International Trauma Life Support, 9e (Campbell)
Chapter 2 Trauma Assessment and Management
1) The brief exam to find immediately life-threatening conditions is called
the ITLS:
A) Primary Survey.
B) Reassessment Exam.
C) Secondary Survey.
D) Focused Exam.
2) An exam to determine changes in a patient’s condition is called the
ITLS:
A) Primary Survey.
B) Reassessment Exam.
C) Secondary Survey.
D) Focused Exam.
3) A comprehensive head-to-toe exam to find additional injuries possibly
missed during the
primary survey is the ITLS:
A) Primary Survey.
B) Reassessment Exam.
C) Secondary Survey.
D) Focused Exam.
4) An exam used when there is an isolated injury and that is limited to the
area of injury is called a:
A) primary survey.
B) reassessment exam
C) secondary survey.
D) focused exam.
5) Which of the following is NOT a reason to interrupt the ITLS Primary
Survey?
A) Respiratory arrest
B) Cardiac arrest
C) Airway obstruction
D) Scene danger
6) During the formation of the general impression of your trauma patient,
what does the first “C” in C-A-B-C-D-E stand for?
A) Compression
B) Control life-threatening bleeding
C) Circulation
D) Care on scene
7) What type of maneuver should be used to open the airway of a
suspected trauma patient?
A) Head tilt
B) Intubation
C) Jaw thrust
D) Hyperextension
8) Which of the following would be considered a normal end-tidal CO2?
A) 20 mm/Hg
B) 25 mm/Hg
C) 30 mm/Hg
D) 35 mm/Hg
9) If you have to move a patient, but she has an unstable pelvis or bilateral
femur fractures, it is best to use a:
A) scoop stretcher.
B) short backboard.
C) long backboard.
D) vacuum splint.
10) For critical patients, the ITLS Primary Survey should take less than:
A) 5 minutes.
B) 2 minutes.
C) 3 minutes.
D) 4 minutes.
11) What of the following respiratory rates is within the normal limits for
adults?
A) 60
B) 40
C) 16
D) 34
12) The choice between performing a rapid trauma survey or a focused
exam depends on:
A) SAMPLE history.
B) weather conditions.
C) number of patients.
D) initial assessment results.
13) If the initial assessment reveals altered mental status, abnormal
breathing, or uncontrolled bleeding, this is termed a:
A) priority patient.
B) sick patient.
C) high-risk patient.
D) dangerous patient.
14) When you percuss the chest and hear hyperresonance, the patient
may have a:
A) hemothorax.
B) pneumothorax.
C) cardiac tamponade.
D) pulmonary contusion.
15) For critical patients, procedures such as splinting, insertion of IV lines,
and bandaging should be performed:
A) during the beginning of the reassessment exam.
B) as problems are detected in the primary survey.
C) on the way to the hospital.
D) just before the end of the focused exam.
16) The ITLS Reassessment Exam should be repeated every ________
minutes for critical patients and ________ minutes for stable patients.
A) 10; 15
B) 4; 10
C) 2; 5
D) 5; 15
17) If a patient is responsive to your voice only, makes incomprehensible
sounds, and withdraws from pain, the GCS is:
A) 9.
B) 7.
C) 11.
D) 5.
18) What does TIC abbreviate?
A) Tenderness, IV fluid, compression
B) Tenderness, instability, crepitus
C) Tourniquet, insert airway, circulation
D) Tearing, instability, contusions
19) The correct order for the first part of the ITLS Secondary Survey is:
A) LOC, airway, breathing, radial pulse, general impression.
B) radial pulse, breathing, airway, LOC, general impression.
C) general impression, LOC, airway, breathing, radial pulse.
D) airway, breathing, radial pulse, general impression, LOC.
20) All of the following are part of the ITLS Reassessment Exam EXCEPT:
A) vital signs.
B) check interventions.
C) recheck monitors.
D) general impression.
21) What does DCAP abbreviate?
A) Deformities, contusions, abrasions, penetrations
B) Deformities, compressions, abrasions, penetrations
C) Depressions, contusions, abrasions, penetrations
D) Deformities, contusions, avulsions, punctures
22) What does BLS abbreviate?
A) Burns, lacerations, stability
B) Burns, lacerations, swelling
C) Breaks, lividity, swelling
D) Bones, loose joints, severe pain
23) When do you determine the need for extra resources?
A) During the focused exam
B) During the initial assessment
C) During the scene size-up
D) During the rapid trauma survey
24) The concept that immediately addresses problems encountered and
yet does not interrupt the assessment sequence and does not increase
scene time is called:
A) rapid survey.
B) load and go.
C) priority patients.
D) delegating interventions.
25) If bleeding is not adequately controlled with pressure, what should be
done immediately?
A) Apply a tourniquet.
B) Apply a new gauze every 2 minutes.
C) Insert two large-bore IVs.
D) Squeeze down with a gloved hand.
26) When should exsanguinating bleeding be controlled?
A) During the secondary survey
B) During the initial assessment
C) After the reassessment exam
D) After the initial assessment
27) Once you begin the primary survey, what circumstances would allow
you to interrupt the assessment sequence?
A) Identification of a broken ankle
B) Respiratory rate of 18
C) Airway obstruction
D) Amputation of a toe
28) How long should it take you to complete the primary survey?
A) 5 minutes
B) 4 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 2 minutes
29) Which of the following is the correct sequence of ITLS assessments?
A) Initial Survey, Secondary Survey, Reassessment Exam
B) Primary Survey, Reassessment Exam, Secondary Survey
C) Initial Survey, Rapid Trauma Assessment, Reassessment Exam
D) Primary Survey, Secondary Survey, Reassessment Exam
30) A serum lactate test is used to assess which of the following?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Increased intracranial pressure
C) Early shock
D) Abdominal bleeding