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SYLLABUS PHYSICS (Code No. 042) COURSE STRUCTURE, CLASS XII (2021 - 22) TERM - II Time : 2 Hours Max Marks : 35 No. of Periods Units-V Units-VI Units-VII Units-VIII Units-IX Electromagnetic Waves Chapter-8:Electromagnetic Waves Optics Chapter-9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Chapter-10: Wave Optics Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Chapter-11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Atoms and Nuclei Chapter-12: Atoms Chapter-13: Nuclei Electronic Devices Chapter-14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Total THEORY Unit V: Electromagnetic Waves 2 Periods Chapter-8 : Electromagnetic Waves Electromagnetic waves, their characteristics, their Transverse nature (qualitative ideas only). Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays) including elementary facts about their uses. Unit VI: Optics 18 Periods Chapter-9 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Ray Optics: Refraction of light, total internal reflection and its applications, optical fibres, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lensmaker's formula, magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact, refraction of light through a prism. Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and refracting) and their magnifying powers. Chapter–10: Wave Optics Wave optics: Wavefront and Huygens principle, reflection and refraction of plane wave at a plane surface using wavefronts. Proof of laws of reflection and refraction using Huygens principle. Interference, Young's double slit experiment and expression for fringe width, coherent sources and sustained interference of light, diffraction due to a single slit, width of central maximum Marks 02 17 18 07 11 11 11 7 73 35 Unit VII : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 7 Periods Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations; Einstein's photoelectric equation-particle nature of light. Experimental study of photoelectric effect Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei 11 Periods Chapter–12: Atoms Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr model, energy levels, hydrogen spectrum. Chapter–13: Nuclei Composition and size of nucleus Nuclear force Mass-energy relation, mass defect, nuclear fission, nuclear fusion. Unit IX: Electronic Devices 11 Periods Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative ideas only) Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias, diode as a rectifier; Special purpose p-n junction diodes: LED, photodiode, solar cell. PRACTICALS The second term practical examination will be organised by schools as per the directions of CBSE and viva will be taken by both internal and external observers. The record to be submitted by the students at the time of second term examination has to include a record of at least 4 Experiments and 3 Activities to be demonstrated by teacher. Evaluation Scheme Time Allowed : One and half hours Two experiments to be performed by students at time of examination Practical record [experiments and activities] Viva on experiments, and activities Total Max. Marks : 15 8 marks 2 marks 5 marks 15 marks CONTENTS Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 17-39 Chapter 10 Wave Optics 40-62 Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 63-81 Chapter 12 Atoms 82-102 Chapter 13 Nuclei 103-114 Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 115-136 Practice Papers 1-3 137-156 1-16 *As per the Circular Issued by CBSE on July 05, 2021, Special Scheme of Assessment for Board Examination Class XII for the Session 2021-22 is as follows : Term II Examination/Year-end Examination : •At the end of the second term, the Board would organize Term II or Year-end Examination based on the rationalized syllabus of Term II only (i.e. approximately 50% of the entire syllabus). • This examination would be held around March-April 2022 at the examination centres fixed by the Board. •The paper will be of 2 hours duration and have questions of different formats (case-based/ situation based, open ended- short answer/ long answer type). •In case the situation is not conducive for normal descriptive examination a 90 minute MCQ based exam will be conducted at the end of the Term II also. • Marks of the Term II Examination would contribute to the final overall score. To cope up with ongoing unpredictable pandemic situation, this book contains chapterwise objective as well as subjective questions. In Objective Section, each question carry 1 mark and in Subjective Section, each VSA carry 1 mark, SA I carry 2 marks, SA II carry 3 marks and LA carry 5 marks. *As per the CBSE Term-II 2021-2022 curriculum, for latest information visit www.cbse.gov.in Electromagnetic Waves CHAPTER 8 Recap Notes Electromagnetic (E.M.) waves : E.M. waves are those waves in which there is a sinusoidal variation of electric and magnetic fields at right angle to each other as well as at right angle to the direction of wave propagation. X For a plane progressive electromagnetic wave propagating along + Z direction, the electric and magnetic fields can be written as E = E0 sin (kz – wt) B = B0 sin (kz – wt) Y where m and e are permeability and permittivity of the medium respectively. c 1 v= = µ 0µ r ε 0 ε r µr εr X E X Z X X X B In electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields vary with space and time and have the same frequency and are in the same phase. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields in free space, in electromagnetic waves are related by E E0 = cB0 or B0 = 0 c The speed of electromagnetic wave in free space is E 1 = 3 × 108 m/s c= 0 = B0 µ0ε0 where m0 and e0 are the permeability and permittivity of free space respectively. X The speed of electromagnetic wave in a medium is 1 v= µε X X Properties of electromagnetic waves – These waves do not carry any charge. – These waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. – They travel with the speed of light c (= 3 ×× 108 m s–1) in vacuum. – The frequency of electromagnetic wave does not change when it goes from one medium to another but its wavelength changes. – These waves are transverse in nature, hence they can be polarised. Production of electromagnetic waves – Maxwell showed that an electric charge oscillating harmonically with frequency u produces electromagnetic waves of the same frequency. – An electric dipole is a basic source of electromagnetic waves. Energy density of electromagnetic waves – Electromagnetic waves carry energy as they travel through space and this energy is equally shared by electric field and magnetic field of electromagnetic wave. – The energy density of the electric field is 1 2 u E = ε 0 Erms 2 – The energy density of magnetic field is uB = 2 1 Brms 2 µ0 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 2 – Average energy density of electromagnetic wave is 1 1 2 2 < u > = ε 0 Erms + B 2 2µ 0 rms X X Intensity of electromagnetic wave : It is defined as energy crossing per unit area per unit time perpendicular to the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave. The intensity of electromagnetic wave is B2 1 2 I = < u > c = ε 0 Erms c + rms c 2 2µ 0 Momentum of electromagnetic wave – An electromagnetic wave carries linear momentum. – Electromagnetic wave strikes the surface at normal incidence and transports a total energy U to the surface in a time t , if the surface absorbs all the incident energy, the total momentum p transported to the surface is p= Type Radio waves U (complete absorption) c Wavelength range > 0.1 m Microwaves 0.1 m to 1 mm Frequency range (in Hz) < 3 ×× 109 3 ××× 108 to 3 ×× 1011 3 ×× ×1011 to 4 ×× 1014 Infra-red 1 mm to 700 nm Visible light 700 nm to 400 nm 4 ×× 1014 to 8 ×× ×1014 – If the surface is a perfect reflector and incidence is normal then the momentum transported to the surface is 2U (complete reflection) p= c Radiation pressure : It is defined as the pressure exerted by the electromagnetic wave on a surface. X If I is the intensity of the incident electromagnetic radiation, then the radiation pressure for normal incidence is Pradiation = I (perfectly absorbing surface) c Pradiation = 2I (perfectly reflecting surface) c Electromagnetic spectrum : The orderly distribution of electromagnetic radiations according to their wavelength or frequency is known as electromagnetic spectrum. Production Detection Rapid acceleration and deceleration of electrons in aerials Klystron valve or magnetron valve Vibration of atoms and molecules Receiver’s aerials Electrons in atoms emit light when they move from one energy level to a lower energy level Inner shell electrons in atoms moving from one energy level to a lower level The eye, Photocells, Photographic film Point contact diodes Thermopiles, Bolometer, Infrared photographic film Ultraviolet 400 nm to 1 nm 8 ××× 1014 to 8 ×× 1016 X-rays 1 nm to 10–3 nm 1 ××× 1016 to 3 ×× 1021 X-ray tubes or inner shell electrons Photographic film, Geiger tubes Gamma rays < 10–3 nm > 3 ××× 1021 Radioactive decay of the nucleus Photographic film, Ioniz ation chamber Photocells, Photographic film Practice Time OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. If the frequency of the wave is 40 MHz then its wavelength is (a) 5 m (b) 7.5 m (c) 8.5 m (d) 10 m 2. An electromagnetic wave of frequency u = 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permittivity e = 4. Then (a) wavelength and frequency both become half. (b) wavelength is doubled and frequency remains unchanged. (c) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged. (d) wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged. 3. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is (a) c : 1 (b) c2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) c :1 4. About 6% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. The average intensity of visible radiation at a distance of 8 m is (Assume that the radiation is emitted isotropically and neglect reflection). (a) 3.5 × 10–3 W m–2 (b) 5.1 × 10–3 W m–2 (c) 7.4 × 10–3 W m–2 (d) 2.3 × 10–3 W m–2 5. Which of the following rays is not an electromagnetic wave? (a) X-rays (b) g-rays (c) b-rays (d) Heat rays 6. A radio can tune to any station in 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. The corresponding wavelengthband is (a) 40 m to 25 m (b) 30 m to 25 m (c) 25 m to 10 m (d) 10 m to 5 m 7. Which waves are used in sonography ? (a) Microwaves (b) Infrared rays (c) Radio waves (d) Ultrasonic waves 8. Light with an energy flux of 18 W cm–2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface has an area of 20 cm2, the average force exerted on the surface during a 30 minute time span is (a) 2.1 × 10–6 N (b) 1.2 × 10–6 N 6 (c) 1.2 × 10 N (d) 2.1 × 106 N 9. T h e p a r t o f t h e s p e c t r u m o f t h e electromagnetic radiation used to cook food is (a) ultraviolet rays (b) cosmic rays (c) X-rays (d) microwaves 10. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along x-direction. At a particular point in space and time, electric field E = 6.3 V m–1. The magnitude of magnetic field B at this point is (a) 1.2 × 10–6 T (b) 1.2 × 10–8 T –6 (c) 2.1 × 10 T (d) 2.1 × 10–8 T 11. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. The wave delivers momentum p and energy E. Then (a) p ≠ 0, E ≠ 0 (b) p = 0, E = 0 (c) p = 0, E ≠ 0 (d) p ≠ 0, E = 0 12. Radiations of intensity 0.5 W m–2 are striking a metal plate. The pressure on the plate is (a) 0.166 × 10–8 N m–2 (b) 0.332 × 10–8 N m–2 (c) 0.111 × 10–8 N m–2 (d) 0.083 × 10–8 N m–2 13. One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. The minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in (a) visible region. (b) infrared region. (c) ultraviolet region. (d) microwave region. 14. The amplitude of the magnetic field of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B0 = 510 nT. The amplitude of the electric field part of the wave is (a) 120 N C–1 (b) 134 N C–1 –1 (c) 510 N C (d) 153 N C–1 4 15. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is (a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays (b) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays (c) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves (d) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet 16. If µ0 be the permeability and k0 be the dielectric constant of a medium, then its refractive index is given by 1 1 (a) (b) (c) µ0k0 (d) µ0k0 µ0k0 µ0k0 17. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves? (a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time. (b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic field vectors. (c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave (d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation. 18. The source of electromagnetic waves can be charge, when (a) moving with a constant velocity (b) moving in a circular orbit (c) falling in an electric field (d) both (b) and (c) 19. An electromagnetic wave radiates outwards from a dipole antenna, with the amplitude of its electric field vector E0. The electric field which transports significant energy from the source falls off as 1 1 1 (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) (d) r r r r 20. The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by ^ E = 40 cos(kz − 6 × 108t) i , where E , z and t are in volt per meter, meter and second respectively. The value of wave vector k is (a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 (c) 6 m–1 (d) 3 m–1 21. A microwave and an ultrasonic sound wave have the same wavelength. Their frequencies are in the ratio (approximately) (a) 102 (b) 104 (c) 106 (d) 108 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 22. The photon energy in units of eV for electromagnetic waves of wavelength 2 cm is (a) 2.5 × 10–19 (b) 5.2 × 1016 (c) 3.2 × 10–16 (d) 6.2 × 10–5 23. Which of the following electromagnetic wave play an important role in maintaining the earth’s warmth or average temperature through the greenhouse effect? (a) Visible rays (b) Infrared waves (c) Gamma rays (d) Ultraviolet rays 24. The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is doubled with no other changes made to the wave. As a result of this doubling of the amplitude, which of the following statement is correct? (a) The speed of wave propagation changes only (b) The frequency of the wave changes only (c) The wavelength of the wave changes only (d) None of these. 25. The frequency of electromagnetic wave which is best suitable to observe a particle of radius 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of (a) 1015 Hz (b) 1011 Hz 13 (c) 10 Hz (d) 1012 Hz 26. Frequency of radiations arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen, known as lamb shift is 1057 MHz. This frequency falls in which range of electromagnetic wave? (a) Infrared rays (b) X-rays (c) g-rays (d) Radio waves 27. X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travelling in vacuum have (a) same wavelength but different velocities (b) same frequency but different velocities (c) same velocity but different wavelengths (d) same velocity and same frequency 28. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E = 3.1 N C−1 cos (1.8 rad m −1 ) y 8 −1 ^ + (5.4 × 10 rad s ) t i . The wavelength of this part of electromagnetic wave is (a) 1.5 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.5 m (d) 3.5 m 29. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to (a) the speed of light in vacuum (b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum (c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum (d) unity 5 Electromagnetic Waves 30. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0, E y = 2 .5 N rad −2 rad cos 2π × 106 t − π × 10 x , C m s Ez = 0. The wave is (a) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100 m (b) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m (c) moving along –x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m (d) moving along y direction with frequency 2p × 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m 31. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction. At a particular point in space and ^ time, E = 6.3 j V m −1 . At this point B is equal to ^ ^ (a) 8.33 × 10−8 k T (b) 18.9 × 10−8 k T (c) 2.1 × 10−8 k T (d) 2.1 × 10−8 k T ^ ^ 34. An electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its electric field vector upwards. Its magnetic field vector point towards (a) north (b) east (c) west (d) downwards 35. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is (a) microwaves (b) infrared waves (c) radio waves (d) X-rays 36. Assume a bulb of efficiency 2.5% as a point source. The peak values of electric and magnetic fields produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance of 3 m is respectively (a) 2.5 V m–1, 3.6 × 10–8 T (b) 4.2 V m–1, 2.8 × 10–8 T (c) 4.08 V m–1, 1.36 × 10–8 T (d) 3.6 V m–1, 4.2 × 10–8 T 37. An electromagnetic radiation has an energy of 13.2 keV. Then the radiation belongs to the region of (a) visible light (b) ultraviolet (c) infrared (d) X-ray 32. Which one of the following is the property of a monochromatic, plane electromagnetic wave in free space? (a) Electric and magnetic fields have a phase π difference of . 2 (b) The energy contribution of both electric and magnetic fields are equal. (c) The direction of propagation is in the direction of B × E . (d) The pressure exerted by the wave is the product of its speed and energy density. 38. The magnetic field of a beam emerging from a filter facing a flood light as given by B = 12 × 10–8 sin (1.20 × 107 z – 3.60 × 1015 t) T. The average intensity of the beam is (a) 1.71 W m–2 (b) 2.1 W m–2 –2 (c) 3.2 W m (d) 2.9 W m–2 33. An electromagnetic wave is propagating along x-axis. At x = 1 m and t = 10 s, its electric vector |E | = 6 V/ m then the magnitude of its magnetic vector is (a) 2 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–7 T (c) 6 × 10–8 T (d) 5 × 10–7 T 40. Radio waves diffract around buildings, although light waves do not. The reason is that radio waves (a) travel with speed larger than c (b) have much larger wavelength than light (c) are not electromagnetic waves (d) none of these 39. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave varies with time of amplitude 2 Vm –1 propagating along z-axis. The average energy density of the magnetic field is (in J m–3) (a) 13.29 × 10–12 (b) 8.85 × 10–12 (c) 17.72 × 10–12 (d) 4.43 × 10–12 Case Based MCQs Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 41 to 44. Directions of Electromagnetic Waves In an electromagnetic wave both the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the direction of propagation, that is why electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. Electromagnetic waves carry energy as they travel through space and this energy is shared equally by the electric and magnetic fields. Energy density of an electromagnetic waves is the energy in unit volume of the space through which the wave travels. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 6 41. The electromagnetic waves propagated perpendicular to both E and B. The electromagnetic waves travel in the direction of (a) E ⋅ B (b) E × B (c) B ⋅ E (d) B × E (a) 500 (b) 100 250 500 (c) (d) 3 3 Case III : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 48 to 50. 42. Fundamental particle in an electromagnetic wave is (a) photon (b) electron (c) phonon (d) proton Oscillating Charge A stationary charge produces only an electrostatic field while a charge in uniform motion produces a magnetic field, that does not change with time. An oscillating charge is an example of accelerating charge. It produces an oscillating magnetic field, which in turn produces an oscillating electric fields and so on. The oscillating electric and magnetic fields regenerate each other as a wave which propagates through space. 43. For a wave propagating in a medium, identify the property that is independent of the others. (a) velocity (b) wavelength (c) frequency (d) all these depend on each other 44. The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic waves are (a) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other (b) in opposite phase and parallel to each other (c) in phase and perpendicular to each other (d) in phase and parallel to each other. Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 45 to 47. Momentum and Pressure of an Electromagnetic Wave An electromagnetic wave transports linear momentum as it travels through space. If an electromagnetic wave transfers a total energy U to a surface in time t, then total linear U momentum delivered to the surface is p = . c When an electromagnetic wave falls on a surface, it exerts pressure on the surface. In 1903, the American scientists Nichols and Hull succeeded in measuring radiation pressures of visible light where other had failed, by making a detailed empirical analysis of the ubiquitous gas heating and ballistic effects. 45. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave of intensity I(W m–2) on a non-reflecting surface is (c is the velocity of light) (a) Ic (b) Ic2 (c) I/c (d) I/c2 46. Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. The pressure exerted on the surface is (a) 2 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–4 N/m2 2 (c) 6 N/m (d) 6 × 10–4 N/m2 47 A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an average power output of 1500 W. The maximum value of electric field at a distance of 3 m from this source (in V m–1) is x E E B B O y z B E B Direction of propagation E 48 Magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic ^ wave is given by B = B0 sin(kx + ωt) j T . Expression for corresponding electric field will be (Where c is speed of light.) ^ (a) E = − B0c sin(kx + ωt) k V/m ^ (b) E = B0c sin(kx − ωt) k V/m ^ (c) E = B0 sin(kx + ωt) k V/m c ^ (d) E = B0c sin(kx + ωt) k V/m 49 The electric field component of a monochromatic ^ radiation is given by E = 2E0 i cos kz cos ωt. Its magnetic field B is then given by 2E0 c 2E0 (c) c (a) ^ j cos kz cos ωt ^ j sin kz sin ωt 2E0 ^ j sin kz cos ωt c 2E ^ (d) − 0 j sin kz sin ωt c (b) 50. A plane em wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in a free space along x-direction. At a ^ particular point in space and time, E = (6.3 j ) V/m. What is magnetic field at that time? (a) 0.095 mT (b) 0.124 mT (c) 0.089 mT (d) 0.021 mT 7 Electromagnetic Waves Assertion & Reasoning Based MCQs For question numbers 51-60, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 51. Assertion (A) : Radio waves cannot be diffracted by the buildings. Reason (R) : The wavelength of radio waves is very small. 56. Assertion (A) : Velocity of light is constant in all media. Reason (R) : Light is an electromagnetic wave which has constant velocity in all media. 52. Assertion : Only microwaves are used in radar. Reason : Because microwaves have very small wavelength. 57. Assertion (A) : X-rays in vacuum travel faster than light waves in vacuum. Reason (R) : The energy of X-rays photon is less than that of light photon. 53. Assertion (A) : The electric field and magnetic field have equal average values in linearly polarised plane em wave. Reason (R) : The electric energy and magnetic energy have equal average values in linearly polarised plane em wave. 58. Assertion (A) : Electromagnetic waves exert pressure called radiation pressure. Reason (R) : Electromagnetic waves carries energy. 54. Assertion (A) : Light can travel in vacuum whereas sound cannot do so. Reason (R) : Light has an electromagnetic wave nature whereas sound is mechanical wave. 59. Assertion (A) : Infrared waves sometimes referred as heat waves. Reason (R) : Infrared waves heat up the earth surface. 55. Assertion (A) : The microwaves are better carriers of signals than radio waves. Reason (R) : The electromagnetic waves do not required any material medium for propagation. 60. Assertion (A) : X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. Reason (R) : Efficiency of X-rays telescope is large as compared to any other telescope. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a wave of frequency 5 × 1019 Hz belong? 2. How are radio waves produced? 3. Welders wear special goggles or face masks with glass windows to protect their eyes from electromagnetic radiations. Name the radiations and write the range of their frequency. 4. The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why ? 5. Write two uses of microwaves. 6. If the Earth did not have atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower than what it is now? Explain. 7. An e.m. wave exerts pressure on the surface on which it is incident. Justify. 8. Do electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum? 9. How is the speed of em-waves in vacuum determined by the electric and magnetic fields? 10. In which directions do the electric and magnetic field vectors oscillate in an electromagnetic wave propagating along the x-axis ? CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 8 Short Answer Type Questions (SA-I) 11. Illustrate by giving suitable examples, how you can show that electromagnetic waves carry both energy and momentum. 12. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about the direction of electric and magnetic field vectors? 13. An e.m. wave is travelling in a medium ^ with a velocity v = v i . Draw a sketch showing the propagation of the e.m. wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields. 16. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 100 W bulb at a 3 m distance is E. Find the electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 50 W bulb at the same distance. 17. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by E = (50 N C–1)sin w(t – x/c). Find the energy contained in a cylinder of cross-section 10 cm2 and length 50 cm along the x-axis. 18. How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred as heat waves? Write their one important use? 14. Name the physical quantity which remains same for microwaves of wavelength 1 mm and UV radiations of 1600 Å in vacuum. 19. Explain briefly how electromagnetic waves are produced by an oscillating charge. How is the frequency of the e.m. waves produced related to that of the oscillating charge? 15. One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. The minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in which region? 20. Identify the electromagnetic waves whose wavelengths vary as (a) 10–11 m < l < 10–14 m (b) 10–4 m < l < 10–6 m Write one use of each. Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 21. Name the constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which is used for (i) aircraft navigation. (ii) studying crystal structure. Write the frequency range for each. 22. Gamma rays and radio waves travel with the same velocity in free space. Distinguish between them in terms of their origin and the main application. 23. Identify the part of the electromagnetic spectrum used in (i) radar and (ii) eye surgery. Write their frequency range. 24. (i) Which segment of electromagnetic waves has highest frequency? How are these waves produced? Give one use of these waves. (ii) Which e.m. waves lie near the high frequency end of visible part of e.m. spectrum? Give its one use. In what way this component of light has harmful effects on humans? 25. Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is (a) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation. (b) used to treat muscular strain. (c) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. Write in brief, how these waves can be produced. 26. Prove that the average energy density of the oscillating electric field is equal to that of the oscillating magnetic field. 27. Name the types of em radiations which (i)are used in destroying cancer cells, (ii)cause tanning of the skin and (iii) maintain the earth’s warmth. Write briefly a method of producing any one of these waves. 28. (a) Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their wavelengths : (i) Microwaves (ii) Infra-red rays (iii) Ultra-violet-radiation (iv) Gamma rays (b) Write one use each of any two of them. 29. (a) Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground but X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. Why? 9 Electromagnetic Waves (b) The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why? 30. Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E = (3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 × 108 rad/s)t]t (a) What is the direction of propagation? (b) What is the wavelength l? (c) What is the frequency n? 31. (a) When the oscillating electric and magnetic fields are along the x-and y-direction respectively. (i) point out the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave. (ii) express the velocity of propagation in terms of the amplitudes of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields. (b) How do you show that the e.m. wave carries energy and momentum? Long Answer Type Questions (LA) 32. Answer the following questions: (a) Show, by giving a simple example, how e.m. waves carry energy and momentum. (b) How are microwaves produced? Why is it necessary in microwave ovens to select the frequency of microwaves to match the resonant frequency of water molecules? (c) Write two important uses of infrared waves. 33. State clearly how a microwave oven works to heat up a food item containing water molecules. Why are microwaves found useful for the radar systems in aircraft navigation? 34. The intensity of light ranges from about 1W m2 for a candle to about 30 mW/m for a modest size laser. A particular laser produces a power 4 W in a beam 0.4 mm in diameter. 2 (a) What is its average intensity? (b) Find the peak electric field of the laser light. (c) Find the peak magnetic field of the laser light. (d) If the laser beam is aimed upward to levitate a 20 mm diameter sphere, what is the maximum mass of this sphere. Assume the sphere is perfectly reflecting. 35. A p l a n e E M w a v e t r a v e l l i n g a l o n g z-direction is described by E = E0 sin(kz − ωt)i and B = B sin(kz − ωt) j . Show that 0 (a) The average energy density of the wave is 1 1 B02 ε0 E02 + . 4 4 µ0 (b) The time averaged intensity of the wave is 1 given by I av = cε0 E02 . 2 given by uav = OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. (b) : Wavelength, λ = c 3 × 108 m s−1 = = 7.5 m υ 40 × 106 s−1 2. (d) : The frequency of electromagnetic wave remains unchanged but the wavelength of electromagnetic wave changes when it passes from one medium to another. 1 c= µ0 ε0 1 ε0 ∴ c∝ ∴ c ε 4 = = =2 v ε0 1 and v ∝ 1 ε c υλ λ λ = = = 2 or λ ′ = v 2 υλ ′ λ ′ 3. (c) : Intensity of electromagnetic wave, I = Uav c 1 In terms of electric field, Uav = ε0 E02 2 1 B02 In terms of magnetic field, Uav = 2 µ0 1 Now Uav electric field = ε0 E02 2 1 1 1 2 2 E0 = ε0 ( cB0 ) = ε0 × B0 ∵ B = c 2 2 µ0 ε0 0 1 B02 = = Uav (due to magnetic field) 2 µ0 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 10 Thus the energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric field vector and magnetic field vector. Therefore, the ratio of contributions by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of electromagnetic wave is 1 : 1. 4. (c) : Here, power of bulb = 100 W Power of visible light As intensity, I = area 100 × 6 / 100 = = 7.4 × 10–3 W m–2 4 π (8)2 5. 6. (c) (a) : Here, u1 = 7.5 MHz, u2 = 12 MHz ∴ λ1 = 8 3 × 10 c = = 40 m υ1 7.5 × 106 3 × 108 c and λ2 = = = 25 m υ2 12 × 106 7. (d) 8. (b) : The total energy falling on the surface is U = 18 × 20 × (30 × 60) = 6.48 × 105 J Therefore, the total momentum delivered (for complete absorption is) U 6.48 × 105 p= = = 2.16 × 10–3 kg m s–1 c 3 × 108 The average force exerted on the surface is p 2.16 × 10 −3 F= = = 1.2 × 10–6 N t 0.18 × 104 9. (d) : Microwaves are used to cook food. Microwave oven is a domestic application of these waves. E 6.3 10. (d) : As, B = = = 2.1 × 10 −8 T c 3 × 108 11. (a) : When plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface, the wave delivers some momentum and energy to the surface and hence p ≠ 0 and E ≠ 0. 0.5 I 12. (a) : P = = c 3 × 108 = 0.166 × 10–8 N m–2 13. (c) : Here, E = 11 eV = 11 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = hu 11 × 1.6 × 10 −19 \ υ= h = 11 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = 2.6 × 1015 Hz 6.62 × 10 −34 This frequency radiation belongs to ultraviolet region. 14. (d) : Here, B0 = 510 nT = 510 × 10–9 T E0 = cB0 = 3 × 108 × 510 × 10–9 = 153 N C–1 15. (a) 16. (c) : Refractive index of medium is c 1 µ = ,where c = υ µ 0 k0 and ∴ υ= µ= 1 µ 0 k0 µ r k r 1 / µ 0 k0 1 / µ 0 k0 µ r k r = µ r kr Given µr = µ0 and kr = k0 then µ = µ 0 k0 17. (c) : In an electromagnetic wave both electric and magnetic vectors are perpendicular to each other as well as perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave. 18. (d) : An electromagnetic wave can be produced by accelerated or oscillating charge. In options (b) and (c), the charge is in accelerated state, hence will be a source of electromagnetic waves. 19. (c) : From a dipole antenna, the electromagnetic waves are radiated outwards. The amplitude of electric field vector E0 which transports significant energy from the source falls off intensity inversely as the distance r from the antenna 1 i.e., E0 ∝ . r 20. (a) : Compare the given equation with E = E0cos(kz – wt) We get, w = 6 × 108 s–1 6 × 108 s −1 ω = 2 m−1 Wave vector, k = = c 3 × 108 m s −1 21. (c) : Frequency of microwaves, um ≈ 1011 Hz Frequency of ultrasonic sound waves, uu ≈ 105 Hz υ m 1011 ∴ = = 106 υ u 105 22. (d) : As E = hc λ = 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 = 9.9 ×10–24 J 2 × 10 −2 = 9.9 × 10 −24 eV = 6.2 × 10 −5 eV 1.6 × 10 −19 23. (b) : Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the earth’s warmth through greenhouse effect. Incoming visible light when passes relatively easily through the atmosphere is absorbed by the earth’s surface and radiated as infrared (longer wavelength) radiation. This radiation is trapped by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and water vapour. In this way an average temperature is maintained. 11 Electromagnetic Waves 24. (d) : Velocity of electromagnetic wave 1 c= = 3 × 108 m s −1 µ0 ε0 It is independent of amplitude, frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic wave. 25. (a) : Let l be the radius of the particle then l = 3 × 10–4 × 10–2 m = 3 × 10–6 m Frequency of electromagnetic wave, υ = c 3 × 108 = = 1014 λ 3 × 10 −6 Thus to observe the particle, the frequency of wave should be more than 1014 i.e 1015 Hz or smaller value of wavelength. 26. (d) : This given frequency corresponds to the radio waves i.e short wavelength or high frequency. 27. (c) : In vacuum X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travel with same velocity, i.e., with the velocity of light c (= 3 × 108 m s–1) but have different wavelengths. 28. (d) : Given ^ E = 3.1 N C–1 cos [(1.8 radm−1 ) y + (5.4 × 108 rad s −1 ) t ] i ...(i) Camparing (i) with the equation E = E0 cos (ky + wt)...(ii) We get, k = 1.8 rad m–1, E0 = 3.1 N C–1, c = 3 × 108 m s–1, w = 5.4 × 108 rad s–1 2π 2 × 22 Now, λ = = = 3.5 m k 1.8 × 7 29. (b) : The amplitudes of electric field and magnetic field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum are related as E0 = B0c where c is the speed of light in vacuum. B0 1 ∴ = E0 c N rad rad 30. (b) : E y = 2.5 cos 2π × 106 t − π × 10 −2 C m s Ez = 0, Ex = 0 The wave is moving in the positive direction of x. This is in the form Ey = E0(wt – kx) w = 2p × 106 2pu = 2p × 106 ⇒ u = 106 Hz 2π 2π =k ⇒ = π × 10 −2 λ λ 2π ⇒ λ= = 2 × 102 = 200 m −2 π × 10 ^ 31. (c) : Here, E = 6.3 j V m−1 The magnitude of B is 6.3 V m−1 E B= = = 2.1 × 10 −8 T c 3 × 108 m s −1 x E is along y-direction and the wave propagates along x-axis. Therefore, B should be in a direction perpendicular to both x and y-axis. Using vector algebra E × B should be along x-direction. ^ ^ ^ Since ( + j ) × ( + k ) = i , B is along z-direction. ^ Thus, B = 2.1 × 10 −8 k T 32. (b) : In electromagnetic wave, electric and magnetic fields are in phase. Electromagnetic wave carry energy as they travel through space and this energy is shared equally by electric and magnetic fields. The direction of the propagation of electromagnetic wave is the direction of E × B . The pressure exerted by the wave is equal to its energy density. 33. (a) : Here, | E | = 6 V/m The magnitude of magnetic vector is |E| 6 V/ m |B| = = = 2 × 10 −8 T c 3 × 108 m/ s 34. (b) 35. (a) : In artificial satellite microwaves are used for communication. 36. (c) : Here intensity, I = = power area 100 × 2.5 2.5 = W m−2 2 4 π (3) × 100 36π Half of this intensity belongs to electric field and half of that to magnetic field. I 1 ∴ = ε0 E02 c 2 4 2.5 2× 2I 36π or E0 = = = 4.08 V m–1 1 ε0 c 8 3 10 × × 4 π × 9 × 109 ∴ B0 = E0 4.08 = 1.36 × 10–8 T = c 3 × 108 37. (d) : Given : E = 13.2 keV λ(in Å) = 12400 hc = = 0.939 Å ≈ 1 Å E (in eV) 13.2 × 103 X-rays cover wavelengths ranging from about 10 –8 m (10 nm) to 10–13 m (10–4 nm). An electromagnetic radiation of energy 13.2 keV belongs to X-ray region of electromagnetic spectrum. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 12 38. (a) : Here, B = 12 × 10–8 sin (1.20 × 107 z –3.6 × 1015 t) T Comparing it with, B = B0 sin (kz – wt), we have B0 = 12 × 10–8 T Iav = 1 B02 c 2 µ0 39. (b) : Amplitude of electric field and magnetic field are related by the relation E0 =c B0 Average energy density of the magnetic field is 1 B02 uB = 4 µ0 1 = ε0 E02 4 1 = × 8.854 × 10 −12 × (2)2 4 ∵ E B0 = 0 c 1 ∵ c= µ 0 ε0 = 8.854 × 10–12 J m–3 ≈ 8.85 × 10–12 J m–3 40. (b) : The wavelength of radiowaves being much larger than light, has a size comparable to those of buildings, hence diffract from them. 41. (b) : Electromagnetic waves propagate in the direction of E × B. 42. (a) : Photon is the fundamental particle in an electromagnetic wave. 43. (c) : Frequency u remains unchanged when a wave propagates from one medium to another. Both wavelength and velocity get changed. 44. (c) : The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are in phase and perpendicular to each other. 45. (c) : Pressure exerted by an electromagnetic radiation, I P= c 18 W/cm2 Energy flux 46. (d) : Prad = = Speed of light 3 × 108 m/s = 18 × 104 W/m2 = 6 × 10 −4 N/m2 3 × 108 m/s Vav = 1 e E2 × c 2 0 0 ⇒ E0 = 1 (12 × 10 −8 )2 × 3 × 108 = × 2 4 π × 10 −7 = 1.71 W m–2 1 E02 = 4 µ 0 c2 47. (b) : Intensity of EM wave is given by I = P 4 πR2 P 1500 = 2 2 2πR ε0 c 2 × 3.14(3) × 8.85 × 10 −12 × 3 × 108 = 10, 000 = 100 V m−1 48. (d) : Given : B = B0 sin( kx + ωt )j T The relation between electric and magnetic field is, E c = or E = cB B The electric field component is perpendicular to the direction of propagation and the direction of magnetic field. Therefore, the electric field component along z-axis is obtained as ^ E = cB0 sin (kx + wt) k V/m 49. (c) : dE dB =− dz dt dE dB = –2E0k sinkz coswt = − dz dt dB = + 2 E0k sinkz coswtdt B = +2E0k sin kz E0 ω = =c B0 k ∫ cos ωt dt = +2E0 k sinkz sinwt ω 2E 2E0 sin kz sinωt ∴ B = 0 sin kz sinωt j c c E is along y-direction and the wave propagates along x-axis. \ B should be in a direction perpendicular to both x-and y-axis. 50. (d) : Here, E = 6.3j ; c = 3 × 108 m/s B= The magnitude of B is E 6.3 Bz = = = 2.1 × 10 −8 T = 0.021 µT c 3 × 108 51. (d) : For wave to suffer diffraction, the wavelength should be of the order of size of the obstacle. The wavelength of radio waves (short radio waves) is order of the size of the building and the other obstacles coming in their path and hence they easily get diffracted. 52. (a) : In a radar, a beam signal is needed in particular direction which is possible if wavelength of wave is very small. Since the wavelength of microwaves is a few millimeter, hence they are used in radar. 53. (b) : In case of a linearly polarised plane electromagnetic wave, the average values of electric field and magnetic field are equal and average values of electric energy and magnetic energy are also equal. 13 Electromagnetic Waves 54. (a) : Light being electromagnetic wave do not require any material medium for its propagation. Hence light can travel in vacuum. On the other hand sound is a mechanical wave and requires a material medium for its propagation. Hence sound cannot travel in vacuum. 