting position of the feet in the power clean.
d.
The bar travels farther from the torso during the second pull of the power clean than during the second pull of the log clean and press.
An athlete begins performing a tire-flip with their feet roughly hip width apart and their shoulders against the tire. They then move into triple
extension and strike the tire with one knee before finishing the flip by extending their arms. Which technique has been used to perform the flip?
a.
Sumo.
b.
Back lift.
c.
Shoulders-against-the-tire.
d.
Underhand.
41
CHAPTER 17 – PROGRAM DESIGN FOR RESISTANCE TRAINING
1.
The basketball coach says that his starting centre needs to jump higher. Alongside beginning a plyometric program, which of the following
resistance training exercises are most specific to his goal?
2.
3.
a.
Power clean and front squat.
b.
Leg (knee) curl and seated calf (heel) raise.
c.
Power clean, leg (knee) curl, and front squat.
d.
Leg (knee) curl, front squat, and seated calf (heel) raise.
The soccer team is transitioning from off-season to pre-season training. How should the team’s resistance training frequency be altered?
a.
Increase frequency to improve muscular endurance.
b.
Do not change frequency and add plyometrics.
c.
Decrease frequency to allow increased sport skill practice.
d.
Design a split routine with three days on and one day off.
An American football lineman has difficulty driving into defensive linemen and believes he has lost his explosive ability. Which of the following
is the best exercise order to help this athlete improve his performance?
4.
5.
a.
Back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl, power clean.
b.
Power clean, back squat, hip sled, leg (knee) curl.
c.
Leg (knee) curl, back squat, power clean, hip sled.
d.
Hip sled, power clean, leg (knee) curl, back squat.
Which of the following volumes has the potential to increase muscular strength the most?
a.
5-sets of 5-repetitions.
b.
1-sets of 5-repetitions.
c.
5-sets of 15-repetitions.
d.
1-sets of 15-repetitions.
A female triathlete needs to improve the muscular endurance of her upper body. Using 3-sets of 15-repetitions per exercise, which of the
following rest periods will maximise the adaptations towards her goal?
6.
7.
8.
a.
180-seconds.
b.
90-seconds.
c.
45-seconds.
d.
30-seconds.
What are the five variables of exercise selection for resistance training program design?
a.
Exercise type, movement analysis of the sport, exercise technique experience, availability of equipment, and available training time.
b.
Exercise type, movement analysis of the sport, experience with the sport, availability of equipment, and available training time.
c.
Exercise type, experience within the sport, history of injury, availability of equipment, and available training time.
d.
Exercise type, experience within the sport, movement analysis, availability of equipment, and available training time.
The bent-over row exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Biceps brachii.
b.
Erector spinae.
c.
Latissimus dorsi.
d.
Pectoralis major.
The hammer curl exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Anterior deltoids.
b.
Biceps brachii.
c.
Triceps brachii.
d.
Upper trapezius.
42
9.
The seated barbell shoulder press primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Medial deltoids.
b.
Biceps brachii.
c.
Latissimus dorsi.
d.
Pectoralis minor.
10. The seated heel raise exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Anterior tibialis.
b.
Hip adductors.
c.
Quadriceps.
d.
Soleus.
11. The incline dumbbell fly primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Anterior deltoids.
b.
Pectoralis major.
c.
Serratus anterior.
d.
Triceps brachii.
12. The standing heel raise exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Anterior tibialis.
b.
Gastrocnemius.
c.
Hamstrings.
d.
Adductors.
13. The front squat exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Gluteus medius.
b.
Iliopsoas.
c.
Quadratus lumborum.
d.
Quadriceps.
14. The good morning exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Gastrocnemius.
b.
Hamstrings.
c.
Adductors.
d.
Quadriceps.
15. The upright row exercise primarily trains which muscle?
a.
Biceps brachii.
b.
Deltoids.
c.
Rhomboids.
d.
Serratus anterior.
16. When following the guideline of “power, core, and then assistance exercises,” how should these exercises be sequenced in one training
session? (1) Biceps curl (2) push press (3) bench press (4) leg curl (5) bent-over row.
a.
2, 3, 5, 4, 1.
b.
1, 4, 3, 5, 2.
c.
2, 1, 4, 3, 5.
d.
3, 5, 2, 1, 4.
