DSAT Reading and Writing
Test Ninjas Publication
Made in California
2024 Edition
www.test-ninjas.com
Contents
I
Introduction
7
1 Introduction: About the DSAT
8
1.0.1
Format . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
8
1.0.2
Test Duration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
8
1.0.3
Adaptive Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
8
1.0.4
Test Experience . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
9
1.0.5
Question Format . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
9
1.0.6
Test Security . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
9
1.0.7
Score Delivery . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
9
1.0.8
Conclusion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
9
2 Reading Question Types
2.1
10
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
10
2.1.1
Domain: Craft and Structure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
10
2.1.2
Domain: Information and Ideas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
11
2.1.3
Domain: Standard English Conventions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
11
2.1.4
Domain: Expression of Ideas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
11
3 Scoring 1600
3.1
13
The Ultimate Guide to Scoring 1600 on the SAT: Strategies and Tips . . . . . . . .
2
13
3.1.1
Building a Solid Foundation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
13
3.1.2
Developing a Customized Study Plan . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
14
3.1.3
If you scored 1550 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
15
3.2
Mastering Time Management Skills for SAT Success . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
15
3.3
Tools for Time Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
15
3.3.1
Using a Computer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
15
3.3.2
Time Tracking Software . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
Strategies for Time Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
3.4.1
The Skip and Return Strategy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
3.4.2
The Section Division Strategy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
Practicing Time Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
3.5.1
Mock Tests
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
3.5.2
Gradual Time Reduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
3.5.3
Anxiety Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
16
Non-Traditional Methods for Test Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
17
3.6.1
Mind Mapping . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
17
3.6.2
Dual Coding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
17
3.6.3
Interleaved Practice . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
17
3.6.4
Test-Taking Tips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
18
3.6.5
Test day preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
18
3.7
Building Mental Resilience . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
19
3.8
Mindfulness Meditation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
19
3.9
Visualization . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
19
3.10 Mastering the Art of Educated Guessing in Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . .
20
3.10.1 The Process of Elimination . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
20
3.10.2 Beware of Absolute Terms . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
21
3.10.3 Choose the Longest or Most Detailed Answer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
21
3.4
3.5
3.6
3
II
3.10.4 Trust Your First Instinct . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
21
3.10.5 When All Else Fails, Guess . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
21
3.11 Positive Affirmations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
22
3.12 Harnessing the Power of Positive Affirmations for Test Taking . . . . . . . . . . . .
22
3.12.1 Understanding Positive Affirmations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
22
3.12.2 The Role of Positive Affirmations in Test Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . .
22
3.12.3 Incorporating Positive Affirmations into Test Preparation . . . . . . . . . . .
22
3.13 Conclusion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
23
“How to Solve” Tutorials
24
4 How to Solve “Craft and Structure - Word In Context”
25
4.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Word In Context” Question . . . . . . . . . . . . .
25
4.2
How to solve “Craft and Structure - Word In Context” . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
26
5 How to Solve “Craft and Structure - Text Structure and Purpose”
29
5.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Text Structure and Purpose” Question . . . . . . .
29
5.2
How to solve “Craft and Structure - Text Structure and Purpose” . . . . . . . . . .
30
6 How to Solve “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections”
34
6.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections” Question . . . . . . . . .
34
6.2
How to solve “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections” . . . . . . . . . . . .
35
7 How to Solve “Information and Ideas - Central Ideas and Details”
39
7.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections” Question . . . . . . . . .
39
7.2
How to solve “Information and Ideas - Central Ideas and Details” . . . . . . . . . .
40
8 How to Solve “Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence”
44
8.1
Example “Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence” Question . . . . . . . . .
44
8.2
How to solve “Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence” . . . . . . . . . . . .
45
4
9 How to Solve “Information and Ideas - Inferences”
9.1
Example “Inferences” Question . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
49
9.2
How to solve “Information and Ideas - Inferences” . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
50
10 How to Solve “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries”
54
10.1 Example “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries” Question . . . . . . . . . . .
54
10.2 How to solve “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries” . . . . . . . . . . . . .
55
11 How to Solve “Standard English Conventions - Form Structure, and Sense”
59
11.1 Example “Standard English Conventions - Form Structure, and Sense” Question . .
59
11.2 How to solve “Standard English Conventions - Form, Structure, and Sense” . . . . .
60
12 How to Solve ”Expression of Ideas - Rhetorical Synthesis”
62
12.1 Example ”Expression of Ideas - Rhetorical Synthesis” Question . . . . . . . . . . . .
63
12.2 How to solve “Expression of Ideas - Rhetorical Synthesis” . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
64
13 How to Solve “Expression of Ideas - Transitions”
III
49
68
13.1 Example “Expression of Ideas - Transitions” Question . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
68
13.2 How to solve “Expression of Ideas - Transition” . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
69
13.2.1 Additional Transition Word List . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
72
Practice Modules
75
14 Module 1
76
15 Module 1 Answers
91
16 Module 2
96
17 Module 2 Answers
110
18 Module 3
115
5
19 Module 3 Answers
130
20 Module 4
135
21 Module 4 Answers
150
22 Module 5
155
23 Module 5 Answers
170
24 Module 6
175
25 Module 6 Answers
190
26 Module 7
195
27 Module 7 Answers
210
28 Module 8
215
29 Module 8 Answers
230
6
Part I
Introduction
7
Chapter 1
Introduction: About the DSAT
The transition from the traditional paper-pencil SAT to the digital SAT brings several key
differences that impact the format, test duration, adaptability, test experience, question format,
test security, and score delivery. Understanding these differences will help students better
prepare for the new digital SAT.
1.0.1
Format
The digital SAT will be taken on a laptop or tablet using a custom exam application, while the
old SAT used paper and pencil. The digital format offers greater flexibility and convenience for
test-takers, as well as streamlined administration and grading for test centers.
1.0.2
Test Duration
The digital SAT will be shorter, approximately 2 hours long, compared to the old SAT’s 3-hour
duration. This change in duration reduces test fatigue, allowing students to maintain focus and
perform optimally throughout the exam.
1.0.3
Adaptive Testing
The digital SAT will be adaptive, adjusting the questions in the second module based on a
student’s performance in the first module. The old SAT did not have adaptive testing and
followed a fixed question sequence. Adaptive testing allows the digital SAT to provide a more
accurate assessment of a student’s abilities by tailoring the test to their specific skill level.
8
1.0.4
Test Experience
The digital SAT will have built-in tools like a countdown clock, flagging questions for review,
a built-in graphing calculator, and a math reference sheet. These tools were not available in
the old SAT format. The additional tools provided in the digital SAT enhance the testing
experience and allow for more efficient test-taking strategies.
1.0.5
Question Format
The digital SAT will feature more direct questions, with the Reading and Writing section
containing shorter texts tied to individual questions. The Math section will have more concise
word problems. The old SAT had longer reading passages with multiple questions per passage
and lengthier word problems. The new question format in the digital SAT aims to streamline
the testing process, focusing on the core skills and knowledge required for college and career
readiness.
1.0.6
Test Security
The digital SAT provides unique test forms for each student, making it almost impossible to
share answers and increasing test security. The old SAT had standardized test forms, which
were less secure. By implementing unique test forms, the digital SAT ensures a fair testing
environment and protects the integrity of the test results.
1.0.7
Score Delivery
Scores for the digital SAT will be delivered in days instead of weeks, as was the case with the
old SAT. The expedited score delivery allows students to receive their results more quickly,
enabling them to make timely decisions regarding college applications and other opportunities.
1.0.8
Conclusion
Despite these differences, both the new digital and old SAT will measure the same core reading,
writing, and math skills, use the same 1600-point scoring scale, and aim to assess college and
career readiness. By understanding the key differences between the digital and paper-pencil
SAT, students can adapt their preparation strategies and maximize their performance on the
new digital SAT format.
9
Chapter 2
Reading Question Types
2.1
Introduction
The SAT Reading section is designed to assess a student’s comprehension, vocabulary, analysis, synthesis, and reasoning skills across various domains. The test focuses on four primary
domains: Craft and Structure, Information and Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. Within these domains, ten specific skill areas are evaluated. A thorough
understanding of these domains and skills will help you develop effective strategies for tackling
the SAT Reading section. In this chapter, we will provide an in-depth introduction to each
domain and their associated question types.
2.1.1
Domain: Craft and Structure
The Craft and Structure domain evaluates a student’s ability to understand and use high-utility
words and phrases, assess texts rhetorically, and establish connections between related texts.
There are three primary question types associated with this domain:
• Words in Context: These questions require students to determine the meaning of highutility academic words or phrases in context or to use them precisely and contextually
appropriate. To excel at these questions, students should expand their vocabulary and
develop skills for understanding words in context.
• Text Structure and Purpose: In this question type, students must analyze the structure of a text or determine its main rhetorical purpose. Developing a deep understanding
of various text structures and rhetorical purposes will enable students to approach these
questions effectively.
• Cross-Text Connections: These questions assess a student’s ability to draw reasonable
connections between two topically related texts. To perform well on these questions,
students should practice identifying thematic and structural similarities between different
texts.
10
2.1.2
Domain: Information and Ideas
The Information and Ideas domain measures a student’s comprehension, analysis, and reasoning
skills, as well as their ability to locate, interpret, evaluate, and integrate information and ideas
from texts and informational graphics. This domain features three main question types:
• Central Ideas and Details: In these questions, students are required to determine the
central idea of a text and/or interpret the key details supporting that idea. To excel at
these questions, students should practice identifying central ideas and relevant details in
a variety of texts.
• Command of Evidence: These questions challenge students to use textual or quantitative evidence to support, challenge, or respond to a specified claim or point. To succeed
in this question type, students must develop skills for finding and interpreting relevant
evidence within a text.
• Inferences: These questions assess a student’s ability to draw reasonable inferences
based on explicit and/or implicit information and ideas in a text. To perform well on
these questions, students should practice making logical inferences from various texts.
2.1.3
Domain: Standard English Conventions
The Standard English Conventions domain measures a student’s ability to edit texts to conform
to core conventions of Standard English sentence structure, usage, and punctuation. There are
two primary question types associated with this domain:
• Boundaries: These questions require students to edit text to ensure that sentences
are conventionally complete. To excel at these questions, students should familiarize
themselves with the rules of Standard English sentence structure.
• Form, Structure, and Sense: In this question type, students must edit text to conform
to conventional usage, such as agreement and verb tense/aspect. Developing a thorough
understanding of the rules governing Standard English usage will enable students to approach these questions effectively.
2.1.4
Domain: Expression of Ideas
The Expression of Ideas domain measures a student’s ability to revise texts to improve
the effectiveness of written expression and to meet specific rhetorical goals. This domain
features two main question types:
11
• Rhetorical Synthesis: These questions challenge students to strategically integrate
provided information and ideas on a topic to form an effective sentence achieving a specified rhetorical aim. To excel at these questions, students should practice synthesizing
information from various sources to create coherent and persuasive sentences.
• Transitions: In this question type, students must determine the most effective transition
word or phrase to logically connect information and ideas in a text. Developing a deep
understanding of various transition words and phrases and their appropriate usage will
enable students to approach these questions effectively.
In conclusion, a thorough understanding of the four primary domains and their associated
question types is essential for success in the SAT Reading section. By familiarizing yourself
with these domains and question types, you can develop targeted strategies to improve your
performance and increase your overall score.
12
Chapter 3
Scoring 1600
3.1
The Ultimate Guide to Scoring 1600 on the SAT: Strategies and Tips
Achieving a perfect score of 1600 on the SAT is an impressive feat that requires dedication,
strategy, and the right approach. In this comprehensive guide, we will cover step-by-step
strategies, tips, and tricks, as well as non-traditional methods for improving your SAT score,
no matter where you currently stand. We will delve into both the Math and Reading sections,
as well as general test-taking tips, to help you make the leap to that perfect 1600.
3.1.1
Building a Solid Foundation
To begin your SAT preparation, it’s essential to determine your baseline score. This refers to
the score you would achieve if you were to take the SAT without any prior preparation. To
identify your baseline score, take an official SAT practice test under realistic testing conditions,
including adhering to the time limits for each section. Your baseline score serves multiple
purposes:
Goal Setting: Knowing your baseline score will help you set realistic goals for your target
SAT score. This will allow you to gauge the amount of improvement needed and the time
required to reach that goal.
Progress Tracking: As you continue your preparation, taking periodic practice tests will
enable you to compare your scores with your baseline and track your progress. This will help
you adjust your study plan accordingly, focusing on areas that need improvement.
Motivation: Witnessing your progress from your baseline score can be a powerful motivator,
encouraging you to continue your efforts and maintain your focus on achieving your target score.
By understanding the SAT format and identifying your baseline score, you’re taking the first
critical steps toward SAT success. This knowledge will serve as a foundation for your study
13
plan and empower you to make the most of your preparation time.
3.1.2
Developing a Customized Study Plan
Developing a study schedule tailored to your current score and the time you have until the
test date is crucial for success. Allocate more time to areas where you struggle the most, and
maintain consistency in following your schedule. Break down your study time into manageable
sessions and ensure you include regular breaks to prevent burnout.
Selecting the best study materials is essential for effective preparation. Some recommended
resources include:
Official SAT practice tests: These tests provide the most accurate representation of the
actual exam, enabling you to gauge your readiness and identify areas for improvement.
Online resources: Websites like Test Ninjas and Khan Academy offer a wealth of study
materials, including video lessons, interactive quizzes, and customized study plans.
Strategies for Each Score Range
If you scored 1200
Focus on understanding fundamental concepts and mastering the basics in both Reading and
Math.
Develop your reading comprehension skills by regularly reading diverse texts.
Familiarize yourself with the most common grammar rules.
Begin learning essential techniques.
If you scored 1300
Continue building on your foundational knowledge.
Identify weaknesses and work on specific content areas.
Develop test-taking strategies like time management and process of elimination.
If you scored 1400
Refine your strategies and focus on accuracy.
14
Work on time management and pacing.
Analyze your mistakes and learn from them.
If you scored 1500
Prioritize perfecting your weakest section.
Focus on the most challenging questions.
Develop resilience and a calm mindset for test day.
Make sure you are managing your time for each test.
3.1.3
If you scored 1550
Fine-tune your strategies and focus on eliminating careless errors.
Make sure you are particular careful and identify problem types that are challenging and
you miss easily.
Maintain your skills through regular practice.
Engage in mental preparation and stress management techniques.
3.2
Mastering Time Management Skills for SAT Success
In the quest for SAT success, effective time management is a crucial skill. It’s not just about
answering the questions correctly but doing so within the allotted time. This chapter will delve
deep into the strategies, tools, and methods you can use to develop and practice your time
management skills for the SAT. Let’s take this journey step by step.
3.3
3.3.1
Tools for Time Management
Using a Computer
The digital age provides us with an array of tools to aid in time management. Online SAT
practice platforms are a great start. They can simulate the exact conditions of the test including
the ticking timer. This can help you acclimate to the pressure of the clock.
15
3.3.2
Time Tracking Software
Time tracking software can provide a detailed breakdown of how long you take per question or
per section. This can be crucial in identifying where you are spending too much or too little
time. Some recommended software includes Toggl and RescueTime.
3.4
3.4.1
Strategies for Time Management
The Skip and Return Strategy
Another effective method is the ’skip and return’ strategy. If you encounter a difficult question,
instead of spending excessive time on it, you can skip it and return to it later. This ensures
you have enough time to tackle the easier questions and boosts your confidence.
3.4.2
The Section Division Strategy
Dividing the time for each section by the number of questions can give you a rough estimate of
how much time to spend on each question. For example, the reading section has 54 questions
and is 64 minutes long. This gives you approximately 70 seconds per question.
3.5
3.5.1
Practicing Time Management
Mock Tests
The best way to practice time management is by taking full-length timed mock tests. This will
give you a real sense of the test conditions and help you get used to the time pressure.
3.5.2
Gradual Time Reduction
Another practice method is to gradually reduce the time you allow yourself for each section
during your practice sessions. This creates a sense of urgency and trains you to think and
respond quickly.
3.5.3
Anxiety Management
Lastly, it’s important to manage exam-related anxiety, as it can often skew your perception of
time. Practice deep-breathing exercises, meditation, and other stress management techniques
16
to stay calm and focused during the test.
Remember, effective time management is a skill that can be learned and improved with
practice. Use the strategies and tools discussed in this chapter and you’ll be well on your way
to mastering the clock on your SAT exam.
3.6
Non-Traditional Methods for Test Preparation
In addition to traditional study methods like repetition and rote memorization, there are several non-traditional techniques that can enhance your test preparation. These techniques are
supported by cognitive science and can help improve comprehension, retention, and recall.
3.6.1
Mind Mapping
Mind mapping is a powerful tool for visualizing concepts and their relationships. This technique
involves creating a visual diagram that represents ideas and information in a structured way,
starting with a central concept and branching out into related topics.
In the context of Reading and Writing preparation, you can use mind maps to break down
complex passages, illustrate grammatical rules, or map out essay structures. This can help you
see the ”bigger picture” and improve your understanding and retention of the material.
3.6.2
Dual Coding
Dual coding is a learning strategy that involves combining verbal and visual representations of
information. According to the dual-coding theory proposed by Allan Paivio, our brain processes
visual and verbal information separately. Therefore, using both visual and verbal methods to
learn the same content can enhance understanding and recall.
For instance, you can accompany your verbal notes with visual elements such as diagrams,
charts, or infographics. This can be particularly helpful for understanding complex concepts or
relationships between topics.
3.6.3
Interleaved Practice
Interleaved practice involves mixing or alternating between different subjects or topics during
your study sessions, rather than focusing on one topic at a time (a method known as blocked
practice).
Research has shown that interleaved practice can enhance long-term learning and improve
the ability to transfer learned knowledge to new situations. This is because interleaving en17
courages the brain to discriminate between different types of problems and select the correct
strategy to solve them.
In the context of SAT preparation, you might alternate between Reading, Writing, and
Math during a single study session, rather than dedicating separate sessions to each subject.
This can help keep your mind fresh and avoid mental fatigue from focusing on one subject for
too long.
These non-traditional methods offer fresh approaches to test preparation. By visualizing
concepts, combining verbal and visual information, and mixing up your study topics, you can
improve your understanding, retention, and recall of the material, ultimately leading to better
test performance.
3.6.4
Test-Taking Tips
Time management: Allocate a specific amount of time per question, skip difficult questions,
and return to them later to maximize efficiency.
Process of elimination: Eliminate incorrect answer choices to increase your chances of selecting the right answer.
Double-check your work: Revisit questions, especially those you were unsure about, to
ensure you haven’t made any careless mistakes. Review your calculations in the Math section
to confirm accuracy.
Maintain a steady pace: Find a balance between speed and accuracy to ensure you have
enough time to complete the test without sacrificing precision.
Reading strategies: Skim the passage first for a general understanding, then read more
carefully for details. Annotate key points and main ideas to stay engaged and facilitate comprehension. Practice active reading to improve focus and retention.
3.6.5
Test day preparation
The days leading up to the SAT, and the test day itself, can be filled with anxiety and stress.
Adequate preparation is essential for achieving the best possible outcome. In this section, we
will explore how to effectively prepare for test day, covering the importance of sleep, nutrition,
gathering essential materials, dressing for comfort, and arriving at the test center early.
Get a Good Night’s Sleep: A good night’s sleep is crucial for optimal cognitive functioning.
Ensuring that you are well-rested before the test can significantly impact your ability to concentrate, make decisions, and recall information. Aim to establish a consistent sleep schedule
in the weeks leading up to the SAT, and prioritize sleep the night before the test.
Eat a Nutritious Breakfast: Eating a balanced and nutritious breakfast on test day provides the fuel your brain needs to function effectively. Choose foods that are rich in complex
18
carbohydrates, proteins, and healthy fats to sustain energy levels throughout the exam. Avoid
sugary or overly processed foods, which can lead to energy crashes.
Dressing for Comfort: Wearing comfortable clothing on test day can help minimize distractions and allow you to focus on the exam. Dress in layers to accommodate potential fluctuations
in temperature at the testing center. Choose comfortable, loose-fitting clothes and supportive
footwear to maximize your comfort throughout the test.
3.7
Building Mental Resilience
Maintaining a strong and healthy mental state is crucial for achieving success on the SAT. Incorporating mindfulness meditation, visualization, positive affirmations, and stress management
techniques into your daily routine can significantly improve focus, reduce stress, and enhance
overall mental well-being. In this chapter, we will delve into each of these practices and discuss
how they can contribute to a more effective SAT preparation experience.