4. The small ozone layer on the top of the atmosphere is crucial for human survival because it absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiations present in sunlight and prevents it from reaching the earth’s surface. These radiations can penetrate our skin and can cause harmful diseases like skin cancer etc. 55. (b) : Microwaves are the electromagnetic waves of wavelength of the order of a few millimetres, which is less than those of T.V. signals. On account of smaller wavelength, the microwaves can be transmitted as beam signals in a particular direction and are much better than radiowaves because microwaves do not spread or bend around the corners of any obstacle coming in their way. Therefore microwaves are better carriers of signals than radiowaves. 5. Uses of microwaves : (i) In long distance communication (ii) In radar systems used in aircraft navigation 56. (d) : Velocity of light has different values in different media. It depends on the refractive index of the medium. Related by formula velocity in vacuum vmedium = refractive index of medium 7. An e.m. wave carries momentum with itself and given by Energy of wave (U ) p= Speed of the wave (c) 57. (d) : All electromagnetic waves including X-rays travels with same velocity in vacuum. The energy of X-rays is greater than energy of the light because energy is inversely proportional to wavelength (E = hc/l) and wavelength of X-rays are smaller than light waves. 9. The speed of em-waves in vacuum determined by the E electric (E0) and magnetic fields (B0) is, c = 0 . B0 58. (b) : Electromagnetic waves transport linear momentum as well as energy. When electromagnetic waves strike a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface. If the intensity of wave is I, the radiation pressure P (force per unit area) exerted on the perfectly absorbing surface is P = I/c. 59. (b) : Infrared waves are sometimes called heat waves. This is because water molecules present in most materials readily absorb infrared waves. After absorption, their thermal motion increases, that is, they heat up and heat their surroundings. 60. (c) : The earth’s atmosphere is transparent to visible light and radio waves, but absorbs X-rays. Therefore X-rays telescope cannot be used on earth surface. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. X-rays. 2. Radio waves are the electromagnetic waves of frequency ranging from 500 KHz to about 1000 MHz. These waves are produced by oscillating electric circuits having inductor and capacitor. 3. U ltraviolet radiations produced during welding are harmful to eyes. Special goggles or face masks are used to protect eyes from UV radiations. UV radiations have a range of frequency between 1014 Hz – 1016 Hz. 6. If the Earth did not have atmosphere, then there would be absence of green house effect of the atmosphere. Due to this reason, the temperature of the earth would be lower than what it is now. When it is incident upon a surface it exerts pressure on it. 8. Yes, electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum. 10. When an electromagnetic wave is propagating along the x-axis then, electric field vector oscillates in y-axis and magnetic field vector oscillates in z-axis. 11. Electromagnetic waves like other waves carry energy and momentum as they travel through empty space. If light didn’t carry energy and momentum, it wouldn’t be able to heat stuff up or generate photocurrent in photocells. 12. The electric and magnetic field vectors E and B are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave. If a plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the z-direction, then the electric field is along x-axis, and magnetic field is along y-axis. 13. In figure the velocity of propagation of e.m. wave is along X-axis v = vi and electric field E along Y-axis and magnetic field B along Z-axis. Y E X Z B 14. The speed in vacuum (i.e., c = 3 × 108 m s–1) remains same for both the given wavelengths. It is because both microwaves and UV rays are electromagnetic waves. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 14 15. Here, E = 11 eV = 11 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = hu \ υ= 11 × 1.6 × 10 −19 11 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = = 2.6 × 1015 Hz h 6.62 × 10 −34 This frequency belongs to ultraviolet region. 16. Electric field intensity on a surface due to the incident radiation is U P U E= = ∵ = P At A t As, E ∝ P (for the given area of the surface) E ′ P ′ 50 1 = = = \ E P 100 2 E E′ = 2 17. The energy density is 1 1 –8 –3 uav = ε0 E02 = × (8.85 × 10 −12 ) × (50)2 = 1.1 × 10 J m 2 2 The volume of the cylinder is V = 5 × 10–4 m3 The energy contained in cylinder is U = (1.1 × 10–8 J m–3) × (5 × 10–4 m3) = 5.5 × 10–12 J. 18. Infra red waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules. They are produced due to the de-excitation of atoms. Infrared waves incident on a substance increase the internal energy and hence the temperature of the substance. That is why they are called heat waves. Infra red radiations play an important role in maintaining the earth’s warmth or average temperature through the greenhouse effect. 19. A n oscillating or accelerated charge is supposed to be source of an electromagnetic wave. An oscillating charge produces an oscillating electric field in space which further produces an oscillating magnetic field which in turn is a source of electric field. These oscillating electric and magnetic field hence, keep on regenerating each other and an electromagnetic wave is produced. The frequency of e.m. wave = Frequency of oscillating charge. 20. (a) Gamma rays lie between 10–11 m to 10–14 m. These rays are used in radiotherapy to treat certain cancers and tumors. (b) Infrared waves lie between 10–4 m to 10–6 m. These waves are used in taking photographs during conditions of fog, smoke etc., as these waves are scattered less than visible rays. 21. (i) Microwaves are used in radar system for aircraft navigation. The frequency range is 3 × 108 Hz to 3 × 1011 Hz. (ii) X-rays are used for studying crystals structure of solids. Their frequency range is 3 × 1016 Hz to 3 × 1021 Hz. 22. Gamma rays : These rays are of nuclear origin and are produced in the disintegration of radioactive atomic nuclei and in the decay of certain subatomic particles. They are used in the treatment of cancer and tumours. Radio waves : These waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting wires or oscillating electric circuits having inductor and capacitor. These are used in satellite, radio and television communication 23. Uses Part of electromagnetic spectrum (i) In radar system Microwaves (ii) In eye surgery Ultraviolet Frequency range 3 × 108 Hz to 3 × 1011 Hz 8 × 1014 Hz to 8 × 1016 Hz 24. (i) Gamma rays has the highest frequency in the electromagnetic waves. These rays are of the nuclear origin and are produced in the disintegration of radioactive atomic nuclei and in the decay of certain subatomic particles. They are used in the treatment of cancer and tumours. (ii) Ultraviolet rays lie near the high-frequency end of visible part of e.m. spectrum. These rays are used to preserve food stuff. The harmful effect from exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can be life threatening, and include premature aging of the skin, suppression of the immune systems, damage to the eyes and skin cancer. 25. (a) Microwaves are suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation. These waves are produced by special vacuum tubes, namely klystrons, magnetrons and Gunn diodes. (b) Infra-red waves are used to treat muscular pain. These waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules. (c) X-rays are used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. These are produced when high energy electrons are stopped suddenly on a metal of high atomic number. 26. In an electromagnetic wave, both E and B fields vary sinusoidally in space and time. The average energy density u of an e.m. wave can be obtained by replacing E and B by their rms value 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 u = ε0 Erms + Brms or u = ε0 E02 + B0 2 2µ 0 4 4µ 0 E0 B0 ∵ Erms = 2 , Brms = 2 1 2 , therefore Moreover, E0 = cB0 and c = µ0 ε0 1 1 uE = ε0 E02 = ε0 ( cB0 )2 4 4 B02 1 1 2 uE = ε0 ⋅ = B0 = uB µ 0 ε0 4µ 0 4 15 Electromagnetic Waves 27. (i) Gamma rays (ii) UV rays (iii) Infra-red radiations Infra-red waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules. Infra-red waves are referred to as heat waves, because water molecules present in most materials readily absorb infra-red waves (many other molecules, for example, CO 2, NH3 also absorb infra-red waves). After absorption, their thermal motion increases, that is they heat up and heat their surroundings. 31. (a) (i) The e.m. wave propagates along z-axis. 28. (a) Descending order of wavelengths for given electromagnetic waves is: Microwaves (10–3 – 10–1) m Infra-red rays (7.5 × 10–7 – 10–3) m Ultra-violet radiation (10–9 – 4 × 10–7) m Gamma rays (< 10–12) m (b) Electromagnetic waves or photons transport energy and momentum. When an electromagnetic wave interacts with a small particle, it can exchange energy and momentum with the particle. The force exerted on the particle is equal to the momentum transferred per unit time. Optical tweezers use this force to provide a non-invasive technique for manipulating microscopic-sized particles with light. (b) Microwaves : Frequency range → 3 × 108 Hz –3 × 1011 Hz. These are suitable for the radar system, used in aircraft navigation. Gamma rays : Frequency range → > 3 × 1021 Hz. These wave are used for the treatment of cancer cells. 32. (a) Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. An electric charge, on the plane will be set in motion by the electric and magnetic fields of e.m. wave, incident on this plane. This illustrates that e.m. waves carry energy and momentum. (b) Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tube like the klystron, magnetron and Gunn diode. The frequency of microwaves is selected to match the resonant frequency of water molecules, so that energy is transformed efficiently to the kinetic energy of the molecules. (c) Uses of infra-red waves : (i) They are used in night vision devices during warfare. This is because they can pass through haze, fog and mist. (ii) Infra-red waves are used in remote switches of household electrical appliances. 29. (a) The earth’s atmosphere is transparent to visible light and radiowaves but it absorbs X-rays. X-ray astronomy is possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. These satellites orbit at a height of 36,000 km, where the atmosphere is very thin and X-rays are not absorbed. (b) Ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun and prevents it from reaching the earth and causing damage to life. 30. (a) The waves is propagating along negative y-direction of its direction is – j . (b) Comparing the given equation with the standard equation. y E = E0 cos 2π + νt λ We get, \ 2π = 1.8 λ Wavelength, λ = 2π 2 × 3.14 × = 3.5 m. 1.8 1.8 (c) Also, 2pn = 5.4 × 106 ∴ ν= 5.4 × 106 5.4 × 108 = = 85.9 × 106 Hz. 2π 2 × 3.14 86 MHz x E E0 z B0 y B (ii) The speed of em-waves in vacuum determined by the E electric (E0) and magnetic fields (B0) is, c = 0 B0 33. In microwave oven, the frequency of the microwaves is selected to match the resonant frequency of water molecules so that energy from the waves get transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of the molecules. This kinetic energy raises the temperature of any food containing water. Microwaves are short wavelength radio waves, with frequency of order of GHz. Due to short wavelength, they have high penetrating power with respect to atmosphere and less diffraction in the atmospheric layers. So these waves are suitable for the radar systems used in aircraft navigation. 33. (a) Intensity equals power per unit area carried by the wave. P ⇒ Power per unit area = 2 πr 4W = 3.14 × (0.2 × 10 −3 m)2 = 32 × 106 W/m2 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 16 (b) Intensity = E02 ⇒ Emax = E0 = 2µ 0 c Total energy density of wave, (2µ 0 c)( I ) = = (8π × 10 −7 )(3 × 108 )(32 × 106 ) SI units = 1.6 × 105 V/m (c) Bmax = B0 = (d) DP = Now, Now (uE)av = E0 1.6 × 105 V/m = = 5.3 × 10–4 T 8 c 3 × 10 m/s 2U where DP is the momentum delivered on the c sphere. ∆P U 1 F= = 2 . ∆t c ∆t 1 1 B2 ε0E 2 + 2 2 µ0 ε0 = 2T = T ∫0 E 0 sin (kx − ωt )dt Similarly, (uB)av = \ 2Iπr 2 ⇒ m= gc W 2 3.2 × 107 2 (3.14 × 1 × 10 −10 m2 ) m 108 m/s) = 6.8 × 10–12 kg. 35. (a) Energy density of electric field E is 1 uE = ε0 E 2 2 Energy density due to magnetic field B is, uB = 1 B2 2 µ0 2 T 2 ∫ sin (kx − ωt )dt = T / 2 0 2. I . πr 2 U = I.A = I(pr2) ⇒ F = c ∆t (9.8 m/s2 )(3 2 ε0 2 T 1 2 E 0 × = ε0E 0 2T 2 4 Now the force F must support the sphere mass mg. = 1 T 1 T1 u εdt = ∫ ε0E 2 ∫ T 0 T 02 uav = 1 1 B02 ε0E 02 + 4 4 µ0 (b) E = c B0 \ 1 B02 4 µ0 and c= 1 µ0 ε0 1 B02 1 E 02 / c 2 E 02 1 = = × µ0 ε0 = ε0 E 02 4 4 µ0 4 µ0 4 µ0 1 1 B02 1 1 ε0 E 02 + = ε0E 02 + ε0E 02 4 4 µ0 4 4 1 1 B02 = ε0E 02 = 2 2 µ0 Time averaged intensity 1 Iav = uavc = c ε0 E 02 2 uav = CHAPTER 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Recap Notes Optics : It is the branch of physics which deals with the study of light and the phenomena associated with it. It is divided into two branches : – Geometrical optics or ray optics – Physical optics or wave optics Refraction of light : When a ray of light passes from one medium to another, in which it has a different velocity, there occurs a change in the direction of propagation of light except when it strikes the surface of separation of two media normally. This bending of a ray of light is known as refraction. X The angles made by the incident ray and the refracted ray with the normal to the separating surface at the point of incidence are known as the angle of incidence and of refraction respectively. X Laws of refraction : The two laws of refraction are as follows : – The incident ray, the normal and the refracted ray all lie in the same plane. – The ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction for any two media is constant for a light of definite colour. This constant is denoted by 1m2 or m21 called the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first, the subscripts 1 and 2 indicating that the light passes from medium 1 to medium 2. sin i 1 = µ2 sin r This is also known as Snell’s law. where i = angle of incidence, r = angle of refraction. X Absolute refractive index : Refractive index of a medium with respect to vacuum (or in practice, air) is known as absolute refractive index of the medium. µ= c speed of light in vacuum = v speed of light in medium General expression for Snell’s law c v v µ 1 µ2 = 2 = 2 = 1 µ1 c v2 v 1 where c is the speed of light in air, v1 and v2 be the speeds of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. According to Snell’s law, 1 X X µ2 = sin i µ2 sin i ; = sin r µ1 sin r or m1 sin i = m2 sin r When a light ray passes from a rarer to denser medium (m2 > m1), it will bend towards the normal as shown in the figure. When a light ray passes from a denser medium to rarer medium (m1 > m2) it will bend away from the normal as shown in the figure. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 18 X If a light ray passes through a number of parallel media and if the first and the last media are same. The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray as shown in figure. 1 µ2 = sin r1 sin r2 sin i1 2 and 3µ1 = µ = sin i1 sin r1 , 3 sin r2 Hence, 1 X µ2 × 2 µ3 × 3µ1 = sin i1 sin r1 sin r2 × × =1 sin r1 sin r2 sin i1 Lateral shift : When the medium is same on both sides of a glass slab, then the deviation of the emergent ray is zero. That is the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but it does suffer lateral displacement/shift with respect to the incident ray and is given by Lateral shift, d = t – If a beaker is filled with water and a point lying at its bottom is observed by someone located in air, then the bottom point appears raised. The apparent depth is less than the real depth. It can be shown that real depth apparent depth = refractive index (µ) If there is an ink spot at the bottom of a glass slab, it appears to be raised by a distance t 1 d = t − = t 1 − µ µ where t is the thickness of the glass slab and m is its refractive index. – If a beaker is filled with immiscible transparent liquids of refractive indices m1, m2, m3 and individual depths d1, d2, d3 respectively, then the apparent depth of d d d the beaker is = 1 + 2 + 3 µ1 µ2 µ3 Total internal reflection It is a phenomenon of reflection of light into denser medium from the boundary of denser medium and rarer medium. Two essential conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflection are : X Light should travel from a denser to a rarer medium. X Angle of incidence in denser medium should be greater than the critical angle for the pair of media in contact. sin (i − r ) cos r where t is the thickness of the slab. X X Real depth and apparent depth : When one looks into a pool of water, it does not appear to be as deep as it really is. Also when one looks into a slab of glass, the material does not appear to be as thick as it really is. This all happens due to refraction of light. Critical angle : It is that angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction 1 becomes 90°. It is given by sin iC = R µD If the rarer medium is air or vacuum, 1 then sin iC = . Critical angle for red light µ is more than that for blue light. 19 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments X X X Critical angle depends on – nature of medium – wavelength of light A diver in water at a depth d sees the world outside through a horizontal circle d of radius r = d tan iC = 2 µ −1 Applications of total internal reflection – The brilliance of diamond is due to the phenomenon of total internal reflection. – Mirages in deserts are also due to total internal reflection. – The working of optical fibre is based on the phenomenon of total internal reflection. Refraction from a spherical surface The portion of a refracting medium, whose curved surface forms the part of a sphere, is known as spherical refracting surface. Sign conventions for spherical refracting surface are the same as those for spherical mirrors. X Spherical refracting surfaces are of two types : – Convex refracting spherical surface – Concave refracting spherical surface X When the object is situated in rarer medium, the relation between m1 (refractive index of rarer medium), m2 (refractive index of the spherical refracting surface) and R (radius of curvature) with the object and image distances is given by − X When the object is situated in denser medium, the relation between m1, m2, R, u and v can be obtained by interchanging m1 and m2. In that case, the relation becomes − X µ1 µ2 µ2 − µ1 + = u v R µ − µ1 µ2 µ1 µ1 − µ2 µ µ + = or − 1 + 2 = 2 u v R v u R These formulae are valid for both convex and concave spherical surfaces. Lens : A lens is a portion of a transparent refracting medium bound by two spherical surfaces or one spherical surface and the other plane surface. Lenses are divided into two classes : X Convex lens or converging lens : When a lens is thicker in the middle than at the edges, it is known as convex lens or converging lens. These are of three types : – Double convex lens or biconvex lens – Plano convex lens – Concavo convex lens X Concave lens or diverging lens : When the lens is thicker at the edges than in the middle it is known as concave lens or diverging lens. These are of three types : – Double concave lens or biconcave lens – Plano concave lens – Convexo concave lens X Sign Conventions : The sign conventions for thin lenses are the same as those of spherical mirrors except that instead of the pole of the mirror, we now use optical centre of a lens. Lens maker’s formula 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − f R R 1 2 X where R1 and R2 are radii of curvature of the two surfaces of the lens and m is refractive index of material of lens w.r.t. medium in which lens is placed. This formula is valid for thin lenses. It is valid for both convex and concave lenses. As per sign convention, for a convex lens, R1 is positive and R2 is negative and for a concave lens, R1 is negative and R2 is positive. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 20 X X When the refractive index of the material of the lens is greater than that of the surroundings, then biconvex lens acts as a converging lens and a biconcave lens acts as a diverging lens as shown in the figure : When the refractive index of the material of the lens is smaller than that of the surrounding medium, then biconvex lens acts as a diverging lens and a biconcave lens acts as a converging lens as shown in the figure. – For a convex lens, P is positive. – For a concave lens, P is negative. When focal length (f) of lens is in cm, then 100 P= dioptre f (in cm) X X Combination of thin lenses in contact: When a number of thin lenses of focal length f1, f2, ...etc., are placed in contact coaxially, the equivalent focal length F of the combination is given by 1 1 1 1 = + + + .... F f1 f2 f3 The total power of the combination is given by P = P1 + P2 + P3 + ... When two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are placed coaxially and separated by a distance d, the focal length of a combination is given by 1 1 1 d = + − F f1 f2 f1 f2 In terms of power P = P1 + P2 – dP1P2. X X X Thin lens formula 1 1 1 − = v u f where u = distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens v = distance of the image from the optical centre of the lens f = focal length of a lens f is positive for converging or convex lens and f is negative for diverging or concave lens. Linear magnification size of image (I ) v m= = size of object (O) u where m is positive for erect image and m is negative for inverted image. Power of a lens P= 1 focal length in metres – The SI unit of power of lens is dioptre (D). – 1 D = 1 m–1 Refraction through a prism X Prism : It is a homogeneous, transparent medium enclosed by two plane surfaces inclined at an angle. These surfaces are called the refracting surfaces and angle between them is known as the refracting angle or the angle of prism. The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is known as the angle of deviation. X For refraction through a prism it is found that d = i + e – A where A = r1 + r2 When A and i are small d = (m – 1) A In a position of minimum deviation d = dm, i = e and r1 = r2 = r A + δm A ∴ i = and r = 2 2 21 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments X The refractive index of the material of the prism is ( A + δm ) sin 2 µ= A sin 2 This is known as prism formula where A is the angle of prism and dm is the angle of minimum deviation. – When the final image is formed at infinity (normal adjustment), Optical Instruments X Simple microscope : It is also known as magnifying glass or simple magnifier. It consists of a convergent lens with object between its focus and optical centre and eye close to it. The image formed by it is erect, virtual, enlarged and on same side of lens between object and infinity. M= vo D uo fe Length of tube, L = vo + fe – When the final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision, M= vo uo D 1 + f e here uo and vo represent the distance w of object and image from the objective lens, fe is the focal length of an eye lens. f D Length of the tube, L = vo + e fe + D – When the image is formed at infinity (far point), M= D f – When the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision D (near point), D M =1+ f X Astronomical telescope (refracting type) It consists of two converging lenses. The one facing the object is known as objective or field lens and has large focal length and aperture while the other facing the eye is known as eye-piece or ocular and has small focal length and aperture. – Magnifying power M= = X angle subtended by image at the eye angle subtended by thee object at the eye tan β β = tan α α where both the object and image are situated at the least distance of distinct vision. Compound microscope : It consists of two convergent lenses of short focal lengths and apertures arranged co-axially. Lens (of focal length fo) facing the object is known as objective or field lens while the lens (of focal length fe) facing the eye, is known as eye-piece or ocular. The objective has a smaller aperture and smaller focal length than eye-piece. Magnifying power of a compound microscope M = mo × me – When the final image is formed at infinity (normal adjustment), f M= o fe Length of tube, L = fo + fe – When the final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision, M= fo f 1 + e fe D Length of tube, L = fo + fe D fe + D Practice Time OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. From a point source, a light falls on a spherical glass surface (m = 1.5 and radius of curvature = 10 cm). The distance between point source and glass surface is 50 cm. The position of image is (a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 150 cm 2. A screen is placed 90 cm away from an object. The image of the object on the screen is formed by a convex lens at two different locations separated by 20 cm. Find the focal length of lens. (a) 42.8 cm (b) 21.4 cm (c) 10.7 cm (d) 5.5 cm 3. A convergent beam of light passes through a diverging lens of focal length 0.2 m and comes to focus 0.3 m behind the lens. The position of the point at which the beam would converge in the absence of the lens is (a) 0.12 m (b) 0.6 m (c) 0.3 m (d) 0.15 m 4. The focal length of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of the telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is (a) 45 cm (b) 55 cm 325 275 cm cm (c) (d) 6 6 5. Two lenses of power +10 D and –5 D are placed in contact. Where should an object be held from the lens, so as to obtain a virtual image of magnification 2? (a) 5 cm (b) –5 m (c) 10 cm (d) –10 cm 6. (a) (b) (c) (d) Mirage is a phenomenon due to refraction of light total internal reflection of light diffraction of light none of these. 7. A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times the radius of curvature of either surface. The refractive index of the lens material is (a) 1.75 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.5 (d) 1.0 8. An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed 5 m s–1 and stops at the focus. The image (a) moves away from the lens with an uniform speed 5 m s–1. (b) moves away from the lens with an uniform acceleration. (c) moves away from the lens with a nonuniform acceleration. (d) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration. 9. A convex lens of focal length 0.2 m and made of glass (amg = 1.5) is immersed in water (amw = 1.33). Find the change in the focal length of the lens. (a) 5.8 m (b) 0.58 cm (c) 0.58 m (d) 5.8 cm 10. A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 144 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.0 cm. What is the separation between the objective and the eyepiece? (a) 0.75 m (b) 1.38 m (c) 1.0 m (d) 1.5 m 11. The far point of a near sighted person is 6.0 m from her eyes, and she wears contacts that enable her to see distant objects clearly. A tree is 18.0 m away and 2.0 m high. How high is the image formed by the contacts? (a) 1.0 m (b) 1.5 m (c) 0.75 m (d) 0.50 m 12. A ray of light is incident on a thick slab of glass of thickness t as shown in the figure. The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray but 23 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments displaced sideways by a distance d. If the angles are small then d is, i (a) t 1 − r r (c) it 1 − i (b) rt 1 − i r r (d) t 1 − i 13. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque screen, (a) half the image will disappear (b) complete image will disappear (c) intensity of image will decreases (d) intensity of image will increases. 14. A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth of a needle lying at the bottom of the tank is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. If water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 upto the same height, by what distance would the microscope have to be moved to focus on the needle again? (a) 1.00 cm (b) 2.37 cm (c) 1.73 cm (d) 3.93 cm 15. A mark placed on the surface of a sphere is viewed through glass from a position directly opposite. If the diameter of the sphere is 10 cm and refractive index of glass is 1.5. The position of the image will be (a) –20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 40 cm (d) – 10 cm 16. Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and –40 cm are held in contact. The image of an object at infinity will be formed by the combination at (a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 40 cm (d) infinity 17. The final image in an astronomical telescope with respect to an object is (a) virtual and erect (b) real and erect (c) real and inverted (d) virtual and inverted 18. An object is placed at a distance of 1.5 m from a screen and a convex lens is interposed between them. The magnification produced is 4. The focal length of the lens is (a) 1 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 0.24 m (d) 2 m 19. The image of the needle placed 45 cm from a lens is formed on a screen placed 90 cm on the other side of the lens. The displacement of the image, if the needle is moved by 5.0 cm away from the lens is (a) 10 cm, towards the lens (b) 15 cm, away from the lens (c) 15 cm, towards the lens (d) 10 cm, away from the lens 20. A real image of a distant object is formed by a planoconvex lens on its principal axis. Spherical aberration is (a) absent. (b) smaller, if the curved surfaces of the lens face the object. (c) smaller, if the plane surface of the lens faces the object. (d) same, whichever side of the lens faces the object. 21. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will (a) become zero (b) become infinite (c) become small, but non-zero (d) remain unchanged 22. A concave mirror of focal length f1 is placed at a distance d from a convex lens of focal length f 2 . A beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens – concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance d must equal (a) f1 + f2 (b) –f1 + f2 (c) 2f1 + f2 (d) –2f1 + f2 23. A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of 60° enters a glass sphere of refractive index 3 and is reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle between the reflected and refracted rays at this surface is (a) 50° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 40° 24. For a glass prism (µ = 3 ) the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. The angle of the prism is (a) 45° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 60° CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 24 25. Light travels in two media A and B with speeds 1.8 × 10 8 m s –1 and 2.4 × 10 8 m s –1 respectively. Then the critical angle between them is −1 2 −1 3 (a) sin (b) tan 3 4 (c) tan −1 2 3 (d) sin −1 3 4 3 26. Two identical glass µ g = equiconvex 2 lenses of focal length f are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water 4 µ w = . The focal length of the combination is 3 3f f 4f (a) f (b) (c) (d) 4 2 3 27. A point source of light is placed at a depth of h below the surface of water of refractive index m. A floating opaque disc is placed on the surface of water so that light from the source is not visible from the surface. The minimum diameter of the disc is (a) (c) 2h 2 (µ − 1)1 / 2 h 2(µ 2 − 1)1 / 2 (b) 2h(m2 – 1)1/2 (d) h(m2 – 1)1/2 28. Critical angle for light going from medium (i) to (ii) is q. The speed of light in medium (i) is v, then the speed of light in medium (ii) is v (a) v(1 – cosq) (b) sin θ v v (c) (d) cosθ (1 − sin θ) 31. Double convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, with both faces of same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if the focal length is to be 20 cm? (a) 11 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 6 cm 32. A small angle prism (m = 1.62) gives a deviation of 4.8°. The angle of prism is (a) 5° (b) 6.36° (c) 3° (d) 7.74° 33. The optical density of turpentine is higher than that of water while its mass density is lower. Figure shows a layer of turpentine floating over water in a container. For which one of the four rays incident on turpentine in figure, the path shown is correct? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 34. The power of a biconvex lens is 10 dioptre and the radius of curvature of each surface is 10 cm. Then the refractive index of the material of the lens is 4 5 3 9 (a) (b) (c) (d) 3 3 2 8 35. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index m1 and the other half is filled with water of refractive index m2. The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from above is x µ1µ 2 x(µ1 + µ 2 ) (a) (b) 2(µ1 + µ 2 ) 2µ1µ 2 (c) x µ1µ 2 (µ1 + µ 2 ) (d) 2 x(µ1 + µ 2 ) µ1µ 2 29. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism (refractive index 1.5) such that angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence and the latter is equal to 3/4th of the angle of prism. The angle of deviation is (a) 60° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 120° 36. There are certain material developed in laboratories which have a negative refractive index. A ray incident from air (medium 1) into such a medium (medium 2) shall follow a path given by 30. A concave lens is placed in contact with a convex lens of focal length 25 cm. The combination produces a real image at a distance of 80 cm, If an object is at a distance of 40 cm, the focal length of concave lens is (a) – 400 cm (b) – 200 cm (c) + 400 cm (d) + 200 cm (a) (b) (c) (d) 25 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 37. A point luminous object (O) is at a distance h from front face of a glass slab of width d and of refractive index m. On the back face of the slab is a reflecting plane mirror. An observer sees the image of object in mirror [figure]. Distance of image from front face as seen by observer will be Observer O h d 2d (a) h + µ (b) 2h + 2d (c) h + d (d) h + d µ 38. You are given four sources of light each one providing a light of a single colour – red, blue, green and yellow. Suppose the angle of refraction for a beam of yellow light corresponding to a particular angle of incidence at the interface of two media is 90°. Which of the following statements is correct, if the source of yellow light is replaced with that of other lights without changing the angle of incidence? (a) The beam of red light would undergo total internal reflection. (b) The beam of red light would bend towards normal while it gets refracted through the second medium. (c) The beam of blue light would undergo total internal reflection. (d) The beam of green light would bend away from the normal as it gets refracted through the second medium. 39. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Then (a) the magnification is 1000. (b) the length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m (c) the image formed is inverted (d) all of these. 40. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens with focal length 1.0 cm and eye piece of focal length 2.0 cm and a tube length 20 cm the magnification will be (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 300 Case Based MCQs Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 41 to 45. Refraction Through Lens A convex or converging lens is thicker at the centre than at the edges. It converges a parallel beam of light on refraction through it. It has a real focus. Convex lens is of three types : (i) Double convex lens (ii) Plano-convex lens (iii) Concavo-convex lens. Concave lens is thinner at the centre than at the edges. It diverges a parallel beam of light on refraction through it. It has a virtual focus. 41. A point object O is placed at a distance of 0.3 m from a convex lens (focal length 0.2 m) cut into two halves each of which is displaced by 0.0005 m as shown in figure. What will be the location of the image? (a) 30 cm right of lens (b) 60 cm right of lens (c) 70 cm left of lens (d) 40 cm left of lens 42. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20 cm, the focal length of the other would be. (a) –26.7 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 80 cm (d) 20 cm 43. A spherical air bubble is embedded in a piece of glass. For a ray of light passing through the bubble, it behaves like a (a) converging lens (b) diverging lens (c) plano-converging lens (d) plano-diverging lens 44. (a) (b) (c) (d) Lens used in magnifying glass is Concave lens Convex lens Both (a) and (b) Neither concave lens nor convex lens CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 26 45. The magnification of an image by a convex lens is positive only when the object is placed (a) at its focus F (b) between F and 2F (c) at 2F (d) between F and optical centre Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 46 to 49. Compound Microscope A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified images of tiny objects. Magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both the final image and the object are situated at the least distance of distinct vision from the eye. It can be given that : m = me × mo, where me is magnification produced by eye lens and mo is magnification produced by objective lens. Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. 46. The object distance for eye-piece, so that final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, will be (a) 3.45 cm (c) –1.29 cm (b) –5 cm (d) 2.59 cm 47. How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain the condition described in Q.No. 46? (a) 4.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 1.5 cm (d) 3.0 cm 48. The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is (a) real, inverted and magnified (b) real, erect, and magnified (c) virtual, erect and magnified (d) virtual, inverted and magnified. 49. The magnifying power of a compound microscope increases when (a) the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased. (b) the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased. (c) focal lengths of both objective and eye-piece are increased. (d) focal lengths of both objective and eye-piece are decreased. Assertion & Reasoning Based MCQs For question numbers 50-55, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 50. Assertion (A) : Higher is the refractive index of a medium or denser the medium, lesser is the velocity of light in that medium. Reason (R) : Refractive index is inversely proportional to velocity. 51. Assertion (A) : Convergent lens property of converging remains same in all media. Reason (R) : Property of lens whether the ray is diverging or converging is independent of the surrounding medium. 52. Assertion (A) : Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs. Reason (R) : Optical fibres are based on phenomena of total internal reflection. 53. Assertion(A):Ifopticaldensityofasubstance is more than that of water, then the mass density of substance can be less than water. Reason (R) : Optical density and mass density are not related. 54. Assertion (A) : Microscope magnifies the image. Reason (R) : Angular magnification for image is more than object in microscope. 55. Assertion (A) : A double convex lens (m = 1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in water (m = 4/3) its focal length becomes 40 cm. 1 µ g − µm 1 1 Reason (R) : = − f µ m R1 R2 27 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. When a monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its wavelength changes but frequency remains the same. Explain. 2. When red light passing through a convex lens is replaced by light of blue colour, how will the focal length of the lens change? 3. Under what condition does a biconvex lens of glass having a certain refractive index act as a plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid? 4. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary, if the incident violet light is replaced by red light? 5. A compound microscope is used because a realistic simple microscope does not have magnification. 6. Two thin lenses of power –4 D and 2 D are placed in contact coaxially. Find the focal length of the combination. 7. For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which media would the velocity of light be minimum? 8. A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging or a diverging lens? Give reason. 9. An optical instrument uses an objective lens of power 100 D and an eyepiece of power 40 D. The final image is formed at infinity when the tube length of the instrument is kept at 20 cm. Identify the optical instrument. 