17. How are these exercises ordered? (1) back squat (2) biceps curl (3) hip sled (4) bench press (5) leg curl (6) shoulder press (7) calf raise.
a.
Alternating upper- and lower-body exercises.
b.
Power, core, and then assistance exercises.
c.
Alternating pushing and pulling exercises.
d.
None of the above.
43
18. Allison is 20years old, 177.8-centimeters tall, weighs 60-kilograms and plays collegiate soccer as a goalkeeper. Her sport requires her to jump,
which requires hip and knee extension through the sagittal plane. She has completed machine and free weight training workouts three times
per week for the preceding three months at medium intensity. She has a basic level of technique and skill with no current or past injuries. Her
training goal is to improve her lower-body power. Which of the following would be the best exercise for Allison?
a.
Back squat.
b.
Forward step lunge.
c.
Hip sled (machine).
d.
Leg (knee) extension (machine).
19. Which of the following might be considered ‘better’ exercises for Allison based on her goals?
a.
Power clean.
b.
Hang clean.
c.
Snatch.
d.
All of the above.
20. During a multiple-repetition test in the shoulder press exercise (using free weights), Allison lifted 18.2-kilograms for 12-repetitions and make
any additional lifts. What is her estimated 1RM for the shoulder press exercise?
a.
12.3-kilograms.
b.
18.2-kilograms.
c.
27.3-kilograms.
d.
40.9-kilograms.
21. You determine that Allison’s estimated 1RM for the hang clean is 50-kilograms. Based on her training goal, which of the following loads would
be the most appropriate for her to use during the program?
a.
31.8-kilograms.
b.
34.1-kilograms.
c.
38.6-kilograms.
d.
47.7-kilograms.
22. Allison can hang clean 38.6-kilogram. How many repetitions would you recommend to match this load and the type of exercise?
a.
1- to 2-repetitions.
b.
3- to 5-repetitions.
c.
6- to 12-repetitions.
d.
13- to 15-repetitions.
23. Which combination of percentage of 1RM and number of repetitions is the most appropriate for Allison’s nonpower core exercises?
a.
67% of 1RM for 6-repetitions.
b.
67% of 1RM for 12-repetitions.
c.
85% of 1RM for 6-repetitions.
d.
85% of 1RM for 12-repetitions.
24. Which training volume is the most appropriate for each one of Allison’s assistance exercises?
a.
3-sets of 6-repetitions.
b.
3-sets of 10-repetitions.
c.
6-sets of 6-repetitions.
d.
6-sets of 10-repetitions.
44
CHAPTER 18 – PROGRAM DESIGN AND TECHNIQUE FOR PLYOMETRIC TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Which of the following is not a phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?
a.
Amortisation.
b.
Concentric.
c.
Eccentric.
d.
Isometric.
Which of the following structures detects rapid movement and initiates the stretch reflex?
a.
Golgi tendon organ.
b.
Muscle spindle.
c.
Extrafusal muscle fibre.
d.
Pacinian corpuscle.
Which of the following should be assessed before beginning lower body plyometric training programs?
a.
Balance and training history.
b.
Strength and lean body mass.
c.
Balance, strength, and training history.
d.
Balance, strength, training history, and lean body mass.
Which of the following types of plyometric drills are generally considered the most intense?
a.
Jumps in place.
b.
Bounds.
c.
Depth jumps.
d.
Box jumps.
Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is the most appropriate to assign to plyometric workouts?
a.
1:5.
b.
1:4.
c.
1:3.
d.
1:2.
The gains in power (force and velocity) achieved through plyometric exercise are a function of which of the following? Select all that apply.
a.
Energy stored in the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium.
b.
Energy stored in the tendon and muscle.
c.
Stimulation of the muscle spindle.
d.
Stimulation of the sarcolemma.
What should occur to maximize the amount of stored energy that can be used to enhance the power of concentric action? Select all that apply.
a.
The amortization period should be as short as possible.
b.
The amortization period should be as long as possible.
c.
The concentric action should be performed before the eccentric action.
d.
The eccentric action should be performed before the concentric action.
Which of the following are requirements regarding the athlete’s preparatory position for the lateral hurdle hop? Select all that apply.
a.
His body is in an upright position.
b.
His feet are shoulder-width apart.
c.
The barrier is to the left of the athlete.
d.
