AB1201 Proposed answers for AB1201 Exam Sem 2 AY2021-22 Section A Question 1 (9 marks each) (TOTAL 45 marks) 1a) CAPM is a model based on the proposition that any stock’s required rate of return is equal to the risk-free rate of return plus a risk premium that reflects only the risk remaining after diversification (i.e., risk premium that is based on the systematic risk of the stock). Market risk is the risk that remains in a portfolio after diversification has eliminated all company-specific risk (diversifiable risk). Market risk, or systematic risk, affects the performance of the entire market simultaneously. It cannot be eliminated through diversification. Market risk is measured by beta. A firm can influence its market risk (its beta) through changes in the composition of its assets and through changes in the amount of debt it uses. For example, when a firm uses more debt, its beta increases with higher financial leverage, as can be quantified by the Hamada equation. 𝑏𝐿 = 𝑏𝑈 [1+(1-T)(D/E)], When a firm’s debt increases, D/E increases. So does the firm’s beta. A firm’s beta can also change as a result of external factors such as increased competition in its industry, recessions, changes to interest rates and inflation rates. Increased competition can create lower market share and fewer profits for a firm hence a firm’s business risk may increase. 1b) Both analysts are unlikely to arrive at the same intrinsic value for the shares of the company even if they use the same Gordon Model. Each of the variables (D1, rs and g) in the Gordon Model may be estimated differently by the two analysts because the analysts may possess different information, or may interpret the same information differently, or may use different approaches when estimating the value of each variable, or may use different proxies for the same variable. This will result in different estimated intrinsic values for the shares. 1c) WACC=𝑤𝑑 𝑟𝑑 (1 − 𝑇) + 𝑤𝑠 𝑟𝑠 + 𝑤𝑝 𝑟𝑝 Where 𝑟𝑑 , 𝑟𝑠 and 𝑟𝑝 are the costs of new debt, common equity, and preferred stock, respectively. 𝑤𝑑 , 𝑤𝑠 and 𝑤𝑝 are the target weight of each capital component. 𝑇 is the tax rate. Part i) We should use the target capital structure since it refers to how company plans to raise capital to fund its future projects. This is more relevant to determining future projects. We should use market values since generally investors are more concerned about the current market value of the company’s debt and equity. 1 AB1201 Part ii) WACC of a company is computed based on the company’s existing risk profile. However, investors would require higher returns on riskier investment and therefore the computed WACC needs to be adjusted when applying on such a project. Companies that are raising capital to take on risky projects will have higher cost of capital than companies that are investing in safer projects. For a riskier project, the WACC needs to be adjusted higher for project appraisal. 1d) WACC = wdrd(1- TC) + wcrs Initially when debt/capital ratio is zero and company is an all-equity firm, WACC = rs. rs is always higher than rd as equity is riskier than debt because share prices are more volatile than bond prices, and shareholders get lower priority claim to the liquidation proceeds than bond holders when the company goes bankrupt. As level of debt/capital increases, the firm is substituting cheaper after-tax cost of debt for relatively more expensive cost of equity, hence WACC declines initially. Beyond a certain debt/capital level, WACC increases even though the firm continues to have more relatively cheaper debt. This is because both after-tax cost of debt and cost of equity would increase as the risk of the firm increases with financial leverage. Hamada equation: bL = bU [1 + (1-T)(D/E)] SML/CAPM equation: rs = rRF + (rM- rRF)bL bL is the leverage beta of the firm. Assuming the total capital is kept constant, when the firm increases debt, it correspondingly reduces equity. Hence D/E will always increase with debt and therefore bL will also increase with debt. The impact of higher bL will then lead to higher cost of equity (rs) when debt increases (assuming the standard assumption that the market risk premium is positive). 