3.8
Mindfulness Meditation
Mindfulness meditation is a practice that involves paying attention to the present moment,
without judgment. Regular practice of mindfulness meditation can lead to numerous benefits,
such as increased focus, reduced stress, and enhanced emotional regulation. Here are some
steps to begin practicing mindfulness meditation:
1. Find a quiet, comfortable space where you can sit or lie down without distractions.
2. Close your eyes and take several deep breaths, inhaling through your nose and exhaling
through your mouth.
3. Begin to focus on your breath, paying attention to the sensation of air entering and leaving
your body.
4. As thoughts arise, acknowledge them without judgment and gently bring your focus back
to your breath.
5. Practice mindfulness meditation for a few minutes each day, gradually increasing the
duration as you become more comfortable with the practice.
3.9
Visualization
Visualization is a powerful technique that involves creating vivid mental images of desired
outcomes or situations. By visualizing yourself achieving your goal of a perfect 1600 on the SAT,
19
as well as successfully tackling challenges during the test, you can boost your self-confidence
and motivation. To practice visualization:
1. Find a quiet, comfortable space where you can sit or lie down without distractions.
2. Close your eyes and take several deep breaths to relax your body and mind.
3. Begin to imagine yourself in the testing environment, feeling confident and prepared.
4. Visualize yourself calmly and accurately answering questions, managing your time effectively, and remaining focused throughout the test.
5. Picture yourself receiving your desired SAT score and experiencing the emotions associated with this accomplishment.
6. Practice visualization for a few minutes each day, ideally before or after your study sessions.
3.10
Mastering the Art of Educated Guessing in MultipleChoice Questions
Multiple-choice questions are a common component of many tests. Although knowing the
correct answer is ideal, there may be times when you are unsure. In such scenarios, the ability
to make an educated guess can make a significant difference. Here are some specific strategies
and tips to help you guess more effectively:
3.10.1
The Process of Elimination
One of the most powerful strategies for guessing on multiple-choice questions is the process of
elimination. By ruling out the obviously incorrect answers, you can significantly increase your
chances of selecting the right one.
1. Identify and eliminate implausible answers: Read the question carefully and cross
out any answers that are clearly incorrect. Often, test makers will include one or two
options that are obviously wrong.
2. Compare remaining options: If there are two answers that seem correct, compare
them to see if they differ in a significant way. One may be more comprehensive or
accurate than the other.
20
3.10.2
Beware of Absolute Terms
Options that use words like ”always,” ”never,” ”all,” or ”none” can often be incorrect, as there
are very few absolutes in most subjects. Be cautious with these options and consider whether
the statement they make is truly absolute.
3.10.3
Choose the Longest or Most Detailed Answer
Sometimes, the longest or most detailed answer is the correct one. Test makers often ensure
that the correct answer is indisputably right, which can require more qualifying language or
details.
3.10.4
Trust Your First Instinct
Research has shown that your first answer choice is often the correct one, especially if you have
prepared well for the test. If you’re unsure, don’t change your answer unless you have a strong
reason to do so.
3.10.5
When All Else Fails, Guess
In most cases, leaving a multiple-choice question blank guarantees that you get it wrong. Even
if you have no idea what the correct answer is, it’s generally better to guess. You have a chance
of getting it right, and most testing systems do not penalize for incorrect answers more than
leaving the question blank.
Mastering the art of educated guessing in multiple-choice questions can significantly improve
your test performance. It is a skill that requires practice and strategic thinking, but when
employed properly, it can make the difference between a good score and a great one. And
remember, an educated guess is always better than leaving a question unanswered.
21
3.11
Positive Affirmations
3.12
Harnessing the Power of Positive Affirmations for Test
Taking
3.12.1
Understanding Positive Affirmations
Positive affirmations are short, powerful statements that can change the way we think and
perceive ourselves. They are not just optimistic words, but psychological prompts aimed at
stimulating a positive attitude and self-confidence. The concept is grounded in neuroplasticity,
the idea that our brain has the ability to form new connections and pathways, changing how
we process and react to information.
3.12.2
The Role of Positive Affirmations in Test Preparation
When it comes to test preparation, especially high-stakes tests like SATs, positive affirmations
can be a crucial tool to combat stress, anxiety, and self-doubt. They can help you maintain
focus, boost your confidence, and foster a growth mindset that values effort and learning over
innate ability. This can be especially beneficial in maintaining consistency and positivity during
your SAT preparation.
3.12.3
Incorporating Positive Affirmations into Test Preparation
1. Creating Affirmations: Begin by writing down a list of positive affirmations related to
your test preparation and goals. For example, ”I am capable of achieving a high score,” or
”I am a focused and disciplined learner.” Make sure your affirmations are in the present
tense, positive, and personal.
2. Repetition: Read through your list of affirmations each morning and evening, or any
time you need a boost of motivation. Consistent repetition will help solidify these positive
beliefs in your mind.
3. Visualization: As you repeat your affirmations, visualize yourself successfully reaching
your goals. This adds another layer of reinforcement and makes the affirmations more
effective.
4. Practice: Make this technique a regular part of your test preparation routine. Over time,
these positive affirmations can help strengthen your self-belief and maintain a positive
mindset.
22
3.13
Conclusion
In conclusion, positive affirmations are a powerful tool that can help you achieve your testtaking goals. By consciously choosing the words and beliefs that guide your preparation, you
can manage stress and build confidence. So start incorporating affirmations into your routine
and take a step towards a more confident and optimistic test preparation journey.
Achieving a perfect 1600 on the SAT is a challenging but attainable goal with dedication,
effective strategies, and consistent effort. By following this comprehensive guide, you will
be well-equipped to tackle the SAT with confidence and ultimately reach your target score.
Remember, improvement takes time, so be patient, stay persistent, and maintain a positive
attitude throughout your journey.
23
Part II
“How to Solve” Tutorials
24
Chapter 4
How to Solve ”Craft and Structure Word In Context”
4.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Word In Context” Question
In a democratic society, the citizens are expected to participate in the political process.
Voting is the most fundamental form of civic engagement, but it is just one aspect of
being an active citizen. Citizens can also engage in public debates, join political parties,
or even run for public office. The health of a democracy is often gauged by the level of
its citizens’
in these various activities.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) abstention
B) participation
C) indifference
D) rejection
Correct Answer:
B) participation
Explanation:
‘participation’ is the correct answer because it refers to the active involvement of citizens
in the political process, which is the focus of the passage.
25
Distractor Explanation:
A) ‘abstention’ is incorrect because it implies non-involvement or non-participation, which is
contrary to the message of the passage.
C) ‘indifference’ is incorrect because it suggests that citizens do not care about the political
process, which is not the focus of the passage.
D) ‘rejection’ is incorrect because it implies that citizens actively oppose the political process,
which is not the focus of the passage.
4.2
How to solve “Craft and Structure - Word In Context”
“Craft and Structure - Word In Context” DSAT questions are designed to test your comprehension, vocabulary, analysis, synthesis, and reasoning skills. These questions require you to
determine the meaning of a high-utility academic word or phrase in context or use such vocabulary in a precise, contextually appropriate way. In this tutorial, we will go through a
step-by-step process to solve these types of questions using the example provided.
Key Steps to Solving Word In Context Questions
1. Read the passage and question carefully with a focus on context
2. Identify the missing word or phrase and the surrounding context
3. Analyze the context of the missing word or phrase
4. Review the choices
5. Evaluate each choice in the context
6. Choose the most logical and precise word or phrase
Step 1: Read the passage and question carefully with a focus on context
Begin by reading the passage and question provided. As you read, pay close attention to the
context and main idea of the passage. Take note of any keywords, phrases, or themes that
might be relevant to the question.
In our example, the passage discusses the importance of citizen participation in a democratic
society and the various ways citizens can engage in the political process. Key themes include
democracy, citizen engagement, voting, and political activities.
26
After reading the passage, read the question and make sure you understand what it is asking.
In this case, the question is: ”Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise
word or phrase?”
Step 2: Identify the missing word or phrase and the surrounding context
Next, locate the blank space in the passage where the missing word or phrase should be placed.
Carefully read the sentence containing the blank space, as well as the sentences immediately
before and after it, to understand the context in which the missing word or phrase must fit.
In our example, the blank space is located in the sentence: “The health of a democracy
in these various activities.” The
is often gauged by the level of its citizens’
surrounding context includes the previous sentence, which mentions the different forms of civic
engagement, such as voting, engaging in public debates, joining political parties, and running
for public office.
These extended steps provide you with a deeper understanding of the context in which the
missing word or phrase must fit. By focusing on the passage’s main idea, key themes, and
surrounding context, you’ll be better prepared to evaluate the choices provided and select the
most logical and precise word or phrase to complete the passage.
Step 3: Analyze the context of the missing word or phrase
Analyze the context around the blank space to understand what the missing word or phrase
should convey. In our example, the context suggests that the word or phrase should describe
the citizens’ involvement in the various political activities mentioned in the passage.
Step 4: Review the choices
Review the choices provided for the missing word or phrase. Consider each choice and whether
it fits logically and precisely in the context of the passage. In our example, we have the following
choices:
A) abstention
B) participation
C) indifference
D) rejection
27
Step 5: Evaluate each choice in the context
Evaluate each choice by placing it in the blank space and determining whether it logically and
precisely completes the sentence in the context of the passage.
A) “The health of a democracy is often gauged by the level of its citizens’ abstention in
these various activities.”
This choice suggests that the health of a democracy is measured by citizens not participating
in political activities, which contradicts the passage’s emphasis on participation.
B) “The health of a democracy is often gauged by the level of its citizens’ participation in
these various activities.”
This choice fits the context, as it emphasizes the importance of citizen involvement in
political activities for a healthy democracy.
C) “The health of a democracy is often gauged by the level of its citizens’ indifference in
these various activities.”
This choice suggests that the health of a democracy is measured by citizens’ lack of interest,
which also contradicts the passage’s emphasis on participation.
D) “The health of a democracy is often gauged by the level of its citizens’ rejection in these
various activities.”
This choice implies that the health of a democracy is measured by citizens’ rejection of
political activities, which again contradicts the passage’s emphasis on participation.
Step 6: Choose the most logical and precise word or phrase
Based on your evaluation in Step 5, choose the word or phrase that most logically and precisely
completes the passage. In our example, the correct answer is B) participation, as it emphasizes
the importance of citizen involvement in political activities for a healthy democracy.
By following these steps, you can effectively solve ”Craft and Structure - Word In Context”
DSAT questions. Always remember to read the passage and question carefully, analyze the
context, evaluate the choices, and select the most logical and precise word or phrase to complete
the passage.
28
Chapter 5
How to Solve ”Craft and Structure - Text
Structure and Purpose”
5.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Text Structure and Purpose” Question
In the early days of human civilization, the barter system was a common means of trade.
People exchanged goods and services directly, without any standardized currency. This
system had its limitations, as it relied on the double coincidence of wants and made it
difficult to store wealth. Over time, societies developed currency systems to facilitate
trade and simplify the exchange process.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The barter system was the most efficient way for early societies to conduct
trade.
B) The development of currency systems led to the decline of human civilization.
C) The barter system had limitations that led to the development of currency
systems in societies.
D) Storing wealth was impossible in early human civilizations due to a lack of
currency systems.
Correct Answer:
C) The barter system had limitations that led to the development of currency systems in
societies.
Explanation:
29
‘The barter system had limitations that led to the development of currency systems in
societies.’ is the correct answer because the passage discusses the limitations of the barter
system and how societies developed currency systems to overcome these limitations.
Distractor Explanation:
A) ‘The barter system was the most efficient way for early societies to conduct trade.’ is
incorrect because the passage discusses the limitations of the barter system and how it
was eventually replaced by currency systems.
B) ‘The development of currency systems led to the decline of human civilization.’ is incorrect
because the passage does not discuss any negative impact of currency systems on human
civilization.
D) ‘Storing wealth was impossible in early human civilizations due to a lack of currency
systems.’ is incorrect because, while the passage does mention that storing wealth was
difficult with the barter system, it does not claim that it was impossible.
5.2
How to solve “Craft and Structure - Text Structure and
Purpose”
“Craft and Structure - Text Structure and Purpose” questions assess your ability to identify the
main idea, purpose, or structure of a given text. In this tutorial, we will go through a detailed
step-by-step process to solve such questions effectively, using the example provided below.
Key Steps to Solving Text Structure and Purpose Questions
1. Read the passage carefully
2. Understand the question
3. Summarize the passage
4. Analyze each choice
5. Eliminate choices that don’t fit the main idea or purpose
6. Choose the choice that best states the main idea or purpose
7. Double-check your answer
30
Step 1: Read the passage carefully
Read the entire passage carefully to grasp the context, tone, and overall message the author is
trying to convey. Make a mental note of any important details or points made in the text. As you
read, pay close attention to the language used, the organization of ideas, and any arguments
or assertions made by the author. Consider the intended audience and the purpose of the
passage, as this can provide insights into the author’s tone and message. By actively engaging
with the text and analyzing its components, you can develop a comprehensive understanding
of the content and use this knowledge to better interpret, evaluate, or respond to the passage
in various contexts.
In our passage, we can see that it discusses the barter system, its limitations, and the
development of currency systems to overcome these limitations.
Step 2: Understand the question
Make sure you understand what the question is asking. In this case, the question is asking you
to identify the main idea of the text. To do this effectively, carefully read the question and
any associated instructions or prompts. Take note of any keywords or phrases that can help
guide your response. It’s essential to address the specific requirements of the question, rather
than providing a general or unrelated answer. By focusing on the task at hand and aligning
your response with the question’s objectives, you can increase your chances of providing a
comprehensive and accurate answer that successfully demonstrates your understanding of the
text.
Step 3 Summarize the passage
Before analyzing the choices, try to summarize the passage in your own words. This will help
you better understand the main idea and make it easier to identify the correct answer.
The passage explains that the barter system was an early means of trade with limitations,
leading to the development of currency systems in societies.
Step 4 Analyze each choice
Go through the given choices one by one and analyze how well each of them aligns with the
main idea or purpose of the passage.
We have four choices:
A) The barter system was the most efficient way for early societies to conduct trade.
B) The development of currency systems led to the decline of human civilization.
31
C) The barter system had limitations that led to the development of currency systems in
societies.
D) Storing wealth was impossible in early human civilizations due to a lack of currency
systems.
Step 5: Eliminate choices that don’t fit the main idea or purpose
As you analyze each choice, eliminate options that do not fit the main idea or purpose of
the passage. This process of elimination will narrow down your options and make it easier to
identify the correct answer.
In our case, we can eliminate choices A, B, and D because they either misrepresent the
passage or focus on a specific detail instead of the overall main idea.
A) “The barter system was the most efficient way for early societies to conduct trade.”
This choice is incorrect because the passage does not claim that the barter system was the
most efficient way to conduct trade. Instead, it discusses the limitations of the barter system,
such as the reliance on the double coincidence of wants and difficulty in storing wealth.
B) “The development of currency systems led to the decline of human civilization.”
This choice is incorrect because the passage does not mention any negative consequences of
currency systems on human civilization. On the contrary, the passage explains that currency
systems were developed to facilitate trade and simplify the exchange process, suggesting that
their development was a positive advancement for societies.
D) “Storing wealth was impossible in early human civilizations due to a lack of currency
systems.”
This choice is incorrect because it overstates the impact of the lack of currency systems
on storing wealth. The passage mentions that the barter system made it ”difficult” to store
wealth, not “impossible.” Furthermore, this choice focuses on a specific detail about storing
wealth, rather than capturing the main idea of the passage, which is about the limitations of
the barter system and the development of currency systems.
Step 6: Choose the choice that best states the main idea or purpose
After eliminating options that don’t fit the main idea or purpose of the passage, select the
choice that best captures the main idea or purpose of the text.
Choice C (The barter system had limitations that led to the development of currency systems
in societies) best represents the main idea of the passage. Thus, we select it as the correct
answer.
32
Step 7: Double-check your answer
Once you’ve chosen an answer, reread the passage to ensure that your selected choice aligns
with the main idea or purpose of the text.
Re-reading the passage and comparing it with choice C, we can see that it accurately captures the main idea of the passage, confirming our choice as correct. This answer is correct
because it accurately captures the main idea of the passage. The passage discusses the limitations of the barter system, such as its reliance on the double coincidence of wants and the
difficulty in storing wealth. These limitations are presented as the driving factors behind the
development of currency systems, which were designed to facilitate trade and simplify the exchange process. By addressing both the shortcomings of the barter system and the subsequent
adoption of currency systems, this answer choice provides a comprehensive summary of the
passage’s main idea.
By following these steps, you can effectively solve “Craft and Structure - Text Structure
and Purpose” DSAT questions. Remember to read the passage carefully, analyze the choices,
eliminate options that don’t fit, and choose the choice that best captures the main idea or
purpose of the text. Practicing with various examples will help you hone your skills in solving
these types of questions.
33
Chapter 6
How to Solve “Craft and Structure Cross-Text Connections”
6.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections”
Question
Text 1: In the early 20th century, historian Samuel Freeman argued that the Renaissance
was primarily driven by economic factors, including the growth of trade and the rise of
wealthy merchant families. He posited that these forces led to the creation of a new,
secular culture that prized wealth, materialism, and individualism, ultimately paving the
way for the artistic and scientific innovations of the era.
Text 2: More recent scholarship by historian Lucy Wilson challenges Freeman’s view.
She contends that while economic factors certainly played a role, the Renaissance was
also strongly influenced by a resurgence of interest in classical learning, which inspired
intellectual curiosity, creativity, and the pursuit of knowledge for its own sake.
Based on the texts, how would Lucy Wilson (Text 2) most likely characterize the
conclusion presented in Samuel Freeman’s argument (Text 1)?
A) As a thorough explanation that accurately captures the complex factors behind
the Renaissance
B) As an outdated theory that has been entirely discredited by modern historical
scholarship
C) As an oversimplification that doesn’t fully acknowledge the importance of intellectual factors
D) As a valid perspective but one that overstates the impact of secular culture on
the era’s innovations
34
Correct Answer:
C) As an oversimplification that doesn’t fully acknowledge the importance of intellectual
factors
Explanation:
‘As an oversimplification that doesn’t fully acknowledge the importance of intellectual
factors’ is the correct answer because Lucy Wilson (Text 2) argues that while economic
factors played a role in the Renaissance, the resurgence of interest in classical learning
was also a significant influence, which Freeman’s argument (Text 1) does not address.
Distractor Explanation:
A) ‘As a thorough explanation that accurately captures the complex factors behind the Renaissance’ is incorrect because Lucy Wilson (Text 2) challenges Samuel Freeman’s (Text
1) view by arguing that it doesn’t fully acknowledge the importance of intellectual factors.
B) ‘As an outdated theory that has been entirely discredited by modern historical scholarship’
is incorrect because Text 2 does not suggest that Freeman’s argument has been entirely
discredited, but rather that it is an oversimplification.
D) ‘As a valid perspective but one that overstates the impact of secular culture on the era’s
innovations’ is incorrect because Text 2 does not specifically argue that Freeman overstates
the impact of secular culture; it focuses on the role of classical learning.
6.2
How to solve “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections”
“Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections” DSAT questions test your ability to draw
reasonable connections between two topically related texts. These questions require comprehension, vocabulary, analysis, synthesis, and reasoning skills. In this tutorial, we will walk
through an extended step-by-step process to solve these types of questions using the example
provided.
Key Steps to Solving Cross-Text Connection Questions
1. Read both texts and the question carefully while noting key themes and perspectives
2. Identify and analyze key points of agreement or disagreement between the texts
3. Review the choices provided and relate them to the texts
35
4. Evaluate each choice in relation to the texts and their points of agreement or disagreement
5. Choose the most appropriate answer based on the texts and your evaluation
Step 1: Read both texts and the question carefully while noting key themes
and perspectives
Begin by reading both texts, ensuring that you understand their main ideas, arguments, and
any sub-points. As you read, take note of any key themes, phrases, or perspectives that might
be relevant to the question. Pay attention to the authors’ tone, the evidence they present, and
the conclusions they draw.
In our example, Text 1 argues that the Renaissance was driven primarily by economic factors,
while Text 2 challenges this view, stating that intellectual factors also played a significant role.
After carefully reading the texts, read the question, ensuring you understand what it is
asking. In this case, the question is: “Based on the texts, how would Lucy Wilson (Text 2)
most likely characterize the conclusion presented in Samuel Freeman’s argument (Text 1)?”
Step 2: Identify and analyze key points of agreement or disagreement
between the texts
Analyze both texts to determine where they agree or disagree on the topic in question. Look
for areas where one author directly addresses the other’s argument or where they present
contrasting perspectives or evidence. Consider the relative weight each author gives to different
factors or ideas.