The top of the barrier is level with the middle of the athlete’s thighs.
45
9.
Which of the following movements contribute to the height the athlete reaches over the barrier? Select all that apply.
a.
The double-arm countermovement.
b.
Forceful hip extension from the ground.
c.
Forceful knee extension from the ground.
d.
Rapid hip flexion over the barrier.
10. For lower-body plyometrics, the athlete’s 1RM squat should be at least ____ times his or her body weight. Jack weighs 86.4kg and has a 1RM
of 120.5kg for the squat exercise. Does Jack have an adequate strength level for performing lower-body plyometric drills?
a.
1.5 x bodyweight \ Jack does not have an adequate strength level.
b.
1.2 x bodyweight \ Jack does have an adequate strength level.
c.
1.5 x bodyweight \ Jack does have an adequate strength level.
d.
1.2 x bodyweight \ Jack does not have an adequate strength level.
11. Balance is defined as the maintenance of a position without moving for a given period. Which of the following is the most difficult balance test?
a.
¼ squat on single leg.
b.
½ squat on double leg.
c.
½ squat on single leg.
d.
Standing on double leg.
12. Athletes weighing over 100-kilograms should not perform depth jumps from heights greater than:
a.
15-centimeters.
b.
30-centimeters.
c.
45-centimeters.
d.
60-centimeters.
13. Which of the following would not be considered when determining an athlete's readiness for plyometric training?
a.
Age.
b.
Balance.
c.
Strength levels.
d.
Sport.
14. To reduce the risk of injury while performing depth jumps (also called drop jumps), athletes should do the following:
a.
Flex the hips, knees, and ankles, and keep the shoulders over the front of the toes while landing.
b.
Flex the hips, knees, and ankles, and keep the shoulders over the knees while landing.
c.
Flex the hips, knees, and ankles, and keep the shoulders well behind the centre of gravity while landing.
d.
Flex the hips, knees, and ankles, and keep the shoulders over the hips while landing.
15. Which of the following is not a surface on which an athlete should perform lower-body plyometric drills?
a.
Tile.
b.
Grass.
c.
rubber mat.
d.
suspended flooring.
16. Tom is learning new plyometric exercise techniques. Which of the following is the best suggestion for him?
a.
Watch a video of proper technique and then start the workout.
b.
Perform the resistance training exercises before the plyometric drills in the same session.
c.
Perform the plyometric drills under the supervision of a strength and conditioning professional.
d.
Alternate between upper-body and lower-body plyometric drills.
46
17. Each of the following are recommendations for executing proper technique in the consecutive hurdle hop except:
a.
Begin with a countermovement.
b.
Jump over the barriers with both legs, using primarily hip and knee flexion.
c.
Land on both feet without lateral deviation.
d.
Pause after landing, regroup, and jump over the next barrier.
18. Which of the following exercises is most relevant for tennis players?
a.
Cycled split squat jump.
b.
Double-leg hop.
c.
Front barrier jump.
d.
Pike jump.
19. Which of the following exercises is most relevant to a second baseman’s goal of improving his ability to throw out a runner at first base?
a.
Chest pass.
b.
Side skip.
c.
Double-leg zigzag hop.
d.
Depth jump.
20. Which of the following exercises is the most relevant to a basketball player’s goal of being able to change directions quickly?
a.
Backward skip.
b.
Squat box jump.
c.
Two-foot ankle hop.
d.
Double-leg zigzag hop.
21. Allison has never performed plyometrics. Which plyometric exercise is most appropriate for Allison to include in her program?
a.
Depth jump.
b.
Jump to box.
c.
Pike jump.
d.
Single-leg vertical jump.
22. What changes should Allison make in her program to increase her frequency from three total body workouts to four times per week?
a.
Follow her current program and add the same workout one more day each week.
b.
Follow her current program and add a fourth workout with three or four new exercises.
c.
Divide her exercises into two groups and perform each group twice a week.
d.
Choose eight total exercises and perform two of them for each of her four weekly workouts.
47
CHAPTER 19 – PROGRAM DESIGN AND TECHNIQUE FOR SPEED AND AGILITY TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
To what does the term impulse refer?
a.
The relationship between power and velocity.
b.
The relationship between acceleration and velocity.
c.
The relationship between force and velocity.
d.
The relationship between force and time.