1e) Students can indicate any three of the following: Stable versus irregular dividend payment - Stable dividend policy – stable dollar dividends, which do not fluctuate with volatile annual earnings. - Constant payout dividend policy – pay a fixed percentage of annual earnings as dividends (hence, may result in irregular dividend payment). High dividend payout versus low dividend payout - Decide whether to fix a high dividend payout ratio or to fix a low dividend payout ratio Residual dividend policy - Grant priority to building up retained earnings for required future investments; any leftover is paid out as dividends. Frequency of dividend payment - Decide whether dividends are to be paid quarterly, semi-annually, or annually. 2 AB1201 Cash dividend versus Stock dividend - Decide whether to pay dividends by means of cash, or by means of issuing new dividend shares. Cash dividend versus Share Buyback. - Decide whether to distribute cash by means of a Cash Dividend or distribute it by means of a Share Buyback. _______________________________________________________ Section B Question 2 (TOTAL 10 marks) Original PMT: Iper per month = 0.06/12 = 0.005 𝑃𝑀𝑇 120 1 100000 = 0.005 [1 − (1.005) ] PMT=$1,110.2050 Remaining balance at end of year 3: 1110.2050 PV= 0.005 84 1 [1 − (1.005) ] = $75,996.91 New PMT: Iper Per month = 0.08/12 75996.91= 𝑃𝑀𝑇 00.08/12 [1 − ( 84 1 ) ] PMT = $1,184.50 1+0.08/12 (Rounding error is expected if students use 0.67% instead of 8%/12) _____________________________________________ Question 3 (TOTAL 10 marks) a) (7 marks) Bowin’s: 𝑟𝑆 = 4% + 5(1.2) = 10% 𝑉𝐵 = 𝐷0 (1+𝑔) 𝑟𝑆 −𝑔 Doodle’s: = 0.6(1.05) 0.1−0.05 = $𝟏𝟐. 𝟔𝟎 𝑟𝑆 = 4% + 5(1.6) = 12% 𝑉𝐷 = 𝐷0 (1+𝑔) 𝑟𝑆 −𝑔 = 0.48(1.0625) 0.12−0.0625 0.51 = 0.0575 = $8.87 VB – VD = 12.6 – 8.87 = $3.73 3 AB1201 Bowin’s stock intrinsic value is higher than Doodle’s by $3.73. b) (3 marks) Assume w is the amount to invest in Bowin’s stock. 𝑤 1.35 = 120,000 (1.2) + 120,000−𝑤 w = $75,000 120,000 – w = $45,000 120,000 (1.6) Hence, the amount to invest in Bowin’s stock is $75,000, and the amount to invest in Doodle’s stock is $45,000. ____________________________________________________________ Question 4 (TOTAL 10 marks) P0 = 30 30 1200 + 30 + + 1 2 (1.15) (1.15) (1.15)3 P0 = 857.5162 = $857.52 Calculator N = 3, I/Y = 15, PMT = 30, FV = 1,200, CPT PV = -857.5162 857.52 = 30 + (1+𝑋)1 30 30 30 + ⋯ + (1+𝑋)9 + (1+𝑋)2 857.52 = ∑10 𝑡=1 (1+𝑋)𝑡 + X = 4.83% 1000+ 30 (1+𝑋)10 or 1000 (1+𝑋)10 Calculator N = 10, PV = -857.5162, PMT = 30, FV = 1,000, CPT I/Y = 4.83 ______________________________________________________ Question 5 (TOTAL 15 marks) a) (9 marks) Market capitalization 6 years ago = 20m × $30 = $600m Current market capitalization = $600m × (1 + 80%) = $1,080m Current number of shares = $1,080m / $32 = 33.75m shares No. of shares before the 3-for-2 share split = 33.75m x 2/3 = 22.5m shares 4 AB1201 Percentage of stock dividend, x = (22.5m – 20m) / 20m = 12.5% b) (6 marks) r = r* + IP + MRP + DRP + LP = 2.5% + IP + 0.1(t – 1) + (DRP + LP) For the 6-year bond IP6 = [3(3%) + 3(4%)] / 6 = 3.5% 10.5% = 2.5% + 3.5% + 0.1(6 – 1)% + (DRP + LP) (DRP + LP) = 4% For the 10-year bond IP10 = [3(3%) + 7(4%)] / 10 = 3.7% r10 = 2.5% + 3.7% + 0.1(10 – 1)% + 4% = 11.1% ___________________________________________________ Question 6 (TOTAL 10 marks) Items Year 0 ($) Cost of machine Maintenance Maint. tax savings (Maint. × T) (50,000 × 20%) Deprec. tax savings (Deprec. × T) AT residual value Cash Flow PV cost at 8%(1 – 20%) or 6.4% -1,000,000 -50,000 10,000 Lease payment Tax saving on pmt AT lease pmt Year 1 ($) Borrow and Buy Analysis Year 2 ($) -50,000 10,000 -50,000 10,000 66,000 90,000 Year 3 ($) 30,000 94,000 -1,040,000 -868,455 26,000 50,000 -400,000 80,000 Lease Analysis -400,000 80,000 -400,000 80,000 -320,000 -320,000 -320,000 5 124,000 AB1201 PV cost at I(1 − T) or 6.4% Calculations: MACRS factor Depreciation -903,413 0.33 330,000 0.45 450,000 Residual value before taxes Book value (Cost − Total deprec.) Taxable residual value (gain from sale) Tax on residual value AT residual value (residual value before tax - tax) 0.15 150,000 100,000 70,000 30,000 -6,000 94,000 The net advantage to leasing is -$868,455 – (-$903,413) = $34,958 (i.e., it is cheaper to borrow and buy the equipment, instead of leasing it.) ________________________________________________ 6