26- 02- 2024
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org
1.
REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT VII
B1
Time: 3 hrs.
TEST ID
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
PHYSICS
A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
and a convex mirror of focal length
15 cm are placed facing each other
40 cm apart. A point object is placed
between the mirrors on their common
axis at 15cm from the concave mirror.
The position and nature of the image
produced by the successive reflections
first at the concave mirror and then
at the convex mirror is
1) 6 cm behind the convex mirror and
real
2) 6 cm behind the convex mirror and
virtual
3) 30 cm behind the convex mirror and
real
2.
3.
4.
5.
3) 250
4) 200
A ray of light passing through a prism
of refractive index
2 suffe rs
minimum deviation. It is found that the
angle of incidence is double the angle
of refraction inside the prism. The
refracting angle of the prism is
1) 0
2) 300
3) 600
4) 900
Light from a point source in air falls
on a convex spherical glass surfaces
of refractive index 1.5 and radius of
curvature 20cm. If the distance of the
source of light from the glass surface
is 50cm, the distance of the image form
the surface will be
2) 50 cm
4) 240 cm
Max. Mark: 720
221
A microscope is focussed on a mark
on a piece of paper and then a slab of
glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive
index 1.5 is placed over a the mark.
How should the microscope be moved
to get the mark in focus again ?
1) 4.5 cm downward
2) 1 cm downward
3) 2 cm upward
4) 1 cm upward
6.
4) 30 cm behind the convex mirror and
virtual
In a compound microscope focal length
of the lenses are 1 cm and 2 cm and
tube length is 20 cm. The
magnification in far point adjustment
is:
1) 100
2) 150
1) 200 cm
3) 300 cm
Version
Batch : EVEN BATCHES - SET I
For the angle of minimum deviation of
a prism to be equal to its refracting
angle, the prism must be made of a
material whose refractive index
1) lies between
2 and 1
2) lies between 2 and
2
3) is less than 1
4) is greater than 2
7.
Match the following.
A) Twinkling of stars
P) total internal reflection
B) Blue colour of the sky
Q) dispersion
C) Mirage
R) scattering of light
D) Lateral shift
S) refraction of light
T) reflection of light
1) A  S, B  R, C  Q, D  P
2) A  R, B  S, C  Q, D  P
3) A  S, B  R, C  P, D  S
4) A  S, B  P, C  R, D  Q
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8.
9.
A ray of light is incident at an angle i
on a small angle prism having angle A
and refractive inde x n. If the ray
emerges out normally through the
other face, the angle of incidence i is
nearly equal to
1) A
A
2)
n
3) nA
4)
13.
are n 0 ,
nA
2
1) 4.5  106 m
2) 4.0  106 m
3) 3.6  103 m
4) 1.8  103 m
10. For light incident from air onto a slab
of refractive index 2, maximum possible
angle of refraction is
1) 90°
2) 60°
3) 45°
4) 30°
11. A ray of light strikes a transparent
rectangular slab (of refractive index
2 ) at an angle of incidence of 45°.
The angle between the reflected and
refracted rays is
1) 75°
2) 90°
3) 105°
4) 120°
12. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is
immersed in water of refractive index
4/3 (refer figure). A light beam incident
normally on the face AB is totally
reflected to reach the face BC if
14.
15.
16.
2
8
 sin  
3
9
3) cos  
8
9
n0
n
and 0 respectively. The
2
2
angle of incidence  for which the
beam just misses entering region III is
The ratio of the diameter of the sun to
the distance between the earth and
the sun is approximately 0.009. The
approximate diameter of the image of
the sun formed by a concave spherical
mirror of radius of curvature 0.4 m is
1)
A beam of light is travelling from Region
I to Region III (see the figure). The
refractive index in Region I, II and III
2) sin  
2
3
4) sin  
8
9
1) 30°
2) 45°
3) 60°
4) sin
1
 2
A telescope has an objective lens of
focal length 150 cm and an eyepiece
of focal length 5 cm. If a 50 m tall tower
at a distance of 1 km is observed
through this telescope in normal
setting, the angle formed by the image
of the tower is  , then  is close to
1) 1°
2) 15°
3) 30°
4) 60°
For a plane electromagnetic wave
propagating in X -direction, which of
the following combination gives the
correct possible directions for electric
field(E) and magnetic fie ld (B)
respectively?
ˆ ˆj  kˆ
1) ˆj  k,
ˆ ˆj  kˆ
2) ˆj  k,
ˆ  ˆj  kˆ
3) ˆj  k,
ˆ  ˆj  kˆ
4) ˆj  k,
For an electromagnetic wave in free
space, the root mean square value of
electric field is 6V/m. The peak value
of magnetic field is
1) 2.83  10 8 T
2) 0.70  10 8 T
3) 4.23  108 T
4) 1.41  10 8 T
3
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17.
18.
19.
The intensity of two light waves are in
the ratio 1:4. The ratio between
maximum and minimum intensities
due to the super position is
1) 16:1
2) 25:9
3) 4:1
4) 9: 1
21.
In Young’s double slit experiment if the
separation between slit and screen is
doubled and separation between the
slit is made half. The fringe width
become
1) double
2) half
3) four time
4) no change
22.
The maximum intensity in YDSE is I0.
The distance between two slits is
d  5 where  is the wavelength of
light used, if the distance of screen
from slit is D =10d find the intensity
in front of one of the slits on the screen
1) I0
3)
20.
3I 0
4
2)
4)
I0
2
I0
4
23.
Two coherent sources are placed at a
distance 3 from each othe r,
symmetric to the centre of the circle
in figure. The number of bright fringes
shown on the screen placed along the
circumference is
24.
For a parallel beam of monochromatic
light of wavelength  , the diffraction
is produced by a single slit whose width
is ‘a’. If D is the distance of the screen
from the slit, the width of central
maxima will be
1)
D
a
2)
2 D
a
3)
D
2a
4)
4 D
a
Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with
their axis perpendicular to each other.
Unpolarised light of intensity I is
incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is
kept in between P1 and P2 such that
its axis makes an angle 600 with that
of P1. The intensity of light coming out
of P2 is
1)
I
8
2)
3I
8
3)
I
24
4)
3I
32
For a glass medium of refractive index
n surrounded by air medium. The
relation between brewsters angle 
and critical angle c is
-1
1) θ = tan  cosec c 
1
2)   tan  cot c 
1
3)   tan  sec c 
1
4)   tan  tan c 
At what angle of incidence, the light
reflected from a glass slab become
completely polarise d, angle of
refraction is 300
1) 4
2) 8
1) 300
2) 450
3) 12
4) 16
3) 600
4) 900
4
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25. Assertion : When a plane glass slab is
placed over coloured letters, the least
raised colour is red.
Reason : Refractive index of glass slab
is greater for light having greater
wavelength.