Elite sprinters produce __________ forces in a __________ ground contract time as compared to their novice counterparts.
a.
Larger / longer.
b.
Similar / shorter.
c.
Larger / shorter.
d.
Smaller / longer.
When upright sprinting, the stride length of an athlete is largely dependent on __________.
a.
The amount of vertical force produced during the stance phase.
b.
The athlete’s flexibility.
c.
The athlete’s stride rate.
d.
The amount of horizontal force produced during the toe-off of the stance phase.
Drills or tests that require an athlete to move rapidly in response to some stimulus are best for measuring which of the following?
a.
Change of direction.
b.
Manoeuvrability.
c.
Agility.
d.
Acceleration.
Select the aspect of training that requires additional emphasis when the aim is to improve change-of-direction ability.
a.
Strength.
b.
Eccentric strength.
c.
Reactive strength.
d.
Rate of force development.
To minimize the braking deceleration during the support phase of a sprint, athletes should reduce the time spent with the foot in which position?
a.
Ahead of their centre of gravity.
b.
Behind their centre of gravity.
c.
Under their body in line with their centre of gravity.
d.
None of the above.
You review videotape of Tom and see him performing an explosive push-off with both legs, powerfully extending them to produce force of
totalling approximately 900N. This is typical of which phase of the sprint?
8.
a.
Start.
b.
Acceleration.
c.
Maximum velocity.
d.
Late support.
You review videotape of Kari and see her maintaining a virtually erect trunk. This is typical of which phase of a sprint?
a.
Start.
b.
Acceleration.
c.
Maximum velocity.
d.
Early support.
48
9.
Which of the following should not be included in speed training programs?
a.
Minimisation of braking forces at ground contact.
b.
Lowering of the development of the stretch-shortening cycle.
c.
Reduction of ground support time.
d.
Increasing of eccentric knee flexor strength.
10. You train one of your sprint athletes by attaching an elastic harness to his waist and resisting his movements while he accelerates from a
standing start. Which of the following describes this type of training?
a.
Technique drill.
b.
High-speed towing.
c.
Interval running.
d.
Resisted sprinting.
11. You instruct Tom on the proper arm movement pattern for sprinting. Driving the arms down and back while maintaining an upright torso is
most important for which phase of the sprint?
a.
Start.
b.
Acceleration.
c.
Maximum velocity.
d.
Late support.
12. While reviewing video of a recent competition, you notice that Tom’s sprinting style leads to his attaining an upright posture earlier than other
runners. What is one possible cause of this observation that can be altered with appropriate sprint training?
a.
Tom's push-off angle was too low.
b.
Tom had inadequate push-off force.
c.
Tom's push-off force was directed too horizontally.
d.
Tom had improper weight distribution.
13. While reviewing video of Kari’s lacrosse match, you notice that, when she sprints downfield, her sprinting style has a large bounce. You know
that her speed would improve if she had less vertical displacement. What would you suggest as a correction for Kari’s sprinting pattern?
a.
Use a longer push-off phase.
b.
Decrease the stride frequency.
c.
Increase the push-off force.
d.
Keep the eyes focused on the ground while reducing the lift of the head.
14. What will happen to the centre of gravity of an athlete as they approach the turning point during an agility drill and decelerates under control?
a.
Their centre of gravity will shift forward of their base of support.
b.
Their centre of gravity will shift directly over their base of support.
c.
Their centre of gravity will shift behind their base of support.
d.
Their centre of gravity will randomly oscillate around their base of support.
15. You notice that an athlete takes short, choppy steps while sprinting between cones during an agility drill. Which types of training will help this
athlete improve accelerative abilities? Select all that apply.
a.
Incline sprinting.
b.
Sled towing.
c.
Downhill running.
d.
Wind resistance sprinting.
49
CHAPTER 20 – PROGRAM DESIGN AND TECHNIQUE FOR AEROBIC ENDURANCE TRAINING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Which of the following adaptations occur as an outcome of an aerobic endurance program?
a.
Increased oxygen delivery to the working tissues and greater utilisation of fat as a fuel source.
b.
Higher rate of aerobic energy production and increased disturbance of the acid-base balance.
c.
Increased oxygen delivery to the working tissues, higher rate of aerobic energy production, and greater utilisation of fat as a fuel source.
d.