In our example, the main disagreement is between the role of economic factors (Text 1) and
the additional importance of intellectual factors (Text 2) in driving the Renaissance. Text 1
emphasizes the growth of trade and the rise of wealthy merchant families, while Text 2 highlights
the resurgence of interest in classical learning.
Step 3: Review the choices provided and relate them to the texts
Review the choices provided for the question. As you consider each choice, think about how it
might relate to the points of agreement or disagreement identified in Step 2. Reflect on whether
each choice accurately captures the authors’ perspectives and the relationship between their
arguments.
In our example, we have the following choices:
A) As a thorough explanation that accurately captures the complex factors behind the
Renaissance
36
B) As an outdated theory that has been entirely discredited by modern historical scholarship
C) As an oversimplification that doesn’t fully acknowledge the importance of intellectual
factors
D) As a valid perspective but one that overstates the impact of secular culture on the era’s
innovations
Step 4: Evaluate each choice in relation to the texts and their points of
agreement or disagreement
Evaluate each choice by considering how it reflects the relationship between the texts, particularly in terms of agreement or disagreement. Think about whether each choice accurately
represents the authors’ perspectives and the extent to which it captures the nuances of their
arguments.
In our example:
A) This choice implies that Lucy Wilson (Text 2) agrees with Samuel Freeman’s argument
(Text 1), but we know from Step 2 that Wilson challenges Freeman’s view by emphasizing the
importance of intellectual factors in addition to economic ones.
B) This choice suggests that Lucy Wilson (Text 2) completely discredits Samuel Freeman’s
argument (Text 1), but she only challenges it by adding the importance of intellectual factors,
not by entirely dismissing Freeman’s argument.
C) This choice reflects the disagreement identified in Step 2, as Lucy Wilson (Text 2) argues
that Samuel Freeman’s argument (Text 1) oversimplifies the factors behind the Renaissance by
not fully acknowledging the importance of intellectual factors.
D) This choice does not accurately represent the disagreement between the texts, as Text
2 focuses on the role of classical learning and its influence on the Renaissance, not the impact
of secular culture. While it acknowledges that Freeman’s perspective may be valid, it does not
directly address the main point of disagreement identified in Step 2.
Step 5: Choose the most appropriate answer based on the texts and your
evaluation
Based on your evaluation in Step 4, choose the answer that best represents the relationship
between the texts in terms of agreement or disagreement. Consider which choice most accurately
captures the authors’ perspectives and the nuances of their arguments.
In our example, the correct answer is C) As an oversimplification that doesn’t fully acknowledge the importance of intellectual factors, as it accurately reflects Lucy Wilson’s challenge to
Samuel Freeman’s argument.
37
By following these extended steps, you can effectively solve “Craft and Structure - CrossText Connections” DSAT questions. Remember to read both texts and the question carefully,
noting key themes and perspectives; identify and analyze points of agreement or disagreement;
review the choices provided and relate them to the texts; evaluate each choice in relation to the
texts and their points of agreement or disagreement; and select the most appropriate answer
based on the relationship between the texts.
38
Chapter 7
How to Solve “Information and Ideas Central Ideas and Details”
7.1
Example “Craft and Structure - Cross-Text Connections”
Question
In the late 19th century, the British Empire experienced rapid expansion, which led to
the development of new technologies for transportation and communication. Among
these innovations was the Penny Black, the world’s first adhesive postage stamp. Issued
in 1840, the Penny Black streamlined the postal system, making it more accessible and
affordable for the public. This stamp facilitated communication across vast distances,
reinforcing the connections within the empire and contributing to its growth.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To explain the role of the Penny Black in improving the postal system and
fostering communication within the British Empire
B) To provide a detailed history of the British Empire’s expansion and the various
technological innovations that resulted from it
C) To argue that the Penny Black was the most significant innovation in the history
of the British Empire and its communication systems
D) To discuss the various means of communication available during the 19th century and how they impacted the British Empire’s expansion
Correct Answer:
A) To explain the role of the Penny Black in improving the postal system and fostering
communication within the British Empire
39
Explanation:
‘To explain the role of the Penny Black in improving the postal system and fostering
communication within the British Empire’ is the correct answer because the passage
focuses on the introduction of the Penny Black, its impact on the postal system, and its
role in enhancing communication within the empire.
Distractor Explanation:
B) ‘To provide a detailed history of the British Empire’s expansion and the various technological innovations that resulted from it’ is incorrect because the passage only briefly
mentions the expansion and focuses primarily on the Penny Black.
C) ‘To argue that the Penny Black was the most significant innovation in the history of the
British Empire and its communication systems’ is incorrect because the passage does not
make comparisons or argue for the superiority of the Penny Black.
D) ‘To discuss the various means of communication available during the 19th century and how
they impacted the British Empire’s expansion’ is incorrect because the passage primarily
discusses the Penny Black, rather than providing a broader overview of 19th-century
communication methods.
7.2
How to solve “Information and Ideas - Central Ideas and
Details”
“Information and Ideas - Central Ideas and Details” DSAT questions test your ability to determine the central idea of a text and interpret the key details supporting that idea. These
questions require comprehension, analysis, and reasoning skills to locate, interpret, evaluate,
and integrate information and ideas from texts. In this tutorial, we will walk through an
extended step-by-step process to solve these types of questions using the example provided.
Key Steps to Solving Cross-Text Connection Questions
1. Read the passage carefully, noting the central idea and supporting details
2. Understand the question and its focus
3. Review the choices provided, relating them to the passage and the question
4. Evaluate each choice in relation to the passage and the focus of the question
5. Select the most appropriate answer based on the passage and your evaluation
40
Step 1: Read the passage carefully, noting the central idea and supporting
details
Begin by reading the passage carefully, ensuring that you understand the main idea and any
supporting details. As you read, take note of the primary topic, the author’s perspective, and
any key points or evidence that support the central idea.
In our example, the passage discusses the introduction of the Penny Black, the world’s first
adhesive postage stamp, and its impact on the postal system and communication within the
British Empire during the 19th century.
Step 2: Understand the question and its focus
After reading the passage, read the question carefully, making sure you understand what it is
asking. Focus on the specific aspect of the text the question addresses, such as the central idea,
a supporting detail, or the author’s purpose.
In this case, the question asks, “Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?”
Step 3: Review the choices provided, relating them to the passage and
the question
Review the choices provided for the question. As you consider each choice, think about how it
might relate to the central idea and supporting details you identified in Step 1, as well as the
focus of the question from Step 2. Keep in mind that some choices may contain elements of
truth but might not be the best answer to the specific question being asked.
In our example, we have the following choices:
A) To explain the role of the Penny Black in improving the postal system and fostering
communication within the British Empire
B) To provide a detailed history of the British Empire’s expansion and the various technological innovations that resulted from it
C) To argue that the Penny Black was the most significant innovation in the history of the
British Empire and its communication systems
D) To discuss the various means of communication available during the 19th century and
how they impacted the British Empire’s expansion
41
Step 4: Evaluate each choice in relation to the passage and the focus of
the question
Evaluate each choice by considering how it reflects the passage’s central idea, supporting details,
and the specific focus of the question. Keep in mind that the best answer should accurately
capture the main purpose of the text and align with the evidence provided in the passage.
In our example:
A) This choice accurately reflects the passage’s focus on the Penny Black’s role in improving
the postal system and fostering communication within the British Empire.
B) This choice addresses the British Empire’s expansion and technological innovations, but
the passage primarily focuses on the Penny Black and its impact, not a detailed history of the
empire’s expansion.
C) This choice claims that the Penny Black was the most significant innovation, but the
passage does not make comparisons or argue for its superiority over other innovations.
D) This choice discusses various means of communication during the 19th century, while the
passage primarily focuses on the Penny Black and its specific impact on the British Empire’s
postal system and communication.
Step 5: Select the most appropriate answer based on the passage and your
evaluation
Based on your evaluation in Step 4, choose the answer that best addresses the focus of the question and accurately reflects the central idea and supporting details of the passage. Remember
to consider the specific context of the question and the evidence provided in the text.
In our example, the correct answer is A) To explain the role of the Penny Black in improving
the postal system and fostering communication within the British Empire. This choice best
captures the main purpose of the text and aligns with the information presented in the passage.
In our example, the question asks, “Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?”
We will analyze each choice and explain why it is correct or incorrect based on the passage.
A) “To explain the role of the Penny Black in improving the postal system and fostering
communication within the British Empire.”
Correct Answer: This choice accurately reflects the passage’s focus on the introduction of
the Penny Black, its impact on the postal system, and its role in enhancing communication
within the British Empire. The passage provides evidence that the Penny Black made the postal
system more accessible and affordable, which facilitated communication across vast distances
and reinforced connections within the empire.
B) “To provide a detailed history of the British Empire’s expansion and the various tech42
nological innovations that resulted from it.”
Incorrect Answer: While the passage does mention the rapid expansion of the British Empire
and the development of new technologies, it does not provide a detailed history of this expansion
or discuss various technological innovations in depth. Instead, the passage primarily focuses on
the Penny Black and its impact on the postal system and communication.
C) “To argue that the Penny Black was the most significant innovation in the history of
the British Empire and its communication systems.”
Incorrect Answer: The passage does not argue for the superiority of the Penny Black or
compare it to other innovations. It does highlight the importance of the Penny Black in improving the postal system and fostering communication within the British Empire, but it does
not claim that it was the most significant innovation in the empire’s history.
D) “To discuss the various means of communication available during the 19th century and
how they impacted the British Empire’s expansion.”
Incorrect Answer: This choice incorrectly broadens the scope of the passage. While the
passage does discuss the impact of the Penny Black on the British Empire’s communication
and its role in the empire’s growth, it does not provide an overview of various communication
methods available during the 19th century. The passage’s primary focus is on the Penny Black
and its specific impact on the postal system and communication within the British Empire.
By examining each choice in relation to the passage and the question’s focus, we can determine that choice A is the correct answer, as it best captures the main purpose of the text
and aligns with the information presented in the passage. Remember to read the passage and
question carefully, noting the central idea and supporting details; understand the focus of the
question; review and relate the choices to the passage and the question; evaluate each choice in
relation to the passage and the question’s focus; and select the most appropriate answer based
on your evaluation and the evidence from the text. By practicing these steps, you will build
your skills and confidence in tackling similar questions on the DSAT.
43
Chapter 8
How to Solve “Information and Ideas Command of Evidence”
8.1
Example “Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence” Question
A recent study found that a city’s public transport accessibility is linked to its residents’
quality of life. The researchers believe that improved transportation can contribute to
higher levels of happiness and well-being in urban areas.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ belief?
A) Cities with expanded public transportation systems report higher levels of overall satisfaction among their residents.
B) Some residents in cities with limited public transportation options choose to
walk or cycle to work.
C) Cities with higher GDP per capita tend to have better public transportation
systems.
D) Tourists prefer cities with well-developed public transportation networks.
Correct Answer:
A) Cities with expanded public transportation systems report higher levels of overall satisfaction among their residents.
Explanation:
‘Cities with expanded public transportation systems report higher levels of overall sat44
isfaction among their residents.’ is the correct answer because it directly supports the
researchers’ belief that improved transportation can contribute to higher levels of happiness and well-being in urban areas.
Distractor Explanation:
B) ‘Some residents in cities with limited public transportation options choose to walk or
cycle to work.’ is incorrect because it doesn’t address the relationship between public
transportation and residents’ happiness.
C) ‘Cities with higher GDP per capita tend to have better public transportation systems.’
is incorrect because it doesn’t show a direct link between improved transportation and
residents’ well-being.
D) ‘Tourists prefer cities with well-developed public transportation networks.’ is incorrect
because it focuses on tourists’ preferences rather than the impact of public transportation
on residents’ happiness.
8.2
How to solve “Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence”
The “Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence” section of the DSAT assesses a student’s
ability to comprehend, analyze, and reason using textual and quantitative evidence. In this
tutorial, we will walk you through a step-by-step process for solving these types of questions
using the example provided above. This guide will help you understand how to locate, interpret, evaluate, and integrate information and ideas from texts and informational graphics to
effectively answer these questions.
Key Steps to Information and Ideas - Command of Evidence
1. Read the passage carefully
2. Understand the question
3. Identify the researchers’ belief
4. Review the answer choices
5. Evaluate each answer choice
6. Eliminate irrelevant answer choices
45
Step 1: Read the passage carefully
Begin by reading the passage provided in the question. It is essential to have a clear understanding of the passage’s main idea, as it forms the basis for the question that follows. In our
example, the passage states: “A recent study found that a city’s public transport accessibility
is linked to its residents’ quality of life. The researchers believe that improved transportation
can contribute to higher levels of happiness and well-being in urban areas.”
Step 2: Understand the question
Read the question carefully and make sure you understand what it is asking. In our example,
the question is: “Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ belief?”
Step 3: Identify the researchers’ belief
To answer the question, you need to identify the researchers’ belief stated in the passage. In
this case, the belief is: ”improved transportation can contribute to higher levels of happiness
and well-being in urban areas.”
Step 4: Review the answer choices
Read through all of the answer choices provided. Take note of each option and consider how it
relates to the researchers’ belief.
In our example, we have the following choices:
A) Cities with expanded public transportation systems report higher levels of overall satisfaction among their residents.
B) Some residents in cities with limited public transportation options choose to walk or
cycle to work.
C) Cities with higher GDP per capita tend to have better public transportation systems.
D) Tourists prefer cities with well-developed public transportation networks.
Step 5: Evaluate each answer choice
Go through each answer choice and determine whether it directly supports the researchers’
belief or not. To do this, consider the following questions:
46
Does the answer choice provide evidence that improved transportation contributes to higher
levels of happiness and well-being?
Does the answer choice focus on the impact of public transportation on residents’ happiness
and well-being?
Step 6: Eliminate irrelevant answer choices
Based on your evaluation, eliminate answer choices that do not directly support the researchers’
belief. In our example, the following options can be eliminated:
B) This option focuses on alternative transportation methods and does not address the
relationship between public transportation and residents’ happiness.
C) This option discusses the correlation between GDP per capita and public transportation
but does not provide a direct link between improved transportation and residents’ well-being.
D) This option highlights tourists’ preferences rather than the impact of public transportation on residents’ happiness.
Step 7: Choose the correct answer
After eliminating irrelevant options, you should be left with one answer choice that directly
supports the researchers’ belief. In our example, the correct answer is “A) Cities with expanded
public transportation systems report higher levels of overall satisfaction among their residents.”
This answer directly supports the researchers’ belief by showing a correlation between improved
transportation and higher levels of happiness and well-being in urban areas.
In the given example, the question asks: “Which finding, if true, would most directly support
the researchers’ belief?” The researchers’ belief, as stated in the passage, is that “improved
transportation can contribute to higher levels of happiness and well-being in urban areas.”
Let’s analyze each answer choice in detail:
Correct Answer:
A) ”Cities with expanded public transportation systems report higher levels of overall satisfaction among their residents.”
This answer directly supports the researchers’ belief because it provides evidence that there
is a correlation between improved transportation (expanded public transportation systems)
and higher levels of happiness and well-being (overall satisfaction) in urban areas. By showing
that cities with better public transportation have more satisfied residents, this answer choice
reinforces the researchers’ claim.
Incorrect Answers:
47
B) “Some residents in cities with limited public transportation options choose to walk or
cycle to work.”
This answer choice is incorrect because it does not address the relationship between public
transportation and residents’ happiness. Instead, it focuses on alternative transportation methods (walking or cycling) chosen by some residents in cities with limited public transportation.
While it may provide information on how people cope with limited transportation options, it
does not provide evidence that supports the researchers’ belief regarding the impact of improved
transportation on happiness and well-being.
C) “Cities with higher GDP per capita tend to have better public transportation systems.”
This answer choice is incorrect because it does not directly link improved transportation to
residents’ well-being. It only establishes a correlation between higher GDP per capita and better
public transportation systems. While it might suggest that wealthier cities can afford better
transportation infrastructure, it does not demonstrate how this improvement in transportation
leads to higher levels of happiness and well-being among residents.
D) “Tourists prefer cities with well-developed public transportation networks.”
This answer choice is incorrect because it focuses on the preferences of tourists rather than
the impact of public transportation on residents’ happiness and well-being. While a welldeveloped public transportation network may attract more tourists, it does not provide evidence
to support the researchers’ belief that improved transportation contributes to higher levels of
happiness and well-being for the people living in those cities.
In summary, answer choice A is the correct answer because it directly supports the researchers’ belief by showing a correlation between improved public transportation and higher
levels of happiness and well-being among urban residents. The other answer choices are incorrect because they either do not address the relationship between public transportation and
residents’ happiness or focus on unrelated aspects like alternative transportation methods, GDP
per capita, or tourists’ preferences.
48
Chapter 9
How to Solve “Information and Ideas Inferences”
9.1
Example “Inferences” Question
Abstract Expressionism, an art movement that emerged in the mid-20th century, is
known for its focus on spontaneous, emotional, and gestural art. Artists like Jackson
Pollock and Willem de Kooning gained prominence through their innovative techniques
and unique styles. The movement’s emphasis on individuality and self-expression
.
suggests that Abstract Expressionist artists may have been seeking to
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) break away from traditional artistic norms and conventions
B) emulate the styles of earlier European art movements
C) promote a specific political or social agenda
D) create artwork that is easily understood by the general public
Correct Answer:
A) break away from traditional artistic norms and conventions
Explanation:
‘break away from traditional artistic norms and conventions’ is the correct answer because it aligns with the Abstract Expressionist movement’s focus on individuality, selfexpression, and innovative techniques.
49
Distractor Explanation:
B) ’emulate the styles of earlier European art movements’ is incorrect because the movement
sought to create new and unique styles rather than imitating past movements.
C) ‘promote a specific political or social agenda’ is incorrect because the movement was
primarily focused on individual expression rather than political or social issues.
D) ‘create artwork that is easily understood by the general public’ is incorrect because the
movement’s emphasis on emotional and gestural art does not necessarily make the artwork
easily understood.
9.2
How to solve “Information and Ideas - Inferences”
“Information and Ideas - Inferences” section of the DSAT assesses a student’s ability to draw
reasonable inferences based on explicit and implicit information and ideas in a text. In this
tutorial, we will guide you through a step-by-step process for solving these types of questions
using the example provided above. This guide will help you develop your skills in locating,
interpreting, evaluating, and integrating information and ideas from texts and informational
graphics to answer these questions effectively.
The “Information and Ideas” domain assesses a student’s ability to comprehend, analyze,
and reason with the information presented in various texts and informational graphics. This
domain measures how well a student can locate, interpret, evaluate, and integrate information
and ideas from written passages or visual representations of data, such as tables, bar graphs,
and line graphs. This skill set is essential for understanding, evaluating, and making connections
between different pieces of information presented in various formats.
“Inferences” questions require students to make logical conclusions or deductions based on
the information provided in the text. These questions evaluate a student’s ability to understand explicit information (directly stated facts) and implicit information (suggested or hinted
at) within a passage. The purpose of this question type is to measure a student’s capacity
to think critically and draw logical conclusions from the information provided, even when the
answer is not explicitly stated in the text. This skill is crucial for making connections between different pieces of information, understanding the author’s intention or viewpoint, and
identifying underlying themes or messages within a passage.
Key Steps to Solving Cross-Text Connection Questions
1. Read the passage carefully
2. Understand the question
3. Identify the main ideas and context
50
4. Review the answer choices
5. Evaluate each answer choice
Step 1: Read the passage carefully
Begin by reading the passage provided in the question. It is crucial to have a clear understanding
of the passage’s main idea, as it forms the basis for the question that follows. In our example,
the passage states: ”Abstract Expressionism, an art movement that emerged in the mid-20th
century, is known for its focus on spontaneous, emotional, and gestural art. Artists like Jackson
Pollock and Willem de Kooning gained prominence through their innovative techniques and
unique styles. The movement’s emphasis on individuality and self-expression suggests that
.”
Abstract Expressionist artists may have been seeking to
Step 2: Understand the question
Read the question carefully and make sure you understand what it is asking. In our example,
the question is: ”Which choice most logically completes the text?”
Step 3: Identify the main ideas and context
To answer the question, you need to identify the main ideas and context from the passage. In
this case, the main ideas are the characteristics of the Abstract Expressionist movement, such
as its focus on spontaneous, emotional, and gestural art, as well as its emphasis on individuality
and self-expression.
The context is the emergence of the movement in the mid-20th century and the innovative
techniques and unique styles of its prominent artists.
Step 4: Review the answer choices
Read through all of the answer choices provided. Take note of each option and consider how it
relates to the main ideas and context identified in the passage.