1) Both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation
of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true,
but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Assertion is false, but reason is true
26. A converging beam of light is incident
on a diverging lens. On passing through
the lens. They intersect at a point
15 cm from the lens on the opposite
side. If the lens is removed, the point
where the rays meet will move 5cm
closer to the lens. The focal length of
lens is
1) -5 cm
2) -10 cm
3) -20 cm
4) -30 cm
27. Assertion : Wave front from a point
source is spherical.
Reason : Rays are parallel to wave
front
1) Both statements are correct
2) Statement I is correct , statement II
is false
3) Statement I is false, statement II is
correct
4) Both statements are false
28. In a double slit experiment, the
coherent source are spaced 2d apart
and the screen is placed a distance D
fr om t h e sl i t s. I f n th bright fringe is
formed on the screen exactly opposite
to a slit, the value of n must be :
1)
d2
2D
d2
3)
D
2)
29.
30.
A source emits electromagnetic waves
of wave length 3 m. One beam reaches
the observer directly and other after
refle ction from a water surface ,
travelling 1.5 m extra distance and
with intensity reduced to (1/4) as
compared to intensity due to direct
beam alone. The resultant intensity
will be
1)
I
4
2)
3)
5I
4
4)
3I
4
9I
4
A glass slab has refractive index
3
.
2
A ray of light is incident on the top
surface AB of the slab at an angle i,
and it undergoes total internal
reflection at the vertical face and
emerges along AD as shown, the value
of ‘i’ is :
1) 450
2) 300
3) 600
4) 150
31. Two plane mirrors are arranged at
right angles to each other as shown in
figure. A ray of light is incident on the
horizontal mirror at an angle  . For
what value of  , the ray emerges
parallel to the incoming ray after
reflection from the vertical mirror?
2d 2
D
d2
4)
4D
1) 600
2) 300
3) 450
4) All of the above
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32.
33.
34.
35.
The angle of a prism is 30o. The rays
incident at 60o at one refracting face
suffer a deviation of 30o. Then the angle
of emergence is :
37.
A girl keeps an object at a distance
20cm from a concave lens of focal
length 20cm. The image distance from
lens is
1) 0o
2) 30o
1) 10 cm
2) 20 cm
3) 60o
4) 90o
3) 40 cm
4) infinity
The magnification produced by the objective lens and the eye - lens of a compound microscope are 25 and 6 respectively. The magnifying power of this
microscope is :
1) 19
2) 31
3) 150
4)
38.
water of refractive index
A square object of area 100 sq.cm is
placed perpendicular to the principal
axis of a concave mirror. If the lateral
magnification of the mirror for the
above position of the object is 0.4, then
the area of the image will be
2) 100 cm2
3) 16 cm2
4) 25 cm2
If a white light incident on the interface
of glass and air as shown and green
light is just total internally reflected
then the emerging ray in air contains
4
to glass of
3
refractive index 3 2 through a convex
interface of radius of curvature 16cm.
In the absence of the second medium
ray converges to the point 32 cm from
the pole of the inte rface. In the
presence of second medium, ray will
meet at what distance from pole?
(150)
1) 40 cm2
A converging bundle of rays travel from
39.
1)
144
cm
5
2)
132
cm
6
3)
122
cm
7
4)
156
cm
4
A plane mirror is placed at a distance
50 cm from a concave mirror of focal
length 16 cm. So that they are facing
each other. Where should an object be
placed in between them so that the
first image formed by both of the will
coincide?
1) 30 cm from plane mirror
2) 30 cm from concave mirror
3) 10 cm from plane mirror
1) All colours
4) 10 cm from concave mirror
2) All colours except green
The frequency of  -rays, X-rays and
u-v rays are a, b and c respectively.
Then
A point object is at a distance 30 cm
from a convex lens of focal length 20cm.
On the other side of a the lens another
convex lens of the focal length 30cm is
placed at a distance 30cm from the first
lens. Find the distance of final image
from the second lens.
1) a > b, c < b
2) a < b, c > b
1) 15 cm
2) 20 cm
3) a = b = c
4) a > c, c > b
3) 30 cm
4) Infinity
3) Yellow, orange, red
4) Violet, indigo, blue
36.
40.
6
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41.
42.
Two polaroids are oriented with their
plane perpendicular to incident light
and transmission axis making an
angle of 60 0 with each other. The
fraction of incident unpolarised light
transmitted through the system is
1) 10%
2) 12.5%
3) 25%
4) 50%
45.
A mixture of plane po larised and
unpolarised light falls normally on a
polarising sheet. On rotating the
polarising sheet about the direction of
the incident beam, the transmitted
intensity varies by a factor 4. The ratio
1) the beam will emerge from side 1
2) the beam will emerge from side 2
3) the beam will emerge from side 3
of intensities Ip and I0 respectively of
the polarised and unpolarise d
components in the incident beam is
5
1)
2
3)
43.
3
2
3
2)
4
4)
4) the beam will not emerge from the
prism
CHEMISTRY
46.
5
4
A plane electromagnetic wave o f
intensity 6w/m2 strikes a small mirror
of area 30cm2, held perpendicular to
the approaching wave. The momentum
transferred in kg ms–1 by the wave to
the mirror in each second will be
Which of the following is an optically
active compound?
1) Butan-1-ol
2) 1–Propanol
3) 2–Chlorobutane
4) Heptan–4–o1
47.
Consider the reaction
CH 3  Cl  OH  
 CH 3OH  Cl 
1) 1.2×10–10
44.
A beam of light enter side 1 of a prism
of index of refraction 1.5 as shown. The
three sides of pri sm are of equal
length. Which of the following statements is correct ?
This reaction will be the fastest in
2)
2.4×10–9
1) Ethanol
3)
3.6×10–8
2) Methanol
4)
4.8×10–7
3) N, N–dimethylformamide(DMF)
If the angle of prism is equal to the
critical angle. Find the maximum
deviation of a given prism.
1)  2  A
3)
A
2
2)   2A
4)   A 2
4) Water
48.
Reactivity orde r of halide s
dehydrohalogenation is
1) R  F  R  Cl  R  Br  R  I
2) R  I  R  Br  R  Cl  R  F
3) R  I  R  Cl  R  Br  R  F
4) R  F  R  I  R  Br  R  Cl
for
7
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49.
Identify the incorrect statement
52.
1) Benzylic halide means, halogen is
joined to sp3 C- atom next to aromatic
ring
Which among the following has quite
high melting point than other isomers?
Cl
1)
Cl
2) Vinylic halide means, halogen is
joined with sp C-atom in
2
C
Cl
2)
C
Cl
3) Aryl halide means, halogen is joined
with aromatic ring directly
Cl
3)
4) Allylic halide means the C-atom on
which halogen is joine d is sp
hybridised
50.
The reagent best use d fo r the
conversion of primary alcohol to
corresponding alkyl chloride?
1) PCl5
Cl
4) All have equal melting point
NH2
aN O 2  H C l
I
 N
 
