Mat Child Nursing Practice Exam Objectives 1-5 1. The nurse is admitting a pregnant woman to the case-room. She writes in her documentation that the expectant mother is considered primigravida. What does this mean? A) The woman has never been pregnant B) The woman has had multiple pregnancies C) This is the woman’s first pregnancy D) The woman has suffered a miscarriage 2. The mother is entering the Labour and delivery portion of the pregnancy phase. What is this called? A) Antepartum B) Postpartum C) Preconception D) Intrapartum 3. The pregnant woman is 32 weeks pregnant. How often should she be seeing her family doctor for prenatal visits? A) Q week B) Q2 weeks C) Q4 weeks D) Q3 weeks 4. A woman is pregnant with her second child. The mom is Rh negative and the baby is Rh positive. The doctor includes the administration of Rhogam in her treatment plan. When should Rhogam be administered? A) Between 26-28 weeks of pregnancy and again 72 hours after birth B) At 25 weeks of pregnancy and 72 hours after birth C) Between 26-28 weeks of pregnancy and again 24 hours after birth D) At 29 weeks of pregnancy and again 72 hours after birth 5. The doctor is performing an abdominal assessment on a pregnant woman to determine the fetus’s position, presentation and engagement within the uterus. What is this assessment called? A) Rooting reflex B) BUBBLES assessment C) REEDA assessment D) Leopald’s maneuver 6. Mrs. Johnson’s last menstrual period was March 20th, 2021. Using Nagele’s rule, calculate her estimated date of delivery. A) December 27th, 2021 B) November 20th, 2021 C) November 27th, 2021 D) December 25th, 2021 7. Signs that are frequently associated with pregnancy, but could be related to other factors, such as: amenorrhea, nausea, and urinary frequency, are known as? A) Presumptive signs of pregnancy B) Probable signs of pregnancy D) Positive signs of pregnancy E) Possible signs of pregnancy 8. A blue or purple discoloration of the vulva/cervix is known as? A) Goodell’s sign B) Chadwick’s sign C) Hegar’s sign D) Ballottement 9. A temporary endocrine organ that produces large amounts of estrogen and progesterone is known as? A) Gallbladder B) Pituitary gland C) Placenta D) Uterus 10. A pregnant woman comes into your clinic with complaints of pruritis. What is the best explanation for this? A) This is a normal finding and is the result of increased hormones released from the placenta B) This is an abnormal finding and is due to an increase in uric acid levels C) This is an abnormal finding and is due to the contraction of the uterus D) This is a normal finding and is due to the retention of bile salts in the gallbladder 11. Changes in skin pigmentation across the cheeks and bridge of the nose of the expectant mother is know as? A) Spider nevi B) Petechiae C) Chloasma D) Striae 12. A broken blood vessel that may appear on the face, neck, upper arms and chest, that is due to an increase in blood circulation, and is usually resolved post delivery, is called? A) Spider nevi B) Petechiae C) Chloasma D) Striae 13. There are 4 maternal tasks that each expectant mother will go through during pregnancy. Pick the answer that places these tasks in the correct order of occurance. A) Learning new caring roles, securing acceptance as mom with baby, seeking safe passage for mom and baby, committing to the fetus B) Seeking safe passage for mom and baby, securing acceptance as mom with baby, learning new caring roles, committing to the fetus C) Securing acceptance as mom with baby, commitment to the fetus, seeking safe passage for mom and baby, learning new caring roles D) Commitment to the fetus, seeking safe passage for mom and baby, learning new roles, securing acceptance as mom with baby caring 14. The father of an expectant mother is actively attending prenatal visits, listening to the fetal heartbeat, and, frequently touches his wife’s belly to feel the baby kicking. Which phase of the Father’s task is he experiencing? A) Adjustment B) Announcement C) Focus D) Planning 15. A test that consists of the insertion of a needle through the pregnant womans abdominal and uterine wall, to collect amniotic fluid to identify any possible chromosomal abnormalities of the fetus, is called? A) Ultrasound B) Amniotic fluid volume (AFV) C) Amniocentesis D) Amniolysis 16. A pregnant woman is monitoring the kick count of her unborn child. It has been 13 hours since she last felt a kick. Is this a normal finding? A) This is a normal finding and does not require medical attention B) This is a normal finding as kicks should be felt 1 per 13 hours