10. What is the angle of incidence for maximum deviation through a prism? Short Answer Type Questions (SA-I) 11. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre C as shown in the figure. The ray emerges from the sphere parallel to the line AB. Find the angle of refraction at A if refractive index of the material of the sphere is 3 . Air Air B A 60° C 12. A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens? 13. When a ray passes a glass slab of thickness t at an angle i with an angle of refraction r, what is the lateral shift of the emergent ray? 15. Draw the image, when an object is kept beyond the focal point of a convex lens. 16. Draw the image, when an object is placed between the focus and pole of a convex lens. 17. A thin prism of angle A = 6°° produces a deviation d = 3°°. Find the refractive index of the material of prism. 18. A parallel beam of light is incident on a thin lens as shown. The radius of curvature of both surfaces is R. Determine the focal length of this system. 2 1 3 i 1 r 2 1 14. Calculate the focal length of a biconvex lens if the radii of its surfaces are 60 cm and 15 cm, and index of refraction of the lens glass = 1.5. r i R t R 19. A point object O is kept in air as shown. The radius of the curved part is 20 cm and medium on the other side is of refractive index 1.33. Find the image distance. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 28 A fish in the tank is rising upward along the same line with speed 8 cm/s. [Take : mwater = 4/3] Find : (i) speed of the image of fish as seen by the bird directly 20. A bird in air is diving vertically over a tank with speed 9 cm/s. Base of the tank is silvered. (ii) speed of image of bird relative to the fish looking upwards. Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 21. A coin 2 cm in diameter is embedded in a solid glass ball of radius 30 cm. The index of refraction of the ball is 1.5, and the coin is 20 cm from the surface. Find the position and height of the image of the coin. 22. What is the difference in the construction of an astronomical telescope and a compound microscope? The focal lengths of the objective and eyepiece of a compound microscope are 1.25 cm and 5.0 cm, respectively. Find the position of the object relative to the objective in order to obtain an angular magnification of 30 when the final image is formed at the near point. 23. Define power of a lens. Write its units. 1 1 1 Deduce the relation = + for two thin f f1 f2 lenses kept in contact coaxially. 24. (a) State the necessary conditions for producing total internal reflection of light. (b) Draw ray diagrams to show how specially designed prisms make use of total internal reflection to obtain inverted image of the object by deviating rays (i) through 90°° and (ii) through 180°. 25. Which two of the following lenses L1, L2, and L3 will you select as objective and eyepiece for constructing best possible (i) telescope (ii) microscope? Give reason to support your answer. Lens Power (P) Aperture (A) L1 6D 1 cm L2 3D 8 cm L3 10 D 1 cm 26. A small bulb (assumed to be a point source) is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80 cm. Find out the area of the surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge. Take the value of the refractive index of water to be 4/3. 27. (a) Obtain relation between the critical angle of incidence and the refractive index of the medium. (b) Explain briefly how the phenomenon of total internal reflection is used in fibre optics. 28. Three rays of light red (R), green (G) and blue (B) fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles right angled prism as shown. The refractive index of prism for these rays is 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. Find which of these rays get internally reflected and which get only refracted from AC. Trace the paths of rays. Justify your answer with the help of necessary calculations. 29. (a) A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm. Find the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing distant objects when (i) the telescope is in normal adjustment, (ii) the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision. (b) Also find the separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece in normal adjustment. 29 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 30. Find the equivalent focal length of the combination of lens. R air R R w R g g air 32. A sphere of radius R is made of material of refractive index m2. Where would an object be placed so that a real image is formed at equidistant from the sphere? m1 glass glass O water 31. An isosceles prism has one of the refracting surface silvered. A ray of light is incident normally on the refracting face AB. After two reflections the ray emerges from the base of the prism perpendicular to it. Find the angle of the prism. m2 R m2 I 33. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a combination of two thin convex lenses in contact. Obtain the expression for the power of this combination. Long Answer Type Questions (LA) 34. (a) A point object is placed in front of a double convex lens (of refractive index n = n2/n1 with respect to air) with its spherical faces of radii of curvature R 1 and R 2 . Show the path of rays due to refraction at first and subsequently at the second surface to obtain the formation of the real image of the object. Hence obtain the lens-maker’s formula for a thin lens. (b) A double convex lens having both faces of the same radius of curvature has refractive index 1.55. Find out the radius of curvature of the lens required to get the focal length of 30 cm. OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 − = v u R Here, m1 = 1, m2 = 1.5, u = – 50 cm, R = 10 cm 1.5 1 (1.5 − 1) ∴ − = v ( −50) 10 1. (b) : Using, 1.5 = 0.05 − 0.02 = 0.03 ⇒ v = 50 cm v 2. (b) : The image of the object can be located on the screen for two positions of convex lens such that u and v are exchanged. The separation between two positions of the lens is d = 20 cm or 35. (a) Plot a graph for angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence for a triangular prism. (b) Deduce the expression for the refractive index of glass in terms of angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation. 36. (a) Define magnifying power of a telescope. Write its expression. (b) A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5 cm. If this telescope is used to view a 100 m high tower 3 km away, find the height of the final image when it is formed 25 cm away from the eye piece. From the figure, u1 + v1 = 90 cm v1 – u1 = 20 cm On solving, v1 = 55 cm, u1 = 35 cm From lens formula, 1 1 1 − = v u f 1 1 1 1 1 1 = or + = − 55 −35 f 55 35 f ⇒ f= 55 × 35 = 21.4 cm 90 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 30 3. (a) : Here, f = – 0.2 m, v = +0.3 m The lens formula, 1 1 1 ∴ 1 = 1 − 1 = 1 + 1 = 0.5 − = u v f 0.3 0.2 0.06 v u f 0.06 \ u= = 0.12 m 0.5 4. (d) : Here, fo = 50 cm, fe = 5 cm, D = 25 cm The length of the telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is fD 5 × 25 25 325 = 50 + = 50 + = cm L = fo + e fe + D 5 + 25 6 6 5. (d) : Here, P1 = 10 D and P2 = –5 D Therefore, power of the combined lens is P = P1 + P2 = + 10 + (–5) = + 5 D f Now, magnification, m = u +f 1 1 Here, m = 2 and f = = = 0.2 m = 20 cm P 5 20 ∴ 2= ⇒ u + 20 = 10 u + 20 ⇒ u = –10 cm 6. (b) : Mirage is phenomenon due to total internal reflection of light. Now, 10. (d) : The separation between the objective and the eye piece = Length of the telescope tube i.e. f = fo + fe Here, fo = 144 cm = 1.44 m fe = 6.0 cm = 0.06 m \ f = 1.44 + 0.06 = 1.5 m 11. (d) : The far point of 6.0 m tell us that the focal length of the lens is f = –6.0 m, u = – 18 m and h = 2 m 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Using, = − ⇒ = + = − f v u v f u −6.0 18.0 ⇒ v = – 4.5 m −v −4.5 \ The image size, h ’ = h = 2 × − = 0.50 m u 18.0 12. (c) : From figure, in right angled DCDB, ∠CBD = (i – r) CD d = BC BC d = BC sin(i – r) ...(i) ∴ sin(i − r ) = 1 1 1 9. (c) : Using = (a µg ) − fa R1 R2 a Here, fa = 0.2 m, mg = 1.50 1 1 1 1 1 ∴ = (1.50 − 1) − = 0.50 − 0.2 R1 R2 R1 R2 1 1 ⇒ − = 10 R1 R2 \ Consider fw be the focal length of the lens, when immersed in water. If wmg be refractive index of glass w.r.t. water, then a µg 1.50 w µg = a = = 1.128 µw 1.33 fw = = 0.78 – 0.2 = 0.58 m or (a) : ( w µg − 1) R11 − R12 = (1.128 − 1) × 10 = 1.28 1 = 0.78 1.28 Hence, change in focal length of the lens, fw – fa or 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − f R1 R2 2 Here, f = R , R1 = +R , R2 = −R 3 1 1 1 (µ − 1) × 2 ∴ = (µ − 1) + = R R (2 / 3)R R 3 µ − 1 = = 0.75 ⇒ m = 1.75 4 8. (c) : When an object moving towards a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed of 5 m s–1, the image moves away from the lens with a non uniform acceleration. 7. 1 = fw Also, in right angled DCNB BN t = BC BC t or BC = ...(ii) cos r Substitute equation (ii) in equation (i), we get t d= sin(i − r ) cos r cosr = For small angles sin(i – r) ≈ i – r; cosr ≈ 1 r d = t(i – r), d = it 1 − i 13. (c) : Image formed is complete but has decreased intensity. 14. (c) : Actual depth of the needle in water, h1 = 12.5 cm Apparent depth of needle in water, h2 = 9.4 cm h 12.5 ∴ µ water = 1 = = 1.33 h2 9.4 Hence, mwater = 1.33 When water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index m′ = 1.63, the actual depth remains the same, but its apparent depth changes. Let H be the new apparent depth of the needle. 31 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments h1 h 12.5 or H = 1 = = 7.67 cm H µ' 1.63 Here, H is less than h2. Thus to focus the needle again, the microscope should be moved up. Distance by which the microscope should be moved up = 9.4 – 7.67 = 1.73 cm ∴ µ’ = 15. (a) : As refraction occurs from denser to rarer medium µ2 µ1 µ1 − µ2 ∴ + = −u v R Here, m1 = 1, m2 = 1.5, R = 5 cm, u = – 10 cm 1 1 3 −1 1.5 1 1− 1.5 1 = or = − = or v = –20 cm + = 10 v v 10 20 20 −5 10 16. (c) : Equivalent focal length, Here, f1 = 20 cm and f2 = –40 cm 1 1 1 = + f f1 f2 1 1 1 2 −1 , f = 40 cm = − = f 20 40 40 1 1 1 From lens formuls, = − f v u Here, f = 40 cm, u = ∞ 1 1 1 ∴ = − ⇒ v = f = 40 cm f v ∞ 17. (d) : The final image in an astronomical telescope with respect an object is virtual and inverted. v −v 18. (c) : Here, m = = −4 or u = u 4 Also, |u| + |v| = 1.5 v −1.2 + v = 1.5 or v = 1.2 m and u = = −0.3 m 4 4 uv −0.3 × 1.2 ∴ f= = = 0.24 m u − v −0.3 − 1.2 19. (c) : Here, u = – 45 cm, v = 90 cm 1 1 1 1 1 1 \ ⇒ f = 30 cm = − = + = f v u 90 45 30 When the needle is moved 5 cm away from the lens, u = –(45 + 5) = – 50 cm 1 1 1 1 1 2 \ = + = + = v ′ f u ′ 30 −50 150 or v′ = 75 cm \ Displacement of image = v – v′ = 90 – 75 = 15 cm, towards the lens. 22. (c) : \ d = 2f1 + f2 23. (c) : Refraction at P, sin 60° = 3 sin r1 1 sinr1 = 2 or r1 = 30° Since, r2 = r1 \ r2 = 30° sin r2 sin 30° 1 1 or = = Refraction at Q, or i2 = 60° sin i2 sin i2 3 3 At point Q, r2′ = r2 = 30° ∴ α = 180° − (r2′ + i2 ) = 180° – (30° + 60°) = 90° A + δm sin 2 24. (d) : Using, µ = A sin 2 According to question, dm = A A+A sin 2 (Given, µ = 3 ) 3= ∴ A sin 2 A A 2 sin cos sin A 2 2 3= = A A sin sin 2 2 A 3 A or cos = = cos 30° ⇒ = 30° or A = 60° 2 2 2 20. (b) : When the curved surface of the lens faces the object, the spherical aberration is smaller. The total deviation is shared between the curved and the plane surfaces. 25. (d) : Here, vA = 1.8 × 108 m s–1, vB = 2.4 × 108 m s–1 Light travels slower in denser medium. Hence medium A is a denser medium and medium B is a rarer medium. Here, light travels from medium A to medium B. Let C be the critical angle between them. 1 ∴ sinC = A µB = B µA 21. (b) : When refractive index of lens is equal to the refractive index of liquid, the lens behave like a plane surface with focal length infinity. Refractive index of medium B w.r.t. to medium A is Velocity of light in medium A vA A µB = = Velocity of light in medium B vB CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 32 ∴ sinC = vA 1.8 × 108 3 = = or C = sin −1 3 4 vB 2.4 × 108 4 26. (d) : Let R be the radius of curvature of each surface. For the combination of focal length 1 1 1 1 1 1 = + ⇒ = − f f1 f2 f2 f f1 1 3 1 15 − 16 = − = f2 80 25 400 1 1 1 = (1.5 − 1) + \ R = f R R f 1 4 1 1 For the water-lens, = − 1 − − f′ 3 R R 1 2 = − 3 f 1 2 =− f′ 3f 1 1 1 1 Using, = + + , F f1 f2 f3 or 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 = + + = − = F f f f ′ f 3f 3f ∴ F= 3f 4 27. (a) : The figure shows incidence from water at critical angle qc for the limiting case. Disc r Air 1 Now, sinθc = Water µ θc h 1 θ c so that tan θc = 2 (µ − 1)1/2 r h where r is the radius of the disc. Therefore, diameter of the disc is 2h 2r = 2h tan θc = 2 (µ − 1)1/2 µ v 28. (b) : sinθ = 2 = µ1 v ′ From figure, tanθc = Light source where v and v′ are the speeds of light in medium (i) and medium (ii) respectively. v \ v′ = sinθ 29. (b) : Using, A + d = i + e Here, A = 60°, m = 1.5, 3 3 i = e = A = × 60° = 45° 4 4 \ 60° + d = 45° + 45° ⇒ d = 90° – 60° = 30° 1 1 1 30. (a) : = − f v u Here, u = –40 cm, v = +80 cm 1 1 1 1+ 2 3 ∴ = − = = f 80 −40 80 80 1 −1 = ⇒ f2 = −400 cm f2 400 31. (b) : Lens maker formula, 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − f R1 R2 Here, f = 20 cm, m = 1.55, R1 = R and R2 = –R 1 1 1 1 1 ∴ = (1.55 − 1) − = 0.55 × + 20 R R R ( −R ) 2 1 = 0.55 × or 20 R \ R = 1.1 × 20 = 22 cm 32. (d) : Here, m = 1.62, d = 4.8° Using, d = (m – 1)A 4.8 δ A= = (µ − 1) (1.62 − 1) A = 7.74° 33. (b) : In the figure, the path shown for the ray 2 is correct. The ray suffers two refractions : At A, ray goes from air to turpentine, bending towards normal. At B, ray goes from turpentine to water (i.e., From denser to rarer medium), bending away from normal. 34. (a) : Power of lens, P (in dioptre) 100 = focal length f (in cm) 100 = 10 cm 10 According to lens maker’s formula 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − f R1 R2 ∴ f= For biconvex lens, R1 = + R, R2 = – R ∴ 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) + R R f 1 2 1 2 = (µ − 1) = (µ − 1) ⇒ 10 10 f R 1 3 1 (µ − 1) = ⇒ µ = + 1= 2 2 2 33 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments and magnification, m = 35. (a) : fo 20 = = 1000 fe 0.02 The image formed is inverted with respect to the object. As refractive index, µ = 40. (c) : Magnification, of compound microscope Real depth Apparent depth \ Apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from above is x 1 1 x x = + d apparent = + 2 µ1 2 µ2 2 µ1 µ2 L D m = mo × me = × fo fe 36. (a) : Using Snell’s law sin i sin i µ= ⇒ sin r = sin r µ Here, L = 20 cm, D = 25 cm (near point), fo = 1 cm and fe = 2 cm 20 25 ∴ m = × = 250 1 2 41. (b) : Each half of the lens will form an image in the same plane. The optic axes of the lenses are displaced, 1 1 1 = ; v = 60 cm − v ( −30) 20 According to question, m is negative \ sin r is negative. Hence, r is negative, therefore the ray follows path as shown in option (a). 42. (a) : Here f1 = 20 cm ; f2 = ? F = 80 cm 1 1 1 1 1 1 As + = ⇒ = − f F f1 f1 f2 F 2 37. (a) : As shown in figure glass slab will form the image of bottom d i.e., mirror MM’ at a depth µ 1 1 1 −3 = − = f2 80 20 80 −80 f2 = = −26.7 cm 3 43. (b) : The bubble behaves like a diverging lens. = x µ2 + µ1 x (µ1 + µ2 ) = 2 µ1µ2 2 µ1µ2 from its front face. So the distance of object O from virtual mirror mm’ d will be h + . µ Observer O h m M d h d m M d h+ I Now as a plane mirror forms image behind the mirror at the same distance as the object is in front of it, the distance of d image I from mm’ will be h + and as the distance of µ d virtual mirror from the front face of slab is µ , the distance 44. (b) : Convex lens is used in magnifying glass. 45. (d) : Magnification of an image by a convex lens is positive when object is placed between F and optical centre. 46. (b) : Here f0 = 2.0 cm, fe = 6.25 cm, u0 = ? When the final image is obtained at the least distance of distinct vision, ve = – 25 cm As 1 1 1 − = v e ue fe of image I from front face as seen by observer will be d d 2d = h + + = h + µ µ µ \ 1 1 1 1 1 −1 − 4 −5 1 = − = − = = =− ue v e fe −25 6.25 25 25 5 or ue = –5 cm 38. (c) : Here, for yellow light, r = 90° when i = C. As i is kept same, C must be smaller for total internal reflection. 1 , C will be smallest for blue colour. From µ = sinC Therefore, blue light would undergo total internal reflection. 47. (b) : Distance between objective and eye-piece = 15 cm \ Distance of the image from objective is v0 = 15 – 5 = 10 cm \ 1 = 1 − 1 = 1 − 1 = 1− 5 = − 2 u0 v 0 f0 10 2 10 5 39. (d) : In normal adjustment, Length of telescope tube, L = fo + fe Here, fo = 20 m and fe = 2 cm = 0.02 m \ L = 20 + 0.02 = 20.02 m or \ 5 u0 = − = −2.5 cm 2 Distance of object from objective = 2.5 cm CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 34 48. (a) : The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is real, inverted and magnified. 49. (d) : Magnifying power of a compound microscope increases when fixed length of both objective and eye-piece are decreased. 50. (a) : Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. According to Snell’s law, µ c / v2 v sin i = 2 = = 1 sin r µ1 c / v1 v2 or, m1v1 = m2v2 This shows that higher is the refractive index of a medium or denser the medium, lesser is the velocity of light in that medium. 51. (d) : A convex lens made of glass behaves as a convergent lens when placed in air or water. However when the same lens is immersed in carbon disulphide (m = 1.63), it behaves as a divergent lens. Therefore when a convergent lens is placed inside a transparent medium of refractive index greater than that of material of the lens, it behaves as a divergent lens. Behaviour of a lens depends on the refractive index of a surrounding medium. 52. (a) : An endoscope is made of optical fibres. Its core is made of optically denser material. Its outer cladding is made of optically rarer material. It is based on total internal reflection. 53. (a) : Optical density and mass density are not related to each other. Mass density is mass per unit volume. It is possible that mass density of an optically denser medium be less than that of an optically rarer medium (optical density is the ratio of the speed of light in two media). e.g., turpentine and water. Mass density of turpentine is less than that of water but its optical density is higher. 54. (a) : Microscope is an optical instrument which forms a magnified image of a small nearby object and thus, increases the visual angle subtended by the image at the eye so that the object is seen to be bigger and distinct. Therefore, angular magnification for image is more than object. 55. (a) : 1 1 µ 1 w 1 1 = ( µg − 1) − = g − 1 − ...(i) f′ R R µ 1 2 w R1 R2 1 1 1 µg = − 1 − ...(ii) f µα R1 R2 From (i) and (ii) µg − 1 10 × 8 f ′ µα = ⇒ f′ = = 40 cm 2 f µg µ − 1 w SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. Frequency being a characteristic of source of light, does not change with change of medium. Refractive index m of medium is defined as, c (speed of light in vacuum) µ= = v (speed of light in medium) As, v = ul 1 \ µ∝ (∵ υ is same in different media) λ Hence, wavelength of light is different in different media. 2. Focal length of the lens decreases when red light is replaced by blue light. 3. When the refractive index of the biconvex lens is equal to the refractive index of the liquid in which lens is immersed then the biconvex lens behaves as a plane glass sheet. In this case, 1 = 0 or f → ∞. f 1 4. lred > lviolet and λ ∝ µ \ mred < mviolet δ + A sin m 2 µ= A sin 2 \ (δm)violet > (δm)red 5. A compound microscope is used because a realistic simple microscope does not have large magnification. 6. Net power P = P1 + P2 = –4 + 2 = –2 D 1 1 Focal length f = = m = –0.5 m = –50 cm P −2 c sini 7. Refractive index, µ = = v sinr As sin15° < sin25° < sin35° So, vA < vB < vC Hence in medium A, velocity of light is minimum. 8. The lens will act as a diverging lens as the refractive index of water is greater than that of lens. 9. (a) Po = 100 D, \ fo = 1 cm, Pe = 40 D, \ fe = 2.5 cm. Since fo < fe, the instrument is a compound microscope. 10. The deviation is maximum when angle is 90°. sin(i ) 11. From Snell’s law, we have : =µ sin(r ) At A, i = 60°; m = 3 sin(i ) Now, sin(r ) = µ sin(60°) 1 1 ⇒ sin(r ) = = ⇒ r = sin−1 2 3 2 \ r = 30° 35 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 12. Focal length of a concave lens is negative. Using lens maker’s formula, 1 µl 1 1 = − 1 − f µ m R1 R2 Here, ml = 1.5, mm = 1.65 Also, µl µ < 1, so l − 1 is negative and focal length µm µm of the given lens becomes positive. Hence, it behaves as a converging lens. 13. Using Snell’s law, for ray 1 and its refraction, sin i = m sin r and sin e = m sin r 2 ⇒ ∠i = ∠e e N B The emergent ray is parallel d r to the incident ray. C Further, ) r –r (i AN t AB = = cos r cos r A i And BC = AB sin (i – r) 1 t ⇒ lateral shift (d) = sin (i – r) cos r 14. R1 = 60 cm µ1 R2 = 15 cm µ1 µ2 Using the Lens maker’s Formula, 1 µ2 1 1 = − 1 − f µ1 R1 R2 1 1.5 1 1 1 1 = − 1 − = (0.5) + f 1 60 −15 60 15 1 1 + 4 = (0.5) ⇒ f = +24 cm. f 60 15. When the object is outside the focal point of a converging lens, the image is real and inverted. 16. The object is between the pole and focal point of a converging lens. The image is virtual, enlarged and erect. I f f O O 17. We know that d = A(m – 1) δ or µ = 1 + A 3 Here A = 6°, d = 3° therefore µ = 1 + = 1.5 6 18. for Ist surface, u1 = ∞ µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 − = ⇒ − = +R v u R v1 ∞ for 2nd surface, u2 = v1 , v2 = f µ 3 µ2 µ 3 − µ2 − = f v1 R Adding eqn. (i) and (ii), we get µ3 µ3 − µ1 µR = ⇒ f= 3 f R µ3 − µ1 ... (i) ... (ii) 19. u = –40 cm, R = – 20 cm, m = 1, m2 = 1.33 Applying equation for refraction through spherical surface, we get µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 1.33 1 1.33 − 1 − = − = or v u R v −40 −20 After solving, v = –32 cm 20. (i) Velocity of fish in air 3 8 = = (8) = 6 cm s–1 (upwards) 4 /3 4 Velocity of fish w.r.t bird = 6 + 9 = 15 cm s–1 (upwards) 4 (ii) Velocity of bird in water = 9 × = 12 cm s–1 (downwards) 3 Velocity of bird w.r.t fish = 12 + 8 = 20 cm s–1 (downwards) 21. u = –20 cm, v = ? , m1 = 1.5, m2 = 1, 20 cm 30 cm R = –30 cm C Coin µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 ⇒ − = v u R 1 1.5 1 − 1.5 ⇒ − = ⇒ v = –17.1 cm. v −20 −30 The positive sign indicates that the image is formed inside the glass or the image is virtual. v/µ 2 −17.11 / −17.1 × 1.5 = = = +1.28. m= u/µ1 −20/1.5 −20 The positive value of m indicates it is an erect image. (dia)image = m × (dia)coin = 1.28 × 2 = 2.56 cm. 22. Construction for astronomical telescope. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 36 Construction for compound microscope : u v A B″ h B Objective A″ 30 = v 0 25 1 + u0 5 From equation (iii) and equation (iv), we can write 1 1 1 = + f f1 f2 24. (a) Essential conditions for total internal reflection: (i) Light should travel from a denser medium to a rarer medium. (ii) Angle of incidence in denser medium should be greater than the critical angle for the pair of media in contact. (b) (i) To deviate a ray of light through 90° : A′ D Angular magnification, m = ⇒ Eyepiece B′ h′ E H O 1 1 1 − = …(iv) v u f fe v0 D 1 + u 0 fe A 90° P ⇒ v0 = 5u0...(i) From lens formula, u +v 1 1 −1 1 = − ⇒ = 0 0 ...(ii) f 0 v 0 ( −u 0 ) 1.25 v 0u 0 Substituting (i) in (ii), u0 = 1.5 cm 23. Power of lens : It is the reciprocal of focal length of a lens. 1 P = (f is in metre) f Unit of power of lens : Dioptre A B B R 45° 45° 45° Q C A totally reflecting prism is used to deviate the path of the ray of light through 90°, when it is inconvenient to view the direct light. In Michelson’s method to find velocity of light, the direct light from the octagonal mirror is avoided from direct viewing by making use of totally reflecting prism. (ii) To deviate a ray of light through 180° : When the ray of light comes to meet the hypotenuse face BC at right angles to it, it is refracted out of prism as such along the path RS. The path of the ray of light has been turned through 180° due to two total internal reflections. A O I I1 v u 90° Q P v1 An object is placed at point O. The lens A produces an image at I1 which serves as a virtual object for lens B which produces final image at I. Given, the lenses are thin. The optical centres (P) of the lenses A and B coincide with each other. For lens A, we have 1 1 1 − = …(i) v 1 u f1 1 1 1 For lens B, we have − = …(ii) v v 1 f2 Adding equations (i) and (ii), 1 1 1 1 − = + …(iii) v u f1 f2 If two lenses are considered as equivalent to a single lens of focal length f, then B 45° 45° R 45° 45° P C S 25. An astronomical telescope should have an objective of larger aperture and longer focal length while an eyepiece of small aperture and small focal length. Therefore, we will use L2 as an objective and L3 as an eyepiece. For constructing microscope, L3 should be used as objective and L1 as eyepiece because both the lenses of microscope should have short focal lengths and the focal length of objective should be smaller than the eyepiece. 26. The light rays starting from bulb can pass through the surface if angle of incidence at surface is less than or equal to critical angle (C) for water air interface. If h is the depth of bulb from the surface, the light will emerge only through a r h C S 37 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments circle of radius r given by r = Area of water surface = πh 2 2 µ −1 h µ2 − 1 = 22 (0.80)2 × = 2.6 m2 7 (1.33)2 − 1 27. (a) Relation between refractive index and critical angle When i = C, r = 90° From Snell’s law, mb sinC = ma sin90° = ma × 1 µb 1 a 1 = ; µb = µ a sinC sinC (b) Optical fibre is made up of very fine quality glass or quartz of refractive index about 1.7. A light beam incident on one end of an optical fibre at appropriate angle refracts into the fibre and undergoes repeated total internal reflection. This is because the angle of incidence is greater than critical angle. The beam of light is received at other end of fibre with nearly no loss in intensity. To send a complete image, the image of different portion is send through separate fibres and thus a complete image can be transmitted through an optical fibre. 29. (a) (i) Given f0 = 140 cm, fe = 5 cm When final image is at infinity, magnifying power, −f 140 m= 0 =− 5.0 fe m = –28 Negative sign shows that the image is inverted. (ii) When final image is at the least distance of distinct vision, −f f magnifying power, m = 0 1 + e fe D = (b) Separation between objective and eye piece when final image is formed at infinity, L = f0 + fe L = 140 cm + 5.0 cm L = 145 cm 30. r1 r2= c glass core = 1.7 28. Critical angle for (i) Red light is sin c1 = or c1 = 46° A B G R B G 1 1 1 + + f1 f2 f3 Second lens is water lens with surrounding air. 1 µw 1 1 2 − = −1 = − (µw − 1) f2 µ a −R +R R Third lens is glass lens with surrounding air. 1 µg 1 1 2 = −1 − = (µ g − 1) f3 µ a R −R R 1 = 0.6944 (ii) Green light is sin c2 = 1.44 or c2 = 44° 1 (iii) Blue light is sin c3 = = 0.6802 1.47 or c3 = 43° As angle of incidence i = 45° of red light ray on face AC is less that its critical angle of 46°, so red light ray will emerge out of face AC. B feq = 1 µg 1 1 2 = − 1 − = (µ g − 1) f1 µ a R −R R 1 = 0.7194 1.39 C 1 First lens is glass lens with surrounding air. cladding = 1.5 i1 −140 5.0 1 + = –33.6 5.0 25 R ⇒ 1 2 2 2 = (µ g − 1) − (µw − 1) + (µ g − 1) feq R R R R feq = 4µ g − 2µw − 2 Equivalent lens will have a focal length feq with air surrounding it. 31. The incident ray passes without deviation from face AB. It suffers reflections at P and Q. From figure, incident ray and normal at Q are parallel; therefore a = 2A ...(i) Also, 2a + A = 180° (Sum of angles of isosceles prism) ...(ii) On solving eqns. (i) and (ii), we get A = 36°, a = 72° A (90° – A) 90° A P A Q B C CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 38 32. Let the object be placed at a distance x from the pole P1 of the sphere. If a real image is to be formed at equidistant from the sphere, then the ray must pass symmetrically through the sphere, as shown in the figure. Applying the equation at the first surface, we get 1 1 P1 O P2 2 x I x 2R µ1 µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 − = or x = R −R +∞ − x µ2 − µ1 Note that the real image is formed only when the refractive index of the sphere is more than that of the surrounding, i.e., m2 > m1. 33. Consider two lenses placed close to each other. The focal lengths of lens A and B is f1 and f2 respectively. For lens A, 1 1 1 − = ... (i) v ′ u f1 For lens B, 1 1 1 − = ...(ii) v v ′ f2 Adding (i) and (ii), 1 1 1 1 1 1 − + − = + v ′ u v v ′ f1 f2 Since 1 1 1 1 1 1 − = then, = + v u f fT f1 f2 1 ∵ P = f PT = P1 + P2 34. (a) Refraction at convex spherical surface : When object is in rarer medium and image formed is real. n1 O N A i u PN By Snell’s law 1n2 = or n2 α + γ = or n2 γ − n2β = n1α + n1γ n1 γ − β or (n2 – n1)g = n1a + n2b...(i) As a, b and g are small and P and N lie close to each other, AN AN So, α ≈ tan α = ≈ NO PO β ≈ tanβ = AN AN ≈ NI PI γ ≈ tan γ = AN AN ≈ NC PC On using them in equation (i), we get AN AN AN (n2 − n1 ) = n1 + n2 PC PO PI n −n n n or 2 1 = 1 + 2 ...(ii) PC PO PI where, PC = + R, radius of curvature PO = – u, object distance PI = + v, image distance n −n n n n −n n n So 2 1 = 1 + 2 or 2 1 = 2 − 1 R v R v u −u This gives formula for refraction at spherical surface when object is in rarer medium. 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − (b) f R1 R2 Here f = 30 cm, m = 1.55, R1 = – R2 = R 1 1 2 1 1 \ = (1.55 − 1) + or = 0.55 × 30 R R 30 R or 1 1 1 1 − = + v u f1 f2 sin i i α + γ ≈ = sin r r γ − β \ R = 0.55 × 2 × 30 = 33 cm. 35. (a) If graph is plotted between angle of incidence i and angle of deviation d, it is found that the angle of deviation d first decreases with increase in angle of incidence i and then becomes minimum ‘dm’ when i = e and then increases with increase in angle of incidence i. Figure shows the path of a ray of light suffering refraction through a prism of refracting angle ‘A’. n2 r R C I v n1 < n 2 m i In DOAC, i = a + g and in DAIC, g = r + b or r = g – b i=e (b) At minimum deviation, the inside beam travels parallel to base of the prism. 39 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 36. (a) Magnifying power of refracting telescope (M) is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended by the image (b) at the eye to the angle subtended by the distant object at the unaided eye (a). A m i r e=i r M= i=e r = r′ dm = (i + e) – (r + r′) dm = 2i – 2r...(i) Also r + r′ = A = 2r...(ii) So, angle of incidence using equation (i) A + δm A i= , angle of refraction r = 2 2 Now refractive index of the material of prism A + δm sin 2 sin i a = µg = A sin r sin 2 where A is the “refracting angle” of the prism and A = 60° for an equiangular prism. β α (b) Here, fo = 150 cm, fe = 5 cm Angle subtended by 100 m tall tower at 3 km is α= 100 1 = rad 3 × 1000 30 If h is the height of image formed by the objective, then h h α= = fo 150 \ h 1 150 = or h = cm = 5 cm 150 30 30 Magnification produced by eyepiece D 25 me = 1 + = 1 + = 6 5 fe \ Height of final image = h × me = 5 × 6 = 30 cm CHAPTER 10 Wave Optics Recap Notes Wavefront : The locus of all particles of the medium vibrating in the same phase at a given instant is known as wavefront. Depending on the shape of sources of light, wavefront can be of three types X Spherical wavefront : When the source of light is a point source, the wavefront is spherical. X Cylindrical wavefront : When the source of light is linear, the wavefront is cylindrical. X Plane wavefront : When the point source or linear source of light is at very large distance, a small portion of spherical or cylindrical wavefront appears to be plane. Such a wavefront is known as plane wavefront. Huygens principle : According to Huygens principle, – Every point on given wavefront (primary wavefront) acts as a fresh source of new disturbance, called secondary wavelets. – The secondary wavelets spread out in all the directions with the speed of light in the medium. – A surface touching these secondary wavelets tangentially in the forward direction at any instant gives the new (secondary) wavefront at that instant. Laws of reflection by Huygens principle X Let us consider a plane wavefront AB incident on the plane reflecting surface xy. The tangent B′A′ represents reflected wavefront after time t. A r i x A′ i r B′ B y For every point on wavefront AB, a corresponding point lies on the reflected wavefront A′B′. So, comparing two triangle DBAB′ and DB′A′B. We find that AB′ = A′B = ct, BB′ = common ∠A = ∠A′ = 90° Thus two triangles are congruent, hence ∠i = ∠r This proves first law of reflection. X Also incident rays, reflected rays and normal to them all lie in the same plane. This gives second law of reflection. Laws of refraction by Huygens principle X Let us consider a plane wavefront AB incident on the plane refracting surface xy. The tangent B′A′ represent refracted wavefront after time ‘t’. For every point on primary wavefront AB, a corresponding point lies on the refracted wavefront A′B′. vt 41 Wave Optics From DABB′ and DA′B′B, Snell’s law can be proved. sin i ct / BB′ c a = = = µg sin r vt / BB′ v So, first law of refraction can be proved. X Also, the incident ray, refracted rays and normal to the rays, all lie in the same plane. This gives the second law of refraction. – Effect on frequency, wavelength and speed during refraction. When a wave passes from one medium to another then change in speed v takes place, wavelength l also changes, whereas its frequency u remains the same. X Coherent and incoherent sources : The sources of light, which emit continuous light waves of the same wavelength, same frequency and in same phase or having a constant phase difference are known as coherent sources. Two sources of light which do not emit light waves with a constant phase difference are called incoherent sources. Interference of light : It is the phenomenon of redistribution of energy on account of superposition of light waves from two coherent sources. Interference pattern produce points of maximum and minimum intensity. Points where resultant intensity is maximum, interference is said to be constructive and at the points of destructive interference, resultant intensity is minimum. X Intensity distribution : If a, b are the amplitudes of interfering waves due to two coherent sources and f is constant phase difference between the two waves at any point P, then the resultant amplitude at P will be R = a2 + b2 + 2ab cos φ Resultant intensity, I = I1 +I2 + 2 I1I2 cosφ – When cos φ = 1; I max = ( – When cos φ = − 1, I min = – I max = I min ( ( ) 2 I2 ) I1 + I2 I1 − 2 I1 + I2 ( ) 2 I1 − I2 ) 2 Conditions for sustained interference of light : The two sources should continuously emit waves of the same wavelength or frequency. – The amplitudes of waves from two sources should preferably be equal. – The waves emitted by the two sources should either be in phase or should have a constant phase difference. – The two sources must lie very close to each other. – The two sources should be very narrow. Young’s double slit experiment : Young’s double slit experiment was the first to demonstrate the phenomenon of interference of light. Using two slits illuminated by monochromatic light source, he obtained bright and dark bands of equal width placed alternately. These were called interference fringes. X For constructive interference (i.e., formation of bright fringes) For nth bright fringe, Path difference = xn d = nλ D where n = 0 for central bright fringe n = 1 for first bright fringe, n = 2 for second bright fringe and so on d = distance between two slits D = distance of slits from the screen xn = distance of nth bright fringe from the centre. D ∴ xn = nλ d X For destructive interference (i.e. formation of dark fringes). For nth dark fringe, Path difference = xn d = (2n − 1) λ D 2 where n = 1 for first dark fringe, n = 2 for second dark fringe and so on. xn = distance of nth dark fringe from the centre λD ∴ xn = (2n − 1) 2d X Fringe width : The distance between any two consecutive bright or dark fringes is known as fringe width. λD Fringe width, β = d X CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 42 X Angular fringe width : θ = β λ = D d If W1, W2 are widths of two slits, I1, I2 are intensities of light coming from two slits; a, b are the amplitudes of light from these slits, then W1 I1 a2 = = W2 I2 b2 2 I max (a + b) = I min (a − b)2 – When entire apparatus of Young’s double slit experiment is immersed in a medium of refractive index m, then fringe width becomes λ ′D λD β = = β′ = d µd µ – When a thin transparent plate of thickness t and refractive index m is placed in the path of one of the interfering waves, fringe width remains unaffected but the entire pattern shifts by D β ∆x = (µ − 1) t = (µ − 1) t d λ This shifting is towards the side in which transparent plate is introduced. X Colour of thin films : A soap film or a thin film of oil spread over water surface, when seen in white light appears coloured. This effect can be explained in terms of phenomenon of interference. Diffraction of light : It is the phenomenon of bending of light around corners of an obstacle or aperture in the path of light. X Diffraction due to a single slit : The diffraction pattern produced by a single slit of width a consists of a central maximum bright band with alternating bright and dark bands of decreasing intensity on both sides of the central maximum. – Condition for nth secondary maximum is Path difference = a sin θn = (2n + 1) λ 2 where n = 1, 2, 3,....... – Condition for nth secondary minimum is Path difference = asinqn = nl where n = 1, 2, 3,....... – Width of secondary maxima or minima λD β= a where a = width of slit D = distance of screen from the slit 2λD – Width of central maximum = a – Angular fringe width of central 2λ maximum = a – Angular fringe width of secondary λ maxima or minima = a X Fresnel distance : It is the minimum distance a beam of light has to travel before its deviation from straight line path becomes significant. Fresnel distance, Z F = a2 λ Practice Time OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of a fringe on a distant screen is 0.1°. The spacing between the two slits is (a) 3.44 × 10–4 m (b) 1.54 × 10–4 m (c) 1.54 × 10–3 m (d) 1.44 × 10–3 m 2. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using beam of red light what will happen, if red light is replaced by the blue light? (a) Bands disappear. (b) Bands become broader and farther apart. (c) No change will take place. (d) Diffraction bands become narrow and crowded together. 3. A screen is placed 50 cm from a single slit which is illuminated with light of wavelength 6000 Å. If the distance between the first and third minima in the diffraction pattern is 3.0 mm. The width of the slit is (a) 1 × 10–4 m (b) 2 × 10–4 m (c) 0.5 × 10–4 m (d) 4 × 10–4 m 4. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source? (a) The intensity decreases in proportion for the distance squared. (b) The wavefront is parabolic. (c) The intensity at the wavelength does not depend on the distance. (d) None of these. 5. A Young’s double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source of light. The shape of interference fringes formed on the screen is (a) parabola (b) straight line (c) circle (d) hyperbola 6. A pa ra lle l be a m o f so d iu m l igh t o f wavelength 5890 Å is incident on a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5 such that the angle of refraction in the plate is 60°. The smallest thickness of the plate which will make it dark by reflection (a) 3926 Å (c) 1396 Å (b) 4353 Å (d) 1921 Å 7. Consider the following statements in case of Young’s double slit experiment. (1) A slit S is necessary if we use an ordinary extended source of light. (2) A slit S is not needed if we use an ordinary but well collimated beam of light. (3) A slit S is not needed if we use a spatially coherent source of light. Which of the above statements are correct? (a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (1) and (2) only (c) (2) and (3) only (d) (1) and (3) only 8. In a Young’s double slit experiment an electron beam is used to obtain interference pattern. If the spread of electron is decreases then (a) distance between two consecutive fringes remains the same (b) distance between two consecutive fringes decreases (c) distance between two consecutive fringes increases (d) none of these 9. The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil film are due to (a) Diffraction (b) Interference (c) Polarisation (d) Dispersion 10. In young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelengths l, the intensity of light at a point on the screen with path difference is l is M unit. The intensity of light at a point where path difference is l/3 is M M (a) (b) 2 4 M M (c) (d) 16 8 11. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 44 some distance from the plane of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits, the change in fringe width is 3 × 10–5 m. If the distance between slits is 10–3 m, the wavelength of light will be (a) 3000 Å (b) 4000 Å (c) 6000 Å (d) 7000 Å 12. In a double slit experiment the distance between slits is increased ten times whereas their distance from screen is halved then the fringe width is 1 1 (a) becomes (b) becomes 20 90 1 (c) it remains same (d) becomes 10 13. The fringe width in a young’s double slit interference pattern is 2.4 × 10 –4 m, when red light of wavelength 6400 Å is used. How much will it change, if blue light of wavelength 4000 Å is used ? (a) 0.9 × 10–4 m (b) 1.5 × 10–4 m –4 (c) 4.5 × 10 m (d) 0.45 × 10–4 m 14. Two slits in young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 : 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of light waves is (a) 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 9 : 1 (d) 6 : 1 15. In Young’s double slit experiment two disturbances arriving at a point P have phase π difference of . The intensity of this point 3 expressed as a fraction of maximum intensity I0 is 1 3 I I0 (a) (b) 2 0 2 3 4 I I0 (c) (d) 4 0 3 16. Interference fringes were produced in Young’s double slit experiment using light of wavelength 5000 Å. When a film of material 2.5 × 10–3 cm thick was placed over one of the slits, the fringe pattern shifted by a distance equal to 20 fringe widths. The refractive index of the material of the film is (a) 1.25 (b) 1.33 (c) 1.4 (d) 1.5 17. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase difference between the beams is p/2 at point A and p at point B. Then the difference between the resultant intensities at A and B is (a) 2I (b) 4I (c) 5I (d) 7I 18. In the case of light waves from two coherent sources S 1 and S 2, there will be constructive interference at an arbitrary point P, the path difference S1P – S2P is 1 (a) n + λ (b) nl 2 λ 1 (c) n − λ (d) 2 2 19. A plane wave passes through a convex lens. The geometrical shape of the wavefront that emerges is (a) plane (b) diversing spherical (c) converging spherical (d) none of these 20. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the holes is covered by a red filter and another by a blue filter. In this case (a) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and blue (b) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue (c) there shall be no interference fringes (d) there shall be an interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue 21. In a double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is d. The screen is at a distance D from the slits. If a bright fringe is formed opposite to one of the slits, its order is (a) (c) 22. 104 (a) (b) (c) (d) d λ (b) λ2 dD d2 D2 (d) 2D λ 2λd Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width Å. The image seen through the slit shall be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to zero intensities at the edges a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to regions of different colours only be a diffused slit white in colour 45 Wave Optics 23. Two so urce s o f lig ht o f w ave l e n gt h 2500 Å and 3500 Å are used in Young’s double slit experiment simultaneously. Which orders of fringes of two wavelength patterns coincide? (a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th of the 2nd (b) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd (c) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd (d) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd 24. Yellow light of wavelength 6000 Å produces fringes of width 0.8 mm in Young’s double slit experiment. If the source is replaced by another monochromatic source of wavelength 7500 Å and the separation between the slits is doubled then the fringe width becomes (a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.5 mm (c) 4.3 mm (d) 1 mm 25. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance d between the slits S1 and S2 is 1 mm. What should the width of each slit be so as to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern? (a) 0.9 mm (b) 0.8 mm (c) 0.2 mm (d) 0.6 mm 26. The idea of secondary wavelets for the propagation of a wave was first given by (a) Newton (b) Huygens (c) Maxwell (d) Fresnel 27. When interference of light takes place (a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity (b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity (c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed (d) conservation of energy does not hold good 28. Which of the following is the path difference for distructive interference ? λ (a) n(l + 1) (b) (2n + 1) 2 λ (c) nl (d) (n +1) 2 29. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygens construction of wavefront (a) reflection (b) diffraction (c) refraction (d) origin of spectra 30. In a Young’s double slit experiment, (slit distance d) monochromatic light of wavelength l is used and the fringe pattern observed at a distance D from the slits. The angular position of the bright fringes are Nλ (a) sin −1 d Nλ (c) sin −1 D N −1 (b) sin N (d) sin −1 1 λ 2 d 1 + λ 2 D + 31. For what distance is ray optics a good approximation when the aperture is 4 mm wide and the wavelength is 500 nm? (a) 22 m (b) 32 m (c) 42 m (d) 52 m 32. A narrow slit of width 2 mm is illuminated by monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm. The distance between the first minima on either side on a screen at a distance of 1 m is (a) 5 mm (b) 0.5 mm (c) 1 mm (d) 10 mm 33. The two coherent sources with intensity ratio b produce interference. The fringe visibility will be 2 β (a) (b) 2b 1+β 2 β (c) (d) (1 + β) 1+β 34. A slit of width d is illuminated by white light. The first minimum for red light (l = 6500 Å) will fall at q = 30° when d will be (a) 3200 Å (b) 6.5 × 10–4 mm (c) 1.3 micron (d) 2.6 × 10–4 cm 35. In a Young’s double slit experiment, let S1 and S2 be the two slits, and C be the centre of the screen. If ∠S1CS2 = q and l is the wavelength, the fringe width will be λ (a) (b) lq θ (c) 2λ θ (d) λ 2θ 36. Young’s experiment is performed with light of wavelength 6000 Å wherein 16 fringes occupy a certain region on the screen. If 24 fringes occupy the same region with another light, of wavelength l, then l is (a) 6000 Å (b) 4500 Å (c) 5000 Å (d) 4000 Å CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 46 37. Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same (a) phase (b) amplitude (c) frequency (d) period 38. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is 1°. The slit separation is 0.01 mm. The wavelength of the light is (a) 0.174 nm (c) 0.174 mm (b) 0.174 Å (d) 0.174 × 10–4 m 39. Light from two coherent sources of the same amplitude A and wavelength l illuminates the screen. The intensity of the central maximum is I0. If the sources were incoherent, the intensity at the same point will be (a) 4I0 (b) 2I0 I0 (c) I0 (d) 2 Case Based MCQs Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 40 to 42. Hnygen Principle Huygen principle is the basis of wave theory of light. Each point on a wavefront acts as a fresh source of new disturbance, called secondary waves or wavelets. The secondary wavelets spread out in all directions with the speed light in the given medium. An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a medium of refractive index m(I) = m0 + m2I, where m0 and m2 are positive constants and I is the intensity of the light beam. The intensity of the beam is decreasing with increasing radius. E E A C C a′ a b e F B A D b′ c c′ d d′ e′ F a a′ b b′ c c′ d d′ e e′ B (b) D As the beam enters the medium, it will travel as a cylindrical beam diverge converge diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery. Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 43 to 45. Diffraction The phenomenon of bending of light around the sharp corners and the spreading of light within the geometrical shadow of the opaque obstacles is called diffraction of light. The light thus deviates from its linear path. The deviation becomes much more pronounced, when the dimensions of the aperture or the obstacle are comparable to the wavelength of light. 42. (a) (b) (c) (d) Incident wave Diffracted wave a l Screen 40. The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is (a) planar (b) convex (c) concave (d) convex near the axis and concave near the periphery 43. In diffraction from a single slit the angular width of the central maxima does not depends on (a) l of light used (b) width of slit (c) distance of slits from the screen (d) ratio of l and slit width 41. According to Huygens Principle, the surface of constant phase is (a) called an optical ray (b) called a wave (c) called a wavefront (d) always linear in shape 44. For a diffraction from a single slit, the intensity of the central point is (a) infinite (b) finite and same magnitude as the surrounding maxima (a) 47 Wave Optics (c) finite but much larger than the surrounding maxima (d) finite and substantially smaller than the surrounding maxima 45. In a single diffraction pattern observed on a screen placed at D metre distance from the slit of width d metre, the ratio of the width of the central maxima to the width of other secondary maxima is (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 1 Case III : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 46 to 49. Young’s Double Slit Experiment A narrow tube is bent in the form of a circle of radius R, as shown in figure. Two small holes S and D are made in the tube at the positions at right angle to each other. A source placed at S generates a wave of intensity I0 which is equally divided into two parts: one part travels along the longer path, while the other travels along the shorter path. Both the waves meet at point D where a detector is placed. R S D 46. If a maxima is formed at a detector, then the magnitude of wavelength l of the wave produced is given by πR (a) pR (b) 2 πR (c) (d) all of these 4 47. The maximum intensity produced at D is given by (a) 4I0 (b) 2I0 (c) I0 (d) 3I0 48. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity at a point where the path difference is l/6 (l – wavelength of the light) is I. If I0 denotes the maximum intensity, then I/I 0 is equal to 1 2 1 (c) 2 (a) 3 2 3 (d) 4 (b) 49. Two identical light waves, propagating in the same direction, have a phase difference d. After they superpose the intensity of the resulting wave will be proportional to (a) cosd (b) cos(d/2) 2 (c) cos (d/2) (d) cos2d Assertion & Reasoning Based MCQs For question numbers 50-58, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 50. Assertion (A) : The maximum intensity in interference pattern is four times the intensity due to each slit. Reason (R): Intensity is directly proportional to square of amplitude. 53. Assertion (A) : We cannot get diffraction pattern from a wide slit illuminated by monochromatic light. Reason (R) : In diffraction pattern, all the bright bands are not of the same intensity. 51. Assertion (A) : Diffraction is common in sound but not common in light waves. Reason (R): Wavelength of light is more than the wavelength of sound. 54. Assertion (A) : When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it loses speed. The reduction in speed imply a reduction in energy carried by the light wave. Reason (R) : The energy of a wave is proportional to velocity of wave. 52. Assertion (A) : Interference obeys the law of conservation of energy. Reason (R) : The energy is redistributed in case of interference. 55. Assertion (A) : The film which appears bright in reflected system will appear dark in the transmitted light and vice-versa. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 48 Reason (R) : The conditions for film to appear bright or dark in reflected light are just reverse to those in the transmitted light. 56. Assertion (A) : In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringes become indistinct if one of the slits is covered with cellophane paper. Reason (R) : The cellophane paper decrease the wavelength of light. 57. Assertion (A) : One of the condition for interference is that the two source should be very narrow. Reason (R) : One broad source is equal to large number of narrow sources. 58. Assertion (A) : When tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some distance, a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Reason (R) : Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. Define the term ‘coherent sources’ which are required to produce interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment. 2. State Huygens principle of diffraction of light. 3. How does the angular separation between fringes in single-slit diffraction experiment change when the distance of separation between the slit and screen is doubled. 4. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is found to be 0.12 mm. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index (4/3), without disturbing the geometrical arrangement, what is the new fringe width? 5. In double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of a fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. What is the spacing between the two slits? 6. What is the shape of the wavefront on earth for sunlight? 7. Is Huygens principle valid for longitudinal sound waves? 8. Why is the diffraction of sound waves more evident in daily experience than that of light wave? 9. If one of the slits in Young’s double slit experiment is fully closed, the new pattern has ______ central maximum in angular size. 10. Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the screen is placed one metre away. What is the fringe separation when blue-green light of wavelength 500 nm is used? Short Answer Type Questions (SA-I) 11. In a two-slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at some distance from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5× × 10 –2 m towards the slits, the change in fringe width is 3 ×× 10–5. If the distance between the slits is 10–3 m, calculate the wavelength of the light used. 12. A soap film of thickness 0.3 mm appears dark when seen by the reflected light of wavelength 580 nm. What is the index of refraction of the soap solution,if it is known to be between 1.3 and 1.5? 13. Light of wavelength 6 ×× 10–5 cm falls on a screen at a distance of 100 cm from a narrow slit. Find the width of the slit if the first minima lies 1 mm on either side of the central maximum. 14. The intensity of the light coming from one of the slits in a YDSE is double the intensity from the other slit. Find the ratio of maximum intensity to minimum intensity in the interference fringe pattern observed. 15. In a YDSE, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated with a mixture of two wavelengths λ = 750 nm and λ′ = 900 nm. At what distance from the common central bright fringe on a screen 2 m from the slits will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other? 49 Wave Optics 16. Two wavelengths of sodium light 590 nm and 596 nm are used, in turn to study the diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 ××10–4 m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m. Calculate the separation between the positions of the first maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases. 18. A slit of width a is illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 Å. For what value of a will the 17. Laser light of wavelength 640 nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference pattern in which the bright fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the wavelength of another source of light which produces interference fringes separated by 8.1 mm using same arrangement. Also find the minimum value of the order ( n) of bright fringe of shorter wavelength which coincides with that of the longer wavelength. 19. Yellow light (l = 6000 Å) illuminates a single slit of width 1 ×× 10–4 m. Calculate the distance between two dark lines on either side of the central maximum, when the diffraction pattern is viewed on a screen kept 1.5 m away from the slit. (i) First maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30° (ii) First minimum fall at an angle of diffraction 30°? 20. In a single slit diffraction experiment first minimum for l1 = 660 nm coincides with first maxima for wavelength l2. Calculate l2. Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 21. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 6500 Å and 5200 Å is used to obtain slit experiment (1 Å = 10–10 m). The distance between the slits is 2.0 mm and the distance between the plane of the slits and the screen is 120 cm. S1 Source C S2 T1 P O OP = x CO = D S1C = CS2 = D T2 Screen (i) F ind the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maximum for the wavelength 6500 Å. 24. (a) In a single slit diffraction pattern, how does the angular width of the central maximum vary, when (ii) W hat is the least distance from the central maximum where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide? (i) aperture of slit is increased? 22. White coherent light (400 nm-700 nm) is sent through the slits of a YDSE, the separation between the slits is 0.5 mm and the screen is 50 cm away from the slits. There is a hole in the screen at a point 1 mm away (along the width of the fringes) from the central line. Which wavelength will be absent in the light coming from the hole? S 0.5 mm 1mm 50 cm O 23. Consider a two slit interference arrangements such that the distance of the screen from the slits is half the distance between the slits. Obtain the value of D in terms of λ such that the first minima on the screen falls at a distance D from the centre O. (ii) distance between the slit and the screen is decreased? (b) How is the diffraction pattern different from the interference pattern obtained in Young’s double slit experiment? 25. (a) Two monochromatic waves emanating from two coherent sources have the displacements represented by y1 = a cos wt and y2 = a cos (wt + f) where f is the phase difference between the two displacements. Show that the resultant intensity at a point due to their superposition is given by I = 4 I0 cos2 f/2, where I0 = a2. (b) Hence obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive interference. 26. Why cannot two independent monochromatic sources produce sustained interference pattern? Deduce, with the help of Young’s arrangement to produce interference pattern, an expression for the fringe width. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 50 27. The figure shows a modified Young’s double slit experimental set-up. Here SS2 – SS1 = l/4. (a) W rite the condition for constructive interference. 30. A plane wavefront propagating in a medium of refractive index ‘ m1’ is incident on a plane surface making the angle of incidence i as shown in the figure. It enters into a medium of refraction of refractive index ‘m2’ (m2 > m1). Use Huygens’ construction of secondary wavelets to trace the propagation of the refracted wavefront. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction. (b) Obtain an expression for the fringe width. 28. The YDSE set-up is shown. On the lower slit a slab of thickness 0.1 mm and refractive index 3/2 is placed. Find 31. Explain the following, giving reasons: S1 d S O S2 D S (i) Position of central maxima (ii) Order of maxima at O and how many fringes will cross O if slab is removed? l = 5000 Å, d = 50 ×× 10–4 cm, f = 30°, D = 2 m 29. In a YDSE, D = 1 m, d = 1 mm, and l = 1/2 mm. (i) Find the distance between the first and central maxima on the screen. (ii) Find the number of maximum and minimum obtained on the screen. (i) When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does this decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by the wave ? (ii) In the wave picture of light, intensity of light is determined by the square of the amplitude of the wave. What determines the intensity in the photon picture of light? 32. (a) If one of two identical slits producing interference in Young’s experiment is covered with glass, so that the light intensity passing through it is reduced to 50%, find the ratio of the maximum and minimum intensity of the fringe in the interference pattern. (b) What kind of fringes do you expect to observe if white light is used instead of monochromatic light? Long Answer Type Questions (LA) 33. (a) Use Huygen’s geometrical construction to show how a plane wave-front at t = 0 propagates and produces a wave-front at a later time. decreased? (b) Verify, using Huygen’s principle, Snell’s law of refraction of a plane wave propagating from a denser to a rarer medium. (b) The intensity at the central maxima in Young’s double slit experimental set-up is I0. Show that the intensity at a point where the path difference is l/3 is I0/4. (c) When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the reflected and refracted light both have the same frequency. Explain why. 34. (a) What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment when (i) the separation between the two slits is (ii) the width of the source slit is increased? Justify your answer in each case. 35. (a) U s i n g H u y g e n s ’ c o n s t r u c t i o n o f secondary wavelets explain how a diffraction pattern is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a monochromatic beam of light is incident normally. (b) Show that the angular width of the first 51 Wave Optics diffraction fringe is half that of the central fringe. 1 λ (c) Explain why the maxima at q = n + 2 a become weaker and weaker with increasing n. 36. (a) Describe briefly how a diffraction pattern is obtained on a screen due to a single narrow slit illuminated by a monochromatic source of light. Hence obtain the conditions for OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. (a) : Angular width of fringe, π θ = 0.1° = 0.1 × rad 180 3.14 = rad 1800 ∴ d= λ 600 × 10−9 = = 3.44 × 10−4 m θ 3.14 / 1800 2. (d) : When red light is replaced by blue light the diffraction bands become narrow and crowded. 3. is (b) : The position of nth minima in the diffraction pattern xn = nDλ d ∴ x 3 − x 1 = (3 − 1) or d= 4. (a) 5. (d) Dλ 2Dλ = d d 2 × 0.50 × 6000 × 10−10 2Dλ = = 2 × 10–4 m x 3 − x1 3 × 10−3 5890 × 10−10 λ = 2 µ cos r 2 × 1.5 × cos 60° ⇒ 3926 × 10–10 m = 3926 Å 7. (a) 8. (c) : Fringe width, β = λD d h mv Here h is planck’s constant. This wavelength is inversily proportional to the velocity. Hence, the fringe width increases with decrease in electron speed. Also,λ = 9. (b) : The colours of a thin oil film are due to interference. 10. (b) : Resultant intensity IR = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos θ If path difference = l, phase difference 2p \ IR = I + I + 2 I × I cos 2π (Q I1 = I2 = I) = 4I = M..(i) λ 2π If path difference , phase difference φ = rad 3 3 2π IR ′ = I + I + 2 I × I cos 3 M 1 = 2I + 2I − = I = 2 4 [(Using (i)] λD d where l is the wavelength of light, D is the distance between screen and the slits and d is the distance between two slits λ ∴ ∆β = ∆D (As l and d are constants) d 11. (c) : Fringe width, β = 6. (a) : The condition for minimum thickness corresponding to a dark band is, 2µt cosr = l ∴ t= the angular width of secondary maxima and secondary minima. (b) Two wavelengths of sodium light of 590 nm and 596 nm are used in turn to study the diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 ×× 10 –6 m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m. Calculate the separation between the positions of first maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases. ∆βd ∆D Substituting the given values, we get (3 × 10−5 m) (10−3 m) λ= = 6 × 10–7 m = 6000 Å (5 × 10−2 m) 12. (a) : Fringe width, Dλ β= ... (i) d According to the question, D D ′ = and d ′ = 10 d 2 D ′ λ (D / 2) λ 1 Dλ ∴ β′ = = = d′ 10 d 20 d β (Using (i)) ⇒ β′ = 20 13. (a) : Here, b1 = 2.4 × 10–4 m, l1 = 6400 Å, l2 = 4000 Å or λ = CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 52 Q β2 λ2 4000 5 = = = β1 λ1 6400 8 = I + 4I + 2 I × 4I cos π p = 5I – 4I = I 5 or β2 = × β1 8 5 = × 2.4 × 10−4 = 1.5 × 10–4 m 8 Decrease in fringe width Db = b1 – b2 = (2.4 – 1.5) × 10–4 = 0.9 × 10–4 m 14. (c) : Width ratio, β1 I1 81 = = β2 I2 1 \ A1 I 81 = 1 = =9:1 1 A2 I2 Amplitude ratio, 15. (d) : The resultant intensity φ I = I 0 cos2 2 Given : S = 20b...(iii) From equations (i), (ii) and (iii) we get, (m – 1)t = 20l or 20 λ 20 × 5000 × 10−8 cm = t 2.5 × 10−3 cm m – 1 = 0.4 or m = 1.4 17. (b) : Here, I1 = I, I2 = 4I, f1 = IA = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos φ1 = I + 4I + 2 I × 4I cos π = 5I 2 IB = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos φ2 IA – IB = 5I – I = 4I 18. (b) : Constructive interference occurs when the path difference (S1P – S2P) is an integral multiple of l. or S1P – S2P = nl where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ..... 19. (c) : Converging spherical. 20. (c) : The light from two slits of Young’s double slit experiment is of different colours/wavelengths/frequencies, Hence, there shall be no interference fringes. 21. (d) : When a bright fringe is formed opposite to one of d the slits, x = 2 xd d d d 2 path difference = = × = D 2 D 2D If it is nth order bright fringe, Here, I0 is the maximum intensity π and φ = 3 2 π 3 2 π ∴ I = I 0 cos2 cos = I = I 0 3 × 2 0 6 2 3 I = I0 4 λD 16. (c) : Fringe width, β = ...(i) d where D is the distance between the screen and slit and d is the distance between two slits. When a film of thickness t and refractive index m is placed over one of the slit, the fringe pattern is shifted by distance S and is given by (µ − 1)tD S= ...(ii) d (µ − 1) = \ π ,f =p 2 2 d2 d2 or n = 2D 2Dλ 22. (a) : Visible range, l = 3900 Å to 7000 Å Given width of the slit, a = 104 Å = 10000 Å Thus a > l, Hence, no diffraction occurs. The image seen through the slit shall be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre. path differnce nλ = 23. (b) : Let nth fringe of 2500 Å coincide with (n – 2)th fringe of 3500 Å. \ 3500(n – 2) = 2500 × n 1000n = 7000, or n = 7 th \ 7 order fringe of 1st source will coincide with 5th order fringe of 2nd source. 24. (b) : Fringe width in first case Dλ β1 = 1 d Fringe width in second case Dλ β2 = 2 2d Divide equation (ii) by (i), β2 Dλ2 / 2d 1 λ2 1 λ ∴ = = . or β2 = . 2 . β1 β1 Dλ1 / d 2 λ1 2 λ1 ...(i) ...(ii) 1 7500 Å × × 0.8 mm = 0.5 mm = 0. 5 mm 2 6000 Å 25. (c) : The linear separation between n bright fringes in nλD an interference pattern on the screen is x n = d As xn < < D, the angular separation between n bright fringes x nλ θn = n = D d = 53 Wave Optics For 10 bright fringes, 10 λ θ10 = d The angular width of the central maximum in the diffraction pattern due to slit of width a is 2λ 2θ1 = a d 1 10 λ 2 λ or a ≤ = mm = 0. 2 mm Now < 5 5 d a 26. (b) 28. (b) : For destructive interference, the path difference λ should be an odd multiple of 2 . 29. (d) : The Huygen’s construction of wavefront does not explain the phenomena of origin of spectra. 30. (a) : The condition for bright fringes is, path difference, d = dsinqbright = Nl where N = 0, ± 1, ± 2, The angular position of the bright fringes is Nλ θbright = sin−1 d 31. (b) : Fresnel distance, \ a 2 (4 × 10−3 )2 4 × 4 × 10−6 = = λ 500 × 10−9 5 × 10−7 zF = 32 m –3 32. (b) : Here, a = 2 mm = 2 × 10 m l = 500 nm = 500 × 10–9 m = 5 × 10–7 m D=1m The distance between the first minima on either side on a screen is = 2λD 2 × 5 × 10−7 × 1 = a 2 × 10−3 = 5 × 10–4 m = 0.5 × 10–3 m = 0.5 mm I1 a 2 a = 2 =β ∴ = β I2 b b Fringe visibility is given by 33. (a) : Imax − Imin (a + b )2 − (a − b )2 = Imax + Imin (a + b )2 + (a − b )2 2(a / b ) 2 β = 2(a + b ) a 2 β + 1 2 + 1 b 34. (c) : For first minimum, a sinq = 1l = a= 4ab 2 2 = 6.5 × 10−7 λ = = 13 × 10–7 = 1.3 micron sin θ sin 30° 35. (a) : Fringe width, β = 27. (c) zF = V= λD d and θ = ∴ d D β= λ θ 36. (d) : n1l1 = n2l2 n 16 × 6000 Å λ2 = 1 λ1 = = 4000 Å n2 24 37. (a) : Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same phase. λ 38. (c) : Angular fringe width θ = d \ l = qd Here, d = 0.01 mm = 10–5 m, π q = 1° = radians 180 π λ= × 10−5 = 1.74 × 10−7 m 180 = 0.174 × 10−6 m = 0.174 µm 39. (d) : If sources are coherent IR = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos φ I0 = I + I + 2I cos 0° = 4I If sources are incoherent, 4I I IR = I1 + I2 = 2I = = 0 2 2 40. (a) : As the beam is initially parallel, the shape of wavefront is planar. 41 (c) : According to Huygens Principle, the surface of constant phase is called a wavefront. 42. (c) 43. (c) : Angular width of central maxima, 2q = 2l/e. Thus, q does not depend on screen i.e., distance between the slit and the screen. 44. (c) : The intensity distribution of single slit diffraction Intensity pattern is shown in the figure. From the graph it is clear that the intensity of the central point is finite but much larger than the 0 θ surrounding maxima. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 54 45. (a) : Width of central maxima = 2lD/e width of other secondary maxima = lD/e \ Width of central maxima : width of other secondary maxima = 2 : 1 46. (d) : Path difference produced is 3 π Dx = pR – R = pR 2 2 For maxima: Dx = nl \ nl = pR πR ⇒ l= , n = 1, 2, 3, .... n πR πR Thus, the possible values of l are pR, , ,... 2 3 47. (b) : Maximum intensity, Imax = I Here, I1 = I2 = 0 (given) 2 2 I0 I0 ∴ Imax = + = 2I 0 2 2 ( I1 + I2 ) 2 2π × Path difference λ φ I = Imax cos2 2 2 I 3 3 3 = = I 0 ⇒ I0 4 2 4 48. (d) : Phase difference φ = 2π λ π × = = 60° As λ 6 3 60° ∴ I = I 0 cos2 = I0 × 2 φ= 49. (c) : Here A2 = a12 + a22 + 2a1a2 cos δ Q a1 = a2 = a δ ∴ A2 = 2a 2 (1 + cos δ) = 2a 2 1 + 2 cos2 − 1 2 δ or A2 ∝ cos2 2 δ δ Now I ∝ A2 ∴ I ∝ A2 ∝ cos2 ⇒ I ∝ cos2 2 2 50. (b) : Suppose the amplitude of waves from each slit is a2. Therefore, intensity due to each slit = a2. When interference is destructive, the resultant amplitude = a – a = 0. \ Minimum intensity = 0 When interference is constructive, the resultant amplitude = a + a = 2a. \ Maximum intensity = (2a)2 = 4a2 = 4 times the intensity due to each slit. 51. (c) : For diffraction of a wave, size of an obstacle or aperture should be comparable to the size of wavelength of the wave. As wavelength of light is of the order of 10–6 m and obstacle / aperture of this size are rare, therefore, diffraction is not common in light waves. On the contrary, wavelength of sound is of the order of 1 m and obstacle / aperture of this size are readily available, therefore, diffraction is common in sound. 52. (a) : In case of interference, intensity of maxima is Imax = ( ( Ia + Ib ) 2 and intensity of minima is ) 2 Imin = I a − I b . Thus, whatever energy disappears at the minimum is actually appearing at the maximum. So, the law of conservation of energy holds good in the phenomenon of interference because in interference energy is neither created nor destroyed but is redistributed. 53. (b) : When slit is wide (i.e. a >> l), bending of light becomes so small that it cannot be detected upto a certain distance of screen from the slit. Hence, practically, no diffraction occurs. 54. (d) : When a light wave travel from a rarer to a denser medium it loses speed, but energy carried by the wave does not depend on its speed. Instead, it depends on the amplitude of wave. The frequency also remain constant. 55. (a) : For reflected system of the film, the maxima or constructive interference is 2mtcosr = while the maxima for transmitted system of film is given by equation 2mt cosr = nl where t is thickness of the film and r is angle of refraction. From these two equations we can see that condition for maxima in reflected system and transmitted system are just opposite. 56. (c) : When one of slits is covered with cellophane paper, the intensity of light emerging from the slit is decreased (because this medium is translucent). Now the two interfering beam have different intensities or amplitudes. Hence, intensity at minima will not be zero and fringes will become indistinct. 57. (a) : As a broad source is equivalent to a large number of narrow sources lying side by side. Each set of these sources will produce an interference pattern of its own which will overlap on another to such an extent that all traces of a fringe system is lost and results in general illumination. Because of this reason, for interference a narrow slit should be used. 58. (c) : The waves diffracted from the edges of circular obstacle, placed in the path of light, interfere constructively at the centre of the shadow resulting in the formation of a bright spot. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. Two sources are said to be coherent, if they emit light waves of same frequency or wavelength and of a constant phase difference. 2. According to Huygens’ principle, each point on a wavefront is a source of secondary waves, which add up to give a wavefront at any later time. 3. In a single slit diffraction separation between fringes nλ q∝ a So, there is no effects on angular separation 2q by changing of the distance of separation ‘D’ between slit and the screen. 55 Wave Optics λD = 0.12mm d λ ⇒ by changing µ; λ becomes µ 3 ⇒ β ′ = × 0.12 = 0.9 mm. 4 λ 5. Angular width, θ = d 4. As β = 0 .1 6 × 10−7 0 .1 = π rad = d 180 \ d= 6 × 10−7 × 180 = 3.44 × 10–4 m 0 .1 × π 6. There would be spherical wave front on earth for sunlight which is treated as point source, but radius is very large as compared to radius of earth, so it is almost a plane wavefront. 7. Yes, Huygen’s principle is valid for longitudinal as well as transverse waves and for all wave phenomena. 8. The diffraction effect is more pronounce if the size of the aperture or the obstacle is of the order of wavelength of wave. As wavelength of light ( 10–6 m) is much more smaller than size of object around us so diffraction of light is not easily seen but sound wave has large wavelength (15 mm < l < 15 m), they get easily diffracted by objects around us. 9. In young’s double slit experiment, if one slit is fully closed, the new pattern has larger central maximum in angular size. 10. Here, d = 1 mm = 1 × 10–3 m D = 1 m, l = 500 nm = 5 × 10–7 m Fringe spacing, β= λD 5 × 10−7 × 1 = = 5 × 10–4 m = 0.5 mm d 1× 10−3 11. Initial fringe width bi = l × (Di/d) Final fringe width bf = l × (Df /d) λ 3 × 10−5 × 10−3 ⇒ ∆β = (Df − Di ) ⇒ λ= = 600 nm d 5 × 10−2 12. The path difference is 2mt. Now for destructive interference it can be λ 3λ 5λ 2µt = or or and so on ...... 2 2 2 580 × 10−9 3 × 580 × 10−9 λ 3λ 5 λ , .... = µ= , , .... 4t 4t 4t 4 × 0.3 × 10−6 4 × 0.3 × 10−6 = 0.4833, 3 × 0.4833 .... So only m = 3 × 0.4833 = 1.45 is the answer {1.3 < m < 1.5} 13. Here n = 1, l = 6 × 10–5 cm Distance of screen from slit = 100 cm Distance of first minimum from central maxima = 0.1 cm sinθ = θ1 = Distance of 1st minima from the central maxima Distance of the screen from the slit 0 .1 1 = 100 1000 We know that asinq = nl I 14. max = Imin Now, I1 = 2I2 ⇒ ( ( I1 + I2 I1 − I2 ) ) ⇒ a= 2 λ = 0.06 cm θ1 2 2I2 + I2 Imax = Imin 2I2 − I2 2 2 2 + 1 = 34 2 − 1 15. The n th bright fringe of the λ pattern and the n′ th bright fringe of the λ′ pattern are situated at Dλ Dλ ′ yn = n . and yn′ = n ′ . d d As this coincide, yn = yn′ n ′Dλ ′ λ ′ 900 6 nDλ n ⇒ = ⇒ = = = d λ 750 5 d n′ hence the first position where overlapping occur is nDλ 6(2m)(750 × 10−9 m) y5′ = y6 = = = 4.5 mm. d (2 × 10−3 m) 16. Given that: Wavelength of the light beam, l1 = 590 nm = 5.9 ×10–7 m Wavelength of another light beam, l2 = 596 nm = 5.96 × 10–7 m Distance of the slits from the screen = D = 1.5 m Slits width = a = 2 × 10–4 m For the first secondary maxima, sin q = x1 = 3λ1 x 1 = 2a D 3λ D 3λ1D and x 2 = 2 2a 2a \ Separation between the positions of first secondary maxima of two sodium lines, 3D ( λ − λ1) 2a 2 3 × 1 .5 = (5.96 × 10–7 – 5.9 × 10–7) 2 × 2 × 10−4 x 2 − x1 = = 6.75 × 10–5 m CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 56 Dλ ; β ∝λ 17. Fringe width β = d β1 λ1 β 8 .1 \ = or λ2 = 2 λ1 = × 640 nm β2 λ 2 β1 7 .2 l2 = 720 nm x = n1b 1 = n2b 2 n1Dλ1 n2 λ2D or or n1λ1 = n2 λ2 = d d Q Bright fringes coincides at least distance x, if n1 = n2 + 1 ⇒ n1 × 640 = (n1 – 1) × 720 n1 − 1 640 or n1 = 9 = n1 720 Q 18. l = 6000 Å = 6000 × 10–10 m = 6 × 10–7 m, q1 = 30°, m=1 1 m + λ 2 (i) For first maximum, sinθm = a 3λ 3 × 6 × 10−7 3λ or a = = sinθ1 = 2 × sin 30° 2 sin θ1 2a = 1.8 × 10–6 m = 1.8 mm (ii) For first minimum, λ λ mλ 6 × 10−7 sin θm = ∴ sin θ1 = ⇒ a = = sin θ1 sin 30° a a = 1.2 × 10−6 m = 1.2 µm 19. (i) Here a = 1 × 10–4 m, D = 1.5 m l = 6000 Å = 6000 × 10–10 m The distance between the two dark bands on each side of central band is equal to width of the central bright band, 2Dλ 2 × 1.5 × 6000 × 10−10 i.e., = 18 mm = a 1× 10−4 20. For minima in diffraction pattern, dsinq = nl λ1 For first minima, dsinq1 = (1)l1 ⇒ sinθ1 = d 3λ2 3 For first maxima, d sin θ2 = λ2 ⇒ sin θ2 = 2 2d The two will coincide if, q1 = q2 or sinq1 = sinq2 λ 3λ 2 2 ∴ 1 = 2 ⇒ λ2 = λ1 = × 660 nm = 440 nm d 2d 3 3 21. (i) 3rd bright fringe will be at 3 × λD 3 × (6500 × 10−10 ) × 1.2 = d 2 × 10−3 = 0.117cm = 1.17mm = (ii) Say mth bright fringe of 6500 Å coincides with nth bright fringe of 5200 Å n 5 = m 4 Hence, for least distance, 5th bright fringe of 5200 Å coincides with 4th bright fringe of 6500 Å. ⇒ nb1 = mb2 ⇒ y ′ = 4β1 = = 1.56 mm ⇒ 4 × (6500 × 10−10 ) × 1.2 2 × 10−3 = 0.156 cm 22. At the hole, wavelength which satisfy the minima condition will be absent. 1 Dλ 2y .d ⇒ y = n + or λ = D (2n + 1) 2 d = 2(1 × 10−3 m)(0.5 × 10−3 m) (0.5m)(2n + 1) 2000 nm 2 × 10−6 m = (2n + 1) 2n + 1 2000 Now, 400 nm ≤ λ ≤ 700 nm or 400 ≤ ≤ 700 2n + 1 n = 0, 1, 2, 3 λ = 667 nm, 400 nm. 667 nm and 400 nm have a complete destructive interference at the hole and consequently will be absent in the light coming from that hole. 23. From diagram T1P = T1O – OP = (D – x) T2P = T2O + OP = (D + x) = Now S1P = = S2P = (S1T1)2 + (T1P )2 D 2 + (D − x )2 (S2T2 )2 + (T2P )2 = D 2 + (D + x )2 λ ; for first minimum to occur 2 λ D 2 + (D + x )2 − D 2 + (D − x )2 = 2 The first minimum falls at a distance D from the center, i.e., x = D. λ [D 2 + 4D 2 ]1/ 2 − D = 2 λ D( 5 − 1) = 2 λ λ D(2.236 – 1) = ; D= 2 . 472 2 24. (a) The angular width of central maximum is given by 2λ 2θ0 = , ...(i) a where the letters have their usual meanings. (i) Effect of slit width : From the equations (i), it follows that 1 β0 ∝ . Therefore, as the slit width is increased, the width a of the central maximum will decrease. Path difference, S2P – S1P = 57 Wave Optics (ii) Effect of distance between slit and screen (D) : From the equation (i), it follows that 2q0 is independent of D. So the angular width will remain same whatever the value of D. (b) Difference between interference and diffraction experiment to observe diffraction pattern Interference Diffraction 1. Interference is caused by 1. Diffraction is caused by superposition two waves superposition of a number of starting from two coherent waves starting from the slit. sources. 2. All bright and dark fringes 2. Width of central bright are of equal width. fringe is double of all other maxima. 3. All bright fringes are of 3. Intensity of bright same intensity. fringes decreases sharply as we move away from central bright fringe. 4. Dark Fringes are perfectly 4. Dark fringes are not dark. perfectly dark. 25. (a) y1 = a cos wt, y2 = a cos (wt + f) where f is phase difference between them. Resultant displacement at point P will be, y = y1 + y2 = a cos wt + a cos(wt + f) = a [cos wt + cos (wt + f)] ( ωt + ωt + φ ) ( ωt − ωt − φ ) = a 2 cos cos 2 2 φ φ ...(i) y = 2a cos ωt + cos 2 2 φ Let y = 2a cos = A , the equation (i) becomes 2 φ y = A cos ωt + 2 where A is amplitude of resultant wave, φ Now, A = 2a cos 2 φ On squaring, A 2 = 4a 2 cos2 2 Hence, resultant intensity, φ I = 4I 0 cos2 2 (b) Condition for constructive interference, cos Df = + 1 ∆x 2π = 0,2π, 4 π... λ or Dx = nl; n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ... Condition for destructive interference, cos Df = – 1 ∆x 2π = π, 3π,5π... λ or Dx = (2n – 1) l/2 where n = 1, 2, 3... 