 X  K
Y . X
0  5 C

53.
and Y are
+
N2Cl
2) PCl3
1)
,
3) SOCl 2
+
N2Cl
4) conc.HCl
51.
Mo nochlorination of which of the
following
wil l
produce
thre e
structurally
isomeric
chloro
compounds?
1)  CH3 4 C
I
I
I
2)
,
+
N2Cl
3)
I
,
I
2)  CH3 2 CH  CH 2  CH 3
+
N2Cl
3) CH3 ( CH2 ) 3CH3
4) All of these
4)
I
,
I
I
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
54.
8
Identify the products (A) and (B) in the
reactions
57.
Which of the following substituted
phenols is the strongest acid?
R  X  AgCN 
 A  AgX
1) A  R  CN
B  R  CN
2) A  R  CN
B  R  NC
OH
OH
R  X  KCN 
 B  KX
2)
1)
3) A  R  NC B  R  CN
NO2
OCH3
OH
OH
4) A  R  NC B  R  NC
55.
alc.KOH
HBr
NaI
CH3  CH  CH 3 

 X 
Y 
Z

Peroxide
Acetone
Br
3)
In the given reaction what will be the
final product?
4)
C2H5
CH3
1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 I
2) CH 3  CH  CH 2  I
I
58.
H6
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2  HOB 2

 Z
.
2 2 ,OH
What is Z?
3) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2CH 3
4) CH 3CH 2 CHI2
56.
Chlorobenzene on tre atment with
sodium in dry ether gives biphenyl.
The name of the reaction is
1) Fittig reaction
1) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2OH
2) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3
OH
2) Wurtz reaction
3) Sandmeyer reaction
3) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO
4) Gattermann reaction
4) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
9
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59.
The structure of intermediate A in the
following reaction is
61.
Which of the following is/are allylic
alcohol(s)?
a) CH 2  CH  CH 2  OH
CH3
CH
OH
OH
CH3

b)
CH 3  C  CH 3
O2
H

 A 

H2 O
CH
O
CH3
CH3
1) CH3
C
O
O
CH2
c)
H
CH
CH3
OH
CH3
O
O
CH
CH
d)
CH3
CH
2)
CH
CH2
O
OH
CH3
CH3
3) CH3
C
O
H
62.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and d only
4) All of these
In the following reaction sequence,
CH3 MgBr
pcc
CH 3  CH  CH 3 
 Y 
 Z;
H  /H O
2
OH
Z is
CH3
O
CH
1) Butan–1–ol
CH3
2) Butan–2–ol
4)
3) 2–methylpropan–2–ol
4) 1,1–dimethylethanol
60.
Arrange the following compounds in
the increasing order of C  OH bond
length?
1) Phenol  Methanol  Para ethoxy phenol
63.
Boiling point of ethyl alcohol is greater
than that of dimethyl ether due to
1) van der Waals forces
2) London forces
2) Phenol  Para ethoxy phenol  methanol
3) Polarity
3) Methanol  Para ethoxy phenol  Phenol
4) Hydrogen bonding
4) Methanol  Phenol  Para ethoxy Phenol
10
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64.
The product(s) of the following reaction
is
68.
Which of the following is produced as
intermediate in the given reaction?
CH3
O
i) NH 2  NH 2
CH 3  C  CH 2 CH 3 

ii) KOH, ethylene glycol
CHO

CrO 2 Cl2
H 3O


 Intermediate 

iii) Heat
OH
CH2 [OCr(OH)Cl2]
1) CH 3CH  CH 2CH 3
1)
2) CH 3  COOH
3) CH 3  CH 2 2 CH 3
CH(OCrCl2)2
4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH3
2)
OH OH
65.
66.
Ethanol on dehydration using H2SO 4
can give diethylether. The temperature
of the reaction should be
1) 273 K
2) 298 K
3) 413 K
4) 443 K
CH (OCr(OH) Cl2)2
3)
IUPAC name of catechol is
1) Benzene–1,2–diol
4) HO
2) Benzene–1,3–diol
3) Benzene–1,4–diol
CH
Cr
CH
Cl
OH
4) Benzene–1,2,3–triol
67.
Which of the following gives an yellow/
orange precipitate on reaction with
2,4–DNP?
1) CH 3CHO
2) CH 3  C  CH3
O
3) CH 3  CH 2  CHO
4) All of these
69.
Lower membe rs of alde hyde s and
ketones are 100% miscible with water
due to the formation of
1) Weak dipole–dipole interactions
2) Weak intermolecular van der waal’s
forces
3) Dipole–induced dipole interactions
4) Hydrogen bonding
11
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70.
Identify the product Y
73.
dil.NaOH
HCN
CH 3CHO  HCHO 
 X 
Y
heat
H O
1) n–butyl alcohol 2) sec–butyl alcohol
3
3) Acetophenone
1) CH 2  CH  CH  COOH
74.
OH
OH
3) Acetophenone form white crystalline
product with NaHSO3
3) CH 3  CH 2  CH  COOH
4) 2,4-DNP can be u se d for the
detection of aldehydes and ketones
OH
75.
CH 2  CH  CH  COOH
71.
CN
Which of the following compound will
undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
1) CH 3CHO
Identify the false statement
2) Nucleophilic addition of ammonia
derivatives to carbonyl compounds
carried out in acidic medium
CH 3  C  COOH
4)
Benzal acetone is a crossed aldol
condensation product formed between
benzaldehyde and acetone. Which of
the following is the structure of benzal
acetone?
1) C6 H 5  CH  CH  CO  CH 3
2) CH 3C  CH 3
2) C 6 H 5  CH  C  C  CH 3
O
3) C6 H 5CHO
72.
4) Acetaldehyde
1) Methanal is more reactive than
ethanal towards nucleophilic addition
reaction
CN
2)
Which of the following does not answer
iodoform test?
CH 3 O
4) C6 H 5CH 2CHO
3) C 6 H 5  C  CH  CH  CH 3
Identify X and Y
O
CH 3COCl
Conc.HNO3