Higher rate of aerobic energy production, greater utilisation of fat as a fuel source, and increased disturbance of the acid-base balance.
Which of the following types of training is conducted at an intensity equal to the lactate threshold?
a.
Pace/tempo training.
b.
Interval training.
c.
High-intensity interval training.
d.
Fartlek training.
Which of the following is the method most commonly used to assign and regulate exercise intensity?
a.
Oxygen consumption.
b.
Heart rate.
c.
Rate of perceived exertion.
d.
Race pace.
The loss of physiological adaptations upon the cessation of training is an example of which of the following?
a.
Specificity of training.
b.
Cross-training.
c.
Detraining.
d.
Tapering.
The longest aerobic endurance training sessions should be performed during which of the following sports seasons?
a.
Post-season.
b.
Pre-season.
c.
On-season.
d.
Off-season.
What is the first action someone should perform when they use a treadmill?
a.
Set the treadmill incline to 00 incline.
b.
Hold on to the handrails while straddling the belt.
c.
Walk or run toward the front part of the treadmill deck.
d.
Turn on the machine to a speed of no more than 1.6kmph.
Where should an individual run or walk on the platform of a treadmill?
a.
Toward the front portion of the platform.
b.
Slightly away from the centre of the platform, closer to whichever side of their body is dominant.
c.
The location depends on whether the individual is walking or running.
d.
Toward the back portion of the platform.
Which of the following describes correct body position on a stationary bicycle?
a.
With the ball of the foot on the upward pedal, the knee is above the height of the hips.
b.
With the heel of the foot on the downward pedal, the leg is straight.
c.
With the heel of the foot on the upward pedal, the knee is even with the height of the hips.
d.
With the ball of the foot on the downward pedal, the leg is straight.
50
9.
Which of the following instructions should be given to an athlete regarding the use of a stair climber or stepper? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Place the entire foot on the pedal to start but allow the heels to lift off as each pedal rises.
b.
Lean forward slightly, especially as the workout becomes harder.
c.
Lock out the knees at the bottom of each step.
d.
Hold the handrails for balance if necessary.
10. Which of the following describes proper walking technique?
a.
The heel should strike the ground first.
b.
The knee should be flexed to approximately 30° when the foot first contacts the ground.
c.
The hip should be directly over the foot when the foot first contacts the ground.
d.
The knee should be flexed to approximately 30° when the foot is pushing off the ground.
11. Which of the following are appropriate guidelines to teach an athlete correct race-walking technique? Select all that apply.
a.
One foot must always be in contact with the ground.
b.
The supporting leg must always remain slightly flexed.
c.
Arm swinging must remain in the frontal plane.
d.
Stride length can be improved with increased hip rotation.
12. Each of the following are appropriate recommendations for an athlete using a rowing machine except:
a.
Perform the drive by extending the hips and legs forcefully.
b.
Extend the elbows and lean forward at the hips during recovery.
c.
Keep the head upright, looking straight ahead throughout the movement.
d.
Pull the handle to the abdomen before the hips and legs fully extend.
13. Which of the following types of aerobic endurance training is the most sport specific for a field soccer player?
a.
Fartlek training.
b.
Long and slow distance training.
c.
Pace or tempo training.
d.
High intensity interval training.
14. Which of the following types of aerobic endurance training is the least sport specific for a sprint distance triathlete?
a.
Fartlek training.
b.
Long and slow distance training.
c.
Pace or tempo training.
d.
High intensity interval training.
15. Benjamin is 21-years old. Using the percent of MHR method and based on an exercise intensity of 75%, what is Benjamin’s THR?
a.
128bpm.
b.
149bpm.
c.
165bpm.
d.
199bpm.
16. Anton is 18-years old, and his RHR is 50 bpm. Using the Karvonen method and based on an exercise intensity of 65%, what is Anton’s THR?
a.
99bpm.
b.
131bpm.
c.
149bpm.
d.
160bpm.
51
CHAPTER 21 – PERIODISATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
During which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome does the body physiologically adapt to heavier training loads?
a.
Alarm.
b.
Resistance.
c.
Exhaustion.
d.
Restoration.
When relating the season terminology to periodisation periods, which season corresponds to the preparatory period of training?
a.
On-season.
b.
Pre-season.
c.
Off-season.
d.
Post-season.
During which of the following periods are sport-specific activities performed in the greatest volume?
a.