26. (i) Two independent monochromatic sources cannot produce sustained interference pattern because the phase difference between the light waves from two independent sources keeps on changing continuously. (ii) Consider a point P on the screen at distance x from the centre O. The nature of the interference at the point P depends on path difference, p = S2P – S1P From right-angled DS2BP and DS1AP, (S2P)2 – (S1P)2 = [S2B2 + PB2] – [S1A2 + PA2] 2 2 d d = D 2 + x + − D 2 + x − 2 2 or (S2P – S1P)(S2P + S1P) = 2xd 2xd or S2P − S1P = S2P + S1P In practice, the point P lies very close to O, therefore S1P S2P D. Hence 2 xd p = S2P − S1P = 2D xd or p = D Positions of bright fringes : For constructive interference, xd p= = nλ D nDλ or x = where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, .... d Positions of dark fringes : For destructive interference, CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 58 p= xd λ = (2n − 1) D 2 Dλ where n = 1, 2, 3 2d Width of a dark fringe = Separation between two consecutive bright fringes nDλ (n − 1)Dλ Dλ = x n − x n −1 = − = d d d or x = (2n − 1) Width of bright fringe = Separation between two consecutive dark fringes Dλ Dλ Dλ = x n′ − x n′ −1 = (2n − 1) − [2(n − 1) − 1] = 2d 2d d Clearly, both the bright and dark fringes are of equal width. Hence the expression for the fringe width in Young’s double slit experiment can be written as Dλ β= d λ 4 Now path difference between the two waves from slit S1 and S2 on reaching point P on screen is Dx = (SS2 + S2P) – (SS1 + S1P) or Dx = (SS2 – SS1) + (S2P – S1P) λ yd or ∆x = + , where d is the slits separation. 4 D 27. (a) Given :SS2 − SS1 = Screen 28. (i) Dx2 = (m – 1)t = (3/2 – 1)(0.01) = 5.0 × 10–3 cm Dx1 = dsinf = (50 × 10–4) sin30° = 2.5 × 10–3 cm Since Dx2 > Dx1, central maxima will be obtained below O. dsinq + Dx1 = Dx2 50 × 10–4sinφ + 2.5 × 10–3 = 5.0 × 10–3 1 sinφ = or φ = 30° 2 (ii) At O Dx = Dx1 = 2.5 × 10–3 = nl n= 2.5 × 10−3 = 50 500 × 10−3 Number of fringes that will cross O if slab is removed Path difference due to slab 5 × 10−3 = = 100 λ 500 × 10−7 29. (i) D > > d Hence, path difference at any angular position q on the screen Dx = dsinq The path difference for first maxima λ 1 ∆x = d sin θ = λ ⇒ sin θ = = ⇒ q = 30° d 2 Hence, distance between central maxima and first maxima 1 y = D sinθ = m 2 (ii) Maximum path difference, Dxmax = d = 1 mm d ⇒ Highest order maxima, nmax = = 2 and highest λ d 1 order minimum nmin = + = 2 λ 2 Total number of maxima = 2nmax + 1 = 5 Total number of minima = 2nmin = 4 30. Snell’s law of refraction : Let P1P2 represents the surface separating medium 1 and medium 2 as shown in figure. = For constructive interference at point P, path difference, λ yd + = nλ Dx = nl or 4 D yd 1 or = n − λ ...(i) D 4 where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,..., 1 λD (b) From equation (i), y n = n − 4 d 1 λD and yn – 1 = n − 1− 4 d The fringe width is given by separation of two consecutive bright fringes. λD 1 λD 1 λD b = yn – yn – 1 = n − − n − 1− = d 4 d 4 d Let v1 and v2 represents the speed of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. We assume a plane wavefront AB propagating in the direction A′A incident on the interface at an angle i. Let t be the time taken by the wavefront to travel the distance BC. \ BC = v1t [... distance = speed × time] In order to determine the shape of the refracted wavefront, we draw a sphere of radius v2t from the point A in the second 59 Wave Optics medium (the speed of the wave in second medium is v2). Let CE represents a tangent plane drawn from the point C. Then AE = v2t \ CE would represent the refracted wavefront. In DABC and DAEC, we have BC v 1t AE v 2t sini = = = and sinr = AC AC AC AC where i and r are the angles of incident and refraction respectively. sin i v 1t AC = ⋅ \ sin r AC v 2t sin i v 1 = sin r v 2 If c represents the speed of light in vacuum, then c c µ1 = and µ2 = v1 v2 c c ⇒ v1 = and v 2 = µ1 µ2 Where m1 and m2 are the refractive indices of medium 1 and medium 2. \ sin i c / µ1 sin i µ2 ⇒ m1 sin i = m2 sin r = ⇒ = sin r c / µ2 sin r µ1 This is the Snell’s law of refraction. 31. (i) Energy carried by a wave depends on the frequency of the wave, not on the speed of wave propagation, hence energy remains same. (ii) For a given frequency, intensity of light in the photon picture is determined by Energy of photons n × hυ = area × time A ×t where n is the number of photons incident normally on crossing area A in time t. I= I (a + a )2 32. (a) We know, max = 1 2 Imin (a1 − a2 )2 a2 = C E E a a1 2 Hence, 2 Imax (a1 + a1 / 2 )2 (1+ 1 / 2 )2 2 + 1 = = = ≈ 34 Imin (a1 − a1 / 2 )2 (1− 1 / 2 )2 2 − 1 (b) The central fringes are white. On the either side of the central white fringe the coloured bands (few coloured maxima a b b b b c c c c d d e e d d e F B e D F B (a) D (b) Huygens geometrical construction for the propagation of (a) spherical, (b) plane wavefront. According to Huygens principle, each point on AB becomes a source of secondary disturbance, which takes with the same speed c. To find the new wavefront after time t, we draw spheres of radii ct, from each point on AB. The forward envelope or the tangential surface CD of the secondary wavelets gives the new wavefront after time t. The lines aa′, bb′, cc′, etc., are perpendicular to both AB and CD. Along these lines, the energy flows from AB to CD. So these lines represent the rays. Rays are always normal to wavefronts. (b) A source of light sends the disturbance in all the directions and continuous locus of all the particles vibrating in same phase at any instant is called as wavefront. Given figure shows the refraction of a plane wavefront at a rarer medium i.e., v2 > v1 Incident wavefront B v1t i i r A r v1 < v2 I ∝ a 2) a a Rarer – v2 a22 = 0.5 a12( C A A Denser – v1 According to question, I2 = 50% of I1 I2 = 0.5I1; and minima) will appear. This is because fringes of different colours overlap. 33. (a) Consider a spherical or plane wavefront moving towards right. Let AB be its position at any instant of time. The region on its left has received the wave while region on the right is undisturbed. C v2t D Refracted wavefront The incident and refracted wavefronts are shown in figure. Let the angles of incidence and refraction be i and r respectively. From right DABC, we have, BC sin ∠BAC = sin i = AC From right DADC, we have, sin ∠DCA = sin r = AD AC CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 60 sin i v 1 1 sin i BC v 1t = = µ2 = = or sin r v 2 sin r AD v 2t (a constant) This verifies Snell’s law of refraction. The constant 1m2 is called the refractive index of the second medium with respect to first medium. (c) Reflection and refraction arise through interaction of incident light with atomic constituents of matter which vibrate with the same frequency as that of the incident light. Hence frequency remains unchanged. λD 34. (a) (i) Fringe width (β) = d If d decreases then b increases. s λ (ii) For interference fringe, the condition is < D d where s = size of source, D = distance of source from slits. If the source slit width increases, fringe pattern gets less sharp or faint and fringe width decrease. When the source slit is made wide which does not fullfil the above condition and interference pattern not visible. λD (b) Fringe width (β) = d β λD y= = 3 3d yd λD d λ ⇒ ∆p = ⋅ = Path difference (Dp) = D 3d D 3 2π 2π λ 2π ∆φ = ⋅ ∆p = ⋅ = 3 λ λ 3 Intensity at point P = I0 cos2 Df \ 2 Before the wavefront strikes the barrier the wavefront generates another forward moving wavefront. Once the barrier blocks most of the wavefront the forward moving wavefront bends around the slit because the secondary waves they would need to interfere with to create a straight wavefront have been blocked by the barrier. According to Huygen’s principle, each point on the wavefront moving through the slit acts like a point source. We can think about some of the effect of this if we analyse what happens when two point sources are close together and emit wavefronts with the same wavelength and frequency. These two point sources represent the point sources on the two edges of the slit and we can call the source A and source B as shown in the figure. Each point source emits wavefronts from the edge of the slit. In the diagram we show a series of wavefronts emitted from each point source. The continuous lines show peaks in the waves emitted by the point sources and the dotted lines represent troughs. We label the places where constructive interference (peak meets a peak or trough meets a trough) takes place with a solid diamond and places where destructive interference (trough meets a peak) takes place with a hollow diamond. When the wavefronts hit a barrier there will be places on the barrier where constructive interference takes place and places where destructive interference happens. 2 I 2π 1 = I 0 cos = I 0 = 0 2 3 4 Here D = 120 cm = 1.20 m and d = 2 mm = 2 × 10–3 m \ Least distance, nDλ1 4 × 1.2 × 650 × 10−9 y min = m = d 2 × 10−3 = 1.56 × 10–3 m = 1.56 mm 35. (a) Waves diffract when they encounter obstacles. A wavefront impinging on a barrier with a slit in it, only the points on the wavefront that move into the slit can continue emitting forward moving waves but because a lot of the wavefront has been blocked by the barrier, the points on the edges of the hole emit waves that bend round the edges. A B The measurable effect of the constructive or destructive interference at a barrier depends on what type of waves we are dealing with. (b) Condition for nth secondary dark fringe : 1 A I 1 a P O screen II B C = a sin 1 Light rays which on passing through the slit of width ‘a’ get diffracted by an angle q1, such that the path difference between extreme rays on emerging from slit is a sin q1 = l 61 Wave Optics Then the waves from first half and second half of slit have a path difference of l/2, so they interfere destructively at point P on screen, forming first secondary dark fringe. Thus condition for first secondary dark fringe or first secondary minimum is λ sin θ1 = a Similarly, condition for n th secondary dark fringe or n th secondary minimum is nλ sin θn = a where n = 1, 2, 3, 4,........... λ Angular width of first diffraction fringe, θ1 = a Angular width of central maxima, q λ θ1 + θ1 = 2θ1 = 2 a 1 \ θ1 = θ 2 (c) On increasing the value of n, the part of slit contributing to the maxima decreases. Hence, the maxima become weaker. 36. (a) Diffraction of light due to a narrow single slit Consider a set of parallel rays from a lens L1 falling on a slit, form a plane wavefront. According to Huygens principle, each point on the unblocked point of plane wavefront AB sends out secondary wavelets in all directions. The secondary waves from points equidistant from the centre C of the slit lying in the portion CA and CB of the wavefront travel the same distance in reaching at O and hence the path difference between them is zero. These secondary waves reinforce each other, resulting maximum intensity at point O. Position of secondary minima : The secondary waves travelling in the direction making an angle q with CO, will reach a point P on the screen. The intensity at P will depend on the path difference between the secondary waves emitted from the corresponding points of the wavefront. The wavelets from points A and B will have a path difference equal to BN. If this path difference is l, then P will be a point of minimum intensity. This is because the whole wavefront can be considered to be divided into two equal halves CA and CB. If the path difference between secondary waves from A and B is l, then the path difference between secondary waves from A and C will be l/2 and also the path difference between secondary waves from B and C will again be l/2. Also for every point in the upper half AC, there is a corresponding point in the lower half CB for which the path difference between secondary waves reaching P is l/2. Thus, at P destructive interference will take place. From the right-angled DANB given in figure BN = AB sin q BN = a sin q Suppose BN = l and q = q1 \ l = a sin q1 λ sinθ1 = a Such a point on the screen will be the position of the first secondary minimum. If BN = 2l and q = q2, then, 2l = a sin q2 2λ a Such a point on the screen will be the position of the second secondary minimum. In general, for nth minimum at point P. nλ sinθn = a nλ θ For small n , θn = ...(i) a Position of secondary maxima : If any other P′ is such that path difference at point is given by 3λ a sinθ = 2 Then P1 will be position of first secondary maximum. Here, we can consider the wavefront to be divided into three equal parts, so that the path difference between secondary waves from corresponding points in the 1st two parts will be l/2. This will give rise to destructive interference. However, the secondary waves from the third part remain unused and therefore, they will reinforce each other and produce first secondary maximum. Similarly if the path difference at that points given by 5λ a sinθ5 = 2 We get second secondary maximum of lower intensity. In general, for nth secondary maximum, we have λ a sin θn = (2n + 1) 2 λ θ , θ = For small n n (2n + 1) 2a The diffraction pattern on the screen is shown below along with intensity distribution of fringes sinθ2 = CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 62 I Central Maxima 3 2 a a a O a 2 3 a a Width of the secondary maximum, nDλ (n − 1)Dλ β = y n − y n −1 = − a a Dλ ...(i) a \ b is independent of n, all the secondary maxima are of the same width b. 3λ If BN = and θ = θ1′ , from above equation, we have 2 3λ sin θ1′ = 2a β= Such a point on the screen will be the position of the first secondary maximum. Corresponding to path difference, 5λ BN = and θ = θ2′ , the second secondary maximum is 2 produced. In general, for the nth maximum at point P, (2n + 1) λ sin θn′ = ...(ii) 2a If y′n is the distance of nth maximum from the centre of the screen, then the angular position of the nth maximum is given by y′ tan θn′ = n ...(iii) D In case q′n is small, sin θn′ ≈ tan θn′ (2n + 1)Dλ \ y n′ = 2a Width of the secondary minimum, Dλ β′ = ...(iv) a Since b′ is independent of n, all the secondary minima are of the same width b′. (b) Here, l1 = 590 nm = 590 × 10–9 m, l2 = 596 nm = 596 × 10–9 m, d = 2 × 10–6 m, D = 1.5 m Distance of first secondary maximum from the centre of the screen is 3 λD x= 2 d For the two wavelengths, 3 Dλ 2 3 Dλ1 x1 = and x 2 = 2 d 2 d Spacing between the first two maximum of sodium lines, 3D x 2 − x1 = ( λ − λ1) 2d 2 3 × 1 .5 = (596 × 10−9 − 590 × 10−9 ) 2 × 2 × 10−6 = 3 × 1.5 × 6 × 10−3 = 6.75 × 10−3 m = 6.75 mm 4 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Electron emission : It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of a metal. The minimum energy needed by an electron to come out from a metal surface is known as “work function” of the metal. It is denoted by f0 or W0 and measured in electron volt (eV). hc Work function W = hυ0 = λ0 The electron emission can be obtained from the following physical processes : X Thermionic emission : It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the metal surface when heated suitably. X Photoelectric emission : It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of metal when light radiations of suitable frequency fall on it. X Field emission or cold cathode emission : It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of a metal under the application of a strong electric field. Photoelectric effect : It is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of metals, when light radiations of suitable frequency fall on them. X Photoelectric current : Photoelectric current depends on the intensity of incident light and the potential difference applied between the two Intensity of light electrodes. X Stopping potential : The minimum negative potential given to anode plate w.r.t. to cathode plate at which the photoelectric current becomes zero is known as stopping potential or cut off potential. It is denoted by V0. If e is the Photoelectric current CHAPTER charge on the photoelectron, then 1 2 K max = eV0 = mvmax 2 where m is the mass of photoelectron and vmax is the maximum velocity of emitted photoelectrons. – Variation of stopping potential V0 with frequency u of incident radiation : – Variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different intensity of incident radiation : Photocurrent Saturation current Stopping potential –V0 Retarding potential I3 > I 2 > I 1 I3 I2 I1 O Collector plate potential – Variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different frequencies of incident radiation : CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 64 Einstein’s photoelectric equation : If a light of frequency u is incident on a photosensitive material having work function (f0), then maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is given as Kmax = hu – f0 For u > u0 or eV0 = hu – f0 = hu – hu0 1 1 or eV0 = K max = hc − . λ λ0 where u0 = threshold frequency l0 = threshold wavelength l = incident wavelength Einstein’s photoelectric equation is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy. Dual nature of radiation : Wave theory of electromagnetic radiation explains the phenomenon of interference, diffraction and polarisation. On the other hand, photoelectric effect is supported by particle nature of light. Hence, we assume dual nature of light. Photons : These are the packets of energy (or energy particles) which are emitted by a source of radiation. The photons emitted from a source, travel through space with the same speed c (equal to the speed of light). hc X Energy of a photon E = hυ = λ where, u = frequency, l = wavelength h = Planck’s constant, c = speed of the light X Momentum of photon is E hυ p= = c c X The rest mass of photon is zero. E hυ X The moving mass m of photon is m = = . c2 c2 X All photons of light of a particular frequency u or wavelength l have the hc same energy E = hυ = and momentum λ hυ h p = = , whatever be the intensity of c λ X radiation. Photon energy is independent of intensity of radiation. X X X Photons are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. In a photon-particle collision (such as photon-electron collision), the total energy and total momentum are conserved. Number of photons emitted per second of frequency u from a lamp of power P is P Pλ n= = hυ hc de-Broglie waves (Matter waves) : Radiation has dual nature, wave and particle. The nature of experiment determines whether a wave or a particle description is best suited for understanding the experimental result. Reasoning that radiation and matter should be symmetrical in nature, Louis Victor de Broglie attributed a wave like character to matter (material particles). The waves associated with the moving material particles are known as matter waves or de Broglie waves. X de-Broglie wavelength : The de Broglie wavelength associated with a moving particle is related to its momentum as h h de-Broglie wavelength, λ = = p mv where m is the mass of the particle, v is the velocity of the particle, p is the momentum of the particle. – de-Broglie wavelength is independent of the charge and nature of the material particle. – In terms of kinetic energy K, de Broglie h wavelength is given by λ = . 2mK – If a particle of charge q is accelerated through a potential difference V, its de-Broglie wavelength is given by λ= h 2mqV . 150 For an electron, λ = V 1/2 Å. – For a gas molecule of mass m at temperature T kelvin, its de-Broglie h wavelength is given by λ = , 3mkT where k is the Boltzmann constant. Practice Time OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function of height is proportional to (a) H (b) H 1/2 (c) H0 (d) H–1/2 2. The threshold frequency of a certain metal is 3.3 × 10 14 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 10 24 Hz is incident on the metal, then the cut off voltage for photoelectric emission is (Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s) (a) 2 V (b) 4 V (c) 6 V (d) 8 V 3. A proton and an a-particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength lp to that of la is (a) (c) 2 :1 6 :1 (b) 4 :1 (d) 8 :1 4. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of kinetic energy K is l. What will be the wavelength K of the particle, if its kinetic energy is ? 4 λ (a) l (b) 2l (c) (d) 4l 2 5. When the velocity of an electron increases, its de Broglie wavelength (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) may increase or decrease 6. Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum (p) and associated de Broglie wavelength (l)? (a) (c) (b) (d) 7. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 150 g travelling at 30 m s–1 is (a) 1.47 × 10–34 m (c) 1.47 × 10–19 m (b) 1.47 × 10–16 m (d) 1.47 × 10–31 m 8. T h e w a v e l e n g t h o f m a t t e r w a v e i s independent of (a) mass (b) velocity (c) momentum (d) charge 9. Photons absorbed in matter are converted to heat. A source emitting n photons per second of frequency u is used to convert 1 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C. Then, the time T taken for the conversion (a) decreases with increasing n, with u fixed. (b) decreases with n fixed, u increasing. (c) remains constant with n and u changing such that nu = constant. (d) All of these. 10. If alpha particle, proton and electron move with the same momentum, then their respective de Broglie wavelengths la, lp, le are related as (a) la = lp = le (b) la < lp < le (c) la > lp > le (d) lp > le > la 11. If the momentum of an electron is changed by p, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be (a) 200p (b) 400p (c) p 200 (d) 100p 12. Who established that electric charge is quantised ? (a) J.J. Thomson (b) William Crookes (c) R.A Millikan (d) Wilhelm Rontgen 13. The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered in 1887 by (a) Albert Einstein (b) Heinrich Hertz (c) Wilhelm Hallwachs (d) Philipp Lenard 14. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in a metal at 27°C is (Given me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg, kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1) G:\MTG\Book2021\CBSETerm-2_ExamReady\Class12\Physics\Ch_11_DualNatureofRadiationandMatter\Ch_11_DualNatureofRadiationandMatter_Exe\Ch_11_DualNatureofRadiationandMatter_Exe.indd CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 66 (a) 6.2 × 10–9 m (c) 6.2 × 10–8 m (b) 6.2 × 10–10 m (d) 6.2 × 10–7 m 15. A student performs an experiment on photoelectric effect using two materials A and B. A plot of stopping potential (V0)vs frequency (u) (V0) frequency is as shown in the figure. he value of h obtained from the experiment for T both A and B respectively is (Given electric charge of an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C) (a) 3.2 × 10–34 J s, 4 × 10–34 J s (b) 6.4 × 10–34 J s, 8 × 10–34 J s (c) 1.2 × 10 –34 J s, 3.2 × 10 –34 J s (d) 4.2 × 10 –34 J s, 5 × 10 –34 J s 16. The maximum frequency and minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons respectively is (a) 7.24 × 1018 Hz, 0.041 nm (b) 3.21 × 1018 Hz, 0.211 nm (c) 5.32 × 1018 Hz, 0.001 nm (d) 2.13 × 1018 Hz, 0.011 nm 17. The matter-wave picture of electromagnetic wave/radiation elegantly incorporated the (a) Heinsenberg’s uncertainty principle (b) correspondence principle (c) cosmic theory (d) Hertz’s observations 18. The minimum energy required for the electron emission from the metal surface can be supplied to the free electrons by which of the following physical processes? (a) Thermionic emission (b) Field emission (c) Photoelectric emission (d) All of these 19. Assume that a molecule is moving with the root mean square speed at temperature 300 K. The de Broglie wavelength of nitrogen molecule is (Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u, h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1, 1 u = 1.66 × 10–27 kg) –11 (a) 2.75 × 10 m (b) 2.75 × 10–12 m –11 (c) 3.24 × 10 m (d) 3.24 × 10 –12 m 20. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted is (a) 2.4 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 3.1 eV (d) 4.5 eV 21. Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 W. The number of photons emitted per second is (Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s) (a) 2 × 1015 (b) 3 × 1015 (c) 4 × 1015 (d) 5 × 1015 22. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to the nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly (a) 1.2 nm (b) 1.2 × 10–3 nm (c) 1.2 × 10–6 nm (d) 1.2 × 10–5 nm 23. In an accelerator experiment on high energy collisions of electrons with positrons, a certain event is interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron pair of total energy 10.2 × 109 eV into two g-rays of equal energy. The wavelength associated with each g-ray is (a) 3.21 × 10–18 m (b) 1.23 × 10–16 m –16 (c) 2.44 × 10 m (d) 4.21 × 10–14 m 24. A blue lamp mainly emits light of wavelength 4500 Å. The lamp is rated at 150 W and 8% of the energy is emitted as visible light. The number of photons emitted by the lamp per second is (a) 3 × 1019 (b) 3 × 1024 (c) 3 × 1020 (d) 3 × 1018 25. A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency u 1 and stopping potential is found to be V1. If the light of frequency u2 irradiates the surface, the stopping potential will be h h (a) V1 + (υ1 + υ2 ) (b) V1 + (υ2 − υ1 ) e e h e (c) V1 + (υ2 − υ1 ) (d) V1 − (υ1 + υ2 ) e h 26. A particle of mass 4m at rest decays into two particles of masses m and 3m having nonzero velocities. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of the particles 1 and 2 is 67 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 1 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 1 2 4 27. The photoelectric threshold frequency of a metal is u. When light of frequency 4u is incident on the metal, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is 5hυ (a) 4hu (b) 3hu (c) 5hu (d) 2 28. The de Broglie wavelength is given by 2π (a) p = λ (b) p = 2λ 2π 2π (c) p = λ (d) p = λ 29. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy 120 eV is (Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, me = 9 × 10–31 kg, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J) (a) 2.13 Å (b) 1.13 Å (c) 4.15 Å (d) 3.14 Å (a) 30. If h is Planck’s constant, the momentum of a photon of wavelength 0.01 Å is (a) 10–2h (b) h (c) 102h (d) 1012h 31. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) 2m( E − φ0 ) eB 2e( E − φ0 ) (b) (d) 34. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for silver is l0. The energy of the electron ejected from the surface of silver by an incident wavelength l(l < l0) will be hc (a) hc(l0 – l) (b) λ0 − λ h λ0 − λ λ − λ (d) hc 0 c λλ 0 λλ 0 35. Electrons with de Broglie wavelength l fall on the target in an X ray tube. The cut off wavelength (l0)of the emitted X rays is (c) (a) λ 0 = 2mcλ 2 h (b) λ 0 = 2h mc 2m2 c2 λ 2 (d) l0 = l h2 36. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 × 10 14 Hz and 2.2 × 10 14 Hz. Two identical photons of energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted in (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s) (a) B alone (b) A alone (c) neither A nor B (d) both A and B (c) λ 0 = 37. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is (a) 25% (b) 75% (c) 60% (d) 50% 32. A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron from a metal surface whose work function is f0. If this electron enters into a uniform magnetic field B in a direction perpendicular to the field and describes a circular path of radius r, then the radius r is (in the usual notation) (a) (a) remains constant (b) increases with time (c) decreases with time (d) increases and decreases periodically 2m( E − φ0 )eB 2m( E − φ0 ) mB eB 33. An electron is moving with an initial velocity v = v0i and is in a magnetic field B = B0 j . Then its de Broglie wavelength 38. The rest mass of photon is hυ hυ (a) (b) 2 c c hυ (c) (d) zero λ 39. In photoelectric effect, the photoelectric current is independent of (a) intensity of incident light (b) potential difference applied between the two electrodes (c) the nature of emitter material (d) frequency of incident light 40. The work function for Al, K and Pt is 4.28 eV, 2.30 eV and 5.65 eV respectively. Their respective threshold frequencies would be (a) Pt > Al > K (b) Al > Pt > K (c) K > Al > Pt (d) Al > K > Pt CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 68 Case Based MCQs Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 41 to 44. Photoelectric Effect Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metal surface, when radiations of suitable frequency fall on them. The emitted electrons are called photoelectrons and the current so produced is called photoelectric current. 41. With the increase of intensity of incident radiations on photoelectrons emitted by a photo tube, the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time is (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of these 42. It is observed that photoelectron emission stops at a certain time t after the light source is switched on. The stopping potential (V) can be represented as (a) 2(KEmax/e) (b) (KEmax/e) (c) (KEmax/3e) (d) (KEmax/2e) 43. A point source of light of power 3.2 × 10–3 W emits monoenergetic photons of energy 5.0 eV and work function 3.0 eV. The efficiency of photoelectron emission is 1 for every 106 incident photons. Assume that photoelectrons are instantaneously swept away after emission. The maximum kinetic energy of photon is (a) 4 eV (b) 5 eV (c) 2 eV (d) Zero 44. If the frequency of incident light falling on a photosensitive metal is doubled, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is (a) unchanged (b) halved (c) doubled (d) more than twice its initial value Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 45 to 47. de-Broglie Wavelength According to de-Broglie, a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and sometimes as a particle or a wave associated with moving material particle which controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave where wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, h is given by λ = . mv l 45. If a proton and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelength, then (a) kinetic energy of electron < kinetic energy of proton (b) kinetic energy of electron = kinetic energy of proton (c) momentum of electron = momentum of proton (d) momentum of electron < momentum of proton 46. Which of these particles having the same kinetic energy has the largest de Broglie wavelength? (a) Electron (b) Alpha particle (c) Proton (d) Neutron 47. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) have the same de Broglie wavelength. Then (a) their momenta are the same. (b) their energies are the same. (c) momentum of A1 is less than the momentum of A2. (d) energy of A1 is more than the energy of A2. Case III : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 48 to 52. Wave Theory of Light According to wave theory, the light of any frequency can emit electrons from metallic surface provided the intensity of light be sufficient to provided necessary energy for emission of electrons, but according to experimental observations, the light of frequency less than threshold frequency can not emit electrons; whatever be the intensity of incident light. Einstein also proposed that electromagnetic radiation is quantised. If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength l1 = 550 nm is incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons is Vs = 0.19 V. Suppose the radiation of wavelength l2 = 190 nm is incident on the surface. 69 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 48. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because (A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted. (B) the maximum K.E. of photoelectric depends only on the frequency of light and not on its intensity. (C) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photo electrons leave the surface immediately. (D) electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized. (a) A, B, C (b) B, C (c) C, D (d) A, D, C 49. In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a certain minimum (a) wavelength (b) frequency (c) amplitude (d) angle of incidence 50. Calculate the stopping potential Vs of 2 surface. (a) 4.47 (b) 3.16 (c) 2.76 (d) 5.28 51. Calculate the work function of the surface. (a) 3.75 (b) 2.07 (c) 4.20 (d) 3.60 52. Calculate the threshold frequency for the surface. (a) 500 × 1012 Hz (b) 480 × 1013 Hz 11 (c) 520 × 10 Hz (d) 460 × 1013 Hz Case IV : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 53 to 55. Hertz Observations To study photoelectric effect, an emitting electrode C of a photosensitive material is kept at negative potential and collecting electrode A is kept at positive potential in an evacuated tube. When light of sufficiently high frequency falls on emitting electrode, photoelectrons are emitted which travel directly to collecting electrode and hence an electric current called photoelectric current starts flowing in the circuit, which is directly proportional to the number of photoelectrons emitted by emitting electrode C. While demonstrating the existence of electromagnetic waves, Hertz found that high voltage sparks passed across the metal electrodes of the detector loop more easily when the cathode was illuminated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp. The ultraviolet light falling on the metal surface caused the emission of negatively charged particles, which are now known to be electrons, into the surrounding space and hence enhanced the high voltage sparks. 53. (a) (b) (c) (d) Cathode rays were discovered by Maxwell Clerk James Heinrich Hertz William Crookes J. J. Thomson 54. Cathode rays consists of (a) photons (b) electrons (c) pistons (d) a-particles. 55. the (a) (c) Who discovered the charge on an electron for frist time? Millikan (b) Thomson Kelvin (d) Coulomb Assertion & Reasoning Based MCQs For question numbers 56-60, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 56. Assertion (A) : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light. Reason (R) : The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light. 57. Assertion (A) : The de-Broglie wavelength of particle having kinetic energy K is l. If its kinetic energy becomes 4 K then its new wavelength would be l/2. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 70 Reason (R) : The de-Broglie wavelength l is inversely proportional to square root of the kinetic energy. 58. Assertion (A) : There is a physical significance of matter waves. Reason (R) : Both interference and diffraction occurs in it. 59. Assertion (A) : A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum. Reason (R) : Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass. 60. Assertion (A) : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small. Reason (R) : Work function = hu0, where u0 is the threshold frequency. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. When a light of wavelength 400 nm falls on a metal of work function 2.5 eV, what will be the maximum magnitude of linear momentum of emitted photoelectron? 2. Do all the electrons that absorb a photon come out as photoelectron? 3. If light of wavelength 412.5 nm is incident on each of the metals given in table, which one will show photoelectric emission and why? which absorb photons of larger wavelength and emit light of shorter wavelength. 7. Name the phenomenon which shows the quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation. 8. Write the relationship of de-Broglie wavelength l associated with a particle of mass m in terms of its kinetic energy E. 5. T h e t h r e s h o l d w a v e l e n g t h f o r t w o photosensitive surfaces A and B are l 1 and l2 respectively. What is the ratio of the work functions of the two surfaces? 9. (i) In the explanation of photoelectric effect, we assume one photon of frequency u collides with an electron and transfers its energy. This leads to the equation for the maximum energy Emax of the emitted electron as Emax = hu – φ0 where φ0 is the work function of the metal. If an electron absorbs 2 photons (each of frequency u) what will be the maximum energy for the emitted electron? (ii) Why is this fact (two photon absorption) not taken into consideration in our discussion of the stopping potential? 6. There are materials which absorb photons of shorter wavelength and emit photons of longer wavelength. Can there be stable substances 10. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie wavelength and why? Metal Na K Ca Mo Work Function (eV) 1.92 2.15 3.20 4.17 4. Define the term “Intensity” in photon picture of electromagnetic radiation. Short Answer Type Questions (SA-I) 11. A metallic surface is irradiated with monochromatic light of variable wavelength. Above a wavelength of 5000 Å, no photoelectrons are emitted from the surface. With an unknown wavelength, stopping potential is 3 V. Find the unknown wavelength. 12. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, light of wavelength 800 nm (less than threshold wavelength) is incident on a cesium plate at the rate of 5.0 W. The potential of the collector plate is made sufficiently positive with respect to the emitter so that the current reaches its saturation value. Assuming that on the average one of every 106 photons is able to eject a photoelectron, find the photo current in the circuit. 71 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 13. One milliwatt of light of wavelength l = 4560 Å is incident on a cesium metal surface. Calculate the electron current liberated. Assume a quantum efficiency of h = 0.5%. [Work function for cesium = 1.89 eV]. Take hc = 12400 eV Å. 14. When light of wavelength l is incident on a metal surface, stopping potential is found to be x. When light of wavelength nl is incident on the same metal surface, stopping potential is found x to be Find the threshold wavelength of n +1 the metal. 15. The magnetic field at a point associated with a light wave is B = 2 × 10–6 tesla sin[(3.0 × 1015 s–1)t] sin[(6.0 × 1015 s–1)t]. If this light falls on a metal surface having a work function of 2.0 eV, what will be the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons? 16. A light beam of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a metal plate of work function of 2.2 eV. An electron absorbs a photon and makes some collisions before coming out of the metal. Assuming that 10% of the instantaneous energy is lost to the metal in each collision. (i) Find the kinetic energy of electron which makes two collisions as it comes out of the metal. (ii) Under the same assumptions, find the minimum number of collisions the electron can suffer before it becomes unable to come out of metal. (Use hc = 12400 eV Å) 17. Consider figure for photoemission. How would you reconcile with momentum-conservation? Note light (photons) have momentum in a different direction than the emitted electrons. electron light metal 18. (a) Define the terms, (i) threshold frequency and (ii) stopping potential in photoelectric effect. (b) Plot a graph of photocurrent versus anode potential for a radiation of frequency u and intensities I1 and I2 (I1 < I2). 19. Using the graph shown in the figure for stopping potential versus the incident frequency of photons, calculate Planck’s constant. 20. X-rays fall on a photosensitive surface to cause photoelectric emission. Assuming that the work function of the surface can be neglected, find the relation between the de-Broglie wavelength (l) of the electrons emitted and the energy (Ev) of the incident photons. Draw the nature of the graph for l as a function of Ev. Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 21. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made 1. Wavelength of the incident light = 2 × 10–7 m 2. Stopping potential = 3 V Find (i) kinetic energy of photoelectrons with maximum speed (ii) work function and (iii) threshold frequency (h = 6.62 × 10–34 J s). 22. A beam of light consists of four wavelengths 4000 Å, 4800 Å, 6000 Å and 7000 Å, each of intensity 1.5 × 10 –3 Wm –2 . The beam falls normally on an area 10–4 m2, of a clean metallic surface of work function 1.9 eV. Assuming no loss of light energy (i.e., each capable photon emits one electron), calculate the number of photoelectrons liberated per second. 23. Two monochromatic beams A and B of equal intensity I, hit a screen. The number of photons hitting the screen by beam A is twice that by beam B. Then what inference can you make about their frequencies? 24. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength 1.00 nm. Find (i) their momenta, (ii) the energy of the photon and (iii) the kinetic energy of electron. 25. (a) Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 Å from a 100 W mercury source is incident on a photocell made of molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is 1.3 V, estimate the work function of the metal. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 72 (b) How would the photocell respond to high intensity (105 W/m2) red light of wavelength 6328 Å produced by a He – Ne laser? 26. Two particles A and B of de–Broglie wavelengths l 1 and l 2 combine to form a particle C. The process conserves momentum. Find the de–Broglie wavelength of the particle C. (The motion is one dimensional). 27. (a) An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of the two has (i) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it, and (ii) lesser momentum? Justify your answer in each case. (b) How is the momentum of a particle related with its de-Broglie wavelength? Show the variation on a graph. 28. State three important properties of photons which describe the particle picture of electromagnetic radiation. 29. A neutron beam of energy E scatters from atoms on a surface with a spacing d = 0.1 nm. The first maximum of intensity in the reflected beam occurs at q = 30°. What is the kinetic energy E of the beam in eV? 30. Assuming an electron is confined to a 1 nm wide region, find the uncertainty in momentum using Heisenberg Uncertainty principle. You can assume the uncertainty in position Dx as 1 nm. Assuming p Dp, find the energy of the electron in electron volts. 31. C o n s i d e r a m e t a l e x p o s e d t o l i g h t of wavelength 600 nm. The maximum energy of the electron doubles when light of wavelength 400 nm is used. Find the work function in eV. 32. (a) S t at e t w o i m p o r t an t fea tu res of Einstein’s photoelectric equation. (b) Radiation of frequency 1015 Hz is incident on two photosensitive surfaces P and Q. There is no photoemission from surface P. Photoemission occurs from surface Q but photoelectrons have zero kinetic energy. Explain these observations and find the value of work function for surface Q. Long Answer Type Questions (LA) 33. Consider a 20 W bulb emitting light of wavelength of 5000 Å and shining on a metal surface kept at a distance 2 m. Assume that the metal surface has work function of 2 eV and that each atom on the metal surface can be treated as a circular disk of radius 1.5 Å. (i) Estimate no. of photons emitted by the bulb per second. [Assume no other losses] (ii) Will there be photoelectric emission? (iii) How much time would be required by the atomic disk to receive energy equal to work function (2 eV)? (iv) How many photons would atomic disk receive within time duration calculated in (iii) above? (v) Can you explain how photoelectric effect was observed instantaneously? 34. Figure shows a plot of stopping potential (V0) with frequency (u) of incident radiation for two photosensitive material M1 and M2. Explain (i) why the slope of both the lines is same? (ii) for which material emitted electrons have greater kinetic energy for the same frequency of incident radiation? 35. Explain how Einstein’s photoelectric equation is used to describe photoelectric effect satisfactorily. 36. Consider a thin target (10 –2 m square, 10–3 m thickness) of sodium, which produces a photocurrent of 100 mA when a light of intensity 100 W m–2 (l = 660 nm) falls on it. Find the probability that a photoelectron is produced when a photon strikes a sodium atom. [Take density of Na = 0.97 kg m–3]. 37. A particle A with a mass mA is moving with a velocity v and hits a particle B (mass mB) at rest (one dimensional motion). Find the change in the de Broglie wavelength of the particle A. Treat the collision as elastic. 73 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 8. 1. (d) : Velocity acquired by a particle while falling from a height H is 9. v = 2gH ...(i) h h (Using (i)) As λ = = mv m 2gH 1 or λ ∝ H 2. (a) : Given threshold frequency, u0 = 3.3 × 1014 Hz Frequency of incident light, u = 8.2 × 1014 Hz h ( υ − υ0 ) As eV0 = h(u – u0) or V0 = e 3. ∴ 6.63 × 10 −34 (8.2 × 1014 − 3.3 × 1014 ) =2V = 1.6 × 10 −19 h (d) : As λ = 2mqV λ∝ = 1 mq 4m p × 2e mp × e ∴ λp λα = 8 = m αq α mpq p (∵ m α = 4mp , q α = 2qp ) h 4. (b) : de Broglie wavelength, λ = ...(i) 2mK K When the kinetic energy is then 4 h 2h λ′ = = = 2λ (Using (i)) 2m (K / 4) 2mK 5. (b) : The de Broglie wavelength is given by h h λ= = p mv 1 λ∝ v So if the velocity of the electron increases, the de Broglie wavelength decreases. h 6. (d) : de Broglie wavelength, l = p 1 or l ∝ p Hence, curve (d) is the correct option. 7. (a) : Mass of the ball, m = 150 g = 0.15 kg, Speed of the ball, v = 30 m s–1 Momentum, p = mv = 0.15 × 30 = 4.5 kg m s–1 h 6.63 × 10 −34 de Broglie wavelength, λ = = = 1.47 × 10–34 m p 4.5 (d) (d) : Energy spent to convert ice into water = mL = (1000 g) × 80 cal g –1 = 80000 cal Energy of photons used = nT × E = nT × hu \ nThu = mL T= or mL nhυ T ∝ 1/n when u is constant, T ∝ 1/u when n fixed, T ∝ 1/nu. Thus T is constant if nu is constant. Thus options (a), (b) and (c) are correct. h 10. (a) : de-Broglie wavelength, λ = p where symbols have their usual meaning. \ ∵ pα = pp = pe \ la = lp = le 11. (a) : de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron is h h λ= or p = p λ ∴ ∆p ∆λ =− ⇒ p λ 0.5 p = pinitial 100 pinitial = 200p 12. (c) : Millikan’s experiment established that electric charge is quantised. 13. (b) : The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered by Heinrich Hertz in 1887. 14. (a) : Here, T = 27 + 273 = 300 K For an electron in a metal, momentum p = 3mk BT de Broglie wavelength of an electron is h h λ= = p 3mk BT 6.63 × 10 −34 = 3 × (9.1 × 10 −31 ) × (1.38 × 10 −23 ) × 300 = 6.2 × 10 –9 m 15. (b) : CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 74 Since, eV0 = hn v h ∴ slope of = slope of 0 e ν = 22. (b) : Here, E = 1 MeV = 106 eV, h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s, c = 3 × 108 m s–1 For metal A, 2−0 h Slope = = e (10 − 5) × 1014 or h= or 2×e 2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = = 6.4 × 10 −34 J s 14 14 5 × 10 5 × 10 For metal B, 2.5 − 0 h Slope = = e (15 − 10) × 1014 2.5 × e 2.5 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = h= 5 × 1014 5 × 1014 = 8 × 10–34 J s 16. (a) : Here, V = 30 kV, h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s As eV = humax or υmax = As eV = eV 1.6 × 10 −19 × 3 × 104 = 7.24 × 1018 Hz = h 6.63 × 10 −34 hc λ min 18. (d) 19. (a) : Mean kinetic energy of a molecule 3 1 2 = k BT = mv rms 2 2 3k BT m Here, m = 2 × 14.0076 = 28.02 u h h As λ = = mvrms 3mkB T ∴ v rms = = hc = As E = or λ= 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 ≈ 1240 eV nm 1.6 × 10 −19 hc λ hc 1240 eV nm = = 1.24 × 10 −3 nm E 106 eV 23. (c) : Here, total energy of 2 g-rays = 10.2 × 109 eV 1 9 −19 \ Energy of each g-rays = = (10.2 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 ) J 2 = 8.16 × 10 –10 J hc As E = hυ = λ or λ= hc 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 = = 2.44 × 10–16 m E 8.16 × 10 −10 24. (a) : Number of photons emitted per second = hc 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 or λ min = = = 0.041 × 10 −9 m eV 1.6 × 10 −19 × 3 × 104 = 0.041 nm 17. (a) 2 × 10 −3 = 5 × 1015 photons per second 3.98 × 10 −19 6.63 × 10 −34 3 × (28.02 × 1.66 × 10 −27 ) × 1.38 × 10 −23 × 300 = 2.75 × 10 –11 m 20. (b) : Here, V0 = 1.5 V, Maximum kinetic energy = eV0 = 1.5 eV 21. (d) : Here, u = 6 × 1014 Hz, h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s As E = hu = 6.63 × 10–34 × 6 × 1014 = 3.98 × 10–19 J Number of photons emitted per second, P n= E = 8% of P E 8 × 150 × 4500 × 10 −10 8Pλ = 100 hc 100 × 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 = 3 × 1019 photons per second 1 25. (b) : Maximum kinetic energy K max = mv 2 = eVo 2 where Vo is the stopping potential. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation hu1 = f0 + eV1 ... (i) hu2 = f0+ eV2 ... (ii) \ h(u1 – u2) = e(V1 – V2) h h ( υ1 − υ2 ) = V1 − V2 or V2 = V1 + ( υ2 − υ1 ) e e 26. (d) : According to law of conservation of linear momentum, two particles will have equal and opposite momentum. The de Broglie wavelength is given by λ1 h λ= ∴ =1 p λ2 27. (b) : The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron is given by Kmax = hu – f0 = h(4u) – h(u) = 3hu 28. (a) : de Broglie wavelength is given by 75 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter λ= or p = h λ Since, = As this force is perpendicular to v and B , so the magnitude of v will not change. i.e momentum (= mv) will remains constant in magnitude. h Therefore, de Broglie wavelength, λ = remains mv constant. h , where p is the momentum p h 2π ∴ p= 2π λ 34. (d) : According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation p = 2mK 29. (b) : As K= = 2 × 9 × 10 −31 × 120 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = 5.88 × 10–24 kg m s–1 de Broglie wavelength, h 6.63 × 10 −34 λ= = = 1.13 × 10–10 m = 1.13 Å −24 p 5.88 × 10 E hυ 30. (d) : Momentum of photon, p = = c c where E is the energy of a photon and c is the velocity of light. hc c ∴ p= ∵ υ = λ cλ h h = = = 1012 h λ 0.01 × 10 −10 31. (d) : The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron ejected is given by 35. (a) : Let K be the kinetic energy of the incident electron. Its linear momentum, p = 2mK The de Broglie wavelength is related to the linear momentum as λ= 2 mv = evB r mv p 2mK r= = = eB eB eB p2 ( As K = ) 2m From Einstein’s photoelectric equation K = E – f0 ∴ r= 2m (E − φ0 ) eB ^ ^ 33. (a) : Here, v = v 0 i , B = B0 j Force on moving electron due to magnetic field is ^ ^ ^ F = − e (v × B ) = − e (v 0 i × B0 j ) = − ev 0B0 k h h h2 = or K = p 2mλ2 2mK The cut off wavelength of the emitted X rays is related to the kinetic energy of the incident electron as hc h2 =K = λ0 2mλ2 36. (b) : φ0 A = K.E. = hu – f0 = hu – hu0 where work function depends on the type of material. If the frequency of incident radiation is greater than u0 only then the ejection of photoelectrons start. After that as frequency increases kinetic energy also increases. 32. (d) : As the electron describes a circular path of radius r in the magnetic field, therefore hc hc λ − λ 1 1 − = hc − = hc 0 λ λ0 λλ 0 λ λ0 or λ 0 = 2mcλ2 h hυ0 eV e = (6.6 × 10 −34 ) × (1.8 × 1014 ) eV = 0.74 eV 1.6 × 10 −19 φ0B = (6.6 × 10 −34 ) × (2.2 × 1014 ) eV = 0.91 eV 1.6 × 10 −19 Since the incident energy 0.825 eV is greater than 0.74 eV and less than 0.91 eV, so photoelectrons are emitted from metal A only. 37. (b) : As λ = ∴ h h 1 = or λ ∝ mv K 2mK λ′ K 1 1 = = = λ K′ 16 4 λ − λ′ × 100 % change in de Broglie wavelength = λ 1 λ′ = 1 − 100 = 1 − × 100 = 75% 4 λ 38. (d) : The rest mass of photon is zero. 39. (d) : Photoelectric current depends on (i) the intensity of incident light. (ii) the potential difference applied between the two electrodes. (iii) the nature of the emitter material. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 76 40. (a) : Work function, f0 = hu0 where u0 is the threshold frequency So, f0 ∝ u0 Hence Pt > Al > K 41. (a) : With the increase of intensity of the incident radiation the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time increases. 49. (b) : For photoelectric emission, the incident light must have a certain minimum frequency, called threshold frequency. 50. (a) : From Einstein’s relation eVs = hυ – W As work function is a constant for a surface. e(Vs – Vs ) = h(υ2 – υ1) 2 42. (b) : As eV = KEmax KE \ V = max e 43. (c) : From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, KEmax = hυ – φ = (5 – 3) = 2 eV 44. (d) : According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron is K = hu – f0 ... (i) where u is the frequency of incident radiation and f0 is a work function of the metal. If the frequency of incident radiation is doubled, then K′ = 2hu – f0 = 2(hu – f0) + f0 = 2K + f0 (Using (i)) K′ > 2K h 45. (c) : de Broglie wavelength, λ = p where p is the momentum of the particle h For electron, λ e = pe h For proton, λ p = pp As le = lp ⇒ pe = pp(Given) or Momentum of electron = Momentum of proton h 1 46. (a) : As λ = so λ ∝ 2mK m Out of the given particles m is least for electron, therefore electron has the largest value of de Broglie wavelength. h h 1 47. (a) : As λ = or p = or p ∝ λ λ p p1 λ2 λ \ = = = 1 or p1 = p2 p 2 λ1 λ h 1 p2 1 h2 = Also E = ∵ p = 2 λ 2 m 2m λ or 1 E∝ m E m ∴ 1 = 2 < 1 or E1 < E 2 E 2 m1 48. (a) : The existence of the frequency and the instantaneous emission of photo electrons support the quantum nature of light. 1 h v s2 = Vs1 + ( υ2 − υ1 ) e 1 1 − = 0.19 + 1240 = 4.47 V 190 550 51. (b) : W = hc 1240 − eVs1 = − 0.19 = 2.07 eV λ1 550 52. (a) : hυc = W υc = W (2.07)(1.602 × 10 −19 ) = ≈ 500 × 1012 Hz 6.626 × 10 −34 h 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (d) : Photoelectric effect can be explained on the basis of quantum theory or particle nature of light where wave nature of light fails to explain the photoelectric effect. The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the intensity of incident light. I = nhυ where n is the number of photons emitted/absorbed per unit area per second. n and hυ are independent factors. 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) : Equivalent mass of photon (m) is given from equation hυ E = mc2 = hυ ∴ m = 2 c where E is energy, m is mass, c is speed of light, h is Planck’s constant, υ is frequency. hυ hυ ∴ Momentum of photon = 2 × c = c c 60. (b) : Less work function means less energy is required for ejecting out the electrons. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. K max = hc −φ λ p 2 1.24 × 104 = − 2.5 eV = 0.6 eV 2m 4000 –25 p = 2 × 9.1 × 10 −31 × 0.6 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = 4.2 × 10 kg m/s 77 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 2. Not all the electrons that absorb a photon come out as photoelectrons because most of electrons get scattered into the metal. Only those electrons come out as photoelectrons whose energy becomes greater than work function of metal. 3. Wavelength of incident light, l = 412.5 nm hc 1242 eV nm Energy of incident light, E = = = 3 eV 412.5 nm λ Metals Na and K will show photoelectric emission because their work functions are less than the energy of incident light. 4. The amount of light energy or photon energy, incident per unit area per unit time is called intensity of electromagnetic radiation. hc 5. Work function = hυ = λ φA hc λB λ2 \ The ratio, = × = φB λ A hc λ1 6. In case of stable material, this is not possible because, to absorb a photon of larger wavelength and emit a photon of shorter wavelength, energy has to be supplied by the material. 7. Photoelectric effect shows the quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation. h 8. λ = 2mE 9. Given, Emax = hu – f0 As energy of 2 photons = 2hu E′max = 2hu – f0 As there is one to one interaction, probability of absorbing 2 photons by same electron is very low. Thus, emission of two photon absorption is negligible. h 10. We know the relation, λ = p p2 kinetic energy, K = 2m h Then, λ = 2mK Kp = Ke ⇒ λ ∝ 1 m mp >> me \ lp << le Hence for same kinetic energy wavelength associated with electron will be greater. 11. According to question, l th = 5000 Å and V s = 3V. Using equation of photoelectric equation, Kmax = E – W (Kmax = eVs) 12400 12400 12400 − = − 2.48 eV λ 5000 λ \ 3 eV = or l = 2262 Å P Pλ = E λ hc where P is power of light and El is energy of photon. Pλ 1 Number of photoelectron emitted per second = ⋅ hc 106 Pλ \ Photocurrent = ⋅e hc × 106 12. Number of photons falling in one second = = 5 × 800 × 10 −9 × (1.6 × 10 −19 ) 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 × 106 = 3.2 µA hc 12400 13. Since = = 2.7 eV > 1.89 eV so photocurrent 4560 λ will flow. Number of photons incident per second P (Power) P Pλ = = = E λ (Energy of photon) hc hc λ 0.5 Pλ Number of photoelectron emitted per second = 100 hc 0.5 Pλ −6 Photocurrent = e = 1.84 × 10 A. 100 hc 14. Let l0 is the threshold wavelength, the work function is hc φ= λ0 hc hc Now, by photoelectric equation, eVs = − λ λ0 hc hc ex = − ...(i) λ λ0 ex hc hc ...(ii) = − n + 1 nλ λ 0 From (i) and (ii), or hc hc hc hc − = (n + 1) − (n + 1) λ0 λ λ0 nλ nhc hc = ⇒ λ 0 = n2λ λ 0 nλ 15. B = 2 × 10–6 tesla sin[(3.0 × 1015 s–1)t] sin[(6.0 × 1015 s–1)t] = 1 × 10–6 tesla [cos{(3.0 × 1015 s–1)t} – cos{(9.0 × 1015 s–1)t}] 9 × 1015 −1 s 2π Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons 9 × 1015 h − 2 eV = 3.93 eV = 2πe Maximum frequency of the wave = hc 1.24 × 104 = eV = 3.1 eV λ 4000 (i) K.E. of emitted e– = (3.1 × (0.9)2 – 2.2) eV = 0.31 eV (ii) For e– not be able to come out, its energy should be less than 2.2 eV i.e., (3.1) × (0.9)n < 2.2, n > 4 16. E l = Energy of the photon = CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 78 17. The momentum of incident photon is transferred to the metal during photoelectric emission at macroscopic level. At microscopic level, atoms of metal absorb photons and momentum is transferred mainly to the nuclei and the electron. Excited electrons are emitted in the process and thus momentum is conserved. 18. (a) (i) Threshold Frequency : The minimum frequency of incident light which is just capable of ejecting electrons from a metal is called the threshold frequency. It is denoted by u0. (ii) Stopping Potential : The minimum retarding potential applied to anode of a photoelectric tube which is just capable of stopping photoelectric current is called the stopping potential. It is denoted by V0 (or VS). (b) Photoelectric Higher intensity current I= Applied voltage ε R +r 19 Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation, eV = hu – f on differentiation we get eDV = hDu or h = 6.625 × 10 = (1.5 × 10 −3 )(10 −4 ) 1 1 1 + + = 1.12 × 1012 −19 3.1 2.58 2.05 1.6 × 10 h 6.6 × 10 −34 = = 6.6 × 10 −25 kg m s −1 −9 λ 1 × 10 Momentum of electron p= p= 6.6 × 10 −34 1 × 10 −9 = 6.6 × 10 −25 kg m s −1 (ii) Energy of photon E= hc 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 = = 1.98 × 10 −16 J λ 1 × 10 −9 Ee = –7 −34 I1A1 I2 A2 I3 A3 1 1 1 + + = IA + + E1 E2 E3 E1 E 2 E 3 (iii) Kinetic energy of electron m = 2000 Å and hc = 12400 eVÅ. hc 12400 = eV = 6.20 eV Energy of incident photon = λ 2000 W = E – Kmax = 3.2 eV (iii) huth = W = 3.2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J υth = = EV 21. (i) Since Vs = 3 V and Kmax = eVs, so Kmax = 3 eV 3.2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 \ Number of photoelectrons emitted per second = Number of photons incident per second 24. (i) Momentum of photon 20. According to Einstein’s photoelectric effect 1 E = W + mv 2 2 Since work function of the surface is negligible, the above equation becomes 1 E = mv 2 2 mv = 2 mE (ii) l = 2 × 10 emit photoelectrons. i.e, frequency of beam B is twice of that of beam A. e∆V 1.6 × 10 −19 × (1.23 − 0) = = 6.56 × 10 −34 J s 14 ∆υ (8 − 5) × 10 If l is de-Broglie wavelength of the emitted electrons, then h h λ= = mv 2mE light of wavelengths 4000 Å, 4800 Å,and 6000 Å can only 23. Let n1, n2 be the number of photons hitting the screen per second by beam A and B respectively Intensity of beam of photon, I = nhu \ n1u 1 = n2u 2 n1 υ2 = n2 υ1 n1 υ = 2 \ 2 = 2 , u2 = 2u1 As n2 υ1 I2 I1 –V0 12400 12400 = 3.1 eV, E 2 = = 2.58 eV , 4000 4800 12400 12400 = 2.06 eV and E 4 = = 1.77 eV E3 = 6000 7000 Energy of photon (E4) is less than work function. Therefore, 22. E1 = 14 = 7.76 × 10 Hz p 2 (6.6 × 10 −25 )2 = = 2.39 × 10–19 J 2m 2 × 9.1 × 10 −31 25. (a) From Einstein’s equation hu = f0 + K = f0 + eVs hc –eVs λ (Equation is independent of the power of the source) or f0 = hu – eVs = φ0 = 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 2271 × 10 −10 − 1.3 eV 79 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 = − 1.3 eV −10 −19 2271 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 = 5.5 eV – 1.3 eV = 4.2 eV = 4.2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 6.6 × 10 −34 φ0 h = 1.0 × 1015 Hz and the frequency of red light from the source is 105 W/m2. c 3 × 108 = 4.7 × 1014 Hz υ= = λ 6328 × 10 −10 Since frequency of red light is less than threshold frequency so photocell will not respond to red light, however high (105 W/m2) be the intensity of light. 26. For one dimensional motion, → → → pC = p A + pB If pA, pB > 0 or direction). pC = pA + pB Kmax (b) Threshold frequency υ0 = 28. Photons : According to Planck’s quantum theory of radiation, an electromagnetic wave travels in the form of discrete packets of energy called quanta. The main features of photons are as follows: pA, pB < 0, i.e., pA and pB are in same h h h λ + λB = h A = + λC λ A λ B λ A λB λ A λB lC = λ + λ A B If pA > 0, pB < 0 or pA < 0, pB > 0 (pA and pB are in opposite direction) pC = |pA – pB| h | λ A − λB | h h h = − = λ A λB λC λ A λ B λ A λB lC = | λ A − λB | 27. For same accelerating potential, a proton and a deutron have same kinetic energy. (a) de Broglie wavelength is given by h h h λ= = = p 2 mK 2 m (qV ) 1 m Mass of a deutron is more than that of a proton. So, proton will have greater value of de-Broglie wavelength. (b) de-Broglie wavelength of a particle h λ= p or λp = h = constant So, λ ∝ It shows a rectangular hyperbola. 0 0 Frequency of incident radiation (i) In the interaction of photons with free electrons, the entire energy of photon is absorbed. (ii) Energy of photon is directly proportional to frequency. Intensity of incident radiation depends on the number of photons falling per unit area per unit time for a given frequency. (iii) In photon electron collision, the total energy and momentum remain constant. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is Kmax = hu – f0 29. Given q = 30°, d = 0.1 nm, n = 1 According to Bragg’s law, 2d sin q = nl 2 × 0.1 × sin 30° = 1 × l l = 0.1 nm = 1 × 10–10 m. h As we know l = 2mE 2 (6.63 × 10 −34 )2 h E= = J 2(1.67 × 10 −27 )(1 × 10 −10 )2 2mλ2 = (6.63 × 10 −34 )2 2(1.67 × 10 −27 )(1 × 10 −10 2 ) × 1 1.6 × 10 −19 eV = 8.2 × 10–2 eV 30. Given, Dx = 1 nm = 1 × 10–9m, Dp = ? DxDp = 6.62 × 10 −34 J s h ∴ ∆p = = = ∵ = h ∆x 2π∆x 22 −9 2π 2 × × 10 m 7 = 1.05 × 10–25 kg m s–1 Energy of electron, E= = = p2 (Taking Dp ≈ p) 2m (1.05 × 10 −25 )2 2 × 9.1 × 10 −31 0.06 × 10 −19 1.6 × 10 −19 = 0.06 × 10 −19 J = 0.0375 eV = 3.75 × 10–2 eV CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 80 31. Given, l = 600 nm, l′ = 400 nm E′max = 2Emax, f0 = ? hc − φ0 …(i) Emax = hu – f0 = λ hc 2Emax = − φ0 …(ii) λ′ Dividing (ii) by (i) 2E max hc / λ ′ − φ0 = E max hc / λ − φ0 ⇒ \ 2hc hc − 2φ0 = − φ0 ⇒ hc 2 − 1 = φ 0 λ λ′ λ′ λ 1 2 − = 1.03 eV 600 400 f0 = 1240 ( (iii) r Disk of radius r P energy emitted by the bulb in time Dt = PDt energy falling on the disk i.e., 2 P∆t 2 Pr ( ) = E= π r 2 Dt 4 πd 2 4d According to given condition, E = f0 Pr2 ∴ 2 ∆t = φ0 4d Dt = hc = 1240 eV nm) 32. (a) Two features of Einstein’s photoelectric equation: (a) Below threshold frequency uo corresponding to Wo, no emission of photoelectrons takes place. (b) As the number of photons in light depend on its intensity, and one photon liberates one photo electron. So number of emitted photoelectrons depend only on the intensity of incident light for a given frequency. (b) Below threshold frequency no emission takes place. As there is no photoemission from surface P i.e., the frequency of incident radiation is less than the threshold frequency for surface P. From surface Q photoemission is possible i.e., the frequency of incident radiation is equal or greater than threshold frequency. As the kinetic energy of photo electrons is zero i.e., the energy of incident radiation is just sufficient to pull out the electron from the surface Q. Work function for surface Q, WQ= hu. As K.E. = 0 ; u = u0 = 1015 Hz WQ = 6.6 × 10–34 × 1015 = 6.6 × 10–19 J = 4.125 eV d ∆t = 4φ0d 2 Pr 2 (4)(2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 )(2)2 = 11.4 s (20)(1.5 × 10 −10 )2 (iv) Number of photons received by atomic disk in time Dt is πr 2 nr 2 ∆t × ∆ t N = n = 4d 2 4π d 2 = 5 × 1019 × (1.5 × 10 −10 )2 × 11.4 (v) when Dt = Dt = = 0.8 ≈ 1 4(2)2 r = 1 cm = 1 × 10–2 m 4φ0d 2 Pr 2 4 × 2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 × (2)2 −2 = 2.56 × 10–15 s 20 × (10 ) Dt is exceedingly small, photo emission is instantaneous. ∆V [∵e∆V = h∆υ] 34. (i) Slope of line = ∆υ h Slope of line = e 33. Given P = 20 W, l = 5000 Å = 5 × 10–7 m. d = 2 m, f0 = 2 eV, r = 1.5 Å = 1.5 × 10–10 m. (i) Number of photons emitted by bulb per second is n= P Pλ 20 × 5 × 10 −7 = = (hc / λ ) hc 6.62 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 ≈ 5 × 1019 s–1 (ii) Energy of incident photon, E = = (6.62 × 10 −34 )(3 × 108 ) hc λ = 2.48 eV. 5 × 10 −7 × 1.6 × 10 −19 As E > f0 (2.48 eV > 2 eV) hence photoelectric emission will take place. It is a constant quantity and does not depend on nature of metal surface. (ii) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron, KE = eV0 = hu – hu0, ...(i) For a given frequency V1 > V2 (from the graph) So from equation (i), (KE)1 > (KE)2 Since the metal M1 has smaller threshold frequency i.e., smaller work function. It emits electrons having a larger kinetic energy. 81 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 35. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given below. 1 2 hυ = mv max + W0 2 where u = frequency of incident radiation 1 2 mv max = maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electron 2 W0 = work function of the target metal Three salient features observed are (i) Below threshold frequency u0 corresponding to W0, no emission of photoelectrons takes place. (ii) As energy of a photon depends on the frequency of light, so the maximum kinetic energy with which photoelectron is emitted depends only on the energy of photon or on the frequency of incident radiation. (iii) For a given frequency of incident radiation, intensity of light depends on the number of photons per unit area per unit time and one photon liberates one photoelectron, so number of photoelectrons emitted depend only on its intensity. 36. Given d = 10–3 m, I = 100 × 10–6 A = 10–4 A A = (10–2 m)2 = 10–4 m2 Intensity, I = 100 W m–2, l = 660 nm = 660 × 10–9 m Volume of 6.02 × 1026 sodium atoms 23 kg = = 23.7 m3 0.97 kg/m3 Volume of target = (10–2) (10–2) (10–3) = 10–7m3 Number of sodium atoms in the target 37. From the law of conservation of momentum, mAv = mAvA + mBvB or mA(v – vA) = mBvB…(i) (as particle B is at rest, its initial velocity is zero and vA and vB are the velocities of particles A and B after collision) Since the collision is elastic, kinetic energy is conserved during collision 1 1 1 \ m Av 2 = m Av 2A + mB v B2 2 2 2 mA(v2 – vA2 ) = mBvB2…(ii) Dividing eqn. (ii) by eqn. (i), we obtain m A (v 2 − v 2A ) mB v B2 = m A (v − v A ) mB v B or v + vA = vB…(iii) From eqns. (i) and (iii), mA(v – vA) = mB(v + vA) or (mA – mB)v = (mA + mB)vA or 6.02 × 1026 × 10 −7 = 2.54 × 1018 23.7 Let n be the number of photons falling per second on the target. hc Energy of each photon = λ Total energy falling per second on target nhc = = IA λ = IAλ 100 × 10 −4 × 660 × 10 −9 = 3.3 × 1016 = − 34 8 hc (6.62 × 10 ) × (3 × 10 ) Number of electrons emitted per second by all the atoms in the target if one electron is emitted by each atom for one incident photon. = (2.54 × 1018) (3.3 × 1016) = 8.4 × 1034 Expected photocurrent = (8.4 × 1034) (1.6 × 10–19) = 1.34 × 1016A ∴ n= Observed photocurrent = 100 mA Probability of photo emission by single photon incident on a single atom 100 µ A P= = 7.5 × 10 −21 16 1.34 × 10 A Thus the probability of emission by single photon on a single atom is very much less than 1, the probability of absorption of two photons by single atoms is negligible. v m A + mB …(iv) = v A m A − mB Initial wavelength of the particle A, i.e., (lA)i h = m Av Final wavelength of the particle B, i.e., (lA)f h = m Av A Change in wavelength, h h Dl = (lA)f – (lA)i = − m Av A m Av or Dl = h m Av v v − 1 …(v) A From eqns. (iv) and (v), Dl = h m A + mB −1 m Av m A − mB CHAPTER 12 Atoms Recap Notes Rutherford’s a-scattering experiment X Rutherford and his two associates, Geiger and Marsden, studies the scattering of the a-particles from a thin gold foil in order to investigate the structure of the atom. at various angles from 0 to p. This shows that atom has a small positively charged core called ‘nucleus’ at centre of atom, which deflects the positively charged a-particles at different angles depending on their distance from centre of nucleus. – Very few a-particles (1 in 8000) suffers deflection of 180°. This shows that size of nucleus is very small, nearly 1/8000 times the size of atom. N() Thomson’s model of atom : It was proposed by J. J. Thomson in 1898. According to this model, the positive charge of the atom is uniformly distributed throughout the volume of the atom and the negatively charged electrons are embedded in it like seeds in a watermelon. 0° = 180° his graph shows deflection of number of T particles with angle of deflection q. X Rutherford’s observations and results : – Most of the a-particles pass through the gold foil without any deflection. This shows that most of the space in an atom is empty. – Few a-particles got scattered, deflecting Rutherford’s a-scattering formulae X Number of a particles scattered per unit area, N(q) at scattering angle q varies inversely as sin4(q/2), 1 i.e., N(θ) ∝ 4 sin (θ / 2) X Impact parameter : It is defined as the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the alpha particle from the centre of the nucleus, when the particle is far away from the nucleus of the atom. – The scattering angle q of the a particle and impact parameter b are related as Ze 2 cot(θ / 2) b= 4 πε0 K where K is the kinetic energy of the a-particle and Z is the atomic number of the nucleus. 83 Atoms X – Smaller the impact parameter, larger the angle of scattering q. Distance of closest approach : At the distance of closest approach whole kinetic energy of the alpha particles is converted into potential energy. – Distance of closest approach 2Ze 2 r0 = 4 πε0 K = eV n2 The potential energy of the electron in the nth orbit 2 1 4 π2 me 4 Z 2 1 Ze 2 Un = − = − 4 πε0 rn 4 πε0 n2 h2 = Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom : According to this model the entire positive charge and most of the mass of the atom is concentrated in a small volume known as the nucleus with electrons revolving around it just as planets revolve around the sun. X Bohr’s model : Bohr combined classical and early quantum concepts and gave his theory of hydrogen and hydrogen-like atoms which have only one orbital electron. His postulates are X An electron can revolve around the nucleus only in certain allowed circular orbits of definite energy and in these orbits it does not radiate. These orbits are known as stationary orbits. X Angular momentum of the electron in a stationary orbit is an integral multiple of h/2p. nh nh i.e., L = or mvr = 2π 2π This is known as Bohr’s quantisation condition. X The emission of radiation takes place when an electron makes a transition from a higher to a lower orbit. The frequency of the radiation is given by E − E1 υ= 2 h where E2 and E1 are the energies of the electron in the higher and lower orbits respectively. X Bohr’s formulae X Radius of nth orbit 4 πε0n2 h2 0.53n2 ; rn = rn = Å Z 4 π2 mZe 2 X Velocity of the electron in the nth orbit 1 2 πZe 2 2.2 × 106 Z m/s vn = = 4 πε0 nh n The kinetic energy of the electron in the nth orbit 2 1 2 π2 me 4 Z 2 1 Ze 2 Kn = = 4 πε0 2rn 4 πε0 n2 h 2 13.6Z 2 −27.2Z 2 n2 eV Total energy of electron in the nth orbit 2 1 2 π2 me 4 Z 2 En = U n + K n = − 4 πε0 n2 h2 2 13.6Z =− eV n2 Kn = –En, Un = 2En = –2Kn Frequency of the electron in the nth orbit 2 1 4 π2 Z 2 e 4 m 6.62 × 1015 Z 2 = υn = 4 πε0 n3h3 n3 X Wavelength of radiation in the transition 1 1 1 from n2 → n1 is given by = RZ 2 2 − 2 λ n1 n2 where R is called Rydberg’s constant. 1 2 π2 me 4 R= = 1.097 × 107 m −1 3 4 πε0 ch Spectral series of hydrogen atom : When the electron in a H-atom jumps from higher energy level to lower energy level, the difference of energies of the two energy levels is emitted as radiation of particular wavelength, known as spectral line. Spectral lines of different wavelengths are obtained for transition of electron between two different energy levels, which are found to fall in a number of spectral series given by X Lyman series – Emission spectral lines corresponding to the transition of electron from higher energy levels (n2 = 2, 3, ...,∞) to first energy level (n1 = 1) constitute Lyman series. 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 where n2 = 2, 3, 4, ......,∞ λ 1 n2 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 84 – Series limit line (shortest wavelength) of Lyman series is given by 1 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 = R or λ = λ R 1 ∞ – The first line (longest wavelength) of the Lyman series is given by 1 1 3R 4 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ 3R 1 2 4 X – Lyman series lie in the ultraviolet region of electromagnetic spectrum. – Lyman series is obtained in emission as well as in absorption spectrum. Balmer series – Emission spectral lines corresponding to the transition of electron from higher energy levels (n2 = 3, 4, ....∞) to second energy level (n1 = 2) constitute Balmer series. 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 where n2 = 3, 4, 5.........,∞ λ n2 2 – Series limit line (shortest wavelength) of Balmer series is given by 1 1 R 4 1 = R 2 − 2 = or λ = λ R 2 ∞ 4 – The first line (longest wavelength) of the Balmer series is given by 1 1 5R 36 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ 5R 3 36 2 X – Balmer series lie in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum. – This series is obtained only in emission spectrum. Paschen series – Emission spectral lines corresponding to the transition of electron from higher energy levels (n2 = 4, 5, .....,∞) to third energy level (n1 = 3) constitute Paschen series. 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 where n2 = 4, 5, 6.........,∞ λ 3 n 2 – Series limit line (shortest wavelength) of the Paschen series is given by 1 1 R 9 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ R 3 ∞ 9 The first line (longest wavelength) of the Paschen series is given by 1 1 7R 144 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ 144 7R 3 4 – Paschen series lie in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. – This series is obtained only in the emission spectrum. Brackett series – Emission spectral lines corresponding to the transition of electron from higher energy levels (n2 = 5, 6, 7, ..... ,∞) to fourth energy level (n1 = 4) constitute Brackett series. 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 where n2 = 5, 6, 7..........,∞ λ n2 4 Series limit line (shortest wavelength) of Brackett series is given by 1 1 R 16 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ R 4 ∞ 16 – The first line (longest wavelength) of Brackett series is given by 1 1 9R 400 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = 9R λ 4 5 400 – Brackett series lie in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum. – This series is obtained only in the emission spectrum. X Pfund series – Emission spectral lines corresponding to the transition of electron from higher energy levels (n2 = 6, 7, 8,.......,∞) to fifth energy level (n1 = 5) constitute Pfund series. 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 where n2 = 6, 7,...........,∞ λ n2 5 X – Series limit line (shortest wavelength) of Pfund series is given by 1 1 R 25 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ R 5 ∞ 25 – The first line (longest wavelength) of the Pfund series is given by 1 1 11R 900 1 =R 2 − 2= or λ = λ 11R 5 6 900 – Pfund series also lie in the infrared region of electromagnetic spectrum. – This series is obtained only in the emission spectrum. X Number of spectral lines due to transition of electron from nth orbit to lower orbit is n(n − 1) N= 2 Ionization energy and ionization potential X Ionisation : The process of knocking an electron out of the atom is called 13.6 ionisation. ionisation energy = 2 eV n X Ionisation energy : The energy required, to knock an electron completely out of the atom. 13.6Z 2 X Ionisation potential = V n2 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. The first model of atom in 1898 was proposed by (a) Ernest Rutherford (b) Albert Einstein (c) J. J. Thomson (d) Niels Bohr 2. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from (a) 2 → 1 (b) 3 → 2 (c) 4 → 2 (d) 4 → 3 3. In a hydrogen atom the total energy of electron is e2 4πε 0 r −e2 (c) 8πε 0 r (a) (b) −e2 4πε 0 r (d) e2 8πε 0 r 4. The relation between the orbit radius and the electron velocity for a dynamically stable orbit in a hydrogen atom is (where, all notations have their usual meanings) (a) v = 4 π ε0 me2 r (b) r = e2 4πε 0 v (c) v = e2 4πε 0 mr (d) r = v e2 4πε 0 m 5. In the Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment the number of scattered particles detected are maximum and minimum at the scattering angles respectively at (a) 0°° and 180°° (b) 180°° and 0°° (c) 90°° and 180°° (d) 45°° and 90°° postulate applies to a satellite just as it does to an electron in the hydrogen atom, then the quantum number of the orbit of satellite is (a) 5.3 × 1040 (b) 5.3 × 1045 48 (c) 7.8 × 10 (d) 7.8 × 1050 8. Which of the following is not correct about Bohrs model of the hydrogen atom? (a) An electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy. (b) Electron revolves around the nucleus only in those orbits for which angular momentum nh Ln = . 2π (c) When electron make a transition from one of its stable orbit to lower orbit then a photon emitted with energy hu = Ef – Ei. (d) Bohr model is applicable to all atoms. 9. The shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines is (a) 720 nm (b) 790 nm (c) 800 nm (d) 820 nm 10. In a Geiger-Marsden experiment. Find the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV a-particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction. (Z for gold nucleus = 79) (a) 10 fm (b) 20 fm (c) 30 fm (d) 40 fm 6. Rutherford’s experiments suggested that the size of the nucleus is about (a) 10–14 m to 10–12 m (b) 10–15 m to 10–13 m (c) 10–15 m to 10–14 m (d) 10–15 m to 10–12 m 11. If an electron in hydrogen atom is revolving in a circular track of radius 5.3 × 10–11 m with a velocity of 2.2 × 106 m s–1 around the proton then the frequency of electron moving around the proton is (a) 6.6 × 1012 Hz (b) 3.3 × 1015 Hz 12 (c) 3.3 × 10 Hz (d) 6.6 × 1015 Hz 7. A 10 kg satellite circles earth once every 2 h in an orbit having a radius of 8000 km. Assuming that Bohr ’s angular momentum 12. The Rydberg formula, for the spectrum of the hydrogen atom where all terms have their usual meaning is CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 86 4 (a) hυif = me 2 2 8ε 0 h 4 (b) hυif = me 8 ε 0 2 h2 1 1 n −n f i 1 1 2 − 2 ni nf (c) hυif = 8 ε 0 2 h2 me4 1 1 n −n f i (d) hυif = 8 ε 0 2 h2 me4 1 1 2 − 2 nf ni 13. In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum ? (a) Doubly ionized lithium. (b) Singly ionized helium. (c) Deuterium atom. (d) Hydrogen atom. 14. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = n1 to n = n2. The time period of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are (a) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (b) n1 = 8, n2 = 2 (c) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (d) n1 = 6, n2 = 2 15. Energy is absorbed in the hydrogen atom giving absorption spectra when transition takes place from (a) n = 1 → n′ where n′ > 1 (b) n = 2 → 1 (c) n′ → n (d) n → n′ = ∞ 16. The value of ionisation energy of the hydrogen atom is (a) 3.4 eV (b) 10.4 eV (c) 12.09 eV (d) 13.6 eV 17. The moment of momentum for an electron in second orbit of hydrogen atom as per Bohr’s model is 2h π h (a) (b) 2h (c) (d) π h π 18. In the Geiger-Marsden scattering experiment, in case of head-on collision the impact parameter should be (a) maximum (b) minimum (c) infinite (d) zero 19. In an atom the ratio of radius of orbit of electron to the radius of nucleus is (a) 103 (c) 105 (b) 104 (d) 106 20. The radius of nth orbit rn in terms of Bohr radius (a0) for a hydrogen atom is given by the relation (a) na0 (b) n a0 2 (c) n a0 (d) n3a0 21. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to (a) infinite energy (b) maximum energy (c) minimum energy (d) zero energy. 