C) This is an abnormal finding as the expecting mother should count > 3 kicks per hour D) This is an abnormal finding as kicks should be felt < 3 kicks per hour 17. A non-stress test is ordered for an expecting mother. What is the nurse watching the monitor for? A) Looking for 3 accelerations in FHR that increase by 10-15bpm that last for 10-15 seconds over a period of 20 minutes B) Looking for 2 decelerations in FHR that decrease by 10-15bpm that last for 15-30 seconds over a period of 20 minutes C) Looking for 3 decelerations in FHR that decrease by 10-15bpm that last for 10-15 seconds over a period of 20 minutes D) Looking for 2 accelerations in FHR that increase by 10-15bpm that last for 15-30 seconds over a period of 20 minutes 18. This complication results when the placenta develops in the lower portion of the uterus rather than the upper part, reaching 2-3cm within the cervical opening. A) Partial placenta previa B) Marginal placenta previa C) Placental abruption D) Total placenta previa 19. An expecting mother reports she is experiencing dark red bleeding, and abdominal pain. What are these S/S indicative of? A) Total placenta previa B) Partial placenta previa C) Marginal placenta previa D) Placental abruption 20. You take an expectant mother’s blood pressure. It reads 160 mmHg/110 mmHg. This finding is consistent with which pregnancy complication? A) Moderate hypertension B) Non-severe pre-eclampsia C) Severe pre-eclampsia D) Eclampsia 21. An expectant mother reports the following symptoms: polyphagia, polydipsia and polyuria. Which pregnancy complication might this mother be experiencing? A) Gestational diabetes B) Pre-eclampsia C) Placenta previa D) Hypertension 22. An infection that occurs from a mosquito bite or sexual contact and can result in severe birth defects to the fetus, is what? A) HIV B) Syphilis C) SIDS D) Zika virus 23. At 26 weeks an expectant mother is vaccinated with T-dap, to increase the fetus’s antibodies against which infection? A) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) B) Pertussis C) Zika Virus D) Streptococcus 24. While completing a general survey of an expectant mother you notice an abundance of animal fur stuck to her clothing. The client mentions that she has 10 pet cats at home. Which infection may she be at risk of developing? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Pertussis C) Group B strep D) Zika virus 25. Uterine contractions are considered which part of the birthing process? A) Position B) Psyche C) Passageway D) Powers 26. The beginning of one uterine contraction to the end of that same contraction is known as? A) Frequency B) Duration C) Intensity D) Resting time 27. The most common fetal lie position is? A) Horizontal lie B) Parallel lie C) Transverse lie D) Longitudinal lie 28. When the fetus’s head position presents as straight and not flexed, it is known as? A) Vertex B) Brow C) Sinciput D) Face 29. An expecting mother complains of the following S/S: irregular contractions and discomfort in the groin that is relieved when changing positions. What is she experiencing? A) Braxton hicks (false Labour) B) True Labour C) Lightening D) Placenta previa 30. A pregnant woman has gone into Labour and is dilated 8cm. Her contractions are occurring every 2-5 minutes and are 40-90 seconds in duration. Which stage of Labour is she in? A) 1st stage B) 2nd stage C) 3rd stage D) 4th stage 31. Refers to the strong emotional tie that forms soon after birth between parents and newborn. A) Attachment B) Engrossment C) Bonding D) Commitment 32. The nurse needs to complete a BUBBLES assessment on a new mother. What is the first thing she should do? A) Take a set of vitals B) Ask the mother to void C) Assess the surgical incision D) Palpate the fundus 33. The nurse is assessing a new mothers uterine fundus. At the 24 hour mark which assessment findings would be considered normal? A) Fundus is felt to the left and one finger length below the umbilicus as a firm mass B) Fundus is felt at the midline and 2 finger lengths below the umbilicus as a soft mass C) Fundus is felt at the midline and 1 finger length below the umbilicus as a firm mass D) Fundus is felt to the right and one finger length below the umbilicus as a firm mass 34. During the nurse’s assessment of a postpartum mother she finds a light amount of serosa lochia on the new mom’s pad. What does this mean? A) 10mls of ruby red vaginal discharge B) 30mls of pink vaginal discharge C) 20mls of clear vaginal discharge D) 15mls of pink vaginal discharge 35. A new mom is participating in the first baby