X 
Y
Anhydrous AlCl3
Conc.H 2SO 4
1) X=Acetophenone
acetophenone
Y=m–nitro
C6 H 5  CH 2  C  CH  CH 2
4)
76.
O
Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best
distinguished using
2) X=Toluene Y=m–nitro acetotoluene
1) Fehling’s solution
3) X=Acetophenone Y=o– and p–dinitro
acetophenone
2) Semicarbazide
4)
X=Benzalde hyde
nitrobenzaldehyde
4) Tollen’s reagent
Y=m–
3) 2, 4–DNP
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77.
12
Cl 2
X 
 Benzotrichloride
light
81.
Hydrolysis

 Y . X and Y are
Match coloumn I with column II
Column - I
Column - II
 A   CH 3 3 CBr  OH
  CH 3 3 COH  Br 

1) Benzene, Benzaldehyde
KOH
 CH 3CH 2 OH
 B CH 3CH 2 Br 
2) Toluene, Benzaldehyde
3) Toluene, Benzoic acid
 C  CH 3CH  CH 2  HBr
4) Benzene, Benzoic acid
 D  CH3  CH 2 Br  alc.KOH
 CH 3CH 2 CH 2 Br
Assertion : Ethers are not prepared by
the dehydration of secondary and
tertiary alcohols
Reason : In the secondary and tertiary
alcohols elimination predominate and
alkene formed easily
80.
Assertion : Aldehydes on treatment
with aqueous NaHSO 3 produce
bisulphite addition products
Reason
:
Aldehyde s
undergo
nucleophilic addition reactions
 iv  Kharasch effect
2) A   ii  ; B   iii  ; C   iv  ; D   i 
3) A   ii  ; B   i  ; C   iv  ; D   iii 
4) A   iii  ; B   i  ; C   ii  ; D   iv 
82.
79.
nucleophilic
substitution
1) A   iv  ; B   i  ; C   ii  ; D   iii 
3) Assertion is correct but reason is
not correct
Reason : The reaction is fittig reaction
nucleophilic
 CH 2  CH 2
2) Assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
Assertion : A mixture of an alkyl halide
and arylhalide in the presence of
metallic sodium and dry ether gives
an alkylarene
 iii  S2N
Peroxide
1) Both asserti on and reason are
correct and reason is the correct
explanation of assertion
4) Assertion is not correct but reason
is correct
 ii  S1N
substitution
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
78.
 i    elimination
Match Column–I with Column–II
Column  I
 A  Hydrolysis of
Column  II
benzene
 i  p  cresol
diazonium chloride
 B Phenol  methylchloride
in presence of anhydrous
AlCl3
 C  Reaction of
sodium
phenoxide with CO 2
 D  Phenol  conc.HNO3
 ii  Salicylic acid
 iii  Picric acid
 iv  Phenol
1) A   i  ; B   iii  ; C   ii  ; D   iv 
2) A   ii  ; B   iii  ; C   iv  ; D   i 
3) A   iv  ; B   i  ; C   ii  ; D   iii 
4) A   iii  ; B   iv  ; C   i  ; D   ii 
13
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83.
Match Column-I with Column–II
Column  I
 A  Methanol
 B  Fermentation
85.
Column  I
Column  II
 i  Ethylalcohol
Re duction
 B  Rosenmund
at 573 K
Re duction
iii Reaction of
 C  Conversion of  
 D  Williamson 's
synthesis
 C  Iodoform
alkyl halide
with sodium
alkoxide
Reaction
 D  Canizzaro
Reaction
 iii  H 2 / Pd  BaSO4
 iv  NaOH  I2
1) A   i  ; B   iii  ; C   ii  ; D   iv 
2) A   iii  ; B   iv  ; C   i  ; D   ii 
3) A   ii  ; B   iii  ; C   iv  ; D   i 
2) A   ii  ; B   iii  ; C   iv  ; D   i 
4) A   iv  ; B   i  ; C   ii  ; D   iii 
3) A   iv  ; B   i  ; C   ii  ; D   iii 
4) A   iv  ; B   ii  ; C   iii  ; D   i 
Statement Type Questions
1) Both statement I and Statement II
are incorrect
Which of the following structure is not
correctly matched?
1)
 ii  Zn / Hg  conc.HCl
 iv  Wood spirit
1) A   i  ; B   iii  ; C   ii  ; D   iv 
84.
Column 
 A  Clemmensen  i  Conc.KOH
 ii  Heated copper
2 alcohol to
ketone
Match Column–I with Column–II
2) Both statement I and II are correct
  methoxypropionaldehyde
3) Statement I is correct but statement
II is incorrect
CH3  CH  C  H
4) Statement I is incorrect but
statement II is correct
OCH3 O
2) 3–Hydroxy butanal CH3  CH  CH2CHO
86.
OH
3) 4–Oxopentanal CH3CH 2CH2  C  CHO
O
4) Di–sec–butyl ketone
CH3  CH 2  CH  C  CH  CH 2  CH 3
CH3 O CH3
Statement -I: Isobutanal does not give
iodoform test
Statement-II: Isobutanal does not have
  hydrogen
87.
Statement-I: The carbon halogen bond
length increases from C–F to C–I in
methyl halides
Statement-II:
Dipole
moment
increases from C–F to C–I in methyl
halides
14
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88.
Statement -I: Melting point of isomeric
dihalobenzenes are nearly the same
94.
Statement -II: Isomeric dihalobenzenes
have different molecular masses
89.
Hydrolysis of ozonide of 1–butene in
presence of Zn dust gives
95.
2) Stenotherms
3) Euryhaline
4) Stenohaline
The factors which affect percolation
and water holding capacity of soil are
1) Soil composition
2) Propanal and methanal
2) Grain size
3) Ethanal only
3) Aggregation
4) Ethanal and glyoxal
4) All of the above
X  CH3 MgBr 