22. In an experiment on a-particle scattering, a-particles are directed towards a gold foil and detectors are placed in position P,Q and R. What is the distribution of a-particles as recorded at P, Q and R ? (a) (b) (c) (d) P all none a few most Q none none some some R none all most a few 23. From quantisation of angular momentum, one gets for hydrogen atom, the radius of the 2 n2 h 4 π 2 ε 0 nth orbit as rn = 2 me 2π e For a hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z, (a) the radius of the first orbit will be the same (b) rn will be greater for larger Z values (c) rn will be smaller for larger Z values (d) none of these. 24. Bohr’s basic idea of discrete energy levels in atoms and the process of emission of photons from the higher levels to lower levels was experimentally confirmed by experiments performed by (a) Michelson–Morley (b) Millikan (c) Joule (d) Franck and Hertz 25. The binding energy of an electron in the ground state of He is equal to 24.6 eV. The energy required to remove both the electrons is (a) 49.2 eV (b) 54.4 eV (c) 79 eV (d) 108.8 eV 87 Atoms 26. Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model? (a) 0.65 eV (b) 1.9 eV (c) 11.1 eV (d) 13.6 eV 27. The ratio of the speed of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom to the speed of light in vacuum is 1 2 1 1 (b) (c) (d) 137 237 2 237 28. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown represents the emission of a photon with the most energy ? (a) (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV 29. If u1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, u2 is the frequency of the first line of Lyman series and u3 is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series, then (a) u1 – u2 = u3 (b) u1 = u2 – u3 (c) 1 1 1 = + υ2 υ1 υ3 (d) 1 1 1 = + υ1 υ2 υ3 30. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a force k/r, where k is a constant and r is the distance of the electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this system, the radius of nth orbit of the electron is found to be rn and the kinetic energy of the electron is found to be Tn. Then which of the following is true? 1 (a) Tn ∝ 2 n (b) Tn is independent of n; rn ∝ n 1 (c) Tn ∝ ; rn ∝ n n 1 (d) Tn ∝ and rn ∝ n2 n 31. The first line of the Lyman series in a hydrogen spectrum has a wavelength of 1210 Å. The corresponding line of a hydrogen-like atom of Z = 11 is equal to (a) 4000 Å (b) 100 Å (c) 40 Å (d) 10 Å 32. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is (a) equal to one-fourth the circumference of the first orbit (b) equal to half the circumference of first orbit (c) equal to twice the circumference of first orbit (d) equal to the circumference of the first orbit. 33. The excitation energy of Lyman last line is (a) the same as ionisation energy (b) the same as the last absorption line in Lyman series (c) both (a) and (b) (c) different from (a) and (b) 34. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of hydrogen is 6561 Å, the wavelength of the second line of the series should be (a) 13122 Å (b) 3280 Å (c) 4860 Å (d) 2187 Å 35. The electric current I created by the electron in the ground state of H atom using Bohr model in terms of Bohr radius (a 0 ) and velocity of electron in first orbit v0 is v0 2πa ev0 2πa (a) (b) (c) (d) ev 2πa v0 2πa0 0 36. If the radius of inner most electronic orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10–11 m, then the radii of n = 2 orbit is (a) 1.12 Å (b) 2.12 Å (c) 3.22 Å (d) 4.54 Å 37. The wavelength limit present in the Pfund series is (R = 1.097 × 107 m–1) (a) 1572 nm (b) 1898 nm (c) 2278 nm (d) 2535 nm 38. An electron is revolving in the nth orbit of radius 4.2 Å, then the value of n is (r1 = 0.529 Å) (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3 39. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon and is excited to n = 4 level then the wavelength of photon is (a) 790 Å (b) 870 Å (c) 970 Å (d) 1070 Å 40. If muonic hydrogen atom is an atom in which a negatively charged muon (m) of mass about 207 me revolves around a proton, then first Bohr radius of this atom is (re = 0.53 × 10–10 m) (a) 2.56 × 10–10 m (b) 2.56 × 10–11 m (c) 2.56 × 10–12 m (d) 2.56 × 10–13 m CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 88 Case Based MCQs Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 41 to 43. Electron Transitions for the Hydrogen Atom Read the Bohr’s model explains the spectral lines of hydrogen atomic emission spectrum. While the electron of the atom remains in the ground state, its energy is unchanged. When the atom absorbs one or more quanta of energy, the electrons moves from the ground state orbit to an excited state orbit that is farther away. the orbit and n = 1, 2, 3, .... When transition takes place from Kth orbit to Jth orbit, energy photon is emitted. If the wavelength of the emitted photon 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 , where R is is l, we find that λ K J Rydberg’s constant. On a different planet, the hydrogen atom’s structure was somewhat different from ours. The angular momentum of electron was P = 2n(h/2p), i.e., an even multiple of (h/2p). e– m Ze The given figure shows an energy level diagram of the hydrogen atom. Several transitions are marked as I, II, III and so on. The diagram is only indicative and not to scale. 41. In which transition is a Balmer series photon absorbed? (a) II (b) III (c) IV (d) VI 42. The wavelength of the radiation involved in transition II is (a) 291 nm (b) 364 nm (c) 487 nm (d) 652 nm 43. Which transition will occur when a hydrogen atom is irradiated with radiation of wavelength 1030 nm? (a) I (b) II (c) IV (d) V Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 44 to 48. Second Postulate of Bohr’s Theory Hydrogen is the simplest atom of nature. There is one proton in its nucleus and an electron moves around the nucleus in a circular orbit. According to Niels Bohr, this electron moves in a stationary orbit. When this electron is in the stationary orbit, it emits no electromagnetic radiation. The angular momentum of the electron is quantized, i.e., mvr = (nh/2p), where m = mass of the electron, v = velocity of the electron in the orbit, r = radius of F vn rn 44. The minimum permissible radius of the orbit will be ε 0 h2 4 ε 0 h2 ε 0 h2 2ε 0 h 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) mπe2 mπe2 2mπe2 mπe2 45. In our world, the velocity of electron is v0 when the hydrogen atom is in the ground state. The velocity of electron in this state on the other planet should be (a) v0 (b) v0/2 (c) v0/4 (d) v0/8 46. In our world, the ionization potential energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. On the other planet, this ionization potential energy will be (a) 13.6 eV (b) 3.4 eV (c) 1.5 eV (d) 0.85 eV 47. Check the correctness of the following statements about the Bohr model of hydrogen atom. (i) The acceleration of the electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in n = 1 orbit. (ii) The angular momentum of the electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in n = 1 orbit. (iii) The kinetic energy of the electron in n = 2 orbit is less than that in n = 1 orbit. 89 Atoms (a) (b) (c) (d) Only (iii) and (i) are correct. Only (i) and (ii) are correct. Only (ii) and (iii) are correct. All the statements are correct. 48. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, let PE represent potential energy and TE the total energy. In going to a higher orbit (a) PE increases, TE decreases (b) PE decreases, TE increases (c) PE increases, TE increases (d) PE decreases, TE decreases Case III : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 49 to 52. Hydrogen Emission Spectrum Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines in a dark background and it is specifically known as hydrogen emission spectrum. There is one more type of hydrogen spectrum that exists where we get dark lines on the bright background, it is known as absorption spectrum. Balmer found an empirical formula by the observation of a small part of this spectrum and it is represented by 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 , where n = 3, 4, 5, ..... . λ n 2 For Lyman series, the emission is from first state to nth state, for Paschen series, it is from third state to nth state, for Brackett series, it is from fourth state to nth state and for Pfund series, it is from fifth state to nth state. 49. Number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 15 (d) ∞ 50. W h i c h s e r i e s o f h yd r o ge n s pectru m corresponds to ultraviolet region? (a) Balmer series (b) Brackett series (c) Paschen series (d) Lyman series 51. Which of the following lines of the H-atom spectrum belongs to the Balmer series? (a) 1025 Å (b) 1218 Å (c) 4861 Å (d) 18751 Å 52. (a) (b) (c) (d) Rydberg constant is a universal constant same for same elements different for different elements none of these. Assertion & Reasoning Based MCQs For question numbers 53-60, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 53. Assertion (A) : The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and a-particle varies with distance according to inverse square law. Reason (R) : Rutherford did a-particle scattering experiment. 54. Assertion (A) : According to classical theory, the proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom model will be circular. Reason (R) : According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously emits radiation. 55. Assertion (A) : Between any two given energy levels, the number of absorption transitions is always less than the number of emission transitions. Reason (R) : Absorption transitions start from the lowest energy level only and may end at any higher energy level. But emission transitions may start from any higher energy level and end at any energy level below it. 56. Assertion (A) : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces. Reason (R) : The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is balanced by the centrifugal force. 57. Assertion (A) : Total energy of revolving electron in any stationary orbit is negative. Reason (R) : Energy is a scalar quantity. It can have positive or negative value. 58. Assertion (A) : Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 90 1 1 1 Reason (R) : = R 2 − 2 , where K = 3, 4, λ 2 K 5, ... 59. Assertion (A) : For the scattering of a-particles at large angles, only the nucleus of the atom is responsible. Reason (R) : Nucleus is very heavy in comparison to electrons. 60. Assertion (A) : Fraunhofer lines are observed in the spectrum of the sun. Reason (R) : The different elements have different spectra. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. Why is the classical (Rutherford) model for an atom of electron orbiting around the nucleus not able to explain the atomic structure? 2. When is Hα line of the Balmer series in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom obtained? 3. What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a hydrogen atom when it is in the third excited state? 4. Find the radius and energy of a He+ ion in the states n = 2. 5. State Bohr ’s quantization condition of angular momentum. 6. Find the wavelength of the IInd line of Balmer series. 7. What is the wavelength of the electronic de Broglie wave in the 3rd orbit of hydrogen? 8. Find the radius of the ground state orbit of hydrogen atom. 9. Find the speed in the ground state 10. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the Brackett series and state to which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong. Short Answer Type Questions (SA-I) 11. Find the number of unique radiations that can be emitted for a sample of hydrogen atoms excited to the nth level. 12. An electron in the hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = 2 energy state to the ground state (corresponding to n = 1). Find the wavelength and frequency of the emitted photon. 13. Use the Bohr ’s model to estimate the wavelength of the Kα line in the X-ray spectrum of platinum (Z = 78). 14. The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10–11 m. What are the radii of the n = 2 and n = 3 orbits? 15. If Bohr’s quantisation postulate (angular momentum = nh/2π) is a basic law of nature, it should be equally valid for the case of planetary motion also. Why then do we never speak of quantisation of orbits of planets around the sun? 16. Would the Bohr formula for the H-atom remain unchanged if proton had a charge (+4/3)e and electron a charge (–3/4)e, where e = 1.6 × 10–19C. Give reasons for your answer. 17. Consider a gas consisting Li ++ (which is hydrogen like ion). (i) Find the wavelength of radiation required to excite the electron in Li++ from n = 1 and n = 3. (ii) How many spectral lines are observed in the emission spectrum of the above excited system? 18. Using Bohr model, calculate the electric current created by the electron when the H-atom is in the ground state. 19. The kinetic energy of the electron orbiting in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is 3.4 eV. Determine the de Broglie wavelength associated with it. 20. Calculate the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom. In which region (infrared), visible, ultraviolet of hydrogen spectrum does this wavelength lie? 91 Atoms Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 21. Assume that their is no repulsive force between the electrons in an atom but the force between positive and negative charges is given by Coulomb’s law as usual. Under such circumstances, calculate the ground state energy of a He-atom. 22. Show that the first few frequencies of light that is emitted when electrons fall to the n th level from levels higher than n, are approximate harmonics (i.e. in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3...) when n > >1. 23. What is the minimum energy that must be given to a H atom in ground state so that it can emit an Hγ line in Balmer series. If the angular momentum of the system is conserved, what would be the angular momentum of such H γ photon? 24. The electron in a given Bohr orbit has a total energy of –1.5 eV. Calculate its (i) kinetic energy. (ii) potential energy. (iii) wavelength of radiation emitted, when this electron makes a transition to the ground state. [Given : Energy in the ground state = –13.6 eV and Rydberg’s constant = 1.09 × 107 m–1] 25. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Upto which energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited? Calculate the wavelengths of the first member of Lyman and first member of Balmer series. 26. The value of ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. (i) Find the energy required to move an electron from the ground state to the first excited state of the atom. (ii) Determine (a) the kinetic energy and (b) orbital radius in the first excited state of the atom. (Given the value of Bohr radius = 0.53 Å). 27. (i) How does de-Broglie hypothesis explain Bohr ’s quantization condition for stationary orbits ? (ii) Find the relation between the three wavelengths l1, l2 and l3 from the energy level diagram shown in the figure. 28. Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n 2 , where n is the principal quantum number of the atom. 29. Direction : Read the following passage and answer the questions given below. In 1911, Rutherford, along with his assistants, H. Geiger and E. Marsden, performed the alpha particle scattering experiment. H. Geiger and E. Marsden took radioactive source (214 83Bi) for a-particles. A collimated beam of a-particles of energy 5.5 MeV was allowed to fall on 2.1 × 10–7 m thick gold foil. Observations of this experiment are as follows (I) Most of the a-particles passed through the foil without deflection. (II) Only about 0.14% of the incident a-particles scattered by more than 1°. (III) Only about one a-particle in every 8000 a-particles deflected by more than 90°. Most -particles pass straight through -particles About 1 in 8000 -particles is repelled back (i) Gold foil used in Geiger-Marsden experiment is about 10–8 m thick. What does it ensures? (ii) On which factor, the trajectory traced by an a-particle depends? (iii) In Rutherford scattering experiment the fact that only a small fraction of the number of incident particles rebound back. What it indicates? 30. Positronium is just like a H-atom with the proton replaced by the positively charged antiparticle of the electron (called the positron which is as massive as the electron). What would be the ground state energy of positronium? CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 92 31. The photons from Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum having wavelength between 450 nm to 700 nm are incident on a metal surface of work function 2 eV. Find the maximum kinetic energy of one photoelectron. 32. A s m a l l p a r t i c l e o f m a s s m m o v e s in such a way that the potential energy U = ar2 where a is a constant and r is the distance of the particle from the origin. Assuming Bohr’s model of quantisation of angular momentum for circular orbits, find the radius of nth allowed orbit. 33. A particle known as µ-meson, has a charge equal to that of an electron and mass 208 times the mass of the electron. It moves in a circular orbit around a nucleus of charge +3e. Take the mass of the nucleus to be infinite. Assuming that the Bohr’s model is applicable to this system, (i) derive an expression for the radius of the nth Bohr orbit, (ii) find the value of n for which the radius of the orbit is approximately the same as that of the first Bohr orbit for a hydrogen atom. 34. A gas of hydrogen like atoms can absorb radiations of 68 eV. Consequently, the atoms emit radiations of only three different wavelength. All the wavelengths are equal or smaller than that of the absorbed photon. (i) Determine the initial state of the gas atoms. (ii) Identify the gas atoms. (iii) Find the minimum wavelength of the emitted radiations. Long Answer Type Questions (LA) 35. In the Auger process an atom makes a transition to a lower state without emitting a photon. The excess energy is transferred to an outer electron which may be ejected by the atom. (This is called an Auger electron). Assuming the nucleus to be massive, calculate the kinetic energy of an n = 4 Auger electron emitted by Chromium by absorbing the energy from a n = 2 to n = 1 transition. 37. Using Bohr ’s postulates, derive the expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher energy state (quantum number ni) to the lower state, (nf). When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state ni = 4 to nf = 3, 2, 1. Identify the spectral series to which the emission lines belong. 36. (a) Write two important limitations of Rutherford model which could not explain the observed features of atomic spectra. (b) How were these explained in Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom? 38. The first four spectral lines in the Lyman series of a H-atom are λ = 1218 Å, 1028 Å, 974.3 Å and 951.4 Å. If instead of Hydrogen, we consider Deuterium, calculate the shift in the wavelength of these lines. OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. (c) : Sir J. J. Thomson proposed the first model of atom called plum pudding model of atom. According to this model, the positive charge of the atom is uniformly distributed throughout the volume of the atom and the negatively charged electrons are embedded in it like seeds in a watermelon. 2. (d) 3. (c) : The kinetic energy of the electron in hydrogen atom are e2 1 K = mv 2 = 2 8 πε 0 r e2 2 ∵ v = 4 πε 0 mr Electrostatic potential energy, − e2 and U = 4 π ε0 r ⇒ The total energy E of the electron in a hydrogen atom is E=K+U −e 2 e2 e2 = − E = + 8 π ε 0 r 4 π ε 0 r 8 π ε0 r Here negative sign shows that electron is bound to the nucleus. 4. (c) : In hydrogen atom electrostatic force of attraction (Fe) is acting between the revolving electrons and the nucleus 93 Atoms provides the requisite centripetal force (Fc) to keep them in their orbits. Thus, Fe = Fc mv 2 1 e2 ∴ = r 4 π ε0 r 2 e2 e2 ⇒ v = 4 π ε0 m r 4 π ε0 m r 5. (a) : The number of scattered particles detected will be maximum at the angle of scattering q = 0° and minimum at q = 180°. 6. (c) 7. (b) : Here, m = 10 kg, r n = 8 × 106 m T = 2 × 60 × 60 = 7200 s nh 2π rn Velocity of nth orbit, v n = and from m v n rn = 2π T 2π 2π rn n= ×m× × rn h T m (2π × 8 × 106 )2 × 10 = (2 π rn )2 × = = 5.3 × 1045. T × h 7200 × 6.64 × 10 −34 or v 2 = 8. (d) : The first three options (a), (b) and (c) are Bohr’s postulates of atomic model whereas option (d) is not correct as Bohr’s model is applicable to hydrogen atom only. 1 1 1 9. (d) : The wavelength for Paschen series, = R 2 − 2 λ 3 n For shortest wavelength n = ∞ 1 1 R 1 = R − 2 = \ λ 9 ∞ 9 9 9 λ= = R 1.097 × 107 = 8.20 × 10–7 m = 820 nm. 10. (c) : Let d be the distance of closest approach then by the conservation of energy, Initial kinetic energy of incoming a-particle, K = Final electric potential energy U of the system (2e )( Ze ) 1 × As K = 4π ε0 d 1 2 Z e2 ...(i) 4 π ε 0 K 1 = 9 × 109 N m2 C−2 , Z = 79, e = 1.6 × 10 −19 C. Here, 4 π ε0 ∴ d = K = 7.7 MeV = 7.7 × 106 × 1.6 × 10 –19 J = 1.2 × 10–12 J Substituting these values in (i) 2 × 9 × 109 × (1.6 × 10 −19 )2 × 79 d= 1.2 × 10 −12 d = 3 × 10–14 m = 30 fm (∵ 1 fm = 10 −15 m) 11. (d) : Frequency of the electron moving around the proton is velocity of electron (v ) υ= circumference (2 π r ) Here, v = 2.2 × 106 m s–1 and r = 5.30 × 10–11 m ∴ υ= 2.2 × 106 2 × 3.14 × 5.3 × 10 −11 u = 6.6 × 1015 Hz. 12. (b) 1 , Z For doubly ionized lithium, Z (= 3) will be maximum, hence for doubly ionized lithium, r will be minimum. 14. (a) : In the nth orbit, let rn = radius and vn = speed of electron. 2πr n rn Time period, Tn = ∝ . vn vn 13. (a) : Radius of first orbit, r ∝ Now, rn ∝ n 2 and v n ∝ 1 n rn ∝ n 3 or Tn ∝ n 3 . vn 3 n Here, 8 = 1 n2 ∴ or n1 = 2 or n1 = 2n2 n2 15. (a) : Absorption is from the ground state n = 1 to n′ where n′ > 1. 16. (d) : The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the hydrogen atom is called the ionisation energy of hydrogen atom and its value is 13.6 eV. 17. (a) : According to Bohr’s second postulate nh Angular momentum, L = 2π Angular momentum is also called a moment of momentum. For second orbit, n = 2 2h h L= = 2π π 18. (b) : At minimum impact parameter a particles rebound back (q ≈ p) and suffers large scattering. 19. (c) : The radius of orbit of electrons = 10–10 m radius of nucleus = 10–15 m \ Ratio = 10 −10 = 105 10 −15 Hence the radius of electron orbit is 105 times larger than the radius of nucleus. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 94 20. (c) : The radius of nth orbit 2 4 π ε 0 rn = n 2 me 2 4 π ε0 = a0 (Bohr radius) m e2 2 where Hence, rn = n 2 a0 . 21. (c) : In hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to minimum energy. 22. (c) 23. (c) : For an atom with a single electron, Bohr atom model in applicable. As the value of attraction force between a proton and electron e2 is proportional to e2, for an ion with a single electron, 4πε 0 Ze 2 is replaced by 4πε 0 2 n i.e. rn ∝ . Z 24. (d) : Franck and Hertz showed that exciting mercury vapour by electrons of energy 4.9 eV and more, mercury lines of energy 4.9 eV were obtained. First they were excited to level B and then thec atoms emitted spectral lines of 2530 Å i.e. 4.9 eV, Bohr’s concepts were verified. 25. (c) : The energy needed to remove one electron from the ground state of He = 24.6 eV. As the He + is now hydrogen-like, ionisation energy 22 = | −13.6 | 2 eV ⇒ E = 54.4 eV 1 \ To remove both the electrons, energy needed = (54.4 + 24.6) eV = 79 eV 26. (c) : The energy of nth orbit of hydrogen atom is given as 13.6 E n = − 2 eV n \ E1 = –13.6 eV E2 = − 13.6 = −3.4 eV 22 \ E3 = − 13.6 = −1.5 eV 32 E4 = − 13.6 = −0.85 eV 42 E3 – E2 = –1.5 – (–3.4) = 1.9 eV E4 – E3 = –0.85 – (–1.5) = 0.65 eV 27. (c) : Speed of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is 2πe 2 c = = cα 4 πε 0 h 137 where, c = speed of light in vacuum, v= e2 is the fine structure constant. It is a pure number 2ε 0 hc 1 . whose value is 137 v 1 ∴ = c 137 α= 28. (c) : Ist transition is showing absorption of a photon. From rest of three transitions, III is having maximum energy from level n = 2 to n = 1 1 1 ∆E ∝ 2 − 2 n1 n2 29. (a) : For Lyman series 1 1 υ = Rc 2 − 2 1 n where n = 2, 3, 4,....... For the series limit of Lyman series, n = ∞ 1 1 ∴ υ1 = Rc 2 − 2 = Rc ∞ 1 For the first line of Lyman series, n = 2 1 1 3 ∴ υ2 = Rc 2 − 2 = Rc 1 2 4 For Balmer series 1 1 υ = Rc 2 − 2 2 n where n = 3, 4, 5.... For the series limit of Balmer series, n = ∞ 1 Rc 1 ∴ υ3 = Rc 2 − 2 = 2 ∞ 4 From equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we get u1 = u2 + u3 or u1 – u2 = u3 ...(i) ...(ii) ...(iii) 30. (b) : Applying Bohr model to the given system, mv 2 k = rn rn ...(i) 95 Atoms and mvrn = nh nh or v = 2π 2πmrn Put in (i), m n 2h 2 k × 2 22= rn 4π m rn rn n 2h 2 ...(ii) rn2 = 2 4 π mk \ rn2 ∝ n 2 or rn ∝ n 1 n 2h 2 n 2h 2 1 K.E. of the electron, Tn = mv 2 = m 2 2 2 = 2 2 2 2 4 π m rn 8π mrn Using (ii), we get n 2h 2 4 π2mk k Tn = = 8π2mn 2h 2 2 \ Tn is independent of n. 31. (d) : By Bohr’s formula 1 1 1 = Z 2R 2 − 2 λ n1 n2 For first line of Lyman series n1 = 1, n2 = 2 1 3 ∴ = Z 2R λ 4 In the case of hydrogen atom, Z = 1 1 3 =R λ 4 For hydrogen-like atom, Z = 11 1 3 λ ′ 3R 4 1 = 121R = × = ⇒ λ′ 4 λ 4 121R × 3 121 λ 1210 λ′ = = = 10 Å 121 121 nh 32. (d) : Angular momentum = 2π nh ⇒ Moment of momentum = 2π nh ⇒ p × rn = 2π h nh 2πr rn = ⇒ λ= n λ 2π n For 1st orbit, n = 1, λ = 2pr1 ⇒ λ = circumference of 1st orbit. 33. (c) 34. (c) : For Balmer series, n1 = 2, n2 = 3 for 1st line and n2 = 4 for second line. 1 1 − λ1 22 42 3 / 16 3 36 27 = = × = = λ2 1 1 5 / 36 16 5 20 − 2 2 32 λ2 = 20 20 λ1 = × 6561 = 4860 A° 27 27 35. (a) : In the ground state of hydrogen atom, suppose, a0 = Bohr radius v0 = velocity of electron in first orbit \ Time taken by electron to complete one revolution, 2πa0 T= v0 charge (e ) ev 0 = \ Current created, I = time (T ) 2πa0 36. (b) : As, r n = n2a0 Here, a0 = 5.3 × 10–11 m n = 2 \ r2 = (2)2a0 = 4a0= 4 × 5.3 × 10–11 m = 21.2 × 10–11 m = 2.12 Å. 37. (c) : The wavelength for Pfund series is given by 1 1 1 = R 2 − 2 n λ 5 for series limit, n = ∞ 1 1 R 1 ∴ =R − 2 = λ 25 ∞ 25 ∴ λ= 25 25 = = 2278 nm. R 1.097 × 107 38. (d) : Since r n ∝ n2 rn n2 = 2 r1 (1) \ r n = n2 r1 or n 2 = rn ⇒ n= r1 rn = r1 4.2 = 7.939 0.529 = 2.81 ≈ 3 39. (c) : Here, n1 = 1, and n2 = 4 Energy of photon absorbed, E = E2 – E1 13.6 Since, E n = − 2 eV n 13.6 13.6 Then, E 2 − E1 = − 2 − − 2 (1) (4) =− 13.6 + 13.6 = 12.75 eV 16 = 12.75 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = 20.4 × 10–18 J hc E 2 − E1 = λ ∴ λ= 6.6 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 hc = E 2 − E1 20.4 × 10 −18 = 9.70 × 10–8 m = 970 × 10–10 = 970 Å. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 96 1 40. (d) : According to Bohr’s atomic model, r ∝ m rµ me ⇒ = re mµ Here, re = 0.53 × 10–10 m mµ = 207 me me ∴ rµ = × 0.53 × 10 −10 207 me ...(i) 49. (d) : Number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is ∞. 50. (d) : Lyman series lies in the ultraviolet region. (using (i)) = 2.56 × 10–13 m. 41. (d) : For Balmer series, n1 = 2; n2 = 3, 4,… (lower) (higher) Therefore, in transition (VI), photon of Balmer series is absorbed. 42. (c) : In transition II, E2 = –3.4 eV, E4 = –0.85 eV, hc hc DE = 2.55 eV ⇒ DE = ⇒l= = 487 nm λ ∆E 43. (d) : Wavelength of radiation = 1030 Å 12400 DE = = 12.0 eV 1030 Å So, difference of energy should be 12.0 eV (approx.) Hence for n1 = 1 to n2 = 3 E n3 − E n1 = −1.51 eV − ( −13.6 eV) ≈ 12 eV Therefore, transition V will occur. 44. (b) : On other planet : mvr = 2n h nh ⇒v = 2π πmr mv 2 1 e2 mn 2h 2 1 e2 = ⇒ 2 23= 2 r 4 πε0 r nmr 4 πε0 r 2 Putting n = 1, we get r = 4h 2 ε 0 mπe 2 e2 45. (b) : On our planet : v 0 = 2ε 0 nh v e2 On other planet : v = = 0 2ε 0 (2n )h 2 46. (b) : On our planet : E n = − 48. (c) : Potential energy = –C/r2 and total energy = –Rhc/n2. With higher orbit, both r and n increase. So, both become less negative; hence both increase. 13.6 n2 13.6 On other planet : E n′ = − (2n )2 E ⇒ E n′ = n = −3.4 eV 4 47. (c) : Centripetal acceleration = mv2/r Further, as n increases, r also increases. Therefore, centripetal acceleration for n = 2 is less than that for n = 1. So, statement (i) is wrong. Statement (ii) and (iii) are correct. 51. (c) : The shortest Balmer line has energy = |(3.4 – 1.51)| eV = 1.89 eV and the highest energy = |(0 – 3.4)| = 3.4 eV The corresponding wavelengths are 12400 eV Å 12400 eV Å = 6561 Å and = 3647 Å 1.89 eV 3.4 eV Only 4861 Å is between the first and last line of the Balmer series. 52. (a) 53. (b) : In Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment, some of α-particles were found to be scattered at very large angles inspite of having very high kinetic energy. This shows that there are α-particles which will be passing very close to nucleus. Rutherford confirmed the repulsive force on α-particles due to nucleus varies with distance according to inverse square law and that the positive charges are concentrated at the centre and not distributed throughout the atom. This is the nuclear model of Rutherford. 54. (b) : According to classical electromagnetic theory, an accelerated charge continuously emits radiation. As electrons revolving in circular paths are constantly experiencing centripetal acceleration, hence they will be losing their energy continuously and the orbital radius will go on decreasing and form spiral and finally the electron will fall into the nucleus. 55. (a) : Absorption transition C B Absorb radiation A Two possibilities in absorption transition. Emission transition C B A Three possibilities in emission transition. Therefore number of absorption transition < number of emission transition. For any two states A and B such that EA < EB we have absorption spectrum for A → B transition and emission B → A. But most of the time atoms are in ground state, absorption is only from the ground state. 97 Atoms 56. (c) : According to postulates of Bohr’s atomic model, the electron revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbit of definite radii. As long as the electron is in a certain orbit it does not radiate any energy. Not only the centripetal force has to be the centrifugal force, even the stable orbits are fixed by Bohr’s theory. These lines correspond to Lyman series. 4. r = 0.529 n2 Z 22 = 1.058 Å 2 2 2 E (n = 2) = −13.6 × 2 = −13.6 eV 2 r (n = 2) = 0.529 × 57. (b) : The reason is correct, but does not explain the assertion properly. Negative energy of revolving electron indicates that it is bound to the nucleus. The electron is not free to leave the nucleus. 58. (b) : When we put R = 107 m–1 and K = 3, 4, 5 in the given formula, values of l calculated lie between 4000 Å and 8000 Å, which is the visible region. The reason is true, but does not explain the assertion properly. 59. (a) : We know that an electron is very light particle as compared to an α-particle. Hence electron cannot scatter the α-particle at large angles, according to law of conservation of momentum. On the other hand, mass of nucleus is comparable with the mass of α-particle, hence only the nucleus of atom is responsible for scattering of α-particles. 60. (b) : When white light from the photosphere (central portion of the sun) passes through vapours of various elements present in the outer chromosphere, then these elements absorb those wavelengths which they themselves emit to bring incandescent. Hence dark lines (absence of light) appear in the continuous solar spectrum, due to absorption of these lines. Absorption is possible in the sun, not only from the ground state but also in higher states because of the high temperature of the sun. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. According to electromagnetic theory, electron revolving around the nucleus are continuously accelerated. Since an accelerated charge emits energy, the radius of the circular path of a revolving electron should go on decreasing and ultimately it should fall into the nucleus. So, it could not explain the structure of the atom. As matter is stable, we cannot expect the atoms to collapse. 2. Hα line of the Balmer series in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atoms obtained when the transition occurs from n = 3 to n = 2 state. 3. Number of spectral lines obtained due to transition of electron from n = 4 (3rd excited state) to n = 1 (ground state) is (4)(4 − 1) N= =6 2 5. Bohr’s quantization condition : The electron can revolve round the nucleus only in those circular orbits in which angular momentum of an electron is an integral multiple h of 2π nh i.e., mvr = , n = 1, 2, 3,.... 2π 1 1 1 1 1 = RZ 2 2 − = RZ 2 − 6. 2 4 9 λB 2 2 ( 2 + 1) ⇒ λB 2 = 7. 36 5RZ 2 2πr = nλ n2 Here, n = 3 ⇒ 2πr = 3λ and r = 0.53 Å Z 9 or r3 = 0.53 Å 1 ⇒λ= 2πr3 2π = (0.53 × 9) Å ≈ 9.99 Å. 3 3 8. rn = 9. v= n 2h 2 = n2 (0.053 nm) Z 4π2mekZe 2 For our case, n = 1 and Z = 2, and the result is r1 = 0.027 nm. Ze 2 c Z m = 2 ε 0nh 137 n s 2c m/s. 137 10. The shortest wavelength of Brackett series is given as Here n = 1, Z = 2, v1 = 1 1 1.097 × 107 1 = 1.097 × 107 2 − 2 = 16 λ 4 ∞ –6 ⇒ λ = 1.4585 × 10 m This wavelength lies in the infrared region of electromagnetic spectrum. 11. The first excited level is 2nd line. From the 2nd level electron can go to level 1 ⇒ one radiation CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 98 3rd level electron can go to levels 1, 2 ⇒ three radiations 4th level electron can go to levels 1, 2, 3 ⇒ six radiations nth level electron can go to levels 1, 2, 3, ...(n – 1) ∴ Total number of radiations (n − 1) ⋅ n = 1 + 2 + ...... + (n – 1) = . 2 hc 12. λ = (E 2 − E1) 1242 eV - nm λ= = 122 nm. (−3.4 eV) − (−13.6 eV) This wavelength lies in the ultraviolet region. Since, c = υ λ, the frequency of the photon is υ= 13. 8 c 3.00 × 10 m / s = = 2.46 × 1015 Hz λ 1.22 × 10 −7 m 1 1 1 = R (Z )2 2 − 2 λ n n 1 2 For characteristic X-rays, we replace Z by Z – a or (Z – 1) here. For K α , the electron jumps to the K-shell, hence, n1 = 1 and n2 = 2. 1 1 1 ⇒ = R (Z − 1)2 2 − 2 λ 1 2 Force ∝ (–e) (e) = –e2 4 If charge on proton is + e and charge on electron is 3 3 2 4 3 − 4 e , then their product e − e = –e . Thus 3 4 Bohr Formula remains the same. 1 1 eV = 13.6 × 8 eV 1 32 17. (i) As, ∆E = 13.6 × 32 × − ⇒ λ= hc 12400 = Å = 113.7 Å ∆E 13.6 × 8 (ii) Number of spectral lines = n(n − 1) 3(3 − 1) = =3 2 2 18. Let a0 = Bohr radius. v0 = velocity of electron in first orbit. ∴ Time taken by electron to complete one revolution 2πa 0 T= . v0 e ∴ Current created by electron, I = T e ev = = 0 . 2πa 0 2πa 0 v 0 1 1 1 = (1.097 × 107 m–1) (78 – 1)2 2 − 2 λ 1 2 1 = 4.9 × 1010 m–1 or λ = 2 × 10–11 m = 0.2 Å. λ 19. Kinetic energy in the first excited state of hydrogen atom EK = 3.4 eV = 3.4 × 1.6 × 10–19 J h de-Broglie wavelength, λ = 2m E K 14. Radius of innermost electron = r= n 2h 2ε 0 πme 2 For n = 1, r1 = h 2ε 0 2 = 5.3 × 10–11 m πme For n = 2, r2 = (2)2 r1 = 2.12 × 10–10 m For n = 3, r3 = (3)2 r1 = 4.77 × 10–10 m. h associated with 2π planetary motion are incomparably large relative to h. For example angular momentum of earth in its orbital motion h is of the order of 1070 . 2π For such large value of n, the difference in successive energies and angular momenta of the quantised levels of the Bohr model are so small that one can predict the energy level continuous. 16. In Bohr’s formula, 15. Angular momentum mvr = n mv 2 1 = (e)(−e) r 4π ε 0 6.63 × 10 −34 2 × 9.1 × 10 −31 × 3.4 × 1.6 × 10 −19 = 0.67 nm 20. Wavelength (l) of Balmer series is given by 1 1 1 = R H 2 − 2 where ni = 3, 4,5,... λ 2 ni For shortest wavelength, when transition of electrons take place from ni = ∞ to nf = 2 orbit, wavelength of emitted photon is shortest. 7 1 1 1.097 × 10 = RH 2 − = 4 λ min 2 ∞ –7 \ lmin = 3.646 × 10 m = 3646 Å This wavelength lies in visible region of electromagnetic spectrum. 21. There are two protons and two neutrons in helium atom. Two electrons are revolving around the nucleus in first orbit. It is assumed that there is no interaction between the two electrons to He-atom. so, replacing Z = 1 by Z = 2 1 −13.6 Z 2 En = eV, 2 n 99 Atoms For ground state (n = 1) of helium atom, energy −13.6 E1 = 2 (2)2 eV = −54.4 eV 1 Helium has two electrons in ground state, so total energy E = 2E1 = –108.8 eV. 1 1 2 1 22. As λ = RZ 2 − 2 , nf n i 1 1 υ = cRZ 2 2 − 2 n (n + p ) [as c = ul, nf = n, ni = (n + p), where p = 1, 2, 3...] (n + p )2 − n 2 or υ = cRZ 2 2 2 n (n + p ) (n 2 + p 2 + 2pn) − n 2 = cRZ 2 n 2(n + p )2 2 2pn 2cRZ u ≈ cRZ2 4 ≈ 3 p (∴ n >> 1, p << n) n n or obviously u ∝ p, i.e., the values of υ are approximately in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. 23. In Balmer series, Hγ line corresponds to transition from state ni = 5 to state nf = 2. Energy required, E = E5 – E1 −13.6 −13.6 = 2 − 2 = 13.06 eV. 5 1 If angular momentum of system is conserved, change in angular momentum of electron = change in angular momentum of photon h h 3h = 5 −2 = 2π 2π 2π = 3 × 6.6 × 10 −34 = 3.17 × 10 −34 J s 2 × 3.14 24. (i) The kinetic energy (Ek) of the electron in an orbit is equal to negative of its total energy (E). Ek = –E = – (–1.5) = 1.5 eV (ii) The potential energy (Ep) of the electron in an orbit is equal to twice of its total energy (E). Ep = 2E = –1.5 × 2 = –3.0 eV (iii) Here, ground state energy of the H-atom = –13.6 eV When the electron goes from the excited state to the ground state, energy emitted is given by E = –1.5 – (–13.6) = 12.1 eV = 12.1 × 1.6 × 10–19 J hc Now, E= λ λ= hc 6.62 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 = E 12.1 × 1.6 × 10 −19 λ = 1.025 × 10–7 = 1025 Å 25. Here, ∆E = 12.5 eV Energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is, 13.6 E n = − 2 eV n In ground state, n = 1 E1 = –13.6 eV Energy of an electron in the excited state after absorbing a photon of 12.5 eV energy will be En = –13.6 + 12.5 = –1.1 eV −13.6 −13.6 ∴ n2 = = = 12.36 ⇒ n = 3.5 En −1.1 Here, state of electron cannot be in fraction. So, n = 3 (2nd excited state). The wavelength λ of the first member of Lyman series is given by 1 1 1 3 =R 2 − 2 = R λ 1 2 4 4 4 ⇒ λ= = 3R 3 × 1.097 × 107 ⇒ λ = 1.215 × 10–7 m ⇒ λ = 121 × 10–9 m ⇒ λ = 121 nm The wavelength λ′ of the first member of the Balmer series is given by 1 1 1 5 =R 2 − 2 = R λ′ 2 3 36 ⇒ λ′ = 36 36 = 5R 5 × (1.097 × 107 ) = 6.56 × 10–7 m = 656 × 10–9 m = 656 nm −13.6 26. (i) ∵ E n = 2 eV n Energy of the photon emitted during a transition of the electron from the first excited state to its ground state is, ∆E = E2 – E1 −13.6 −13.6 −13.6 13.6 = 2 − 2 = + = −3.40 + 13.6 4 1 1 2 = 10.2 eV This transition lies in the region of Lyman series. (ii) (a) The energy levels of H-atom are given by Rhc 13.6 E n = − 2 = − 2 eV n n For first excited state n = 2 13.6 E 2 = − 2 eV = −3.4 eV (2) Kinetic energy of electron in (n = 2) state is K2 = – E2 = + 3.4 eV CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 100 (b) Radius in the first excited state r1 = (2)2 (0.53) Å r1 = 2.12 Å From Bohr’s quantization condition 27. (i) de-Broglie hypothesis may be used to derive Bohr’s formula by considering the electron to be a wave spread over the entire orbit, rather than as a particle which at any instant is located at a point in its orbit. The stable orbits in an atom are those which are standing waves. Formation of standing waves require that the circumference of the orbit is equal in length to an integral multiple of the wavelength. Thus, if r is the radius of the orbit nh h 2πr = nλ = s ∵ λ= p p which gives the angular momentum quantization. h L = pr = n 2π 1 e2 m ⋅ n 2h 2 1 e2 nh = = m⋅ or 2πmr 4πε 0 r 4π2m 2r 2 4πε 0 r mvr = nh nh ...(ii) or v = 2π 2πmr Using equation (ii) in (i), we get 2 or n 2h 2ε 0 ...(iii) πme 2 where n = 1, 2, 3, ... is principal quantum number. Equation (iii), gives the radius of nth orbit of H-atom. So the radii of the orbits increase proportionally with n2 i.e., [r ∝ n2]. Radius of first orbit of H-atom is called Bohr radius a0 and is given by a0 = r= h 2ε 0 πme 2 for n = 1 or a0 = 0.529 Å So, radius of nth orbit of H-atom then becomes r = n2 × 0.529 Å (ii) C EC 1 EB 3 B 2 A EA Clearly, from energy level diagram, EC – EA = (EC – EB) + (EB – EA) (On the basis of energy of emitted photon). hc hc hc = + \ λ 3 λ1 λ2 ⇒ 1 1 1 λλ = + ⇒ λ3 = 1 2 λ1 + λ2 λ 3 λ1 λ2 which is the required relation between the three given wavelengths. 