Step 5: Step 5: Evaluate each answer choice
Go through each answer choice and determine whether it logically completes the text by considering the main ideas and context from the passage.
To do this, ask yourself the following questions:
51
Does the answer choice align with the characteristics of the Abstract Expressionist movement?
Does the answer choice make sense within the context of the passage?
Step 6: Eliminate irrelevant answer choices
Based on your evaluation, eliminate answer choices that do not logically complete the text. In
our example, the following options can be eliminated:
B) This option is irrelevant because the movement sought to create new and unique styles
rather than imitating past movements.
C) This option is not consistent with the passage’s focus on individual expression, as it
suggests that the artists were primarily concerned with political or social issues.
D) This option does not align with the characteristics of the Abstract Expressionist movement, as its emphasis on emotional and gestural art does not necessarily make the artwork
easily understood.
Step 7: Choose the correct answer
After eliminating irrelevant options, you should be left with one answer choice that most logically completes the text. In our example, the correct answer is “A: break away from traditional
artistic norms and conventions.” This answer aligns with the Abstract Expressionist movement’s focus on individuality, self-expression, and innovative techniques, making it the most
logical choice to complete the text.
In the given example, the question asks: “Which choice most logically completes the text?”
The passage discusses the Abstract Expressionist movement, its characteristics, and the artists
associated with it.
Let’s analyze each answer choice in detail:
Correct Answer:
A) “break away from traditional artistic norms and conventions”
This answer choice is correct because it logically completes the text by aligning with the
characteristics of the Abstract Expressionist movement, such as its focus on spontaneous, emotional, and gestural art, as well as its emphasis on individuality and self-expression. The
movement’s innovative techniques and unique styles suggest that the artists were attempting
to break away from traditional artistic norms and conventions, making this the most logical
choice to complete the text.
Incorrect Answers: B) “emulate the styles of earlier European art movements”
52
This answer choice is incorrect because it contradicts the information presented in the
passage. The passage emphasizes the innovative techniques and unique styles of the Abstract
Expressionist artists, which implies that they were not seeking to emulate the styles of earlier
European art movements. Instead, they aimed to create new and distinctive styles that set
them apart from past movements.
C) “promote a specific political or social agenda”
This answer choice is incorrect because it does not align with the characteristics of the
Abstract Expressionist movement as described in the passage. The movement’s focus on individuality and self-expression suggests that the artists were more concerned with personal
expression rather than promoting a specific political or social agenda. While some artists
within the movement may have had political or social motivations, this was not the primary
focus of the movement as a whole.
D) “create artwork that is easily understood by the general public”
This answer choice is incorrect because it does not align with the characteristics of the
Abstract Expressionist movement. The passage describes the movement as focusing on spontaneous, emotional, and gestural art, which does not necessarily make the artwork easily understood by the general public. Instead, the emphasis on individuality and self-expression
suggests that the artists were more interested in creating unique and innovative artwork rather
than artwork that was easily understood by a wide audience.
In summary, answer choice A is the correct answer because it most logically completes
the text by aligning with the characteristics of the Abstract Expressionist movement and the
context provided in the passage. The other answer choices are incorrect because they either
contradict the information in the passage, do not align with the movement’s characteristics, or
do not make sense within the context of the passage.
53
Chapter 10
How to Solve “Standard English
Conventions - Boundaries”
10.1
Example “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries”
Question
The rare, brightly colored peacock mantis shrimp can deliver a blow to its prey with a
force more than 2,500 times its own body weight. The shrimp’s powerful strike is due to
the unique structure of its
which stores and then releases large amounts
of energy quickly.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) appendage,
B) appendage;
C) appendage:
D) appendage
Correct Answer:
A) appendage,
Explanation:
‘appendage,’ is the correct answer because it maintains a smooth flow of the sentence,
conforming to Standard English conventions, and provides a proper separation between
the two related ideas.
54
Distractor Explanation:
B) ‘appendage;’ is incorrect because the semicolon is not needed to separate the two related
ideas in this context.
C) ‘appendage:’ is incorrect because the colon is not needed to separate the two related ideas
in this context.
D) ‘appendage’ is incorrect because the lack of punctuation between ’appendage’ and ’which’
disrupts the flow of the sentence and does not conform to Standard English conventions.
10.2
How to solve “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries”
The “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries” section of the DSAT assesses a student’s
ability to edit text to ensure that sentences are conventionally complete, conforming to core
conventions of Standard English sentence structure, usage, and punctuation. In this tutorial,
we will guide you through a step-by-step process for solving these types of questions using the
example provided above. This guide will help you develop your editing skills and knowledge
to make text conform to core conventions of Standard English sentence structure, usage, and
punctuation.
The “Standard English Conventions” domain assesses a student’s ability to edit and revise
text to ensure it adheres to the core conventions of Standard English in terms of sentence
structure, usage, and punctuation. This skill is essential for clear and effective written communication, as it ensures that the text is easily understandable and follows grammatical rules and
conventions.
The “Boundaries” question type focuses on a student’s ability to edit text in a way that
ensures sentences are complete and conform to the conventions of Standard English. This
involves the proper use of punctuation marks, such as commas, semicolons, and colons, as
well as the appropriate separation and connection of clauses and phrases within sentences. By
mastering this skill, students can effectively communicate their ideas in writing and ensure that
their text is easily understandable and grammatically correct.
Key Steps to Standard English Conventions - Boundaries Question
1. Read the passage carefully
2. Understand the question
3. Review the answer choices
4. Evaluate each answer choice
55
5. Eliminate irrelevant answer choices
6. Choose the correct answer
Step 1: Read the passage carefully
Begin by reading the passage provided in the question. It is crucial to have a clear understanding
of the passage’s main idea, as it forms the basis for the question that follows. In our example,
the passage states: “The rare, brightly colored peacock mantis shrimp can deliver a blow to its
prey with a force more than 2,500 times its own body weight. The shrimp’s powerful strike is
which stores and then releases large amounts
due to the unique structure of its
of energy quickly.”
Step 2: Understand the question
Read the question carefully and make sure you understand what it is asking. In our example,
the question is: “Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of
Standard English?”
Step 3: Review the answer choices
Read through all of the answer choices provided. Take note of each option and consider how it
relates to the main ideas and context identified in the passage.
Step 4: Evaluate each answer choice
Go through each answer choice and determine whether it conforms to the conventions of Standard English by considering the main ideas and context from the passage. To do this, ask
yourself the following questions:
Does the answer choice fit the sentence structure and maintain a smooth flow?
Does the answer choice use proper punctuation and conform to Standard English conventions?
Step 5: Eliminate irrelevant answer choices
Based on your evaluation, eliminate answer choices that do not conform to the conventions of
Standard English. In our example, the following options can be eliminated:
56
B) This option uses a semicolon, which is not needed to separate the two related ideas in
this context.
C) This option uses a colon, which is not needed to separate the two related ideas in this
context.
D) This option lacks punctuation between “appendage” and “which,” disrupting the flow
of the sentence and not conforming to Standard English conventions.
Step 6: Choose the correct answer
After eliminating irrelevant options, you should be left with one answer choice that most logically completes the text and conforms to the conventions of Standard English. In our example,
the correct answer is “A) appendage,” because it maintains a smooth flow of the sentence,
conforms to Standard English conventions, and provides proper separation between the two
related ideas.
In the given example, the question asks: “Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?” The passage discusses the peacock mantis
shrimp and the unique structure responsible for its powerful strike. Let’s analyze each answer
choice in detail:
Correct Answer:
A) “appendage,” This answer choice is correct because it uses a comma to maintain a smooth
flow of the sentence and conforms to Standard English conventions. The comma provides a
proper separation between the two related ideas within the sentence, making it the best option
to complete the text in accordance with the conventions of Standard English.
Incorrect Answers:
B) “appendage;” This answer choice is incorrect because it uses a semicolon, which is
not needed to separate the two related ideas in this context. A semicolon is typically used to
separate two independent clauses that are closely related in meaning. However, in this sentence,
the second part of the sentence is a dependent clause, and a semicolon is not the appropriate
punctuation mark to use here.
C) “appendage:” This answer choice is incorrect because it uses a colon, which is not needed
to separate the two related ideas in this context. A colon is generally used to introduce a list,
an explanation, or an elaboration of the preceding clause. In this sentence, a colon is not the
appropriate punctuation mark to use because the second part of the sentence is a dependent
clause that provides additional information rather than an explanation or elaboration.
D) “appendage”
This answer choice is incorrect because it lacks punctuation between “appendage” and
“which.” The absence of punctuation disrupts the flow of the sentence and does not conform
57
to Standard English conventions. A punctuation mark, such as a comma, is needed to separate
the two related ideas and maintain the sentence’s coherence.
In summary, answer choice A is the correct answer because it uses a comma to separate the
two related ideas, maintaining a smooth flow of the sentence and conforming to Standard English conventions. The other answer choices are incorrect because they either use inappropriate
punctuation marks or lack punctuation altogether, causing disruptions in the sentence’s flow
or structure.
Solving “Standard English Conventions - Boundaries” DSAT questions requires a thorough
understanding of the passage, the question, and the answer choices. By carefully reading the
passage, identifying the main ideas and context, evaluating each answer choice, and eliminating irrelevant options, you can successfully choose the correct answer that conforms to the
conventions of Standard English sentence structure, usage, and punctuation.
58
Chapter 11
How to Solve “Standard English
Conventions - Form Structure, and Sense”
11.1
Example “Standard English Conventions - Form Structure, and Sense” Question
In the 19th century, the development of the railroad system
a significant
impact on the American economy, leading to increased trade and industrial growth.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) had
B) having
C) have
D) will have
Correct Answer:
A) had
Explanation:
“had’ is the correct answer because it provides a finite past tense verb that agrees with
the subject and fits the historical context of the sentence.
Distractor Explanation:
59
B) ‘having’ is incorrect because it is a nonfinite verb form (a present participle) that doesn’t
agree with the subject.
C) “have’ is incorrect because it is a present tense verb that does not fit the historical context
of the sentence.
D) ‘will have’ is incorrect because it is a future tense verb that does not fit the historical
context of the sentence.
11.2
How to solve “Standard English Conventions - Form,
Structure, and Sense”
In the “Standard English Conventions” domain, ”Form, Structure, and Sense” questions assess
a student’s ability to edit text to conform to conventional usage, such as subject-verb agreement,
verb tense, and aspect. This skill helps ensure clear and effective written communication by
adhering to the grammatical rules and conventions of Standard English. In this tutorial, we
will go through a step-by-step process to solve “Form, Structure, and Sense” DSAT questions
using the provided example.
The “Standard English Conventions” domain assesses a student’s ability to edit and revise
text to ensure it adheres to the core conventions of Standard English in terms of sentence
structure, usage, and punctuation. This skill is essential for clear and effective written communication, as it ensures that the text is easily understandable and follows grammatical rules and
conventions.
The “Form, Structure, and Sense” question type assesses a student’s ability to edit text to
ensure it conforms to conventional usage in terms of agreement, verb tense, and aspect. This
involves selecting the correct verb form that fits the context of the sentence, ensuring subjectverb agreement, and making other grammatical corrections as necessary. By mastering this
skill, students can improve their written communication and ensure their text is grammatically
correct and easily understandable.
Key Steps to Standard English Conventions - Form, Structure, and Sense
Question
1. Read and analyze the passage and question
2. Choose the correct answer based on context and grammatical rules
60
Step 1: Read and analyze the passage and question
Begin by carefully reading the given passage and question. Identify the part of the sentence that
requires editing, and note any contextual clues that may help you choose the correct answer.
In the given example, the passage discusses the development of the railroad system in the 19th
century and its impact on the American economy. The question asks, ”Which choice completes
the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?”
Step 2: Evaluate each answer choice
Go through each answer choice one by one and consider how it affects the sentence’s form, structure, and sense. Determine if each choice adheres to conventional usage in terms of agreement,
verb tense, and aspect.
In our example, focus on the verb forms provided in the answer choices:
A) “had” B) “having” C) “have” D) “will have”
Step 3: Choose the correct answer based on context and grammatical
rules
Use the contextual clues from the passage and your understanding of the grammatical rules to
select the answer that best completes the sentence according to Standard English conventions.
In the given example, the passage discusses an event that happened in the 19th century, so
the correct verb form should be in the past tense.
A) “had” is a past tense verb that agrees with the subject and fits the historical context
of the sentence. B) “having” is a nonfinite verb form (a present participle) that doesn’t agree
with the subject. C) “have” is a present tense verb that does not fit the historical context of
the sentence. D) “will have” is a future tense verb that does not fit the historical context of
the sentence.
Based on this analysis, the correct answer is A) “had”.
To solve “Form, Structure, and Sense” DSAT questions in the Standard English Conventions
domain, carefully read and analyze the passage and question, evaluate each answer choice, and
select the correct answer based on context and grammatical rules. By following this step-bystep process, you can improve your ability to edit text to conform to conventional usage and
enhance your overall written communication skills.
61
62
Chapter 12
How to Solve ”Expression of Ideas Rhetorical Synthesis”
12.1
Example ”Expression of Ideas - Rhetorical Synthesis”
Question
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The Doppler effect is the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation
to an observer who is moving relative to the wave source.
• The Doppler effect is observed in both sound and light waves.
• The Doppler effect is named after Austrian physicist Christian Doppler, who first
proposed the phenomenon in 1842.
• The Doppler effect has practical applications in fields such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging.
The student wants to explain the importance of the Doppler effect. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) The Doppler effect, first proposed by Austrian physicist Christian Doppler in
1842, is a phenomenon observed in both sound and light waves.
B) The Doppler effect is named after Christian Doppler,who first proposed the
phenomenon in 1842, and it has applications in various scientific fields.
C) The Doppler effect, observed in sound and light waves, has significant applications in diverse fields such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging.
D) The Doppler effect involves the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave
and was first proposed by Christian Doppler in 1842.
63
Correct Answer:
C) The Doppler effect, observed in sound and light waves, has significant applications in
diverse fields such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging.
Explanation:
‘The Doppler effect, observed in sound and light waves, has significant applications in
diverse fields such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging.’ is the correct answer
because it uses relevant information from the notes to emphasize the importance of the
Doppler effect by mentioning its applications in various fields.
Distractor Explanation:
A) ‘The Doppler effect, first proposed by Austrian physicist Christian Doppler in 1842, is
a phenomenon observed in both sound and light waves.’ is incorrect because it doesn’t
emphasize the importance of the Doppler effect.
B) ‘The Doppler effect is named after Christian Doppler, who first proposed the phenomenon
in 1842, and it has applications in various scientific fields.’ is incorrect because it focuses
on Christian Doppler instead of the importance of the Doppler effect itself.
D) ‘The Doppler effect involves the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave and was
first proposed by Christian Doppler in 1842.’ is incorrect because it doesn’t mention the
importance of the Doppler effect and its applications in various fields.
12.2
How to solve “Expression of Ideas - Rhetorical Synthesis”
The “Expression of Ideas” domain assesses a student’s ability to revise texts to improve the
effectiveness of written expression and to meet specific rhetorical goals. Within this domain,
the ”Rhetorical Synthesis” skill focuses on a student’s ability to strategically integrate provided
information and ideas on a topic to form an effective sentence that achieves a specified rhetorical
aim. The ability to synthesize information is essential for effective communication in both
academic and professional settings.
Keys to Solving Rhetorical Synthesis Questions
1. Read the passage carefully and identify the key information provided about the topic.
2. Read the question carefully and identify the rhetorical aim.
64
3. Review each answer choice and evaluate how effectively it uses the relevant information
to accomplish the rhetorical aim.
4. Select the most effective answer choice that synthesizes the information to accomplish the
rhetorical aim.
Step 1: Read the passage carefully and identify the key information provided about the topic.
To effectively synthesize information and answer the given question, it is essential to carefully
read the passage provided. As you read, try to identify the key points and information provided
about the topic at hand. For example, in this passage, the topic is the Doppler effect, and the
author provides the definition of the phenomenon, its applications in various fields, and its
historical origins.
To make sure you understand the passage, you can annotate or take notes as you read. This
can include underlining or highlighting important phrases, circling key words, or writing notes
in the margin. By engaging with the passage in this way, you can better retain the information
provided and more effectively synthesize it to answer the given question.
Step 2: Read the question carefully and identify the rhetorical aim.
After reading the passage and taking note of the relevant information, it is important to carefully
read the question and identify the rhetorical aim. This aim will guide your answer and ensure
that you effectively synthesize the information provided in the passage to accomplish a specific
purpose. For example, in this question, the aim is to explain the importance of the Doppler
effect.
To identify the rhetorical aim, read the question carefully and take note of key phrases that
indicate the desired outcome. In this case, the phrase ”explain the importance” signals that
the aim is to provide information on the significance of the Doppler effect. It is important to
keep this aim in mind as you review the answer choices and select the most effective option. By
staying focused on the rhetorical aim, you can ensure that your answer effectively synthesizes
the relevant information to accomplish the desired outcome.
Step 3: Review each answer choice and evaluate how effectively it uses
the relevant information to accomplish the rhetorical aim.
Once you have identified the key information in the passage and the rhetorical aim of the
question, it’s time to evaluate each answer choice. Read each option carefully and evaluate
how effectively it synthesizes the relevant information from the passage to accomplish the
65
desired outcome. In this case, you are looking for an answer choice that effectively explains the
importance of the Doppler effect by drawing on the information provided in the passage.
To evaluate each answer choice, consider how well it aligns with the information provided
in the passage and how effectively it accomplishes the desired rhetorical aim. Does the answer
choice provide a clear and concise explanation of the importance of the Doppler effect, drawing
on the information provided in the passage? Does it effectively synthesize the relevant information to accomplish the rhetorical aim? Consider these questions as you evaluate each answer
choice to determine which one is the most effective.
Step 4: Select the most effective answer choice that synthesizes the information to accomplish the rhetorical aim.
After carefully evaluating each answer choice, select the option that most effectively synthesizes
the relevant information to accomplish the rhetorical aim. In this case, the correct answer choice
is C, which emphasizes the importance of the Doppler effect by mentioning its applications in
diverse fields, such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging.
In this DSAT question, the goal is to choose the answer choice that effectively uses the relevant information from the passage to accomplish the rhetorical aim of explaining the importance
of the Doppler effect.
Let’s take a look at each answer choice and evaluate its effectiveness:
A) “The Doppler effect, first proposed by Austrian physicist Christian Doppler in 1842, is
a phenomenon observed in both sound and light waves.”
This answer choice effectively synthesizes the relevant information from the passage by
mentioning Christian Doppler and the fact that the Doppler effect is observed in both sound and
light waves. However, it doesn’t effectively accomplish the desired rhetorical aim of explaining
the importance of the Doppler effect. It simply provides information about what the Doppler
effect is and who discovered it.
B) “The Doppler effect is named after Christian Doppler, who first proposed the phenomenon in 1842, and it has applications in various scientific fields.”
This answer choice is similar to choice A in that it mentions Christian Doppler and the fact
that the Doppler effect has applications in various scientific fields. However, it also doesn’t
effectively accomplish the desired rhetorical aim of explaining the importance of the Doppler
effect. It simply provides information about who discovered the Doppler effect and where it is
used.
C) “The Doppler effect, observed in sound and light waves, has significant applications in
diverse fields such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging.”
This answer choice is the most effective because it synthesizes the relevant information from
the passage to effectively accomplish the desired rhetorical aim of explaining the importance of
66
the Doppler effect. By mentioning that the Doppler effect has significant applications in diverse
fields such as astronomy, meteorology, and medical imaging, it emphasizes the importance of
the Doppler effect and how it is used in various scientific fields.
D: “The Doppler effect involves the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave and was
first proposed by Christian Doppler in 1842.”
This answer choice effectively synthesizes the relevant information from the passage by
mentioning Christian Doppler and what the Doppler effect is. However, it doesn’t effectively
accomplish the desired rhetorical aim of explaining the importance of the Doppler effect. It
simply provides information about what the Doppler effect is and who discovered it, without
emphasizing its importance or applications.
Overall, answer choice C is the most effective because it synthesizes the relevant information to accomplish the rhetorical aim of explaining the importance of the Doppler effect.
Answer choices A, B, and D are all incorrect because while they may synthesize some relevant
information, they do not effectively accomplish the rhetorical aim of the question.
It’s important to remember that the correct answer choice should not only align with the information provided in the passage, but it should also effectively accomplish the desired rhetorical
aim. By staying focused on the rhetorical aim and evaluating each option based on its effectiveness in achieving that aim, you can more effectively synthesize the information to answer
the given question.