H2O
Vegetation in any area depend on
1) pH of soil
CH 3  C  CH3  NH 3  MgBr  OH 
2) Mineral composition
3) Topography
O
4) All of the above
Identity X
1) Ethyl cyanide
2) Ethyl chloride
3) Ethane nitrile
4) Methane nitrile
BOTANY
91.
1) Eurytherms
1) Ethanal and methanal
96.
90.
The organisms which are restricted to
a narrow range of salinity are known
as
Ramdeo Misra laid foundation for the
understanding of
1) subtropical communities
97.
98.
Diapause is exhibited by
1) Zooplankton
2) Birds
3) Snails
4) Polar bears
The figure given below is a
diagrammatic re presentation of
response of organi sms to abioti c
factors. What do ( A) (B) and (C)
represent respectively?
2) Temperate community
3) Tropical community
4) Arctic and tundra
92.
93.
A group of organisms belongs to same
species constitute
1) Community
2) Biome
3) Ecosystem
4) Population
Example of eurythermal organisms are
1) Reptiles only
2) Amphibians only
1) A : conformers, B: Partial regulaters,
C-Regulaters
2) A ; Partial regulaters, B: Conformers,
C: Regulateers
3) Most mammals and birds
3) A: Regulaters, B: Partial regulaters,
C: Conformers
4) Fishes only
4) A: Conformers, B:Regulaters, C:
Partial regulaters
15
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99.
Select incorrect matching
1) Natality : Number of births during a
given period in the population that are
added to iniital density
2) Immigration : Number of individuals
of the same species that have come
into habitat from elsewhere during
given time period
3) Mortality : Number of individual of
population who left the habitat and
gone elsewhere during given time
period
4) Emigration: Moving o ut of
organisms/individuals of a population,
from a habitat during a period of time.
103. If a population grows in a habitat with
limited resources, the n following
phases of achievement are observed as
1) Lag  Acceleration  Deceleration
 Asymptote
2) Log  Deceleration  Acceleration
 Asymptote
3) Log  Acceleration  Deceleration
 Asympote
4) Lag  Acceleration  Asymptote 
Deceleration
104. Diagram represent population growth
curve. Graph ‘a’ represented by
formula
100. If a new habitat is just being colonized
then which of the following option do
you think would have a greater
contributio n to wards population
density
1) Mortality
2) Natality
3) Immigration
4) Emigration
101. The r value for Norway rat, flour beetle
and human population (in 1981)
respectively
1) 0.15, 0.12, 0.0205
2) 0.0015, 0.0205, 0.12
3) 0.015, 0.12, 0.0205
4) 1.5, 0.012, 0.0502
1)
dN
 rN
dt
dN
2)
KN