bath of her new infant. She expresses interest in learning about breastfeeding techniques and proper nutrition for her newborn. Which phase of Rubin’s postpartum change is she experiencing? A) Phase 1 B) Phase 2 C) Phase 3 D) Phase 4 36. A new mom is experiencing the following S/S: anxiety, insomnia, irrational fears, nausea and vomiting. What may this be an indication of? A) Perinatal anxiety B) Postpartum blues C) Perinatal depression D) Perinatal psychosis 37. The father of a newborn is showing an intense interest in his new child. What is this called? A) Bonding B) Attachment C) Engrossment D) Commitment 38. Once a child is a born an APGAR test must be completed. It consists of appearance, pulse, grimacing, activity and respirations. At what time intervals must this assessment be completed? A) 2 minutes and 7 minutes B) 1 minute and 5 minutes C) 2 minutes and 5 minutes D) 1 minute and 7 minutes 39. Upon delivery, a newborn must be administered which medication to increase clotting factors in the blood? A) Erythromycin B) Vitamin D C) Vitamin K D) Vitamin A 40. The newborn is 5 days old. The mother is taking her new baby home and asks how she can tell if the baby is well fed. The nurse should respond with.. A) The baby will have a total of 6-8 wet diapers per day B) The baby will have 4-6 wet diapers per day C) The baby will not cry D) The baby will not demonstrate the sucking reflex 41. A baby passes a bright yellow, soft and pasty stool. What should the nurse document? A) Normal bright yellow, soft, pasty stool indicative of a bottle fed newborn B) Abnormal bright yellow, soft, pasty stool indicative of transitional stool C) Normal Bright yellow, soft, pasty stool indicative of a breastfed baby D) Bright yellow, soft, pasty stool known as meconium 42. When completing a set of newborn vitals the nurse notes that the babies temperature is 36 degrees celcius. What is the primary action of the nurse? A) Notify the PHCP B) Move the baby to an incubator C) Cover the baby’s head with a hat and swaddle D) Retake the baby’s temperature in 15 minutes 43. You are responsible for taking a newborn’s vitals. Which order will you take the vitals in? A) Pulse, respirations, BP B) Respirations, pulse, BP C) Pulse, temperature, respirations D) Respirations, pulse, temperature 44. A newborn baby weighs 6.5lbs at birth. 3 days later the baby is weighed again with a result of 6.2lbs. The mother begins to worry. What should the nurse tell her? A) Newborns lose 7-10% of their body weight in the first 3-4 days, but will regain on day 10-12 B) Newborns should gain 5% in the first 3 days. The decreased weight is an abnormal finding C) Newborns lose 3-7% of their body weight in the first 3-4 days, but will regain on day 10-12 D) Newborns should not lose any weight, and weight deductions should be reported to the PHCP 45. The nurse is performing an assessment on a newborn baby. She bangs on the table next to the newborn and startles him causing the baby to throw his arms out wide and quickly bring them close to his body. Which reflex is the nurse assessing? A) Babinski reflex B) Moro reflex C) Tonic neck reflex D) Grasp reflex 46. A baby is born with a cheese like substance covering its skin. The nurse would document this finding by using which term? A) Milia B) Epstein’s pearls C) Vernix D) Lanugo 47. A mother has chosen to breastfeed her newborn baby. At 6 months of age, she decides to stop breastfeeding and switch the child to whole milk and solid foods. 40 days after the last breastfeeding she notices that her breasts are no longer producing milk. Which stage of lactation is this? A) Secretory differentiation B) Secretory activation C) Galactopoiesis D) Involution 48. A new mom has chosen to breastfeed her newborn. You are educating her on the importance of her nutrition and calorie intake. What is the recommended calorie intake for a breastfeeding mom? (note: normal nutritional intake is 1500 calories per day for a non-breastfeeding woman) A) 2000 calories B) 2500 calories C) 2700 calories D) 1800 calories 49. A breastfeeding mother has dry, cracked, and sore nipples. What is the best intervention that the nurse could provide to promote healing? A) Use soap and water to cleanse the area B) Recommend to stop breastfeeding until the nipples heal C) Rub a small amount of breastmilk onto the sore area D) Use a topical cream 3 times a day 50. At this age of the developing child, the Babinski reflex will disappear and the child will begin to show emotions such as love and affection. A) 6 months B) 9 months C) 1 year D) 18 months