67
Chapter 13
How to Solve “Expression of Ideas Transitions”
13.1
Example “Expression of Ideas - Transitions” Question
For many years, scientists believed that Thomas Edison’s invention of the incandescent
light bulb in 1879 was the first practical electric light. While Edison’s invention was
British scientist Sir Hiram Maxim had
a significant breakthrough,
actually developed a working electric light in 1878, a year before Edison.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Additionally,
B) Consequently,
C) Moreover,
D) However,
Correct Answer:
D) However
Explanation:
‘However’ is the correct answer because it logically signals a contrast between the belief
that Edison invented the first practical electric light and the fact that Sir Hiram Maxim
developed one a year earlier.
Distractor Explanation:
68
A) ’Additionally’ is incorrect because it illogically implies that Sir Hiram Maxim’s invention adds to the belief that Edison invented the first practical electric light, rather than
contrasting it.
B) ’Consequently’ is incorrect because it illogically suggests that Maxim’s invention is a result
of the belief that Edison invented the first practical electric light.
C) ’Moreover’ is incorrect because it illogically implies that Maxim’s invention simply adds
more information to the belief that Edison invented the first practical electric light, rather
than contrasting it.
13.2
How to solve “Expression of Ideas - Transition”
In this tutorial, we will be discussing how to solve ”Expression of Ideas - Transitions” DSAT
questions. These types of questions require students to determine the most effective transition
word or phrase to logically connect information and ideas in a text. The correct transition will
help to make the text more cohesive and help the reader to follow the author’s argument.
The Expression of Ideas domain measures the ability to revise texts to improve the effectiveness of written expression and to meet specific rhetorical goals. The domain includes three
skills: Transitions, Rhetorical Synthesis, and Vocabulary.
Transitions is one of the three skills tested in the Expression of Ideas domain. This skill
requires students to determine the most effective transition word or phrase to logically connect
information and ideas in a text. Transitions are words or phrases that connect ideas, sentences,
and paragraphs, helping to guide the reader through the text and make the writing more
coherent and easy to follow. Effective transitions help to create a smooth flow of ideas and
prevent the text from becoming disjointed or confusing.
In a Transitions DSAT question, students are presented with a passage and a question that
asks them to choose the most effective transition word or phrase to complete the passage. The
answer choices usually include commonly used transition words and phrases, such as ”however,”
”therefore,” ”in addition,” and ”moreover.” Students must carefully consider the context of the
passage and the relationship between the ideas presented to choose the most effective transition
word or phrase.
Overall, the Transitions skill in the Expression of Ideas domain measures students’ ability to
effectively connect ideas and create a coherent and logical flow of information in their writing.
English transition words are words and phrases that connect and relate ideas and sentences
in a text, making it easier for readers to follow the writer’s train of thought. Here is a list of
common transition words and phrases with explanations of their usage:
• Addition: Used to add information or ideas.
– Additionally: ”Additionally, I would like to thank everyone who helped me.”
69
– Also: ”I am also interested in learning more about the topic.”
– Furthermore: ”Furthermore, the research has shown that the problem is more complex than initially thought.”
– In addition: ”In addition to his academic achievements, he was also an accomplished
musician.”
• Contrast: Used to show differences or opposite ideas.
– However: ”I understand your point of view; however, I disagree with your argument.”
– Nevertheless: ”The team was tired; nevertheless, they continued to work hard.”
– On the other hand: ”The company has a lot of money, but on the other hand, they
have a lot of problems.”
– Yet: ”The problem is serious; yet, no one seems to be taking any action.”
• Cause and Effect: Used to show the reason for an event or the result of an action.
– Consequently: ”He missed the train; consequently, he arrived late to the meeting.”
– Due to: ”Due to the weather conditions, the flight was canceled.”
– For this reason: ”For this reason, we decided to postpone the project.”
– Therefore: ”He was absent from work; therefore, he missed an important meeting.”
• Comparison: Used to compare or show similarities.
– Similarly: ”Similarly, many people are concerned about the environmental impact
of the project.”
– Likewise: ”She enjoys cooking; likewise, she likes to experiment with new recipes.”
– In the same way: ”In the same way, the company’s profits have been declining for
the past few years.”
– Just as: ”Just as she was about to leave, the phone rang.”
• Time: Used to show the order of events or time relationships.
– Meanwhile: ”He was at work; meanwhile, his wife was at home taking care of their
children.”
– Next: ”Next, we will discuss the results of the study.”
– Afterward: ”Afterward, he realized that he had made a mistake.”
– Later: ”She left early; later, she regretted not staying longer.”
• Conclusion: Used to summarize or conclude.
– In conclusion: ”In conclusion, I believe that we need to take action to address the
issue.”
– Therefore: ”The data supports our hypothesis; therefore, we can conclude that it is
correct.”
70
– To summarize: ”To summarize, the project was successful due to the efforts of
everyone involved.”
– Ultimately: ”Ultimately, the success of the business depends on the satisfaction of
our customers.”
Key Steps to Solving Transition Reading Questions
1. Read the passage carefully and identify the information that needs to be connected with
a transition.
2. Look at the available transition choices and consider which one best conveys the intended
meaning of the passage.
3. Consider the distractor explanations to understand why the incorrect answers are not the
best choice.
4. Double-check your selection and ensure that the transition effectively connects the ideas
in the passage.
Step 1: Read the passage carefully and identify the information that needs
to be connected with a transition.
In this example, the first sentence discusses the commonly held belief that Thomas Edison’s
incandescent light bulb was the first practical electric light. The second sentence provides
information that contrasts with this belief, stating that British scientist Sir Hiram Maxim
actually developed a working electric light a year earlier. To effectively connect these two
ideas, we need to choose a transition that indicates the contrast between the two.
Step 2: Look at the available transition choices and consider which one
best conveys the intended meaning of the passage.
In this case, the correct answer is ”However.” This transition effectively signals a contrast
between the two sentences, indicating that the second sentence contradicts the commonly held
belief presented in the first sentence.
Step 3: Consider the distractor explanations to understand why the incorrect answers are not the best choice.
In this example, the distractors ”Additionally,” ”Consequently,” and ”Moreover” are all incorrect. ”Additionally” and ”Moreover” suggest that the second sentence adds more information
71
• Moreover - indicating that something is true in addition to what was already stated
• Likewise - indicating that something is similar to what was previously stated
• Similarly - indicating that something is similar to what was previously stated
• However - indicating a contrast or exception to what was previously stated
• Nonetheless - indicating a contrast or exception to what was previously stated
• Nevertheless - indicating a contrast or exception to what was previously stated
• On the other hand - indicating a contrast or alternative
• In contrast - indicating a contrast or difference
• Alternatively - indicating an alternative option or possibility
• Alternatively, also, as well - indicating an additional or alternative option or possibility
• In addition - indicating an additional element or circumstance
• Notwithstanding - indicating a contrast or exception to what was previously stated
• In fact - indicating that something is actually true despite what may have been assumed
• Indeed - emphasizing that something is true or significant
• In summary - indicating a brief overview of what was previously discussed
• To summarize - indicating a brief overview of what was previously discussed
• Therefore - indicating a conclusion or consequence based on what was previously stated
• Consequently - indicating a conclusion or consequence based on what was previously
stated
• Thus - indicating a conclusion or consequence based on what was previously stated
• Hence - indicating a conclusion or consequence based on what was previously stated
• As a result - indicating a conclusion or consequence based on what was previously stated
• Accordingly - indicating a conclusion or consequence based on what was previously
stated
• For example - introducing an illustrative example to support a point
• Specifically - indicating a specific example or detail to support a point
• In particular - indicating a specific example or detail to support a point
• To illustrate - introducing an illustrative example to support a point
73
• Namely - introducing a specific or explicit detail or example
• In other words - indicating an alternative or clearer way to express what was previously
stated
• That is - indicating an explanation or clarification of what was previously stated
• Put another way - indicating an alternative or clearer way to express what was previously stated
• To put it simply - indicating a simplified or clearer way to express what was previously
stated
• As previously stated - referring back to a previously stated point
• As mentioned earlier - referring back to a previously mentioned point
• To conclude - indicating a final statement or conclusion
• Finally - indicating a final point or conclusion
• In conclusion - indicating a final statement or conclusion
• Lastly - indicating a final point or conclusion
74
Chapter 14
Module 1
Reading and Writing - 27 Questions
DIRECTIONS: The questions in this section are designed to test your reading and writing
abilities. Each question will provide you with one or more passages. It is important to
thoroughly read each passage and question before selecting the best answer based on the
information provided. All of the questions in this section are multiple-choice and will have
four options to choose from. There is only one correct answer for each question.
1. The Congress of Vienna, held from 1814 to 1815, aimed to restore Europe’s balance
of power after the French Revolution and Napoleonic Wars. It was noteworthy for its
diplomatic approach, which prioritized negotiation and consensus-building over military
force. The Congress reestablished the pre-Napoleonic order by restoring monarchies and
redrawing national borders. This reconfiguration of power sought to maintain long-term
stability and prevent future conflicts in Europe.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To emphasize the role of individual diplomats in shaping the decisions made at the
Congress of Vienna
B) To discuss the various military strategies employed during the Congress of Vienna to
achieve lasting peace in Europe
C) To describe the Congress of Vienna’s objectives and its diplomatic approach in restoring Europe’s balance of power
D) To analyze the long-term consequences of the Congress of Vienna on European political ideologies
76
Chapter 16
Module 2
Reading and Writing - 27 Questions
DIRECTIONS: The questions in this section are designed to test your reading and writing
abilities. Each question will provide you with one or more passages. It is important to
thoroughly read each passage and question before selecting the best answer based on the
information provided. All of the questions in this section are multiple-choice and will have
four options to choose from. There is only one correct answer for each question.
1. In George Orwell’s novel 1984, he explores the oppressive tactics employed by totalitarian
governments. Orwell’s vision of a dystopian society, controlled by an omnipresent government entity called ’Big Brother,’ highlights the consequences of relinquishing personal
freedom and autonomy. The novel emphasizes the importance of language, thought, and
individualism as powerful tools to resist totalitarianism.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To illustrate the evolution of George Orwell’s writing style throughout his career
B) To provide a detailed analysis of the novel’s linguistic and stylistic elements
C) To argue that Orwell’s novel was a direct critique of contemporary political systems
D) To highlight the oppressive nature of totalitarian governments and the importance
of personal freedom
96
Chapter 18
Module 3
Reading and Writing - 27 Questions
DIRECTIONS: The questions in this section are designed to test your reading and writing
abilities. Each question will provide you with one or more passages. It is important to
thoroughly read each passage and question before selecting the best answer based on the
information provided. All of the questions in this section are multiple-choice and will have
four options to choose from. There is only one correct answer for each question.
1. Frida Kahlo, a renowned Mexican painter, was known for her self-portraits and her ability
to communicate her pain and emotions through her artwork. Her paintings often included
vivid colors and a mix of symbolism and surrealism. Kahlo’s work was deeply influenced
by her experiences, which included a near-fatal accident, numerous surgeries, and a tumultuous marriage with fellow artist Diego Rivera. Despite her physical and emotional
struggles, Kahlo continued to create art that resonated with people across generations
and cultures.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To analyze the influence of Frida Kahlo’s work on the broader art world and its
reception
B) To discuss the technical aspects of Frida Kahlo’s painting style and use of color
C) To provide a biography of Frida Kahlo, focusing on her marriage to Diego Rivera
D) To emphasize Frida Kahlo’s resilience and the personal nature of her artwork
115
2. Queen Isabella I, who ruled Castile from 1474 to 1504, enacted a series of reforms during her reign. Together with her husband, King Ferdinand II of Aragon, she worked to
strengthen the monarchy, centralize power, and consolidate the Catholic Church’s influence. Among her notable achievements was the sponsorship of Christopher Columbus’s
first voyage in 1492, which led to the discovery of the Americas. Queen Isabella I’s reign
had a significant impact on the world, as her decisions shaped the future of Spain and
the Americas.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To provide an in-depth analysis of Queen Isabella I’s personality traits and how they
contributed to her success as a ruler
B) To emphasize the historical importance of Queen Isabella I’s reign by highlighting
her achievements and their consequences
C) To argue that Queen Isabella I’s reign was marked by a series of controversial decisions
that led to negative outcomes
D) To compare and contrast the leadership styles of Queen Isabella I and King Ferdinand
II during their respective reigns
3. Text 1: Neil Armstrong, the first human to set foot on the moon, went on to become a
professor at the University of Cincinnati. He taught aerospace engineering and was known
for his hands-on teaching approach, often taking students to the field to gain practical
experience.
Text 2: Although Neil Armstrong is celebrated for his role as an astronaut, his contributions to the field of aerospace engineering are also significant. Armstrong’s work as a
professor at the University of Cincinnati, where he developed and implemented innovative
teaching methods, helped shape generations of aerospace engineers.
Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the teaching
approach discussed in Text 1?
A) By asserting that Neil Armstrong’s teaching approach was not as effective as more
traditional methods in the field of aerospace engineering.
B) By suggesting that Neil Armstrong’s hands-on teaching approach was a result of his
experiences as an astronaut and not as relevant to aerospace engineering.
C) By questioning whether Neil Armstrong’s hands-on teaching approach was solely
responsible for the success of his students in the field of aerospace engineering.
D) By agreeing that Neil Armstrong’s hands-on teaching approach was a valuable contribution to the field of aerospace engineering and the education of students.
116
4. Ada Lovelace, often regarded as the world’s first computer programmer, worked closely
with Charles Babbage on the Analytical Engine. Her extensive notes and understanding
her the title of ’prophet of the computer age’.
of the machine’s potential uses
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) earning
B) earned
C) to earn
D) will be earning
5. The Archimedes’ screw, a device invented in ancient Greece, was initially used to transfer
water from lower to higher levels. It consists of a helical surface surrounding a cylindrical
, causes water to move along the helix.
shaft, which, when
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) rotate
B) rotated
C) rotating
D) to rotate
117
6. The concept of a living wage is gaining traction in many countries, as it seeks to ensure
workers earn enough to maintain a decent quality of life. However, critics argue that the
businesses with increased labor costs, potentially
implementation of a living wage
leading to job losses.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) burdens
B) burdening
C) burden
D) to burden
7. The Iron Curtain, a term coined by Winston Churchill, was a metaphorical barrier dividing Europe into two parts: the democratic Western Europe and the communist Eastern
with the end of World War II and
Europe. The formation of the Iron Curtain
the beginning of the Cold War.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) coincided
B) have coincided
C) coinciding
D) to coincide
118
11. On December 16, 1773, a group of American colonists disguised as Mohawk Indians
boarded three British ships in Boston Harbor. In protest of the British Parliament’s Tea
Act, they proceeded to dump 342 chests of tea into the harbor, an event later known as
the Boston Tea Party. This act of defiance significantly fueled the colonists’ desire for
and ultimately led to the American Revolution.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) independence’s
B) independences
C) independence
D) independence’
12. Fire protection engineers consider both active and passive fire protection strategies when
designing buildings. Active fire protection systems, such as sprinklers and smoke detectors, respond to the presence of fire or smoke. On the other hand, passive fire protection
the spread of fire.
methods, like fire-resistant building materials, are meant to
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) prohibit
B) prohibit’s
C) prohibited
D) prohibits
121
13. Charles Darwin spent years on the HMS Beagle, traveling to various locations, including
the Galápagos Islands. It was during this journey that his observations of the islands’
unique wildlife, such as the Galápagos tortoise and the finches, contributed to his understanding of natural selection and the development of his theory of
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) evolution.
B) evolution and;
C) evolution, and
D) evolution; and
14. Leon Trotsky, a key figure in the Russian Revolution, developed a political theory called
that extended Marxist principles. This theory argued for the necessity of continuous revolution to create a global communist society and urged workers around the
world to support it.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) permanent revolution
B) endless rebellion
C) continuous conflict
D) infinite struggle
122
15. Motocross, a form of off-road motorcycle racing, has gained popularity around the world.
The sport is both physically demanding and technically challenging, as riders must navinature of
gate various terrains while maintaining their balance and speed. The
the tracks makes motocross an exciting spectator sport.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) gentle
B) diverse
C) ordinary
D) static
16. Ralph Ellison’s ’Invisible Man’ is considered a seminal work in American literature. The
novel explores the theme of invisibility, which is not only about being physically unseen
in a society that refuses to acknowledge one’s existence.
but also about being
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) socially ignored
B) magnified
C) omnipresent
D) silently observed
123
17. In the Stranger Things series, the town of Hawkins, Indiana is plagued by supernatural
occurrences. The main characters, a group of children and teenagers, face the dangers of
the Upside Down, a parallel world filled with monsters. Their experiences are intertwined
with the lives of the adults in the town, who work to uncover the mysteries and protect
their loved ones from the unknown threats.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The text focuses on the supernatural creatures in the Upside Down.
B) The text emphasizes the importance of friendship among the children.
C) The text highlights the role of the adult characters in the series.
D) The text introduces the challenges faced by the characters in Stranger Things.
18. In this passage, Thomas Edison’s invention of the phonograph is discussed. Although
Edison was already well-known for his numerous contributions to technology, the phonograph garnered even more attention from the public. It was a groundbreaking invention
in the field of audio recording and playback, allowing users to both record and listen to
sound on the same device. Edison’s invention revolutionized the way people experienced
music, speeches, and other audio content.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Thomas Edison’s inventions were not well-known before the phonograph.
B) The phonograph was an insignificant invention in Edison’s portfolio.
C) Thomas Edison’s invention of the phonograph revolutionized the field of audio recording and playback.
D) Edison’s contributions to technology were limited to the field of audio recording and
playback.
124
19. The text discusses Werner Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, a quantum mechanics theory that states it is impossible to simultaneously measure both the position and velocity
of a particle with absolute precision. This idea revolutionized physics and challenged
previous notions of certainty in scientific observations.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The text describes a biography of Werner Heisenberg and his contributions to science.
B) The text focuses on the immediate impact of Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle on
the scientific community.
C) The text introduces Werner Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle and its significance in
quantum mechanics.
D) The text provides a detailed explanation of the mathematical aspects of Heisenberg’s
uncertainty principle.
20. The Mercosur, a regional trade bloc in South America, aims to promote economic cooperation among its members. However, critics argue that the bloc has not achieved its full
potential due to internal disputes and protectionist policies.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the critics’ argument?
A) The Mercosur has adopted new policies to streamline the trade process among its
members.
B) Countries outside the Mercosur have significantly increased their trade with the bloc.
C) One of the Mercosur members has experienced rapid economic growth in recent years.
D) The overall trade among Mercosur members has stagnated since the bloc’s inception.
125
21. Caving enthusiasts often rely on natural light sources to navigate, but sometimes use
artificial lighting in deep cave systems. A recent study examines the impact of artificial
light on cave-dwelling organisms, exploring potential negative effects on their behavior
and ecology.
Which finding, if true, would most significantly undermine the claim that artificial light
negatively affects cave-dwelling organisms?
A) Cave-dwelling organisms in areas with artificial light exhibit increased reproduction
rates and stronger resilience.
B) Cave systems with artificial light installed are more frequently visited by caving
enthusiasts.
C) Some cave-dwelling organisms have developed bioluminescence as an adaptation to
their dark environment.
D) Cave-dwelling organisms in artificially lit areas show a slight decrease in activity
during daytime hours.
22. C.S. Lewis, a British writer and scholar, is known for his work in Christian apologetics.
However, his academic focus was on medieval and Renaissance literature. He served
as a professor at both Oxford and Cambridge Universities, where he made significant
contributions to the study of these literary periods.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the claim that C.S. Lewis had a
profound impact on the study of medieval and Renaissance literature?
A) C.S. Lewis’s close friendship with J.R.R. Tolkien influenced the creation of the Chronicles of Narnia.
B) Many of Lewis’s scholarly works on medieval and Renaissance literature became
foundational texts in these fields of study.
C) C.S. Lewis’s conversion to Christianity played a significant role in shaping his apologetic works.
D) Literary critics and scholars continue to debate the religious themes present in the
Chronicles of Narnia.
126
23. Christopher Columbus is often credited with discovering America, despite evidence of
Viking settlements predating his arrival. Some historians argue that Columbus’s actions
led to the colonization and exploitation of Indigenous peoples in the Americas, while
others view his voyages as a turning point in human history, marking the beginning of
globalization and cultural exchange. The debate over Columbus’s legacy continues to this
day, with some calling for the reevaluation of his role in history and others defending his
achievements as an explorer. Ultimately, the perspective on Columbus’s legacy depends
.
on
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) how one weighs the positive aspects of exploration and cultural exchange against the
negative consequences of colonization and exploitation.
B) whether one believes in the historical accuracy of Columbus’s personal diaries and
letters.