3) dt  rn  K 


dN
N
dt
dN
KN


4) dt  N  K 


105. Identify A, B and C in below figure of
age pyramid for human population
102. Carrying capacity ‘K’ means___
1) Organism's capability of maximum
reproduction
2) Nature's limit fo r suppo rting
maximum growth of population size
indefinitely
3) Nature's limit for maintaining low
number of species
4) Organism's capability to withstand
environmental odds
1) A : Declining, B-Stable, C: Expanding
2) A: Stable, B: Expanding, C;p
Declining
3) A: Expanding, B; Stable, C: Declining
4) A: Stable, B: Declining, C: Expanding
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106. The interacting species
together in
live closely
1) Predation
111. Example of brood parasitism is :
1) Cuckoo (koel) and Crow
2) Crow and Parrot
2) Parasitism
3) Commensalism
3) Parrot and Pigeon
4) All of these
4) Koel and Parrot
107. What is true about predation between
organism
1) It acts as a method to transfer
energy across various trophic levels
2) It helps in keeping control over prey
population
3) It helps in maintaining species
diversity in a community
1) Fungus and photosynthetic algae
2) Fungus and cyanobacteria
3) Fungus and roots of higher plants
4) Both (1) and (2)
113. Select incorrect statement
4) All of these
108. Who showed that five closely related
species of warblers living on the same
tree were able to avoid competition and
co-exist:
1) Connell
2) Mac Arthur
3) Gause
4) Darwin
109. Connell's elegant field experiments
showed that on rockey sea coasts of
Scotland, the larger and competitively
superior barnacle A dominates the
intertidal area, and exclude smaller
barnacle B from that zone. Identify A
and B respectively :
1) Chathamalus, Balanus
2) Balanus, Balanus
3) Chathamalus, Chathamalus
4) Balanus, Chathamalus
110. Which of the following is/are correct
example/s of ectoparasite
1) Lice on humans
2) Ticks on dogs
3) Copepods on marine fishes
4) All are correct
112. Lichens are mutualistic relationship
between
1) The Mediterranean orchid ophrys
employs sexual deceit to get pollinated
2) In mycorrhizal association fungi
help the plant in the absorption of
essential nutrients from the soil
3) Pinus seeds cannot germinate and
establish without the pre sence of
mycorrhizae
4) When resources are unlimited, the
growth is usually logistic but when
resources become progre ssively
limiting, the growth pattern turns
exponential
Assertion - Reason type questions
1) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion
2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion
3) If the assertion is true but the
reason is false
4) If both the assertion and reason are
false
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17
114. Assertion: Very small animals are
rarely found in Polar regions
Reason: Small animals have a larger
surface area relative to their volume;
they tend to lose body heat very fast
when it is cold outside.
115. Assertion: The size of a population for
any species is not a static parameter
Reason: It doesn't depend on food
availabililty, predation pressure and
adverse weather.
116. Which of the following interaction is
not an example for commensalism ?
1) Rhizobium and Legumes
2) Orchid and Mango tree
3) Sea anemone and Clown fish
4) Barnacles and Whale
117. Which one of the following is most
appropriately defined
1) Host is an organism that derive
nourishment from another organism
2) Amensalism is a relationship in
which o ne species is benefited,
whereas the other is unaffected
3) Predator is an organism that catches
and kills other organism for food
4) Parasite is an organism which
always lives inside the body of other
organism and may kill it.
118. Which of the following is not a defence
me chanism
in
plants against
herbiovory ?
1) Thorns
2) Camouflage
3) Poisons
4) Chemical substances
119. Cattle or goat are never browsing on
Calotropis growing in abandoned fields
because of the presence of
1) Poisonous glycosides
2) Alkaloids like quinine
3) Opium
4) Strychnine
120. Select the incorrect statement
regarding
diffe rent
population
attributes
1) Natural selection operates at
population level
2) Size of the population tells a lot about
its status in the habitat
3) In age pyramids age distribution of
male and fe male s are shown in
separate diagrams
4) Population is a group of individuals
multiplying by sexual and asexual
reproduction
121. Mango, tuna fish, snow leopards are
1) Euryhaline
2) Stenothermal
3) Eurythermal
4) Eurythermal & euryhaline
122. Which o f the following is most
ecologically relevant factor?
1) Precipitation
2) Temperature
3) Soil
4) Wind
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123. Whi ch of the fo llowin g are the
character istics
of
e x pand ing
population ?
126. The two basic proce sses which
contribute to a increase in population
density are
i) Triangular age pyramid
1) Mortality and immigration
ii) Inverted pyramid
2) Natality and immigration
iii) Pre-reproductive and reproductive
age groups become more or less equal
in size.
iv) Rapidly growing population with high
birth rate.
1) (i) and (iii)
2) (i) and (iv)
3) (iii) and (iv)
4) (ii) and (iii)
124. Match the following and select the
correct option:
3) Mortality and emigration
4) Natality and emigration
127. What parameters are used for the tiger
census in our country's national parks
and sanctuaries?
1) Biomass coverage
2) Pug marks and faecal pellets
3) Faecal pellets only
Population
Ex am ple
4) Actual head counts
I)
C uscuta and
hedge plants
B ) C ommensalism II)
B alanus and
C hathamalus
1) Predation
2) Parasitism
C ) Parasitism
III)
C actus and
moth
3) Mutualism
4) Competition
D ) C ompetition
IV)
O rchid and
mango tree
A) Predation
128. In which of the following interactions
both partners are adversely affected?
129. Thorns of Acacia and Cactus are the
most common morphological means of
1) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
1) Reproduction
2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
2) Competition
3) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
3) Defence
4) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
4) Economical importance
125. Regarding temperature and osmotic
concentration nearly all plants are
130. Cuscuta is an example of
1) Regulators
1) Ectoparasitism
2) Conformers
2) Endoparasitism
3) Partial regulators
3) Predation
4) Escaper in time
4) Brood parasitism
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131. Major biomes in India includes:
(i) Tropical rain forest
(ii) Alpine region
134. The interaction between sea Anemone
and Clown fish is :1) Commensalism
(iii) Deciduous forest
(iv) Desert
(v) Tundra
2) Competition
3) Predation
(vi) Sea coast
Choose the correct option for major
biomes in India:
1) (i), (iii), (iv), and (v)
4) Amensalism
135. Select the mis-matched pair:-
2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
Phytophagous
insects
1) Predation
-
2) Competition
- Calotropis and cattle
(I) Structure of organism
3) Parasitism
-
(II) Physiology of organim
4) Mutualism
- Fig and wasp
4) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
132. Abiotic factors affect the:
loss of digestive
system
(III) Behaviour of organism
Choose the correct option for the above
question:
1) (I) and (II) only
2) (II) and (III) only
3) (I), (II) and (III)
4) (I) and (III) only
133. Which among the following are true
about interdependence.
(i) One is benefitted and other
unaffected in mutualism
(ii) Both partners can be benefitted in
commensalism
(iii) One kills and feeds on another in
predation
(iv) Both partners can be benefitted in
mutualism
ZOOLOGY
136. The total amount of DNA (No o f
nucleotides) in   174 virus is
1) 48502 bps 2) 48502 Nucleitides
2) 5386 bps
4) 5386 Nucleotides
137. The possibility of a ge ne transfer
between two strains of streptococcus
pneumonial has been proposed by
1) F. Griffith
2) F. Meischer
1) (i) and (ii) only
2) (i) and (iii) only
3) (ii) and (iii) only
4) (iii) and (iv) only
3) Avery Mcleod, Mccarthy
4) Hershey and Chase
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Assertion and Reason Type
138. Assertion (A) : In a double stranded
DNA if there are 15% of adinine; there
will be 35% of cytosine
Reason (R) : The base pairing is 100%
specific in DNA; where purine base of
one chain pair with pyrimidine base of
opposite chain
1) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is
correct
2) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is not
correct
3) (A) is true (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
139. Watson and Crick were awarded Nobel
prize for their work published in the
year
1) 1953
2) 1961
3) 1962
4) 1958