Preparatory.
b.
First transition.
c.
Competition.
d.
Second transition.
The medium-sized training cycle that lasts two- to six-weeks is known as:
a.
Macrocycle and/or microcycle.
b.
Block of training and/or mesocycle.
c.
Block of training and/or macrocycle and/or mesocycle.
d.
Microcycle and/or mesocycle.
Which of the following phrases are commonly used to vary workouts during the preparatory period?
a.
Hypertrophy and basic strength.
b.
Cardiovascular and supercompensation.
c.
Hypertrophy, cardiovascular, and basic strength.
d.
Cardiovascular, basic strength, and supercompensation.
From the beginning of the preparatory period to the peaking phase of the competitive period, how does intensity change?
a.
Increases.
b.
Decreases.
c.
Remains the same.
d.
None of the above.
From the beginning of the preparatory period to the peaking phase of the competitive period, how does volume change?
a.
Increases.
b.
Decreases.
c.
Remains the same.
d.
None of the above.
Which phase is designed to develop a foundation of muscular fitness?
a.
hypertrophy/strength endurance phase.
b.
basic strength phase.
c.
strength/power phase.
d.
Cardiovascular phase.
52
9.
Generally, converting general strength to sport-specific power is planned for which period?
a.
Preparation.
b.
first transition.
c.
competitive.
d.
second transition.
10. Maintenance typically occurs during which season?
a.
off-season.
b.
preseason.
c.
in-season.
d.
postseason.
11. Generally, athletes spend the most time in sport-specific activities to improve their technique during which period?
a.
Preparation.
b.
first transition.
c.
competitive.
d.
second transition.
12. Applying periodization should help avoid which phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome?
a.
alarm phase.
b.
exhaustion phase.
c.
resistance phase.
d.
Supercompensation phase.
53
CHAPTER 22 – REHABILITATION AND RECONDITIONING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Each of the following individuals can provide medical supervision during a college soccer match except
a.
Athletic trainer.
b.
Team physician.
c.
Certified Strength and Conditioning Specialist.
d.
Sports Certified Physical Therapist.
Which of the following is not typically the result of overuse?
a.
Stress fracture.
b.
Grade III joint sprain.
c.
Tendinitis.
d.
Micro-traumatic injury.
Which of the following is not one of the phases of healing following an injury?
a.
Inflammatory response.
b.
Reconditioning hypertrophy.
c.
Maturation-remodelling.
d.
Fibroblastic repair.
Which of the following types of activity is inappropriate during the inflammatory response phase of a medial collateral ligament sprain?
a.
Lower extremity plyometrics.
b.
Submaximal isometric quadriceps strengthening.
c.
Hip joint stretching.
d.
Upper extremity ergometry.
The rotator cuff muscles stabilise the shoulder joint. During the maturation-remodelling phase of supraspinatus tendinitis rehabilitation of
basketball players, what exercise repetition range is the most appropriate for improving the muscular endurance of the rotator cuff muscles?
a.
3- to 5-repetitions.
b.
5- to 8-repetitions.
c.
8- to 12-repetitions.
d.
12- to 20-repetitions.
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CHAPTER 23 – FACILITY DESIGN, LAYOUT, AND ORGANISATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
What is the order of the four phases involved in designing a new strength and conditioning facility?
a.
Construction, pre-design, design, pre-operation.
b.
Pre-operation, design, construction, pre-design.
c.
Pre-design, construction, design.
d.
Pre-design, design, construction, pre-operation.
Master plans should be created in which of the following phases?
a.
Pre-design phase.
b.
Design phase.
c.
Construction phase.
d.
Pre-operation phase.
What is the recommended minimum distance between the floor and the bottom of mirrors on the walls?
a.
16-inches / 41-centimeters.
b.
18-inches / 46-centimeters.
c.
20-inches / 51-centimeters.
d.
22-inches / 56-centimeters.
Which of the following is not a key consideration when determining the space requirements of a college strength and conditioning facility?
a.
Accessibility for the athletes.
b.
Amount and type of equipment.
c.
Number of athletes using the facility.
d.
Number of athletic teams desiring to use the facility.
What is the minimum recommended space between the ends of racks to provide room for spotters?
a.
1-foot / 30-centimeters.
b.
2-feet / 61-centimeters.
c.