C) the extent to which one believes the Indigenous peoples of the Americas would have
eventually made contact with Europeans without Columbus’s voyages.
D) how much emphasis one places on the role of the Viking settlements in shaping the
history of the Americas.
24. Roger Penrose, a renowned physicist, is known for his groundbreaking work involving
black holes and general relativity. Though Penrose has made significant contributions
to the field of physics, he also holds a deep interest in the connection between human
consciousness and quantum mechanics, suggesting that
.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) Roger Penrose’s contributions to the field of physics are considered less significant
than his work on human consciousness.
B) Roger Penrose’s work in physics is often overshadowed by his fascination with human
consciousness.
C) Roger Penrose explores interdisciplinary topics and is not limited to a single area of
expertise.
D) Roger Penrose’s interest in human consciousness has led him to disprove the existence
of black holes.
127
25. Synthetic biology engineering involves the design and construction of new biological systems for various applications. For instance, scientists have used synthetic biology techthese advancements, researchers
niques to produce biofuels and pharmaceuticals.
have also raised concerns about the potential risks and ethical implications of this field.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Therefore
B) Additionally
C) In contrast
D) Despite
26. During the Elizabethan Era, England experienced a period of significant cultural growth,
with the flourishing of the arts, literature, and theater. Queen Elizabeth I avidly supthis
ported the arts, often commissioning works from prominent playwrights and poets.
support led to the creation of some of the most famous works in English literature, including William Shakespeare’s plays and sonnets.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Indeed
B) Alternatively
C) However
D) In contrast
128
27. Thomas Jefferson, the third President of the United States, was a polymath who excelled
in various fields such as architecture, horticulture, and political philosophy. He designed
Jefferson’s
his own home, Monticello, which showcased his architectural prowess.
passion for horticulture was evident in the extensive gardens he created at Monticello,
where he experimented with numerous plant species.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) In contrast,
B) On the other hand,
C) Nevertheless,
D) Similarly,
129
6. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’burdens’ is the correct answer because it provides a finite present tense
verb that agrees with the subject ’implementation’ and correctly connects the main clause
with the rest of the sentence.
7. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’coincided’ is the correct answer because it provides a past tense verb
that agrees with the subject ’formation’ and highlights the relationship between the end
of World War II and the beginning of the Cold War.
8. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’The first Thanksgiving in 1621 was a harvest celebration between Pilgrims and the Wampanoag tribe, predating its official establishment as a holiday in 1863.’
is the correct answer because it provides historical context by mentioning the original
event in 1621 and its official establishment as a holiday by President Lincoln in 1863.
9. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Neighboring countries, such as Colombia, Peru, and Brazil, are experiencing strain on resources and infrastructure due to the influx of Venezuelan refugees.’
is the correct answer because it effectively explains the impact of the Venezuelan refugee
crisis on neighboring countries by mentioning the strain on resources and infrastructure.
10. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Elon Musk, as the CEO of Tesla and founder of SpaceX, plays a crucial
role in advancing sustainable transportation and space exploration.’ is the correct answer
because it effectively uses relevant information from the notes to emphasize Elon Musk’s
role in both sustainable transportation and space exploration.
11. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’independence’ is the correct answer because it properly fits the context
of the passage, and it is a singular noun that doesn’t require any possessive or plural
modifications.
12. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’prohibit’ is the correct answer because it correctly uses the base form
of the verb to describe the purpose of passive fire protection methods.
131
13. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’evolution.’ is the correct answer because it provides a grammatically
correct and concise ending to the sentence, indicating the result of Darwin’s observations.
14. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’permanent revolution’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes the political theory developed by Leon Trotsky, which involved the extension of
Marxist principles and the necessity of continuous revolution to achieve a global communist society.
15. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’diverse’ is the correct answer because it describes the variety of terrains
that motocross riders face, making the sport more challenging and exciting to watch.
16. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Socially ignored’ is the correct answer because it best represents the
theme of invisibility in Ralph Ellison’s novel, where the protagonist feels unseen and
unacknowledged by the society around him.
17. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’The text introduces the challenges faced by the characters in Stranger
Things.’ is the correct answer because the passage provides a general overview of the
series, mentioning the supernatural occurrences, the Upside Down, and the involvement
of both children and adults.
18. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Thomas Edison’s invention of the phonograph revolutionized the field of
audio recording and playback.’ is the correct answer because the passage focuses on the
importance of the phonograph in the field of audio recording and its impact on people’s
experiences with music and other audio content.
19. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’The text introduces Werner Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle and its
significance in quantum mechanics.’ is the correct answer because it accurately reflects
the main idea of the text, which presents Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle and its revolutionary impact on physics.
132
20. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’The overall trade among Mercosur members has stagnated since the
bloc’s inception.’ is the correct answer because it demonstrates that the Mercosur has not
achieved its goal of promoting economic cooperation among its members, which supports
the critics’ argument.
21. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Cave-dwelling organisms in areas with artificial light exhibit increased
reproduction rates and stronger resilience.’ is the correct answer because it directly contradicts the claim that artificial light has negative effects on cave-dwelling organisms, by
showing positive effects instead.
22. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Many of Lewis’s scholarly works on medieval and Renaissance literature
became foundational texts in these fields of study.’ is the correct answer because it directly
supports the claim that C.S. Lewis had a profound impact on the study of these literary
periods.
23. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’how one weighs the positive aspects of exploration and cultural exchange
against the negative consequences of colonization and exploitation’ is the correct answer
because it directly addresses the debate over Columbus’s legacy mentioned in the passage
and highlights the contrasting perspectives on his actions.
24. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Roger Penrose explores interdisciplinary topics and is not limited to a
single area of expertise.’ is the correct answer because it highlights that Penrose’s interest
in human consciousness and quantum mechanics demonstrates his ability to delve into
various subjects beyond physics.
25. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Despite’ is the correct answer because it indicates that the concerns
raised by researchers are contrasted with the advancements made in synthetic biology
engineering.
133
26. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Indeed’ is the correct answer because it emphasizes the significance
of Queen Elizabeth I’s support for the arts, demonstrating how this support led to the
creation of famous works in English literature.
27. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Similarly’ is the correct answer because it shows that Jefferson’s passion
for horticulture is another example of his wide range of interests and abilities, similar to
his architectural prowess.
134
2. Seymour Benzer, a renowned physicist and biologist, pioneered the field of behavioral
genetics by studying the fruit fly Drosophila. His groundbreaking experiments demonstrated that mutations in single genes could significantly impact an organism’s behavior.
Benzer’s work laid the foundation for understanding the genetic basis of behavior, leading
to further research in various species, including humans. Today, his discoveries continue
to influence neuroscience, genetics, and the study of complex behaviors.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To argue that Seymour Benzer’s work on behavioral genetics has largely been overlooked by modern scientists and researchers
B) To inform readers about the specific experiments that Seymour Benzer conducted on
fruit flies and their behavioral patterns
C) To highlight Seymour Benzer’s pioneering work in behavioral genetics and its lasting
impact on the scientific community
D) To explain the detailed process of how mutations in single genes can have a significant
influence on an organism’s behavior
3. Text 1: In The Phantom of the Opera, the author creates an atmosphere of mystery
surrounding the character of the Phantom, also known as Erik. Erik is a skilled musician,
architect, and inventor, who lives a secluded life beneath the Paris Opera House. His
tragic past and disfigured appearance contribute to his enigmatic character. The author’s
use of vivid descriptions and suspenseful storytelling captivates readers, as they strive to
learn more about the Phantom’s true identity.
Text 2: Critics of The Phantom of the Opera often discuss the novel’s exploration of
unrequited love and obsession. The Phantom’s infatuation with the young singer Christine
Daaé becomes the central focus of the story, as he manipulates events to make her a star.
This unhealthy obsession ultimately leads to the Phantom’s downfall, as he is unable to
win Christine’s love. Some critics argue that the novel serves as a cautionary tale against
the dangers of obsession.
Based on the texts, how would critics (Text 2) most likely respond to the “atmosphere of
mystery” discussed in Text 1?
A) By praising the author’s use of mystery to keep readers engaged and invested in the
story
B) By acknowledging the atmosphere of mystery but placing more emphasis on the
novel’s exploration of unrequited love and obsession
136
C) By criticizing the author for creating an unrealistic and overly dramatic portrayal of
the Phantom’s character
D) By suggesting that the Phantom’s mysterious nature detracts from the story’s overall
themes and message
4. As the demand for renewable energy increases, the need for efficient energy storage also
rises. In response to this, scientists have developed a new type of battery called the
chemical
flow battery. Flow batteries can store large amounts of energy by
components dissolved in liquids contained within the system.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) utilized
B) to utilize
C) utilizing
D) will utilize
5. Emily Dickinson’s unique writing style often includes dashes, unconventional punctuation,
and capitalization. Her poems frequently feature enigmatic language and unusual syntax,
to their mysterious allure and continue to intrigue readers today.
which
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) contributing
B) contribute
C) to contribute
D) contributed
137
6. Textile engineering is a diverse field that includes the development of innovative fibers
a new class of synthetic textiles,
and materials. In the 20th century, researchers
including polyester and nylon, which revolutionized the fashion and clothing industries.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) creating
B) to create
C) created
D) has created
7. During Abraham Lincoln’s presidency, the United States faced a critical time as the
nation was divided by the Civil War. Despite the numerous challenges, Lincoln was able
crucial victories, such as the Emancipation Proclamation and the passage of
to
the Thirteenth Amendment, which abolished slavery.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) securing
B) secure
C) to secure
D) secured
138
D) IoT technology can enhance energy efficiency by monitoring and adjusting energy
consumption in real-time through interconnected devices.
11. The Monroe Doctrine, a significant foreign policy statement issued by President James
Monroe in 1823, aimed to prevent European nations from interfering in the affairs of
newly independent Latin American countries. It declared that any further colonization
by the United States.
by European powers in the Americas would be viewed as a
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) aggression hostile
B) hostile aggression,
C) act, hostile
D) hostile act
12. Squash is a popular racket sport that requires both physical stamina and mental agility.
The game has its origins in the 19th century, when it was developed at Harrow School in
England. The students would play in a small, confined space, hitting a soft rubber ball
This early version of squash was more about control
against a wall with their
and precision than power.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) racket’s
B) rackets’
C) racket’s’
D) rackets
141
13. Alice Walker, an acclaimed African American author, is known for her contributions to
the literary world. Her most famous work, The Color Purple, won her the Pulitzer Prize
for Fiction in 1983, and is often regarded as a powerful piece of literature addressing the
of African American women in the early 20th century.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) struggles, particularly
B) struggles particularly,
C) struggles; particularly
D) struggles particularly
14. The Muppet Show, created by Jim Henson, was a groundbreaking television series that
combined puppetry, comedy, and music. Since its debut in 1976, the show has been
by critics for its innovative format and enduring appeal to both children and
adults.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) criticized
B) ignored
C) lauded
D) tamed
142
15. Derivatives are financial contracts whose value is derived from the value of an underlying
asset, such as stocks or commodities. The two most common types of derivatives are op, speculation,
tions and futures, which can be used for various purposes, including
and managing risk.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) hedging
B) gambling
C) experimenting
D) entertaining
16. During the Gettysburg Address, Abraham Lincoln emphasized the importance of a ’government of the people, by the people, for the people,’ highlighting the democratic princion.
ples that the nation was
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) safeguarded
B) amused
C) founded
D) deviated
143
17. During the Brazilian Empire (1822-1889), which followed the country’s independence
from Portugal, Brazil experienced significant economic and political growth. Under the
rule of Emperors Pedro I and Pedro II, Brazil expanded its territory, developed a strong
agricultural economy, and became an important global trade partner. However, the empire
faced challenges such as slavery, regional conflicts, and pressure for a more democratic
government.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The Brazilian Empire experienced growth and challenges during its rule after gaining
independence.
B) Emperors Pedro I and Pedro II were primarily responsible for Brazil’s political stability.
C) The Brazilian Empire’s focus on agricultural development led to the abolition of
slavery.
D) Brazil’s economic success during the empire era was solely due to its global trade
partnerships.
18. A financial analyst recently published a report on XYZ Company, examining its stock
performance over the past five years. The report highlighted several variables that potentially influenced the stock’s value, including market trends, industry developments,
and company-specific factors. It concluded that while external factors played a role, the
company’s strong management and innovative strategies were the primary drivers behind
its consistent growth.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) XYZ Company’s stock value is solely determined by uncontrollable external factors.
B) The financial analyst’s report solely focuses on the stock market trends affecting XYZ
Company.
C) The company’s stock performance is primarily attributed to its strong management
and innovative strategies.
D) The financial analyst’s report is critical of XYZ Company’s management and strategies.
144
19. Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, is remembered for his inspirational speeches and leadership during the American Civil War. Although he had
humble beginnings as a self-educated lawyer, his eloquent words and determination to
preserve the Union made him a powerful figure. Lincoln’s Emancipation Proclamation
and Gettysburg Address exemplified his devotion to the principles of freedom, equality,
and unity.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The text describes the various challenges that Abraham Lincoln faced during his
tenure as the 16th President of the United States.
B) The text focuses on Abraham Lincoln’s self-education and how it played a crucial
role in his development as a lawyer and politician.
C) The text highlights Abraham Lincoln’s humble beginnings and his transformative
impact as a leader through his eloquent speeches and actions.
D) The text provides a detailed analysis of Abraham Lincoln’s Emancipation Proclamation and Gettysburg Address in the context of American history.
20. During the Napoleonic Wars, British naval officer Thomas Cochrane successfully utilized
deception tactics. His innovative use of ruses and false signals helped the British Navy
secure crucial victories, ultimately contributing to the defeat of Napoleon’s forces.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the claim that Cochrane’s deception
tactics played a significant role in the British Navy’s success?
A) Cochrane’s ideas on naval tactics were published in a book that became popular
among European military strategists.
B) Cochrane’s deception tactics were later adopted by other naval forces in the 19th
century.
C) Cochrane’s personal achievements as a naval officer were recognized with numerous
awards and promotions.
D) Cochrane’s deceptive tactics led to the capture of multiple French ships, weakening
Napoleon’s naval power.
145
21. Smart lighting systems can detect human presence and adjust the lighting accordingly,
thus conserving energy. A recent study analyzed the energy consumption of buildings
with and without smart lighting technology.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the claim that smart lighting systems
contribute to energy conservation?
A) Buildings with smart lighting technology consumed significantly less energy compared
to those without such systems.
B) Some buildings with smart lighting technology had higher energy consumption due
to increased usage of other electronic devices.
C) The installation process of smart lighting systems is more energy-intensive than that
of traditional lighting systems.
D) Many users of smart lighting technology appreciate the convenience and aesthetic
appeal, but do not prioritize energy conservation.
22. Elon Musk recently proposed a futuristic mode of transportation called the Hyperloop.
The concept involves high-speed pods traveling within vacuum tubes, offering a quicker
alternative to conventional transportation methods. Musk believes the Hyperloop could
revolutionize modern travel and contribute to sustainability.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support Musk’s belief that the Hyperloop
could revolutionize modern travel and contribute to sustainability?
A) Some critics argue that the cost and complexity of the Hyperloop may limit its
widespread adoption and impact on the transportation industry.
B) Elon Musk’s other ventures, such as Tesla and SpaceX, have also been focused on
revolutionizing their respective industries.
C) The development of the Hyperloop faces several engineering challenges, including
maintaining a near-vacuum environment in the tubes.
D) A study demonstrates that the Hyperloop’s energy consumption per passenger is
significantly lower than that of traditional transportation methods.
146
23. Environmental Systems Engineering (ESE) is a multidisciplinary field that focuses on
developing sustainable solutions to environmental challenges. One of the key objectives
of ESE is to optimize the use of natural resources while minimizing the environmental
impact. Therefore, ESE professionals often work closely with other disciplines such as
ecology, hydrology, and geophysics, as well as policymakers and stakeholders, to achieve
.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) an elimination of the need for collaborations with other disciplines in the field of
environmental engineering.
B) a strict adherence to traditional engineering principles regardless of environmental
concerns.
C) a comprehensive and integrated approach to addressing complex environmental issues.
D) a focus on short-term solutions without considering the long-term environmental
consequences.
24. World War I resulted in the collapse of four major empires and left countless nations in
disarray. In an attempt to prevent future conflicts, the Treaty of Versailles was signed,
.
which imposed harsh penalties on Germany, ultimately leading to
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) Germany becoming a powerful military force that dominated Europe
B) an immediate improvement in international relations and global peace
C) significant economic consequences and the rise of resentment in Germany
D) a strengthened alliance between Germany and the other Central Powers
147
25. In the field of network engineering, the concept of subnetting is crucial for managing IP
address allocation. Subnetting involves dividing a network into smaller, more manageable
, the use of virtual local area networks (VLANs) can further isolate
subnetworks.
and segment network traffic for better control and security.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Nonetheless
B) Alternatively
C) In contrast
D) Similarly
26. Napoleon Bonaparte, a military genius and skilled statesman, was known for his rapid
rise to power during the French Revolution. He successfully conquered much of Europe,
his military campaigns led to
expanding the French Empire in the process.
significant changes in European political and social structures.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) For example
B) Alternatively
C) Nevertheless
D) Consequently
148
27. Snorkeling is a popular recreational activity that allows individuals to explore the underwater world. It requires minimal equipment, such as a mask, snorkel, and fins.
scuba diving, on the other hand, requires extensive training and specialized
gear. Snorkeling provides an accessible and cost-effective option for those who wish to
enjoy the beauty of marine life without the complexities of scuba diving.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) In contrast
B) Although
C) Similarly
D) Furthermore
149
with a finite present tense verb that indicates the ongoing effect of Dickinson’s writing
style on readers.
6. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’created’ is the correct answer because it provides the main clause with
the finite simple past tense verb, showing that the action of creating synthetic textiles
occurred during the 20th century.
7. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’secure’ is the correct answer because it provides the main clause with
a finite present tense verb to perform the action of the subject, ’Lincoln’, indicating how
he achieved the crucial victories.
8. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Brain-machine interfaces have the potential to revolutionize neuroprosthetics, rehabilitation, and communication for individuals with severe disabilities.’ is
the correct answer because it effectively emphasizes the potential applications of brainmachine interfaces.
9. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’George W. Bush’s foreign policy centered on preemption, leading to the
launch of the Iraq War in 2003.’ is the correct answer because it effectively illustrates a
key aspect of George W. Bush’s foreign policy using the information from the notes.
10. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’IoT technology can enhance energy efficiency by monitoring and adjusting energy consumption in real-time through interconnected devices.’ is the correct
answer because it effectively highlights a benefit of IoT technology by mentioning its
ability to improve energy efficiency through real-time monitoring and adjustments.
11. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’hostile act’ is the correct answer because it completes the sentence with
appropriate noun usage and maintains the conventions of Standard English.
151
12. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’rackets’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes the plural
form of the noun ’racket’, indicating that multiple students were using rackets to play the
game.
13. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’struggles, particularly’ is the correct answer because it uses a comma to
separate the main clause from the dependent clause, providing a clearer structure.
14. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’lauded’ is the correct answer because it indicates that critics have praised
The Muppet Show for its innovative format and enduring appeal.
15. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’hedging’ is the correct answer because it is a financial strategy that
helps investors protect their investments by reducing the risk of potential losses.
16. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’founded’ is the correct answer because it shows the establishment of the
nation on democratic principles, which is the focus of the Gettysburg Address.
17. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’The Brazilian Empire experienced growth and challenges during its rule
after gaining independence.’ is the correct answer because it encapsulates the economic
and political growth, as well as the challenges faced by the empire.
18. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’The company’s stock performance is primarily attributed to its strong
management and innovative strategies.’ is the correct answer because the passage states
that although external factors played a role, the company’s management and strategies
were the primary drivers behind its consistent growth.
19. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’The text highlights Abraham Lincoln’s humble beginnings and his transformative impact as a leader through his eloquent speeches and actions.’ is the correct
answer because the passage outlines his early life, his powerful speeches, and his leadership
during the Civil War.
152
20. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Cochrane’s deceptive tactics led to the capture of multiple French ships,
weakening Napoleon’s naval power.’ is the correct answer because it directly connects
Cochrane’s deception tactics to the British Navy’s success in the Napoleonic Wars.
21. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Buildings with smart lighting technology consumed significantly less
energy compared to those without such systems’ is the correct answer because it directly
supports the claim that smart lighting systems contribute to energy conservation.
22. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’A study demonstrates that the Hyperloop’s energy consumption per
passenger is significantly lower than that of traditional transportation methods.’ is the
correct answer because it directly supports the idea that the Hyperloop could revolutionize
travel and contribute to sustainability by being more energy efficient.
23. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’a comprehensive and integrated approach to addressing complex environmental issues.’ is the correct answer because the passage highlights the multidisciplinary
nature of ESE and its focus on sustainable solutions to environmental challenges, which
implies a need for a comprehensive approach.
24. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’significant economic consequences and the rise of resentment in Germany’ is the correct answer because it logically follows the imposition of harsh penalties
on Germany by the Treaty of Versailles.
25. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Similarly’ is the correct answer because it indicates that the use of
VLANs is another technique, like subnetting, that helps manage and control network
traffic.
26. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Consequently’ is the correct answer because it indicates that the result
or consequence of Napoleon’s military campaigns was significant changes in European
political and social structures.
153
27. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’In contrast’ is the correct answer because it highlights the difference between snorkeling and scuba diving, emphasizing the simplicity and accessibility of snorkeling compared to the more complex scuba diving.
154
2. Biomedical engineering combines engineering principles with medical sciences to design
and create equipment, devices, and software used in healthcare. From artificial organs to
advanced imaging systems, biomedical engineering has revolutionized the medical field.
This interdisciplinary approach has not only improved patient care but also led to significant discoveries in disease diagnosis and prevention.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To discuss the specific techniques and principles used in biomedical engineering
B) To argue that biomedical engineering is the most important field in modern medicine
C) To highlight the importance of biomedical engineering in revolutionizing healthcare
and medical research
D) To provide a comprehensive history of the development of biomedical engineering
3. Text 1: Environmental economist Dr. Julia Stewart argues that placing a higher value on
ecosystem services, such as clean air and water, will lead to better conservation practices
and economic incentives for individuals and businesses. She believes that recognizing the
true worth of these services can help governments create effective policies to protect the
environment.
Text 2: Dr. Michael Green, another environmental economist, suggests that while valuing ecosystem services is essential, it may not be enough to drive significant change. He
emphasizes the importance of also considering the costs of transitioning to more sustainable practices and investing in the development of innovative technologies to reduce the
environmental impact.
Based on the texts, how would Dr. Michael Green (Text 2) most likely respond to the
“placing a higher value on ecosystem services” discussed in Text 1?
A) By arguing that placing higher value on ecosystem services is unnecessary and counterproductive to conservation efforts
B) By acknowledging the importance of valuing ecosystem services, but emphasizing the
need to also consider the costs of transitioning to sustainable practices
C) By agreeing with Dr. Julia Stewart’s approach and suggesting that this is the only
way to protect the environment effectively
D) By suggesting that focusing on ecosystem services diverts attention from the more
urgent issue of developing innovative technologies
156
4. In the field of computer engineering, cache memory plays a crucial role in improving the
performance of a computer system. It is a small, high-speed memory block that stores
the data more quickly
copies of frequently used data, allowing the computer to
than if it had to access the main memory.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) retrieve
B) to retrieve
C) retrieving
D) retrieved
5. The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand in 1914 led to a domino effect of events
World War I. The escalating tensions between the major powers
that eventually
of Europe culminated in a global conflict that would last for over four years.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) to trigger
B) triggered
C) triggering
D) having triggered
157
6. Edith Wharton, a Pulitzer Prize-winning author, was known for her keen observation of
social life. Her novel The Age of Innocence, set in the 1870s, explores the challenges
faced by individuals as they navigate the societal norms and expectations of their time.
the love of his life, Countess Ellen
In the story, the protagonist Newland Archer
Olenska.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) encountered
B) encounters
C) to encounter
D) encountering
7. Throughout his political career, Winston Churchill was known for his powerful speeches.
In 1940, during the early years of World War II, he delivered a speech to the House of
to fight the enemy on multiple fronts.
Commons, stating that Britain
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) would continue
B) continuing
C) to continue
D) had continued
158
11. Neil deGrasse Tyson, an astrophysicist, author, and science communicator, has inspired
millions through his books, lectures, and television appearances. Despite his tremendous
of
success, Tyson remains humble and dedicated to his work, focusing on the
scientific knowledge.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) dissemination’s
B) disseminations
C) dissemination
D) disseminations’
12. Smart homes can greatly increase energy efficiency and comfort, thanks to their ability
to communicate with appliances and adapt to changes in daily routines. For example, a
smart thermostat can learn a homeowner’s preferences and adjust the home’s temperature
the homeowner’s arrival.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) prior;
B) prior to
C) prior,
D) prior at
161
13. Pablo Neruda, a renowned Chilean poet, wrote numerous works throughout his lifetime
that captured his love for the natural world. In one of his celebrated collections, ’Elemental
Odes,’ Neruda explores his fascination with everyday objects, such as a lemon, an onion,
in a distinctively lyrical style.
and a
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) a pair of shoe
B) pair of shoes
C) pairs of shoes
D) pair of shoe
14. In economics, the concept of marginal revenue refers to the increase in revenue that results
from the sale of one additional unit of a product or service. Marginal revenue is a crucial
level of production for a firm.
factor in determining the most
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) intuitive
B) consistent
C) profitable
D) enjoyable
162
15. During Barack Obama’s presidency, he emphasized the importance of diplomacy and international cooperation, leading to the signing of the Paris Agreement on climate change.
global relations were
Despite facing significant opposition, Obama’s efforts to
largely successful.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) overlook
B) disregard
C) strengthen
D) disrupt
16. Social robots, designed to assist and interact with humans, have been increasingly used
in various settings, including healthcare and education. Despite their potential benefits,
human interaction and lead to negative
some critics argue that these robots could
consequences.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) supplant
B) catalog
C) promote
D) intensify
163
17. Bioremediation, a process that uses microorganisms to break down harmful substances, is
an eco-friendly alternative to traditional cleanup methods. This approach effectively deals
with pollution in soil, water, and air by utilizing microbes that can digest contaminants
and transform them into harmless byproducts. Bioremediation has been successful in
treating oil spills, industrial waste, and agricultural runoff, demonstrating its versatility
in addressing various environmental issues.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Bioremediation’s ability to tackle multiple forms of pollution is limited by its reliance
on microorganisms.
B) Bioremediation primarily focuses on addressing pollution in the air, as it is more
difficult to treat than soil and water.
C) Bioremediation is an eco-friendly method for addressing various environmental issues
by using microbes to break down contaminants.
D) Bioremediation has not yet proven effective in treating major environmental issues,
despite its potential applications.
18. Elizabeth Barrett Browning was a distinguished 19th-century poet who gained notoriety for her unique style, which blended traditional and innovative techniques. She was
admired for her use of intricate rhyme schemes, as well as her thematic exploration of
love, political change, and social injustice. Despite facing numerous obstacles, including
ill health and societal expectations for women, Browning persevered and produced a vast
and influential body of work.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Elizabeth Barrett Browning’s poetry focuses primarily on the theme of love.
B) Elizabeth Barrett Browning faced many challenges due to societal expectations for
women.
C) Elizabeth Barrett Browning was an influential poet known for her unique style and
thematic exploration.
D) Elizabeth Barrett Browning’s work is characterized solely by its innovative techniques.
164
19. The passage highlights Niels Bohr’s groundbreaking model of the hydrogen atom. Bohr
proposed that electrons orbit the nucleus in discrete energy levels, and they can only
transition between these levels by emitting or absorbing a specific amount of energy. His
model helped explain the previously inexplicable patterns of atomic spectra and laid the
foundation for the development of quantum mechanics.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The passage discusses Niels Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom and its significance
in explaining atomic spectra and paving the way for quantum mechanics.
B) The passage emphasizes the importance of Niels Bohr’s model in addressing the
limitations of classical physics.
C) The passage focuses on Niels Bohr’s contribution to the understanding of atomic
structure and its influence on quantum mechanics.
D) The passage primarily examines Niels Bohr’s discovery of energy levels and the role
of electrons in determining the properties of atoms.
20. In geotechnical engineering, soil classification is essential for determining the suitability
of soil for construction projects. A recent study investigated the accuracy of various
classification methods across diverse soil types and regions.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the claim that a specific soil classification method is highly accurate?
A) The method consistently produces correct classifications for a wide range of soil types
and regions.
B) The method is widely used by geotechnical engineers and has been endorsed by a
professional organization.
C) The method is based on a combination of physical and chemical properties of soil
samples.
D) The method was developed by a renowned geotechnical engineer with extensive experience in the field.
165
21. Country X has experienced a significant trade surplus in recent years, primarily due to
the rapid growth of its manufacturing sector. This sector’s expansion has been fueled by
increased foreign investments and advancements in technology.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the assertion that the growth of
Country X’s manufacturing sector is the primary reason for its trade surplus?
A) Country X has a well-established education system that emphasizes the importance
of technological innovation.
B) The increase in foreign investments and technological advancements in Country X’s
manufacturing sector aligns with the timeline of the trade surplus.
C) Country X’s trade surplus has been consistent over the past decade, with no significant
fluctuations.
D) Other sectors in Country X’s economy, such as agriculture and services, have remained
relatively stable during the trade surplus period.
22. Modern sailboats often feature a keel, a structure that extends into the water to provide
stability and prevent capsizing. Some sailboat designers argue that a heavier keel improves
a sailboat’s overall performance.
Which finding, if true, would most directly undermine the designers’ argument?
A) Sailboats with lighter keels consistently have higher top speeds but lower stability.
B) A sailboat’s keel weight has no significant impact on its ability to sail in rough waters.
C) Sailboats with heavier keels exhibit reduced maneuverability and slower average
speeds.
D) The materials used in constructing a keel can greatly influence the sailboat’s performance.
166
23. W.H. Auden was a renowned poet known for his stylistic and technical achievements.
His work ranged from political and social commentary to love poems. Critics argue
that his early work was more innovative and daring, whereas his later work became more
.
introspective and traditional. This shift in Auden’s poetry may be attributed to
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) a lack of inspiration during the later years of his career
B) changes in his personal life and experiences that influenced his writing
C) external pressures to conform to a specific writing style
D) his dissatisfaction with the impact of his earlier works
24. Fidel Castro was a controversial figure in Cuban history. While some people praise him
for his role in the Cuban Revolution and the establishment of socialism in Cuba, others
criticize him for his authoritarian rule and human rights abuses. His legacy remains
.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) universally celebrated for his resilience
B) completely disregarded by the international community
C) solely focused on his economic achievements
D) a subject of intense debate and varying perspectives
167
25. The Challenger disaster occurred on January 28, 1986, when the Space Shuttle Challenger exploded shortly after liftoff, resulting in the death of all seven crew members. A
major cause of this tragedy was the failure of an O-ring seal in the shuttle’s solid rocket
booster. Engineers had expressed concerns about the performance of these O-rings in
an invescold temperatures, and the launch occurred on an unusually cold day.
tigation revealed that communication breakdowns and management issues within NASA
contributed to the decision to proceed with the launch despite these concerns.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Furthermore
B) In addition
C) However
D) On the other hand
26. Princess Diana was not only known for her humanitarian work and her iconic fashion
sense, but also for her tumultuous relationship with the media. Diana was often hounded
in 1993, she
by paparazzi, which led to her feeling overwhelmed and invaded.
decided to withdraw from public life temporarily to protect her own well-being and her
sons’ privacy.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Similarly,
B) As a result,
C) On the other hand,
D) In contrast,
168
27. A market economy is an economic system in which the production and distribution of
goods and services are determined by supply and demand. This type of economy allows
businesses to thrive and encourages innovation, as competition drives companies to create
despite the numerous advantages, a
new products and improve existing ones.
market economy also has its share of drawbacks, such as income inequality and potential
environmental degradation.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Moreover
B) However
C) In addition
D) On the contrary
169
12. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’prior to’ is the correct answer because it properly connects the two
phrases and maintains the flow of the sentence, while adhering to the conventions of
Standard English.
13. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’pair of shoes’ is the correct answer because it correctly uses the singular
noun ’pair’ and the plural noun ’shoes’ to describe one set of two shoes.
14. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’profitable’ is the correct answer because it describes the level of production that maximizes a firm’s revenue.
15. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’strengthen’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes Obama’s
efforts to improve global relations through diplomacy and international cooperation.
16. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’supplant’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes the concern of critics that social robots may replace human interaction, leading to negative
consequences.
17. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Bioremediation is an eco-friendly method for addressing various environmental issues by using microbes to break down contaminants’ is the correct answer
because the passage explains the process of bioremediation and emphasizes its effectiveness and versatility in dealing with pollution in soil, water, and air.
18. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Elizabeth Barrett Browning was an influential poet known for her unique
style and thematic exploration.’ is the correct answer because it captures the essence of
the passage, mentioning her unique style, thematic exploration, and her influence as a
poet.
172
19. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’The passage discusses Niels Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom and its
significance in explaining atomic spectra and paving the way for quantum mechanics.’ is
the correct answer because it accurately captures the main idea of the passage, which
focuses on Bohr’s model and its importance in understanding atomic spectra and the
development of quantum mechanics.
20. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’The method consistently produces correct classifications for a wide range
of soil types and regions.’ is the correct answer because this finding directly supports the
claim that the specific soil classification method is highly accurate, as it demonstrates its
effectiveness across diverse soil types and regions.
21. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’The increase in foreign investments and technological advancements in
Country X’s manufacturing sector aligns with the timeline of the trade surplus.’ is the
correct answer because it directly connects the growth of the manufacturing sector with
the trade surplus by showing a correlation in their timelines.
22. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Sailboats with heavier keels exhibit reduced maneuverability and slower
average speeds.’ is the correct answer because it directly contradicts the argument that
a heavier keel improves a sailboat’s overall performance.
23. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’changes in his personal life and experiences that influenced his writing’
is the correct answer because the passage implies that a shift occurred in Auden’s poetry,
and personal experiences can significantly impact an artist’s work.
24. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’a subject of intense debate and varying perspectives’ is the correct
answer because it acknowledges the differing opinions on Fidel Castro’s role in Cuban
history.
25. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Furthermore’ is the correct answer because it logically signals that
the investigation’s findings of communication breakdowns and management issues within
173
NASA are additional contributing factors to the disaster, beyond the O-ring failure and
cold temperatures.
26. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’As a result’ is the correct answer because it shows the consequence of
Princess Diana’s troubled relationship with the media and why she chose to withdraw
from public life.
27. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’However’ is the correct answer because it logically signals that the
sentence following it presents a contrast to the previous sentence, which discusses the
advantages of a market economy.
174
2. Ultimate Frisbee, a team sport played with a flying disc, has gained popularity worldwide
since its inception in the late 1960s. The sport emphasizes fair play and sportsmanship
through its unique feature, the ’Spirit of the Game.’ This principle encourages players to
compete with integrity and respect, relying on self-officiating and mutual trust between
opponents. Ultimate Frisbee’s non-contact nature and self-regulated gameplay foster a
positive environment that transcends winning and losing, making the sport appealing to
diverse communities.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To provide a detailed description of the rules and gameplay elements of Ultimate
Frisbee as a sport
B) To discuss the history of Ultimate Frisbee and its growth in popularity since the late
1960s
C) To compare and contrast Ultimate Frisbee with other team sports and their respective
gameplay features
D) To highlight Ultimate Frisbee’s unique emphasis on sportsmanship and self-regulation
through the ’Spirit of the Game’
3. Text 1: Napoleon Bonaparte, a military genius, was known for his brilliant strategies and
tactics in warfare. His army’s success was largely due to his ability to analyze complex
situations quickly and make effective decisions.
Text 2: Napoleon’s leadership style was also marked by a relentless ambition and a thirst
for personal glory. Some historians argue that his desire for conquest and power often
overshadowed his military acumen, leading to costly mistakes and ultimately his downfall.
Based on the texts, how would the historians mentioned in Text 2 most likely respond to
the military genius discussed in Text 1?
A) By arguing that the historians in Text 2 are biased against Napoleon and are downplaying his military accomplishments to discredit his legacy
B) By asserting that Napoleon’s military genius was exaggerated, and that his victories
were primarily due to the superior strength of the French army
C) By suggesting that Napoleon’s military genius was a myth and that his successes
were simply a result of luck and favorable circumstances
D) By acknowledging Napoleon’s strategic abilities, but emphasizing that his ambition
and quest for personal glory were detrimental to his long-term success
176
4. The Brazilian economic miracle, a period of rapid economic growth and industrialization,
at
occurred from the late 1960s to the early 1980s. During this time, Brazil’s GDP
a remarkable rate, averaging around 8.5% per year, transforming the country into a major
global economic power.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) will grow
B) has grown
C) grew
D) growing
5. In quality engineering, a process capability index is a statistical measure that evaluates
how well a manufacturing process can produce output within specified tolerance limits.
a lower defect rate, ensuring consistent
A process with a high capability index
product quality.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) has
B) having
C) to have
D) had
177
6. In geological engineering, the study of rock mechanics is essential for analyzing the stability of tunnels and caverns. Engineers must consider the rock’s initial state, including
any excavation projects to
factors such as the presence of fractures, before they
ensure safety and effectiveness.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) undertaking
B) to undertake
C) undertake
D) undertook
7. The Andean Community, established in 1969, aimed to promote the economic integration
and political cooperation of its member countries. Initially, the organization began with
the
four countries—Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Peru—but in 1973, Chile
community.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) joining
B) to join
C) joined
D) will join
178
11. Alice Walker, a prolific author, is best known for her novel, ’The Color Purple.’ The novel
is set in the rural American South and explores the life of African American women during
the early 20th century. Walker’s writing style combines elements of African American
, giving her work a unique and authentic voice.
dialect with
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) Standard English’s conventions
B) Standard English conventions
C) conventions of standard English’s
D) Standard English, conventions
12. During the Battle of Hogwarts, Professor McGonagall, head of Gryffindor House, demonstrated her powerful Transfiguration abilities by animating the stone statues in the castle to defend Hogwarts. She cast the spell Piertotum Locomotor, which brought the
to life and commanded them to protect the school.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) statues to life
B) statues life
C) statues’s life
D) statues’ life
181
13. Bill Gates, the co-founder of Microsoft, has made significant contributions to global health
through the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation. The foundation’s work includes funding
projects that focus on improving access to clean water in developing countries, as well as
to eradicate diseases such as malaria and polio.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) efforts to
B) effort’s to
C) efforts too
D) effort to
14. Variable costs are those that vary directly with the level of production or sales. Examples
include raw materials, labor, and shipping expenses. When companies experience signifi, making it challenging
cant fluctuations in demand, their total costs can become
to plan and manage their resources effectively.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) negligible
B) unstable
C) sustainable
D) systematic
182
15. During the Napoleonic Wars, the British naval blockade of French ports led to extensive
nature of their activities, smugglers would
smuggling operations. Due to the
often use small, fast vessels to avoid detection by the British Royal Navy.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) charitable
B) clandestine
C) ceremonial
D) conventional
16. Geothermal energy, a renewable energy source, is derived from the Earth’s internal heat.
in underground reservoirs, where it can be extracted and converted
This heat is
into electricity by geothermal power plants.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) depleted
B) hidden
C) stored
D) ignored
183
17. Excise tax, a tax on specific goods or services, is levied by the government to generate
revenue and discourage harmful consumption. While some argue that it unfairly targets
low-income individuals, others believe that it serves public health by decreasing tobacco
and alcohol consumption. Ultimately, excise tax has both economic and social implications.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Excise tax primarily aims to target low-income individuals in society.
B) Excise tax has both economic and social implications, generating revenue while influencing consumption behavior.
C) Excise tax generates revenue for the government without any social implications.
D) The main purpose of excise tax is to decrease tobacco and alcohol consumption.
18. Forensic engineering is a specialized field within engineering that involves investigating
and analyzing failures in structures, systems, or components. This process often requires
examining materials, products, and structures to determine the cause of a failure and
identify ways to prevent similar failures in the future. Forensic engineers work closely
with other professionals such as architects, safety experts, and insurance investigators
to provide comprehensive insights into the factors contributing to structural or material
failures.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Forensic engineering investigates failures in structures, systems, or components and
works to prevent future failures.
B) Forensic engineers work exclusively with insurance companies to investigate failures.
C) The primary goal of forensic engineering is to understand and improve materials.
D) Forensic engineering solely focuses on the analysis of failed structures.
184
19. In quality engineering, organizations must focus on both process improvement and product development to achieve the highest standards. Process improvement involves refining
the methods used to create products, while product development focuses on designing
and building high-quality products. By balancing these two approaches, companies can
efficiently deliver products that meet customer expectations and comply with industry
regulations.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The importance of process improvement in quality engineering
B) The necessity of product development for achieving high-quality products
C) The role of customer expectations and industry regulations in quality engineering
D) Balancing process improvement and product development in quality engineering
20. During the Napoleonic Wars, French forces under Napoleon Bonaparte faced difficulties
in maintaining supply lines. The British Royal Navy’s dominance of the seas hindered the
French army’s ability to transport goods and resources, ultimately affecting their military
campaigns.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the argument that the British Royal
Navy significantly impacted the French army’s campaigns?