140. Which among the following is not a
process during the processing of
hn.RNA into m-RNA
1) Capping
2) Polyadenylation
3) Splicing
4) Aminoacylation
141. The size of VNTR ranges between
1) 0.1 - 20 bps
2) 0.1 - 20 kb
3) 1 - 20 bps
4) 1 - 20 kb
142. The various eco system service s
provided by the biodiversity is a reason
for the conservation of biodiversity
under.
1) Narrow utilitarian argument
2) Broad utilitarian argument
143. As the lattitude increases from equator
to poles
1) Biodiversity increases
2) Biodiversity decreases
3) No. change in biodiversity
4) Biodiversity initialy decrease then
increase
144. Which among the following sentence
is not correct about the importance of
species diversity
1) A stable community should not show
too much variation in productivity from
year to year
2) Increase diversity contributed to
higher productivity
3) Este rn ghats have greate r
amphibian diversity than western ghat
4) According to the IUCN (2004) the
total number plant and animal species
described so for is slightly more than
1.5 million
145. Which among the following set of
codons have no anticodons
1) AUG, UGG, CCC
2) GGG, CCC, AAA, UUU
3) UAG, UGA, UAA
4) AGC, UAC, UCA
146. Read the following statements and
identify the correct option
Statement A : Maximum number of
genes are present on chromosome I
with 2968 genes
Statement B : Least number of genes
are present on X-chromosome with 231
genes
1) Both statement A and B are correct
3) Ethical argument
2) Both state me nt A and B are
incorrect
4) (1) and (2)
3) Statement A is correct, B is incorrect
4) Statement A is incorrect, B i s
correct
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21
147. Which among the following is not a part
of Lac aperon
1) Regulatory gene
2) Reperssor
3) Structural gene
4) Operator
148. How many different types of histones
are present in a nucleosome
1) Four types 2) Eight types
3) five types 4) Seven types
149. During transcription unwinding of DNA
is catalysed by
1) Helicases 2) DNA polymerases
3) Ligases
4) RNA polymerases
150. How many different types of proteins
are present in a ribosome
1) Eight types
2) Eighteen types
3) Eighty types
4) Cannot be predicted
151. RNA dependent DNA polymerase is
involved in
1) Reverse transcription
2) Transcription
3) Replication
4) Translation
152. Match the years of importance given
in column - I and their importance
given in column II
Column - I
A) 1952
B) 1958
column - II
1 First earth summit
Hershey and chase
2
experiment
C) 1992
3 First world summit
D) 2002
Experiment to prove
4 semi-conservative
nature of replication
1) A - 1 ; B - 2 ; C - 3 ; D - 4
2) A - 4 ; B - 3 ; C - 2 ; D - 1
3) A - 2 ; B - 4 ; C - 1 ; D - 3
4) A - 4 ; B - 2 ; C - 3 ; D - 1
153. Which among the following is not a
model organsim before starting the
human genome project
1) Drosophila
2) Arabidopsis thaliana
3) E .Coli
4) Garden Pea
154. Which among the following sentence
is wrong about causes of bidiversity
loss
1) Once covering more than 14% of
earths land surface, Tropical rain
forest now cover no more than 6%
2) the degradation of many habitats
by pollution also threate ne s the
survival of many species
3) When alien species are introduced,
some of then turn invasive and cause
decline or extinction of indigenous
species
4) Over -exploilation is the most
dramatic and most important cause
driving animals and plants to
extinction
155. Biodiversity is the term popularised by
the sociobiologist
1) Edward Wilson
2) David Tilman
3) Paul Ehrlich
4) Robert May
156. Part of DNA which code for an
enzymatic protein is named as
1) Cistron
2) Operon
3) Operator
4) Intron
157. Which among the following sentence
is correct about transcription
machinery of prokaryote
1) Transcription and translation are
coupled
2) Immediate product of transcription
is hn-RNA
3) Formation of monocistronic m-RNA
4) Presence of three types of RNA
polymerases to produce different types
of RNAs
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158. Which among the following group of
organisms have the maximum
percentage of species facing the threat
of extinction
163. During polyadenylation there is the
addition of 200 - 300 adenine
nucleotides towards the
1) 3’ end of hn-RNA
1) Amphibians
2) 5’ end of hn-RNA
2) Gymnosperms
3) 3’ end of m - RNA
3) Mammals
4) 5’ end of m- RNA
4) Birds
159. D uring the aminoaylation ; the
aminoacid is attached to the
1) 5’ end of t. RNA
2) 3’ end of t.RNA
164. Intron and Exons are the part of
1) m-RNA
2) hn-RNA
3) t - RNA
4) r - RNA
165. Sanger method is exploited in human
genome project for
3) 5’ end of m-RNA
1) Isolation of DNA
4) 3’ end of m-RNA
160. Anticodon is a triplet of base present
on the
1) DNA
2) m-RNA
3) t-RNA
4) r . RNA
161. In addition to DNA dependent DNA
polymerases many additional enzymes
are required to complete this process
with high occuracy the process
mentioned here is
2) Digesting the DNA in to fragments
3) Separation of DNA fragments
4) Sequencing the DNA isolated from
the cell
166. Replication has been proved as semiconservative through the experiment
conducted in E-Coli by
1) Hershey and chase
2) Taylor and wood
1) Replication
3) Meselson and stahl
2) Transcription
4) Jacob and Monod
3) Translation
4) Reverse transcription
162. The isotope used by Hershey and
chase to labell the protein coat of virus
is
1) 35S
2) 32 S
3) 32 P
4) 35 P
167. How many different types of codons and
anticodons are there in a cell
1) 64 each
2) 61 each
3) 64 and 61 respectively
4) 61 and 64 respectively
23
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
168. Which among the following description
is wrong about - satellite areas in DNA
1) It is the part of repetitive squence
2) This area never code for protein
3) VNTR in the DNA is a type of satellite
4) Satellite represent the major peak
of
DNA
in
density
gradient
centrifugation
169. Match the name of colour given in
column - I with that of the
corresponding aminoacid in column II
Column - I
A) UUU
B) UGG
Column - II
1 Tryptophan
2 Proline
C) GGG
3 Phenyl alanine
D) CCC
4 Glycine
171. Which among the following sentence
is incorrect about DNA polymorphism
1) If an inheritable mu tation i s
observe d in a population at high
frequency i t is refered to as DNA
polymorphism
2)Polymorphism in DNA sequences is
the basis of genetic mapping of human
genome as well as DNA fingerprinting
3) Polymorphism arises due to mutation
4) DNA polymorphism is always in
terms of single nucleotide change
172. Presence of diffe re nt types o f
ecosystems in India is the impact of
1) Genetic diversity
2) Species diversity
3) Ecological diversity
4) 1 and 2
173. Which among the following sentence
is wrong about Hot spots
1) A - 1 ; B - 2 ; C - 3 ; D - 4
2) A - 4 ; B - 3 ; C - 2 ; D - 4
1) Regi ons
endemism
3) A - 3 ; B - 1 ; C - 4 ; D - 2
2) High species diversity
pre sent
1) Basic with positive charge
highde gree
in
4) All the biodiversity hotspot put
together cover 2% of earth’s land area
174. Which among the following molecule
function as adapte r mole cule in
translation
2) Basic with negative charge
1) DNA
2) r-RNA
3) Acidic with positive charge
3) t-RNA
4) m -RNA
4) Acidic with negative charge
of
3) Regions of accelerated habitat loss
4) A - 2 ; B - 4 ; C - 1 ; D - 3
170. H istone
proteins
chrmosome are
with
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
24
175. F. Griffith conducted transformation
experiment in the following organism
1) Streptococcus
2) Staphylococcus
178. An operon is a group of
1) Genes
2) m-RNA
3) Codons
4) Anticodons
179. Consider the following statements
3) Escherichia
Statement : 99.9% of base sequences
among human are the same
4)  - phage
176. A nucleoside on hydrolysis never yields
1) Purine N2 base
Statement II : More than 2% of the
human genome codes for protein
2) Sugar
1) Statement I and II are correct
3) Pyrimidine N2 base
2) Statement I and II are incorrect
4) Phosphoric acid
177. A linear DNA prese nt inside
chromosome posses:
1) Many transcription unit
2) One transcription unit
3) Many replication unit
4) 1 and 3
3) Statement I is correct ; II is incorrect
a
4) Statement I is incorrect ; II is correct
180. Robert May places the global species
diversity at about
1) 7 billion
2) 7 Million
3) 70 billion
4) 17 Million
26-02- 2024
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Batch : EVEN BATCH
NEET MODEL EXAMINATION-UNIT- VII
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org
P+C+B- Key with hints
Test Booklet
Code
221
PHYSICS
1.
2
For the concave mirror, u = -15 , f= -10 then v = -30. This image acts as object
for the convex mirror.For the convex mirror , u = -10, f = +15, Then v = +6
 L D 20 25
 