3-feet / 91-centimeters.
d.
4-feet / 123-centimeters.
How much space is needed per athlete in a stretching and warm-up area?
a.
42ft2 or 3.90m2.
b.
49ft2 or 4.54m2.
c.
56ft2 or 5.20m2.
d.
63ft2 or 5.85m2.
How much space is needed to perform the standing upright row? Assume the bar is 7ft or 2.13m long.
a.
28ft2 or 2.60m2.
b.
42ft2 or 3.90m2.
c.
52ft2 or 4.83m2.
d.
63ft2 or 5.85m2.
How much space is needed to perform the bench press? Assume the bar is 7ft or 2.13m long and the bench is 6ft or 1.83m long.
a.
70ft2 or 6.50m2.
b.
80ft2 or 7.43m2.
c.
90ft2 or 8.36m2.
d.
100ft2 or 9.29m2.
How much space is needed to perform the snatch? Assume the lifting platform is 8ft2 or 2.44m2 and the safety buffer is 4ft or 1.22m each side.
a.
64ft2 or 5.95m2.
b.
100ft2 or 9.29m2.
c.
121ft2 or 11.24m2.
d.
144ft2 or 13.38m2.
55
10. The heavy weights section of your strength and conditioning facility is 72-feet long. How many Olympic lifting platforms can you have there?
a.
4.
b.
5.
c.
6.
11. How many coaches are required to supervise a group of 50 high school soccer players during their strength training session?
a.
3.
b.
4.
c.
5.
12. Which ceiling height is recommended for weight rooms?
a.
8-feet.
b.
10-feet.
c.
12-feet.
13. How much space is recommended between squat racks to allow for loading and unloading of bumper plates?
a.
At least 2-feet.
b.
At least 3-feet.
c.
At least 4-feet.
56
CHAPTER 24 – FACILITY POLICIES, PROCEDURES, AND LEGAL ISSUES
1.
2.
3.
What is the recommended coach-to-participant ratio during peak weight room usage time in a collegiate setting?
a.
1:10.
b.
1:15.
c.
1:20.
d.
1:25.
Which of the following individuals is responsible for allowing an athlete to begin formal involvement in a training program?
a.
Athletic director.
b.
Athlete’s parents or guardian.
c.
Team’s certified athletic trainer.
d.
Strength and conditioning professional.
Proper documentation is essential to the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is not part of the records that should be kept
on file in the strength and conditioning facility?
4.
5.
6.
a.
Manufacturer’s user manual.
b.
Participant training logs.
c.
Written emergency plan.
d.
Medical health history.
The strength and conditioning professional’s knowledge and skill development includes competencies in each of the following except:
a.
Exercise and sport science.
b.
Administration and management.
c.
Finance and appraisal.
d.
Teaching and coaching.
Which of the following is not a component of an emergency plan?
a.
Emergency medicine.
b.
Emergency communication.
c.
Emergency equipment.
d.
Emergency personnel.
You manage the strength and conditioning facility your local high school. Based on discussions with the principal and the other athletic staff,
you have learned that there will be instances when as many as 40 athletes will be using the facility at the same time. During such occurrences,
how many strength and conditioning professionals—including you—should be supervising the athletes?
7.
8.
a.
1.
b.
2.
c.
3.
d.
4.
Which of the following items is not typically included in an emergency care plan?
a.
Address of the strength and conditioning facility.
b.
Common injuries caused by various exercises.
c.
Location of emergency supplies.
d.
Qualified personnel designated to care for injuries.
Two different coaches request a training session for their team with the strength and conditioning coach at 7:00am on Thursday morning.
Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?
a.
Schedule the on-season sports team.
b.
Schedule the off-season sports team.
c.
Schedule neither team and offer each coach alternative time slots.
57
9.
Which of the following takes priority when setting up equipment in the strength and conditioning facility?
a.
Ensuring at least 30-inch wide walkways.
b.
Ensuring visibility and adequate traffic flow through the weight room.
c.
Spacing equipment at least 36-inches apart.
10. The strength and conditioning director is educating her staff about weight room policies to improve safety. Which of the following should she
list as the highest priority?
a.
Maintaining records of all training sessions and programs completed within the facility.
b.
Providing athletes with appropriate supervisions while using the weight room.
c.
Ensuring that assistant coaches complete continuing education requirements on time.
58