A) The French army had a larger number of soldiers compared to the British army.
B) Napoleon Bonaparte often adopted a scorched-earth policy to deny resources to his
enemies.
C) The British Royal Navy was unable to defeat the French fleet in every naval engagement.
D) The French army experienced consistent shortages of ammunition and food during
major battles.
185
21. A recent study found that runners who incorporated interval training into their routine
improved their overall performance more than those who only focused on distance running.
The researchers concluded that the variety in training routines played a significant role
in the observed improvements.
Which finding, if true, would most directly undermine the researcher’s conclusion?
A) A separate study found that athletes who exclusively practiced interval training did
not show significant performance improvements.
B) Top long-distance runners in the world often incorporate interval training into their
routines.
C) Another study found that runners who focused solely on distance running experienced
fewer injuries than those who incorporated interval training.
D) A follow-up study revealed that participants who improved their performance also
made significant changes to their diet and sleep patterns.
22. Sylvia Townsend Warner, a British novelist and poet, was known for her strong political
beliefs. She joined the Communist Party in 1935 and actively participated in the Spanish
Civil War. Her literary works often reflected her political views, making her a prominent
figure in leftist circles.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the claim that Sylvia Townsend
Warner’s political beliefs significantly impacted her literary works?
A) A detailed analysis of Warner’s works reveals frequent themes of social justice, class
struggle, and anti-fascism.
B) Sylvia Townsend Warner had a personal library containing numerous books on politics, history, and social issues.
C) Several of Warner’s friends and acquaintances were also members of the Communist
Party or held leftist political beliefs.
D) Warner’s works were often criticized for their unconventional narrative style and
unique character development.
186
23. Renewable energy sources, such as solar and wind power, have gained significant traction
in recent years. However, these sources are not without their challenges, including intermittency and storage issues. Researchers are exploring innovative solutions to address
.
these obstacles, with the goal of
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) convincing skeptics that renewable energy sources are the only viable options for the
future
B) completely replacing traditional energy sources with renewable ones
C) disproving the notion that renewable energy sources have inherent shortcomings
D) achieving a more reliable, sustainable, and efficient energy system
24. Development economists argue that investing in education is crucial for economic growth.
However, they also acknowledge that the quality of education plays a significant role
in this growth. Thus, a mere increase in the number of schools and students may not
.
necessarily lead to
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) significant positive impacts on a country’s economic growth and development
B) a decrease in the overall quality of education provided in the country
C) an increase in the number of highly skilled workers needed for the economy
D) a direct correlation between the amount of investment in education and economic
growth
187
25. GPS technology has revolutionized the way we navigate and track our movements. It
has enabled accurate positioning and improved the efficiency of transportation systems
recent advancements in GPS technology have allowed for even more
worldwide.
precise measurements, sometimes within centimeters of the actual location.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) In contrast
B) Nevertheless
C) Moreover
D) On the other hand
26. Zadie Smith, a renowned British author known for her novels and essays, started her
writing career in her twenties. Smith’s first novel, White Teeth, was published when she
throughout her career,
was just 24 years old and quickly gained critical acclaim.
Smith has continued to explore themes such as race, identity, and the complexities of
modern life in her works.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Nevertheless
B) On the other hand
C) Moreover
D) In contrast
188
27. In the field of process engineering, the design of chemical processes is crucial to ensure
efficiency and safety. One common approach to achieve this is through the use of process
flow diagrams, which visually represent the steps in a process and the flow of materials
another important tool in process engineering is the use of
between them.
piping and instrumentation diagrams, which provide more detailed information about the
equipment, piping, and control systems involved in a process.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) As a result,
B) On the other hand,
C) Conversely,
D) Similarly,
189
5. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’has’ is the correct answer because it provides the appropriate present
tense verb to indicate the relationship between the high capability index and a lower
defect rate.
6. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’undertake’ is the correct answer because it provides the main clause
with a finite present tense verb to indicate the action performed by engineers.
7. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’joined’ is the correct answer because it provides the finite past tense
verb needed to properly express the action of Chile becoming a member of the Andean
Community.
8. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Murray Gell-Mann, who introduced the concept of quarks and won the
1969 Nobel Prize in Physics, made groundbreaking contributions to our understanding of
matter.’ is the correct answer because it effectively combines the notes about Gell-Mann’s
Nobel Prize and the concept of quarks to emphasize his most notable achievement.
9. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Superman represents the ultimate good by defending humanity and
upholding justice with his incredible abilities, such as invulnerability.’ is the correct
answer because it effectively uses information from the notes to explain how Superman
embodies the ultimate good.
10. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Plant-based meat substitutes have environmental benefits, such as reduced greenhouse gas emissions and lower water usage.’ is the correct answer because it
highlights a key advantage of plant-based meat substitutes compared to traditional meat.
11. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Standard English conventions’ is the correct answer because it properly
conveys that the writing style combines elements of African American dialect with the
conventions of Standard English.
191
12. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’statues to life’ is the correct answer because it properly utilizes the
preposition ’to’ in order to indicate the transition of the statues from being inanimate to
animate.
13. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’efforts to’ is the correct answer because it uses the plural form ’efforts’
to match the plural subject of the sentence, and it correctly uses ’to’ to introduce the
infinitive verb ’eradicate’.
14. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’unstable’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes a situation
where costs are difficult to predict due to fluctuations in demand.
15. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Clandestine’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes the
secretive and illicit nature of the smuggling operations during the Napoleonic Wars.
16. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’stored’ is the correct answer because it accurately describes how the
Earth’s internal heat is contained in underground reservoirs, making it available for extraction and conversion into electricity.
17. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’Excise tax has both economic and social implications, generating revenue
while influencing consumption behavior.’ is the correct answer because it covers the main
points mentioned in the passage: revenue generation and the impact on consumption
habits.
18. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’Forensic engineering investigates failures in structures, systems, or components and works to prevent future failures.’ is the correct answer because it accurately
summarizes the main idea of the passage, which discusses the role of forensic engineering
in analyzing failures and finding ways to prevent them.
192
19. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Balancing process improvement and product development in quality
engineering’ is the correct answer because the passage discusses the significance of both
process improvement and product development in achieving high standards in quality
engineering.
20. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’The French army experienced consistent shortages of ammunition and
food during major battles.’ is the correct answer because it directly demonstrates the
impact of the British Royal Navy’s dominance on the French army’s ability to maintain
supply lines and conduct successful military campaigns.
21. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’A follow-up study revealed that participants who improved their performance also made significant changes to their diet and sleep patterns.’ is the correct
answer because it introduces another factor that could be responsible for the observed
performance improvements, thus undermining the researcher’s conclusion that the variety
in training routines played a significant role in the improvements.
22. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’A detailed analysis of Warner’s works reveals frequent themes of social justice, class struggle, and anti-fascism.’ is the correct answer because it directly
demonstrates that her political beliefs were significantly reflected in her literary works,
supporting the claim.
23. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’achieving a more reliable, sustainable, and efficient energy system’ is
the correct answer because it aligns with the researchers’ efforts to address the challenges
of renewable energy sources.
24. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’significant positive impacts on a country’s economic growth and development’ is the correct answer because the passage acknowledges that the quality of education
is important for economic growth, not just the quantity of schools and students.
193
25. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Moreover’ is the correct answer because it logically signals that the
sentence adds to the information about the benefits of GPS technology by discussing
recent advancements that allow for even more precise measurements.
26. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’Moreover’ is the correct answer because it indicates that the information
about Smith exploring various themes in her works is an additional point that supports
her successful writing career.
27. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’Similarly’ is the correct answer because it shows that both process flow
diagrams and piping and instrumentation diagrams are tools used in process engineering
for designing chemical processes.
194
2. Synthetic biology engineering combines principles from engineering, biology, and computer science to design and construct biological systems. These systems can have various
applications, such as producing biofuels or developing new medical treatments. One of
the key techniques in synthetic biology is the use of standardized genetic parts, known
as BioBricks, which can be easily assembled to create complex biological systems. This
approach allows researchers to rapidly prototype and test new ideas, similar to assembling
electronic circuits.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
A) To provide a comprehensive history of synthetic biology engineering, including its
origins and major breakthroughs
B) To argue that synthetic biology engineering should prioritize the development of
biofuels over medical treatments
C) To explore the ethical implications of synthetic biology engineering and the potential
consequences of manipulating genetic material
D) To introduce synthetic biology engineering and emphasize its interdisciplinary nature
and the significance of standardized genetic parts
3. Text 1: Bionic technology has made significant advancements in recent years. These
advancements have led to the development of prosthetic limbs that can be controlled by
the user’s thoughts, providing a much more natural movement.
Text 2: In a recent study, researchers found that bionic limbs can sometimes cause phantom limb pain in users. This is because the brain may struggle to adapt to the new limb
and can send mixed signals, resulting in pain or discomfort.
Based on the texts, how would the researchers in Text 2 most likely respond to the
advancements in bionic technology discussed in Text 1?
A) By acknowledging the advancements in bionic technology, but also pointing out the
potential issue of phantom limb pain
B) By suggesting that the advancements in bionic technology should focus more on
aesthetics rather than functionality
C) By asserting that the advancements in bionic technology are not significant enough
to warrant further research
D) By recommending that bionic technology advancements should prioritize the development of other types of prosthetics, such as sensory feedback devices
196
4. In paper engineering, the process of folding a flat sheet of paper into a three-dimensional
object is called origami. During the folding process, the paper’s structural integrity is
, which support the object’s final shape.
maintained by the
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) creasing
B) crease’s
C) creases’
D) creases
5. Sylvia Plath, a renowned American poet and novelist, struggled with depression throughout her life. In her semi-autobiographical novel, The Bell Jar, the protagonist, Esther
a similar emotional turmoil, reflecting Plath’s personal experiences.
Greenwood,
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) will undergo
B) undergone
C) undergoes
D) had undergone
197
6. Thomas Hardy’s novels often explore the plight of individuals caught in the constraints
of social expectations. In Tess of the d’Urbervilles, for instance, Tess’s life is tragically
her limited options and
shaped by the double standards of her society, which
ultimately leads to her downfall.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) to restrict
B) restricting
C) restricted
D) restrict
7. During the American Revolutionary War, the Continental Army faced numerous challenges, such as limited resources and inexperienced soldiers. However, despite these setunder the leadership of General George Washington, ultimately
backs, the army
securing independence for the United States.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) persevered
B) persevered
C) persevering
D) to persevere
198
11. Joseph Conrad, a Polish-British writer, was born in 1857 in present-day Ukraine. Often
classified as a modernist, Conrad is best known for his novels, such as Heart of Darkness
and Lord Jim. His writing style is noted for its intricate, multi-layered narratives and
.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) its psychological depth
B) its psychological depths
C) its psychological depths’
D) its psychological depth’s
12. Geomatics Engineering involves the use of specialized equipment to collect, analyze, and
interpret spatial data. One such device is the total station, which combines the capabilities
of a theodolite and an electronic distance meter to measure both angles and distances with
of various
high accuracy. These measurements can then be used to calculate the
points on a site.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) coordinates’
B) coordinate’s
C) coordinate
D) coordinates
201
13. During the 19th century, thousands of pioneers embarked on the Oregon Trail in search of
a better life. The journey was treacherous, with the travelers facing numerous challenges
supplies of
such as crossing rivers, enduring extreme weather conditions, and
food and water.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard
English?
A) managing scarce
B) scarce, managing
C) managing, scarce
D) scarce managing
14. Andrew Wiles, a British mathematician, ultimately solved Fermat’s Last Theorem in
1994, nearly 358 years after it was first proposed. His groundbreaking proof, which
involved an unexpected link between elliptic curves and modular forms, was initially
by the mathematical community.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) disregarded
B) embraced
C) astonished
D) repelled
202
15. 3D printing has revolutionized the manufacturing industry by allowing for the rapid production of complex objects. However, the technology has also led to increased concerns
about intellectual property theft, as it makes it easier to replicate and distribute copy.
righted designs without the creator’s
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) consent
B) intuition
C) presence
D) knowledge
16. Fiscal transparency is crucial for public sector accountability, as it enables citizens and
markets to assess the government’s financial decisions. However, in some countries, the
in public financial management can lead to misallocations of resources
lack of
and corruption.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) uniformity
B) efficiency
C) transparency
D) creativity
203
17. Water skiing is a thrilling sport that not only requires physical strength but also mental
agility. A water skier must maintain balance and control while being pulled by a boat
at high speeds. The skier’s body position, rope handling, and choice of equipment play
crucial roles in their performance. Experienced water skiers often develop their techniques
and preferences, making them better prepared to face the challenges of the sport.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The text emphasizes the significance of the boat’s speed in determining the success
of a water skier.
B) The text highlights the importance of both physical and mental aspects in water
skiing and how experience improves performance.
C) The text elaborates on the process of choosing the right equipment for an effective
water skiing experience.
D) The text discusses the negative consequences of not maintaining proper balance and
control during water skiing.
18. Advancements in artificial intelligence have led to the development of highly sophisticated
systems that can perform complex tasks. While these AI-powered machines have the
potential to revolutionize various industries, the ethical implications of such advancements
are often debated. Some argue that the rapid growth of AI might eventually lead to job
displacement and increased reliance on machines, while others believe that AI can enhance
human capabilities and create new opportunities.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) The text discusses the advancements in AI and the debate surrounding its potential
impact.
B) The ethical implications of AI are universally agreed upon and well-understood.
C) Artificial intelligence is solely responsible for the loss of jobs in the modern world.
D) AI is a detrimental force that will lead to the downfall of human society.
204
19. Hedy Lamarr, a Hollywood actress in the 1940s, was also a brilliant inventor. During
World War II, she co-developed a frequency-hopping communication system to prevent
enemies from jamming radio signals. Although her invention was not used in the war, it
later became the foundation for modern technologies such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and GPS.
Hedy’s intelligence and innovative spirit were often overshadowed by her beauty, but her
contributions have left a lasting impact on the world.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A) Hedy Lamarr’s beauty led to her success as an inventor and actress.
B) Hedy Lamarr’s inventions were widely used during World War II.
C) Hedy Lamarr was a talented inventor whose work laid the groundwork for modern
communication technologies.
D) Hedy Lamarr’s career as an actress was negatively affected by her interest in inventions.
20. The Lion King musical, directed by Julie Taymor, has been praised for its innovative
use of puppetry and costumes. Taymor’s creative direction is said to have contributed
significantly to the show’s success and longevity, making it one of the longest-running
Broadway shows in history.
Which finding, if true, would most strongly support the claim that Julie Taymor’s direction played a significant role in the success of The Lion King musical?
A) The show’s ticket sales and positive reviews increased dramatically after Taymor’s
involvement was announced.
B) Many other Broadway shows have also used puppetry and costumes in innovative
ways.
C) The Lion King musical has faced criticism for not staying true to the original Disney
film.
D) Some other long-running Broadway shows have had similar creative direction.
205
21. Snowboarding’s popularity has surged since the 1980s. Recently, studies have suggested
that the increase in the number of snowboarders has led to a decline in ski resort profits. A
researcher argues that snowboarders’ spending habits may be contributing to this trend.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the researcher’s claim?
A) Ski resorts that exclusively cater to skiers report higher profits than resorts that cater
to both skiers and snowboarders.
B) Skiers tend to purchase more expensive snowboarding equipment than snowboarders.
C) Snowboarders tend to spend less on accommodations and amenities at ski resorts
compared to skiers.
D) The number of skiers has remained relatively stable despite the increase in the number
of snowboarders.
22. George Orwell’s novel, 1984, portrays a dystopian society in which the government suppresses individualism and free thinking. Critics suggest Orwell wrote the novel as a
cautionary tale about the potential consequences of totalitarianism.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the claim that Orwell intended 1984
as a cautionary tale about totalitarianism?
A) Many readers consider 1984 to be a compelling and thought-provoking work of fiction.
B) 1984 has frequently been compared to other dystopian novels, such as Aldous Huxley’s
Brave New World.
C) Orwell’s novel has been adapted into several films, television shows, and stage productions.
D) Orwell had previously expressed concerns about the dangers of totalitarian regimes
in his essays and letters.
206
23. Confucius, a renowned Chinese philosopher, focused on personal and governmental morality, proper social relationships, and justice. His teachings have greatly influenced various
aspects of Chinese society, and his ideas have been passed down through generations,
.
leaving a lasting impact on
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) the scientific revolution and the advancements in technology in the western world
B) the development of modern democracy and the promotion of individual rights
C) East Asian culture and the philosophical foundations of many regional governments
D) the establishment of economic systems and trade regulations across the globe
24. Ralph Ellison, an influential African American writer, is best known for his novel Invisible Man. Ellison’s work often explores themes of identity and invisibility, reflecting
the experiences of Black Americans in a racially divided society. By doing so, Ellison
.
Which choice most logically completes the text?
A) criticizes the African American community for not being more active in fighting for
their rights.
B) argues that invisibility is the only way for Black Americans to survive in a racially
divided society.
C) suggests that identity and invisibility are innate characteristics of all individuals,
regardless of race.
D) effectively raises awareness about the struggles and complexities faced by Black Americans.
207
25. The Persian Gulf War, which began in 1990, was a conflict between Iraq, led by President
Saddam Hussein, and a coalition of 35 countries led by the United States. The war
was triggered by Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait, which was condemned by the international
the coalition forces launched a military offensive, Operation Desert
community.
Storm, to expel Iraqi forces from Kuwait.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) In response,
B) Similarly,
C) However,
D) For example,
26. Many corporations have been known to use loopholes in the tax system to reduce their
overall tax burden. For example, some companies may shift their profits to countries
a study conducted by Harvard Business School researchers
with lower tax rates.
found that 15% of US corporations moved their profits to tax havens between 2004 and
2012.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) In contrast
B) On the other hand
C) Alternatively
D) In fact
208
27. Stem cell research has the potential to revolutionize medicine by providing therapies for
a wide range of diseases and conditions. Scientists have been able to create specialized
this breakthrough encells, such as nerve and muscle cells, from stem cells.
ables researchers to study diseases in the lab more accurately and develop more targeted
treatments.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) In contrast
B) Nevertheless
C) Consequently
D) On the other hand
209
Chapter 27
Module 7 Answers
1. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’To provide an overview of capital gains tax and its intended effects on
investment behavior and the economy’ is the correct answer because the passage explains
what capital gains tax is and its purpose in influencing investment behavior and the
economy.
2. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’To introduce synthetic biology engineering and emphasize its interdisciplinary nature and the significance of standardized genetic parts’ is the correct answer
because the passage mainly focuses on providing an overview of synthetic biology engineering and highlights the importance of BioBricks in the field.
3. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’By acknowledging the advancements in bionic technology, but also pointing out the potential issue of phantom limb pain’ is the correct answer because Text 2
discusses a recent study which found that phantom limb pain can be caused by the brain’s
struggle to adapt to bionic limbs.
4. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’creases’ is the correct answer because it provides the plural form of the
noun ’crease,’ which appropriately describes the multiple folds that support the object’s
final shape.
5. Correct Answer: C
Explanation: C: ’undergoes’ is the correct answer because it maintains the consistency of
the present tense used throughout the passage to describe the events in the novel.
210
Chapter 29
Module 8 Answers
1. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’To highlight Dr. Jane Collins’s significant contribution to the field of
biotechnology and its impact on agriculture’ is the correct answer because the passage
focuses on Dr. Collins’s development of a gene-editing technique and its influence on
agriculture and sustainable farming practices.
2. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’To summarize the central plot and conflicts of the film ’Back to the
Future” is the correct answer because the passage provides a brief overview of the storyline,
highlighting Marty’s accidental time travel, the threat to his existence, and the efforts to
restore the timeline.
3. Correct Answer: B
Explanation: B: ’By appreciating her willingness to explore new strategies and adapt to
the sport’s evolution’ is the correct answer because Tom Harrison (Text 2) emphasizes
the importance of adapting to changing conditions and exploring alternative techniques,
which aligns with Alice Jamison’s innovative approach (Text 1).
4. Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A: ’was elected’ is the correct answer because it uses the passive voice in
the past tense, which is consistent with the other past tense verbs in the passage and
correctly describes the event that took place in 1996.
5. Correct Answer: D
Explanation: D: ’utilize’ is the correct answer because it provides a finite verb that agrees
with the subject ’scientists’ and is consistent with the tense used in the rest of the passage.
230