 250
fo fe
1
2
2.
3
m
3.
4
i1 = 2r1. Then 1 sin 2r1  2 sin r1 . Then 2sin r1 cos r1  2 sin r1
cos r1 
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
3
4
2
3
3
1
. Hence r1 = 450 . So A = 2r1 = 90
2
r2 = 0; A = r1 + r2. So A= r1
1 sin i1  n  sin r1
But for small angle prism, sin i = i, sinr = r
i1 = nr1  i1 = nA
9.
4
Since sun is at infinity image is at the focus .
10.
4
2
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
11.
3
12.
4
13.
1
14.
4
15.
3
Since direction of propagation is at along X axis
16.
1
E rms
C
Brms
;
 
E  B  ˆj  kˆ  ˆj  kˆ  2iˆ

So, Brms 
 

B0
E rms
. But Brms 
2
C
 B0  Brms 2 
2 6
3  106
3
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
I max  a1  a 2 

I min  a1  a 2 2
2
17.
4
18.
3
19.
2
here a1 : a2 = 1 : 2
path difference 
dx
d
, where x 
D
2
 path difference 
d2 

4
2D
Since D = 10 d and d = 5
phase difference 
2  
 
2
 4

 I
I  I0 cos 2   become I  I0 cos 2    0
2
4 2
20.
3
At A and B path difference from S1 and S2 is 3 . At C and D, path difference
from S1 and S2 is zero. Considering the full circle, no. of maxima = 12

D
a
21.
2
Linear width = Angular width  D = 2θ  D  2 
22.
4
Intensity of light comming out of first polaroid I1 
I
2
Intensity of light coming out of second polaroid of I 2  I1 cos 2 60

I 1 I
 
8
2 4
2
Intensity of light coming out of third polaroid I3  I2 cos 30 
23.
1
tan   n
n
24.
25.
3
3
I 3

8 4
1
sin C
At br ewst er s an gle
 . The angle of incidence + angle of refraction =900
4
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
26.
4
The image in the absence of lens acts as virtual object in the presence of
lens. For the diverging lens u = +10, v = +15, f = ? 
27.
2
28.
2
29.
4
30.
1
Snell’s law n 
1 1 1
  . Then f = -30
10 15 f
sin i
sin r
1
From the figure r  90 0   . Since  = critical angle, sin  
n
2
sin i  n sin r  n sin (900   )  n cos   n 1  sin   n 1 
1
 n2 1
2
n
2
 3
1
sin i  
  1 
2
 2 
31.
  450
4
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
1
3
3
3
1
37.
1
The incident and the second reflected ray make the same angle  with vertical.
Therefore, they are parallel for any value of  .
d = i + e - A ; 30 = 60 + e - 30 ; e = 0o
u = -20, f = -20. Then
1 1 1
 
20 v 20
5
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
38.
1
The image in the absence of second medium acts as virtual object in the
presence of medium. So, u = +32, R = +16, n1 
4
, n 2  3 2 find v
3
n 2 n1 n 2  n1
 
v
u
R
39.
1
For the plane mirror, u = x. Then v also x. For concave mirror, u = -(50-x)
v = -(50+x) and f = -16. Then
40.
1
41.
2
42.
3
43.
44.
1
1
1
1
1


50  x 50  v 16
For the first lens, u = -20, f = +20. Then v = +60. This image acts as virtual
object for the second lens. For the seocnd lens, u = +30, f = 30. Then v = +15
Deviation will be maximum when i1 = 90o
1  1 
  i1  i 2  A ;  m  90o  i 2  A ; sin 90o   sin r1 r1  sin    C ;

sin r2 1
r2  A  C  0  A  C  ; Also sin i   ,  sin r2  sin i 2 ;
2
sin i2 = 0, i2 = 0
 max  90o  i 2  A  90o  A
45.
3
sin C 
1
;
1.5
C = 41.8 and i = 60o
Since i > C , TIR takes place at 2. The ray then falls normally on face 3
6
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
CHEMISTRY
46.
3
47.
48.
3
2
S2N mechanism is favoured by polar aprotic solvent
49.
4
CH 2  CH  CH 2  X
50.
3
The carbon to which halogen is attached is sp3 hybridised
The byproduct HCl and SO2 being gases, pure R–Cl is obtained
51.
3
 CH3 4 C gives only one monochlorinated product
 CH3 2 CH  CH 2  CH3 gives four monochlorinated
product
CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
Cl
CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
Cl
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH 3
Cl
52.
2
53.
54.
1
3
55.
1
Para isomer is packed well in solid state. Due to the symmetry of molecule
they have the highest melting point among its isomers
alc.KOH
HBr
CH3  CH  CH3 

 CH 3  CH  CH 2 
peroxide
Br
NaI
CH3  CH 2  CH 2 Br 
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 I
Acetone
56.
57.
1
1
58.
1
59.
60.
61.
1
2
3
62.
3
Electron donating group decreases acidity and electron withdrawing group
increases acidity of phenol
Hydroboration – oxidation reaction of alkene follows anti-Markwonikoff’s addition of H2O
Form at ion of ph en ol from cu m en e an d in term ediate is cu m en e h ydr operoxide
CH 3 MgBr

CH 3  CH  CH 3 
 CH 3  C  CH 3 


H /H O
o
2
OH
CH3
CH 3  C  OH
CH3
63.
64.
65.
66.
4
3
3
1
O
7
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
67.
68.
69.
4
3
4
70.
1
dil.NaOH
H  C  H  HCH 2 CHO 
 CH 2  CH  CHO
heat
O
CN

H 3O
HCN

 CH 2  CH  C  H 

71.
72.
73.
74.
3
1
1
3
75.
1
CH 2  CH  CH  COOH
OH
OH
Aldehyde with no   hydrogen will undergo cannizzaro reaction

OH
CHO  CH 3  C  CH 3 
 C 6 H 5  CH  CH 2  C  CH 3
OH
O

 C6 H 5  CH  CH  C  CH 3
O
 H 2O
O
76.
4
CH3
77.
3
78.
79.
3
1
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
1
2
3
3
3
3
3
3
1
CCl3
Cl2

COOH
Hydrolysis


The reaction is Wurtz fittig
The dehydration of 2° and 3° alcohol to give ethers is unsuccessful as elimination competes over substitution and as consequence alkenes are easily
formed
p–isomers are high melting compared to ortho and meta isomers. Isomers
have same molecular mass
O
89.
2
O3
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2 
 CH 3  CH 2  CH
 CH 3CH 2 CHO  HCHO
CH2 
O
90.
3
O

H 3O
CH 3  C  N  CH 3 MgBr 
 CH 3  C  O
CH3
8
FT23H/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[221]
BOTANY
91.
3
100. 3
109. 4
118. 2
127. 2
92.
4
101. 3
110. 4
119. 1
128. 4
93.
3
102. 2
111. 1
120. 3
129. 3
94.
4
103. 1
112. 4
121. 2
130. 1
95.
4
104. 1
113. 4
122. 2
131. 4
96.
4
105. 3
114. 1
123. 2
132. 3
97.
1
106. 4
115. 3
124. 1
133. 4
98.
1
107. 4
116. 1
125. 2
134. 1
99.
3
108. 2
117. 3
126. 2
135. 2
ZOOLOGY
136.
4
145.
3
154.
4
163.
1
172.
3
137.
1
146.
3
155.
1
164.
2
173.
4
138.
1
147.
2
156.
1
165.
4
174.
3
139.
1
148.
1
157.
1
166.
3
175.
1
140.
4
149.
4
158.
1
167.
3
176.
4
141.
2
150.
3
159.
2
168.
4
177.
4
142.
2
151.
1
160.
3
169.
3
178.
1
143.
2
152.
3
161.
1
170.
1
179.
3
144.
3
153.
4
162.
1
171.
4
180.
2