28. Radius of nth orbit of hydrogen atom : In H-atom, an electron having charge –e revolves around the nucleus of charge +e in a circular orbit of radius r, such that necessary centripetal force is provided by the electrostatic force of attraction between the electron and nucleus. 2 1 e2 i.e., mv = 1 e.e or mv 2 = ...(i) 2 4πε r r 4πε 0 r 0 +e r F –e mv2 r 29. (i) As the gold foil is very thin, it can be assumed that a-particles will suffer not more than one scattering during their passage through it. Therefore, computation of the trajectory of an a-particle scattered by a single nucleus is enough. (ii) Trajectory of a-particles depends on impact parameter which is the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the a particles from the centre of the nucleus. For small impact parameter, a particle close to the nucleus suffers larger scattering. (iii) In case of head-on-collision, the impact parameter is minimum and the a -particle rebounds back. So, the fact that only a small fraction of the number of incident particles rebound back indicates that the number of a -particles undergoing head-on collision is small. This in turn implies that the mass of the atom is concentrated in a small volume. 30. According to Bohr’s formula, En = −me 4 8ε20n 2h 2 where m is called reduced mass. In case of hydrogen, m = me = mass of electron. For positronium, m × me me m= e = me + me 2 Since for H-atom, E1 = m ee 4 8ε20n 2h 2 So, for positronium E 1′ = = −13.6 eV −13.6 = −6.8 eV. 2 101 Atoms 31. Wavelengths corresponding to minimum wavelength (λmin) or maximum energy will emit photoelectrons having maximum kinetic energy. Wavelengths belonging to Balmer series and lying in the given range (450 nm to 750 nm) corresponds to transition from (n = 4 to n = 2). Here, E4 = 13.6 (4)2 = −0.85 eV and E 2 = − 13.6 (2)2 = −3.4 eV ∴ ∆E = E4 – E2 = 2.55 eV Kmax = Energy of photon – Work function = 2.55 – 2.0 = 0.55 eV 32. The force at a distance r is F =− Suppose r be the radius of nth orbit. The necessary centripetal force is provided by the above force. Thus, mv 2 = 2ar ...(i) r Further, the quantisation of angular momentum gives, nh ...(ii) mvr = 2π 1/ 4 n 2h 2 Solving, equations (i) and (ii) for r, we get r = 8amπ2 33. (i) We have mv 2 Ze 2 Ze 2 2 = = or v r 4πε 0m r 4πε 0r 2 nh The quantisation rule is vr = 2πm (vr )2 rh = 0 2 2 2 h 2ε 0 πme e 2 For rµ = rh , or n 25 n 2h 2ε 0 624πme e 2 = h 2ε 0 πme e 2 or n2 = 624 n(n − 1) =3 ∴ n = 3 2 i.e. after excitation atom jumps to second excited state. Hence, nf = 3. So ni can be 1 or 2. If ni = 1 then energy emitted is either equal to, greater than or less than the energy absorbed. Hence, the emitted wavelength 34. (i) 35. As the nucleus is massive, recoil momentum of the atom can be ignored. We can assume that the entire energy of transition is transferred to the Auger electron. As there is a single valence electron in chromium (Z = 24), the energy states may be thought of as given by Bohr model. The energy of the nth state is RhcZ 2 where R is Rydberg constant. n2 In the transition from n = 2 to n = 1, energy released, 1 3 ∆E = −RhcZ 2 − 1 = RhcZ 2 4 4 En = − The energy required to eject a n = 4 electron 2 (2nhπm ) 4πεZe m = Znπhmeε 2 ( ) 2 1 RhcZ = RhcZ 2 = 16 4 0 2 v 2r For the given system, Z = 3 and m = 208 me n 2h 2ε 0 Thus, rµ = 624πme e2 (ii) The radius of the first Bohr orbit for a hydrogen atom is = (ii) E3 – E2 = 68 eV 1 1 ∴ (13.6)(Z 2 ) − = 68 4 9 ∴ Z=6 The gas atoms correspond to carbon. 12400 12400 (iii) λ min = = E 3 − E1 1 (13.6)(6)2 1 − 9 12400 = = 28.49 Å 435.2 ( ) dU = −2ar dr The radius is r = is either equal to, less than or greater than the absorbed wavelength. Hence, ni ≠ 1 If ni = 2, then Ee ≥ Ea. Hence λe ≤ λ0 ∴ KE of Auger electron = 3RhcZ 2 RhcZ 2 − 4 16 3 1 11 KE = RhcZ 2 − = RhcZ 2 4 16 16 11 = (13.6 eV) × 24 × 24 = 5385.6 eV [ Rhc = 13.6 eV] 16 36. (a) (i) Limitation of Rutherford’s model : e– Rutherford’s atomic model is inconsistent with classical physics. According to + electromagnetic theory, an electron is a charged particle moving in the circular orbit around the nucleus and is accelerated, so it should emit radiation continuously and thereby loose energy. Due to this, radius of the electron would decrease continuously and also the atom should then produce continuous spectrum, and ultimately electron will fall into the nucleus and atom will collapse in 10–8 s. But the atom is fairly stable and it emits line spectrum. (ii) Rutherford’s model is not able to explain the spectrum of even most simplest H-spectrum. (b) Bohr’s postulates to resolve observed features of atomic spectrum : CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 102 (i) Quantum condition: Of all the possible circular orbits allowed by the classical theory, the electrons are permitted to circulate only in those orbits in which the angular momentum h of an electron is an integral multiple of , h being Planck’s 2π constant. Therefore, for any permitted orbit, nh L = mvr = , n = 1, 2, 3 ....., 2π where n is called the principal quantum number, and this equation is called Bohr’s quantisation condition. (ii) Stationary orbits: While revolving in the permissible orbits, an electron does not radiate energy. These nonradiating orbits are called stationary orbits. (iii) Frequency condition: An atom can emit or absorb radiation in the form of discrete energy photons only when an electron jumps from a higher to a lower orbit or from a lower to a higher orbit, respectively. hυ = Ei – Ef where υ is frequency of radiation emitted, Ei and Ef are the energies associated with stationary orbits of principal quantum number ni and nf respectively (where ni > nf). 37. ∵ mv 2 1 e2 = …(i) rn 4πε 0 r 2 n nh …(ii) 2π From eqn. (i) and (ii) and mvrn = ∴ rn = ε 0h 2n 2 πme 2 Total energy 1 1 e2 1 e2 1 e2 E n = mv n2 − = − 2 4πε 0 rn 8πε 0 rn 4πε 0 rn me 4 −Rhc where, Rydberg constant R = 8ε20h 3c n2 Energy emitted ∆E = Ei – Ef 1 1 ∆E = Rhc 2 − 2 nf n i But ∆E = hυ 1 1 υ = Rc 2 − 2 nf n i or 38. Let µH and µD are the reduced masses of electron for hydrogen and deuterium respectively. 1 1 1 =R 2 − 2 λ n n We know that f λ∝ \ RH = RD = i 1 λ R or D = H …(i) R λH RD m ee 4 8 ε 0ch 3 m ee 4 8 ε 0 ch = 3 µH e 4 8ε 0ch 3 = µD e 4 8 ε 0ch 3 ∴ R H µH = …(ii) R D µD From equation (i) and (ii) λ D µH …(iii) = λ H µD Reduced mass for hydrogen, me m µH = me 1− e 1+ me / M M Reduced mass for deuterium, 2M ⋅ me m me 1 − e µD = 2M me 2M 1 + 2M where M is mass of proton. m me 1 − e −1 M me me µH − = 1 − = 1 µD m M 2M me 1 − e 2M m m = 1 − e 1 + e M 2M 1 e2 1 me 4 En = − =− 2 2 2 8πε 0 rn 8ε 0 h n En = When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state ni = 4 to nf = 3, 2, 1, the Paschen, Balmer and Lyman spectral series are found. me 4 1 1 υ= 2 3 2 − 2 8ε 0h nf ni ⇒ µH me = 1− µD 2M 1 µ or H = 1 − = 0.99973 µD 2 × 1840 From (iii) and (iv) λD = 0.99973 , λD = 0.99973 λH. λH (∴ …(iv) M = 1840 me) Using λH = 1218 Å, 1028 Å, 974.3 Å and 951.4 Å, we get λD = 1217.7 Å, 1027.7 Å, 974.04 Å, 951.1 Å Shift in wavelength (λH – λD) ≈ 0.3 Å. CHAPTER 13 Nuclei Recap Notes Composition of the Nucleus X The nucleus of an atom contains protons and neutrons which are collectively known as nucleons. The number of protons in a nucleus is called its atomic number and is denoted by Z. The total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called its mass number and is denoted by A. – Number of protons in an atom = Z – Number of electrons in an atom = Z – Number of nucleons in an atom = A – Number of neutrons in an atom = N = A – Z. X Nuclide : It is a specific nucleus of an atom which is characterised by its atomic number Z and mass number A. It is represented by ZXA where X is the chemical symbol of the element. X Nuclear Radius : Nuclear radius R = R0 A1/3 where R0 is a constant and A is the mass number. Nuclear radius is measured in fermi. 1 fm = 10–15 m X Nuclear Density : Mass of nucleus Nuclear density, ρ = Volume of nucleus Nuclear density is independent of A and is in order of the 1017 kg m–3. Isotopes : Isotopes of an element are the atoms of the element which have the same atomic number but different mass numbers, e.g., 1H1, 1H2, 1H3, are the three isotopes of hydrogen. Isobars : Isobars are the atoms of different elements which have the same mass number but different atomic numbers, e.g., 11Na 22 and 10Ne22. Isotones : Isotones are the nuclides which contain the same number of neutrons, e.g., 37 39 17Cl and 19K . Nuclear forces : Nuclear forces are the strong forces of attraction which hold together the nucleons (neutrons and protons) in the tiny nucleus of an atom, inspite of strong electrostatic forces of repulsion between protons. X Nuclear forces are strongest forces in nature. X Nuclear forces are short range forces. X Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law. X Nuclear forces are charge independent. Mass defect : The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is known as the mass defect and is given by Dm = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – mN] where mp is the mass of the proton and mn is the mass of the neutron and mN is the mass of the nucleus. Binding Energy : The binding energy of nucleus is given by Eb = Dmc2 = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – mN]c2 = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – mN] × 931.49 MeV/u. Nuclear reaction : A nuclear reaction is represented by A+a→B+b+Q where A is the target nucleus, a is the impinging particle, B and b are the products, Q is the energy released in the process. The nuclear reaction is represented by notation A(a, b)B. Q value of nuclear reaction, Q = (mA + ma – mB – mb)c2 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 104 X X X If Q is positive, the reaction is exothermic and if Q is negative the reaction is endothermic. Conservation laws obeyed by every nuclear reaction are – Conservation of charge number – Conservation of mass number – Conservation of linear momentum – Conservation of energy Nuclear fission : It is the phenomenon of splitting a heavy nucleus into two or more smaller nuclei. The nuclear fission of 92U235 is represented as 235 + 0n1 → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 3 0n1 + Q 92U The value of the Q is 200 MeV per fission reaction. X Nuclear chain reaction : Under suitable conditions, the three secondary neutrons may cause further fission of U235 nuclei and start what is known as nuclear chain reaction. The nuclear chain reaction is controlled by Neutron reproduction factor, (K) Rate of production of neutrons = Rate of loss of neutrons X X X X Uncontrolled nuclear chain reaction is the basis of an atom bomb. Controlled nuclear chain reaction is the basis of a nuclear reactor. Nuclear reactor : Nuclear reactor uses nuclear energy for peaceful purposes. It is based on the phenomenon of controlled nuclear chain reaction. Moderators like heavy water, graphite, paraffin and deuterium slow down neutrons. Rods of cadmium and boron serve as control rods. Ordinary water and heavy water serve as coolants. Nuclear fusion : It is the phenomenon of fusing two or more lighter nuclei to form a single heavy nucleus. – The nuclear fusion reaction of two deutrons is represented as – 1H2 + 1H2 → 2He4 + 24 MeV – Temperature ≈ 107 K are required for fusion to take place. – Nuclear fusion is a basis of hydrogen bomb. Stellar energy : It is the energy obtained from the sun and stars. The source of stellar energy is nuclear fusion. Practice Time OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single nucleus of 235 92U, the fissions which are required to produce a power of 1 kW is (a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 1.52 × 106 12 (c) 3.125 × 10 (d) 3.125 × 1014 The equation 4 11 H + 4 2+ 2 He 2. → represents (a) both fusion and fission (b) neither fusion nor fission (c) only fusion (d) only fission 3. (a) (b) (c) (d) − + 2e + 26 MeV In nuclear reaction, there is conservation of mass only energy only momentum only mass, energy and momentum 4. The fission properties of 239 94 Pu are very similar to those of 235 U. The average energy 92 released per fission is 180 MeV. If all the atoms in 1 kg of pure 239 94Pu undergo fission, then the total energy released in MeV is (a) 4.53 × 1026 MeV (b) 2.21 × 1014 MeV 13 (c) 1 × 10 MeV (d) 6.33 × 1024 MeV 5. 1 MeV positron encounters a 1 MeV electron travelling in opposite direction. What is the wavelength of photons produced? (Given rest mass energy of electron or positron = 0.512 MeV and h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js) (a) 8.2 × 10–11 m (b) 8.2 × 10–13 m (c) 8.2 × 10–12 m (d) 8.2 × 10–9 m 8. The mass number of iron nucleus is 55.854 and A = 56, the nuclear density is (a) 2.29 × 1016 kg m–3 (b) 2.29 × 1017 kg m–3 (c) 2.29 × 1018 kg m–3 (d) 2.29 × 1015 kg m–3 9. Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus is (a) 1020 kg m–3 (b) 1017 kg m–3 (c) 1014 kg m–3 (d) 1011 kgm–3 10. How much mass has to be converted into energy to produce electric power of 500 MW for one hour? (a) 2 × 10–5 kg (b) 1 × 10–5 kg (c) 3 × 10–5 kg (d) 4 × 10–5 kg 11. Two stable isotopes 36 Li and 37 Li have respective abundances of 7.5% and 92.5%. These isotopes have masses 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u respectively. The atomic weight of lithium is (a) 6.941 u (b) 3.321 u (c) 2.561 u (d) 0.621 u 12. The ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold 197 isotope 79 Au and silver isotope 107 47Ag is (a) 1.23 (b) 0.216 (c) 2.13 (d) 3.46 13. Let mp be the mass of a proton, mn the mass 20 of a neutron, M1 the mass of a 10 Ne nucleus and 40 M2 the mass of a 20 Ca nucleus. Then (a) M2 = M1 (b) M2 > 2M1 (c) M2 = 2M1 (d) M1 < 10 (mn + mp) Light energy emitted by star is due to breaking of nuclei joining of nuclei burning of nuclei reflection of solar light 6. In nuclear reactors, the control rods are made of (a) cadmium (b) graphite (c) krypton (d) plutonium 14. (a) (b) (c) (d) 7. The equivalent energy of 1 g of substance is (a) 9 × 1013 J (b) 6 × 1012 J 13 (c) 3 × 10 J (d) 6 × 1013 J 15. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The 4 binding energy of 24 He, if mass of 2He is 4.0015 u CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 106 (a) 0.0305 erg (c) 28.4 MeV (b) 0.0305 J (d) 0.061 u 16. The set which represents the isotope, isobar and isotone respectively is 198 3 2 (a) (12H, 13H), (197 79Au, 80Hg) and (2 He, 1 H) (b) 198 (23He, 11H), (197 79Au, 80Hg) and (11H, 31H) 198 (c) (23He, 13H), (12H, 13H) and (197 79Au, 80Hg) 198 (d) (12H, 13H), (23He, 13H) and (197 79Au, 80Hg) 17. The radius of a spherical nucleus as measured by electron scattering is 3.6 fm. What is the mass number of the nucleus most likely to be? (a) 27 (b) 40 (c) 56 (d) 120 18. If in a nuclear fusion reaction, mass defect is 0.3%, then energy released in fusion of 1 kg mass is (a) 27 × 1010 J (b) 27 × 1011 J 10 (c) 27 × 10 J (d) 27 × 1013 J 19. If the nucleus 13Al27 has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then 52Te125 would have its radius approximately as (a) 9.6 fm (b) 12 fm (c) 4.8 fm (d) 6 fm 20. Boron has two stable isotopes, 105B and 115B. Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and 11.00931 u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Find the abundances of 115B. (a) 90.1% (b) 80.1% (c) 85.5% (d) 95% Case Based MCQs Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 21 to 25. Discovery of Nucleus The nucleus was first discovered in 1911 by Lord Rutherford and his associates by experiments on scattering of a-particles by atoms. He found that the scattering results could be explained, if atoms consist of a small, central, massive and positive core surrounded by orbiting electrons. The experimental results indicated that the size of the nucleus is of the order of 10–14 m and is thus 10000 times smaller than the size of atom. 21. Ratio of mass of nucleus with mass of atom is approximately (a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 103 (d) 1010 22. Masses of nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are in ratio (a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4 23. Nuclides with same neutron number but different atomic number are (a) isobars (b) isotopes (c) isotones (d) none of these 24. If R is the radius and A is the mass number, then log R versus log A graph will be (a) a straight line (b) a parabola (c) an ellipse (d) none of these. 25. The ratio of the nuclear radii of the mercury 107 isotope 198 80Hg and silver isotope 47Ag is (a) 1.23 (b) 0.216 (c) 2.13 (d) 3.46 Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 26 to 30. Nuclear Fission In the year 1939, German scientist Otto Hahn and Strassmann discovered that when an uranium isotope was bombarded with a neutron, it breaks into two intermediate mass fragments. It was observed that, the sum of the masses of new fragments formed were less than the mass of the original nuclei. This difference in the mass appeared as the energy released in the process. Thus, the phenomenon of splitting of a heavy nucleus (usually A > 230) into two or more lighter nuclei by the bombardment of proton, neutron, a-particle, etc with liberation of energy is called nuclear fission. 235 236 + 0n1 → → 56Ba144 + 36Kr89 92U 92U 26. of (a) (b) (c) (d) Unstable nucleus + 30n1 + Q Nuclear fission can be explained on the basis Millikan’s oil drop method Liquid drop model Shell model Bohr’s model. 107 Nuclei 27. For sustaining the nuclear fission chain reaction in a sample (of small size) of 235 92U, it is desirable to slow down fast neutrons by (a) friction (b) elastic damping/scattering (c) absorption (d) cooling (a) more mass per nucleon than either of the two fragments (b) more mass per nucleon as the two fragment (c) exactly the same mass per nucleon as the two fragments (d) less mass per nucleon than either of two fragments. 28. Which of reaction(s)? 33. When 92U235 undergoes fission, about 0.1% of the original mass is converted into energy. The energy released when 1 kg of 92U235 undergoes fission is (I) 1 0n the following is/are fission 236 133 99 1 + 235 92U → 92U → 51Sb + 41Nb + 4 0n 1.40 94 1 (II) 10n + 235 92U → 54 Xe + 38Sr + 2 0n (III) 21H + 21H → 32He + 10n (a) Both II and III (c) Only II (b) Both I and III (d) Both I and II 29. On an average, the number of neutrons and the energy of a neutron released per fission of a uranium atom are respectively (a) 2.5 and 2 keV (b) 3 and 1 keV (c) 2.5 and 2 MeV (d) 2 and 2 keV 30. In any fission process, ratio of mass of daughter nucleus to mass of parent nucleus is (a) less than 1 (b) greater than 1 (c) equal to 1 (d) depends on the mass of parent nucleus. Case III : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 31 to 35. Nuclear Energy A heavy nucleus breaks into comparatively lighter nuclei which are more stable compared to the original heavy nucleus. When a heavy nucleus like uranium is bombarded by slow moving neutrons, it splits into two parts releasing large amount of energy. The typical fission reaction of 235 . 92U 235 92U + 0n1 → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 30n1 + 200 MeV The fission of 92U235 approximately released 200 MeV of energy. 31. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single nucleus of 235 92U, the fissions which are required to produce a power of 10 kW is (a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 1.52 × 106 12 (c) 3.125 × 10 (d) 3.125 × 1014 32. The release in energy in nuclear fission is consistent with the fact that uranium has (a) 9 × 1011 J (c) 9 × 1015 J (b) 9 × 1013 J (d) 9 × 1018 J 34. A nuclear fission is said to be critical when multiplication factor or K (a) K = 1 (b) K > 1 (c) K < 1 (d) K = 0 35. Einstein’s mass-energy conversion relation E = mc2 is illustrated by (a) nuclear fission (b) atomic transition (c) rocket propulsion (d) steam engine Case IV : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 36 to 40. Nuclear Force Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the same and the force, called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force is the strongest force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadrupole moment and spin of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume of nucleus depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%) is centred at the nucleus. 36. The correct statements about the nuclear force is/are (a) charge independent (b) short range force (c) non-conservative force (d) all of these. 37. The range of nuclear force is the order of (a) 2 × 10–10 m (b) 1.5 × 10–20 m –4 (c) 1.2 × 10 m (d) 1.4 × 10–15 m 38. A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron. The nature of the force is CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 108 (a) electrical force (c) gravitational force (b) weak nuclear force (d) strong nuclear force. 39. Two protons are kept at a separation of 40 Å. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the electrostatic force between them. Then (a) Fn << Fe (b) Fn = Fe (c) Fn >> Fe 40. (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Fn ≈ Fe All the nucleons in an atom are held by nuclear forces Van der Waal’s forces tensor forces coulomb forces Assertion & Reasoning Based MCQs For question numbers 41-49, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 41. Assertion (A) : Two protons can attract each other. Reason (R) : The distance between the protons within the nucleus is about 10–15 m. 46. Assertion (A) : There is a chain reaction when uranium is bombarded with slow neutrons. Reason (R) : When uranium is bombarded with slow neutrons more neutrons are produced. 42. Assertion (A) : The nuclear force becomes weak if the nucleus contains too many protons compared to neutrons. Reason (R) : The electrostatic forces weaken the nuclear force. 47. Assertion (A) : Cadmium rods used in a nuclear reactor, control the rate of fission. Reason (R) : Cadmium rods speed up the slow neutrons. 43. Assertion (A) : For the fission of heavy nuclei, neutrons are more effective than protons. Reason (R) : Neutrons are heavier than protons. 44. Assertion (A) : Energy is released in a nuclear reaction. Reason (R) : In any nuclear reaction the reactants and resultant products obey the law of conservation of charge and mass only. 45. Assertion (A) : Density of all the nuclei is same. Reason (R) : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number. 48. Assertion (A) : A fission reaction can be more easily controlled than a fusion reaction. Reason (R) : The percentage of mass converted to energy in a fission reaction is 0.1% whereas in a fusion reaction it is 0.4%. 49. Assertion (A) : Thermonuclear fusion reactions may become the source of unlimited power for the mankind. Reason (R) : A single fusion event involving isotopes of hydrogen produces more energy than energy from nuclear fission of a single uranium. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. What is the radius of the nucleus of 2. Find 64 29 Cu the 27 and 13 Al . ratio of nuclear 3. 64 29 Cu? radius of Define the nuclear force? 4. The nuclear radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15 m. Then, find the nuclear radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 128? 109 Nuclei 5. Assume that a neutron breaks into a proton and an electron. Find the energy required during this process ? (Mass of neutron = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, Mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg) 6. A neutron is absorbed by a 63 Li nucleus with the subsequent emission of an alpha particle. Calculate the energy released, in MeV, in this reaction. and mass (triton) = 3.0100000 u. Take 1 u = 931 MeV/c2] 7. From the relation R = R0 A1/3, where R0 is a constant and A is the mass number of a nucleus, show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant (i.e., independent of A). 8. The three stable isotopes of neon : 21 10 Ne and 22 10 Ne 20 10 Ne , have respective abundances of 90.51%, 0.27% and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u and 21.99 u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of neon. [Given : mass 63 Li = 6.015126 u; mass (neutron) = 1.0086654 u; mass (alpha particle) = 4.0026044 u; Short Answer Type Questions (SA-I) 9. Find the disintegration energy Q for the fission event represented by equation 235 94 1 + 0n1 → 92U236 → 140 92U 58Ce + 40Zr + 20n If mass of 92U235 = 235.0439 u, 0n1 = 1.00867 u, 140 94 58Ce = 139.9054 u and 40Zr = 93.9063 u, find energy released in the process. 10. 92U235 absorbs a slow neutron (thermal neutron) and undergoes a fission represented by 235 + 0n1 → 92U236 → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 3 0n1 + E. 92U Calculate : (i) The energy released E per fission. (ii) The energy released when 1 g of undergoes complete fission. Given : 92U235 = 235.1175 amu (atom), 235 92U is mass converted into energy (or vice versa)? Explain giving one example. 12. Calculate the energy released in fusion reaction : 12 H +12 H → 32 He + n , where B.E. of 2 1H = 2.23 MeV and of 3 2 He = 7.73 MeV. 13. Which is more, the density of lead nuclei or the density of oxygen nuclei? 14. Consider a particle or nucleus, which contains 2 protons and 2 neutrons. Find its binding energy. mp = 1.007276 u, mn = 1.008665 u mHe = 4.001508 u 1 amu = 931 MeV/c 15. A nuclide 1 is said to be the mirror isobar of nuclide 2 if Z1 = N2 and Z2 = N1. (a) Which nuclide is a mirror isobar of 23 11Na ? (b) Which nuclide out of the two mirror isobars have greater binding energy and why? 11. If both the number of protons and neutrons in a nuclear reaction is conserved, in what way 16. Why do stable nuclei never have more protons than neutrons? 141 = 140.9577 amu (atom) 56Ba 92 1 36Kr = 91.9264 amu (atom), 0n = 2 1.00868 amu, Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 17. Calculate for how many years will the fusion of 2.0 kg deuterium keep 800 W electric lamp glowing. Take the fusion reaction as 2 2 3 1 1H + 1H → 2He + 0n + 3.27 MeV 18. Consider the fusion reaction: 4 He + 4He → 8Be For the reaction, find (i) mass defect (ii) Q-value (iii) Is such a fusion energetically favourable? Atomic mass of 8Be is 8.0053 u and that of 4He is 4.0026 u. 19. A nuclear reactor using 235U generates 250 MW of electrical power. The efficiency of the reactor (i.e., efficiency of conversion of thermal energy into electrical energy) is 25%. What is the amount of 235U used in the reactor per year? The thermal energy released per fission of 235U is 200 MeV. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 110 20. The deuteron is bound by nuclear forces just as H-atom is made up of p and e bound by electrostatic forces. If we consider the force between neutron and proton in deuteron as given in the form of a Coulomb potential but with an effective charge e′: 1 e′ 2 F= 4 πε0 r 22. When four hydrogen nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus estimate the amount of energy in MeV released in this process of fusion (Neglect the masses of electrons and neutrons). Given: Estimate the value of (e′/e) given that the binding energy of a deuteron is 2.2 MeV. 23. In a typical nuclear reaction, e.g. 21. Distinguish between the phenomena of nuclear fission and fusion. although number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain. (i) Mass of 11 H = 1.007825 u (ii) mass of helium nucleus = 4.002603 u, 1u = 931 MeV/c2 2 1H + 12 H →32 He + 10 n +3.27 MeV, Long Answer Type Questions (LA) 24. Deuteron is a bound state of a neutron and a proton with a binding energy B = 2.2 MeV. A g-ray of energy E is aimed at a deuteron nucleus to try to break it into a (neutron + proton) such that the n and p move in the direction of the incident g-ray. If E = B, show that this cannot happen. Hence, calculate how much E should be bigger than B for such a process to happen. OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 6. (a) : In nuclear reactors, cadmium rods are used as control rods. 7. (a) : Using, E = mc2 Here, m = 1 g = 1 × 10–3 kg, c = 3 × 108 m s–1 \ E = 10–3 × 9 × 1016 = 9 × 1013 J 8. (b) 9. (b) : Order of magnitude of nuclear density = 1017 kg m–3 10. (a) : Here, P = 500 MW = 5 × 108 W, t = 1 h = 3600 s Energy produced, E = P × t = 5 × 108 × 3600 = 18 × 1011 J As E = mc2 1. (a) : Let the number of fissions per second be n. Energy released = n × 200 MeV = n × 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J Energy required = power × time = 1 kW × 1 s = 1000 J \ n × 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 = 1000 1000 10 or n = = × 1013 = 3.125 × 1013 −11 3.2 3.2 × 10 2. (c) : During nuclear fusion, two or more lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus. 3. (d) : In any nuclear reaction mass, energy and momentum all are conserved. 4. (a) : Number of atoms in 1 kg of pure 239Pu 6.023 × 1023 = × 1000 = 2.52 × 1024 239 As average energy released per fission is 180 MeV \ Total energy released = 2.52 × 1024 × 180 MeV = 4.53 × 1026 MeV 5. (b) : –10e + +10e → 2g The total energy of the positron = 1 + 0.512 MeV The total energy of the electron = 1 + 0.512 MeV Energy of each photon 2(1+ 0.512) = = 1.512 MeV = 1.512 × 1.6 × 10 −13 J 2 hc hc 6.62 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 E= ⇒λ= = λ E 1.512 × 1.6 × 10 −13 –13 = 8.2 × 10 m \ E 18 × 1011 18 × 1011 = 2 × 10 −5 kg = m= 2= 8 2 16 c (3 × 10 ) 9 × 10 11. (a) : Atomic weight = Weighted average of the isotopes 6.01512 × 7.5 + 7.01600 × 92.5 = (7.5 + 92.5) 45.1134 + 648.98 = = 6.941u 100 12. (a) : Here, A1 = 197 and A2 = 107 1/ 3 \ R1 A1 = R2 A2 1/ 3 197 = 107 = 1.225 1.23 13. (d) : Due to mass defect, the rest mass of a nucleus is always less than the sum of the rest masses of its constituent nucleons. 111 Nuclei 20 10Ne nucleus consists of 10 protons and 10 neutrons. \ M1 < 10 (mp + mn) 14. (b) : Light energy emitted by stars is due to fusion of light nuclei. 15. (c) : Dm = 2mp + 2mn – m(42He) = 2 × 1.0073 + 2 × 1.0087 – 4.0015 = 0.0305 u Binding energy = 0.0305 × 931 MeV = 28.4 MeV 16. (d) : Nuclides with same atomic number Z but different mass number A are known as isotopes. Nuclides with same mass number A but different atomic number Z are known as isobars. Nuclides with same neutron number N = (A – Z ) but different atomic number Z are known as isotones. 2 3 1H and 1H are isotopes 3 3 2He and 1H are isobars 197 and 80Hg198 are isotones. 79Au 17. (a) : Nuclear radius, R = R0(A)1/3 where A is the mass number of a nucleus. Given, R = 3.6 fm ∴ 3.6 fm = (1.2 fm)( A1/ 3 ) or [∵R0 = 1.2 fm] 3 A = (3) = 27 0 .3 kg = 3 × 10 −3 kg 100 \ E = (Dm) c2 = 3 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2 = 27 × 1013 J 19. (d) : Here, A1 = 27, A2 = 125 R1 = 3.6 fm 18. (d) : Here, Dm = 0.3% of 1 kg = 1/ 3 1/ 3 R2 A2 5 125 = = = 27 3 R1 A1 \ R = 5 R = 5 × 3.6 = 6 fm 2 3 1 3 20. (b) : Let abundance of 105B is x % than abundance of 115B will be (100 – x)%. Atomic mass of boron x [10.01294 u] + (100 − x )[11.00931u] = 100 ⇒ 100 × 10811 u = 1100.931 u – 0.99637x u 19.831 Solving we get, x = = 19.9% 0.99637 As, So, relative abundance of 105B isotope = 19.9% Relative abundance of 115B isotope = 80.1% 21. (a) : As nearly 99.9% mass of atom is in nucleus Mass of nucleus 99.9 ∴ = = 0.99 ≈ 1 Mass of atom 100 22. (a) : Since, the nuclei of deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen, they must contain only one proton each. But the masses of the nuclei of hydrogen, deuterium and tritium are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3, because of presence of neutral matter in deuterium and tritium nuclei. 23. (c) 24. (a) : R = R0A1/3 1 log R = log R0 + log A 3 Which is of form, y = mx + c. So, the graph between log A and log R is a straight line. 25. (a) : Here, A1 = 198 and A2 = 107 1/ 3 1/ 3 R1 A1 198 = = = 1.23 R2 A2 107 26. (b) 27. (b) : Fast neutrons are slowed down by elastic scattering with light nuclei as each collision takes away nearly 50% of energy. 28. (d) : Reactions I and II represent fission of uranium isotope 235 92U, when bombarded with neutrons that breaks it into two intermediate mass nuclear fragments. However, reaction III represents two deuterons fuses together to from the light isotope of helium. 29. (c) : On an average 2.5 neutrons are released per fission of the uranium atom. The energy of the neutron released per fission of the uranium atom is 2 MeV. 30. (a) : In fission process, when a parent nucleus breaks into daughter products, then some mass is lost in the form of energy. Thus, mass of fission products < mass of parent nucleus. Mass of fission products ⇒ <1 Mass of parent nucleus \ 31. (d) : Let the number of fissions per second be n. Energy released = n × 200 MeV = n × 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J Energy required = power × time = 10 kW × 1 s = 10000 J \ n × 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 = 10000 10000 or n = = 3.125 × 1014 −11 3.2 × 10 32. (a) 33. (b) : As only 0.1% of the original mass is converted into energy, hence out of 1 kg mass 1 g is converted into energy. \ Energy released during fission, E = Dmc2 = 1 g × (3 × 108 m s–1)2 = 10–3 × 9 × 1016 J = 9 × 1013 J 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (d) : All options are basic properties of nuclear forces. So, all options are correct. 37. (d) : The nuclear force is of short range and the range of nuclear force is the order of 1.4 × 10–15 m. Now, volume ∝ R3 ∝ A CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 112 38. (d) 39. (a) : Nuclear force is much stronger than the electrostatic force inside the nucleus i.e., at distances of the order of fermi. At 40 Å, nuclear force is ineffective and only electrostatic force of repulsion is present. This is very high at this distance because nuclear force is not acting now and the gravitational force is very feeble. Fnuclear << Felectrostatic in this case. 40. (a) 41. (a) : Due to electrostatic forces between two protons (like charges) there is a force of repulsion. However, when the distance between them is ~ 10–15 m they come under the influence of the short range, strong nuclear forces. (The range of the nuclear forces is ~ 10–15 m). These forces are attractive forces and charge independent. The net force on the protons is attractive as nuclear forces are much stronger than electrostatic forces. The protons attract each other. 42. (c) : Nuclear forces are strongest when the number of protons equals the number of neutrons. An excess of protons compared to neutrons weakens the nuclear force. Also too many neutrons compared to protons inside the nucleus weaken the nuclear forces. The electrostatic force which is a hundred times less than the nuclear force is not the cause. 43. (b) : A neutron is slightly heavier than a proton. As neutrons are chargeless particles they penetrate matter more than protons. Therefore, they are more effective than protons in fission reactions. 44. (c) : In both fission and fusion large amount of energy is released. Assertion is correct. Charge, mass, momentum and energy, all are conserved. 45. (a) : Experimentally, it is found that the average radius of a nucleus is given by R = R0A1/3 where R0 = 1.1 × 10–15 m = 1.1 fm and A = mass number 4 4 The volume of a nucleus is V = p R3 = p R03A. 3 3 Now as the masses of a proton and a neutron are roughly equal, say m, the mass of a nucleus is also roughly proportional to the mass number A, M = mA. Hence density within a M mA m nucleus, ρ = = is independent of the = 4 3 4 3 V πR πR A 3 0 3 0 mass number A. 46. (a) : When uranium is bombarded by slow neutrons the reaction is represented as 235 1 92 U + 0n 92 1 → 141 56 Ba + 36Kr + 30n + Energy. As more neutrons are produced, the reason is correct. These additional neutrons strike other uranium nuclei to produce even more neutrons. Thus a chain reaction is established. 47. (c) : Cadmium rods are used in a nuclear reactor to control the rate of fission. The cadmium rods do not slow down or speed up the neutrons produced in a fission reaction of 235U. Instead they absorb the neutrons thereby regulating the power level of the reactor. 48. (b) : Percentage of mass converted to energy in a fission reaction is 0.1% whereas in a fusion reaction it is 0.4%. Consequently the amount of energy released is more in a fusion than in a fission reaction. It is not easy to control a fusion reaction. 49. (c) : When fusion is achieved by raising the temperature of the system so that particles have enough kinetic energy to overcome the coulomb repulsive behaviour, it is called thermonuclear fusion. It is clean source of energy but energy released in one fusion is much less than a single uranium fission. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. As, R = R0A1/3 = (1.2 × 10–15)(64)1/3 = 4.8 × 10–15 m ( R0 = 1.2 × 10–15 m) 2. As, R = R0 A 3 1 1 1 RCu Acu 3 64 3 4 ⇒ = = = R Al AAl 3 27 3. Nuclear force is the strongest attractive force which binds the protons and neutrons together inside a tiny nucleus. 4. Radius R of a nucleus changes with the nucleon number A of the nucleus as R A Hence, 2 = 2 R1 A1 \ 1/ 3 128 = 16 1/ 3 = (8)1/3 = 2 R2 = 2R1 = 2(3 × 10–15)m = 6 × 10–15 m 5. 0n1 → 1H1 + –1e0 + ν + Q Dm = mn – ma – me = (1.6725 × 10–27 – 1.6725 × 10–27 – 9 × 10–31) kg = – 9 × 10–31 kg Energy = Dmc2 = 9 × 10–31 × (3 × 108)2 = 0.511 MeV 6. 3Li6 + 0n1 → 2He4 + 1H3 + Q Total initial mass = 6.015126 + 1.0086654 = 7.0237914 amu Total final mass = 4.0026044 + 3.01 = 7.0126044 amu Mass defect, Dm = 7.0237914 – 7.0126044 = 0.0111870 amu Energy released, Q = 0.0111870 × 931 = 10.415 MeV. 7. Density of nuclear matter = Mass of nucleus Volume A × 1 amu , where R = R0 A1/ 3 ( R0 = 1.2 × 10–15 m) 4 πR 3 3 A × 1 amu 1 amu 3 amu Density, ρ = = = 3 4 4 πR03A πR03 4 πR0 3 3 3 × 1.66 × 10 −27 = 4 × 3.14 × (1.2 × 10 −15 )3 ρ= = 2.27 × 1017 kg m–3 113 Nuclei As R0 is constant, r is constant So, nuclear density is constant irrespective of mass number or size. 8. Average atomic mass of neon with the given abundances, 90.51 (19.99 u) + 0.27 (20.99 u) + 9.22 (21.99 u) A= 100 2017.7 A= u = 20.18 u 100 14. B.E. = (2mp + 2mn – mHe)u × 931 MeV = [2(1.007276 u + 1.008665 u) – 4.001508 u] × 931 MeV = [4.031882 u – 4.001508 u] × 931 MeV = 0.030374 × 931 MeV B.E. = 28.3 MeV 9. The mass lost in the process, Dm = 235.0439 + 1.00867 – (139.9054 + 93.9063 + 2.01734) = 0.22353 u The corresponding energy released = Dmc2 = 0.22353 × 931 MeV = 208 MeV 10. (i) E = [MU + mn – MBa – MKr – 3mn] × 931 = 200.57 MeV NA ×E (ii) Energy released = 235 200.57 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 6.023 × 1023 = = 22.84 MWh 235 × 3.6 × 106 11. A certain number of neutrons and protons are brought together to form a nucleus of a certain charge and mass, an energy DEb will be released in this process. The energy DEb is called the binding energy of the nucleus. If we separate a nucleus into its nucleons we would have to transfer a total energy equal to DEb, to the nucleons. 23 For mirror isobar of 11 Na, Z 2 = N1 = 12 and N2 = Z1 = 11. 92 1 Example : 92 U235 + 0 n1 → 141 56 Ba + 36Kr + 30 n + Q The energy (Q) released was estimated to be 200 MeV per fission and is equivalent to the difference in masses of the nuclei before and after the fission. 12. Given fusion reaction, Energy released = final B.E. – initial B.E. = 7.73 – (2.23 + 2.23) = 3.27 MeV. 13. We know that the density of solid lead is much greater than the density of gaseous oxygen. But here we are checking about the densities of their nuclei. If the mass of a neutron is m, then mass of nuclei M = Am. 4 Now, volume V = pR3 3 4 1/3 But R = R0A or V = p(R0A1/3)3 3 4 V = pR03A 3 M The density of the nucleus r = V Am 3m = = = constant. 3 4 3 πR0 A 4 πR0 3 Nuclear density is almost a constant, whether it is lead or oxygen. 23 15. (a) For 11 Na , Z1 = 11, N1 = 12 23 23 Thus mirror isobar of 11 Na is 12 Mg . 23 (b) As 12 Mg contains even number of protons (12) against 23 11 Na which contains odd number of protons (11), hence 23 12 Mg has greater binding energy comparatively. 16. The stability of a nucleus depends on its neutron to proton ratio. More is the number of protons in the nucleus, greater is the electrical forces between them. Therefore more neutrons are needed to provide the strong attractive force necessary to keep the nucleus stable. 17. Given m = 2 kg, P = 800 W. Here two deuterium nuclei produce 3.27 MeV energy = 3.27 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 5.232 × 10–13 J 5.232 × 10 −13 = 2.616 × 10–13 J 2 No. of deuterium atom in 2 kg \ Energy per nuclei = 6.023 × 1023 × 2000 = 6.023 × 1026 atom 2 \ Total energy = 6.023 × 1026 × 2.616 × 10–13 = 15.75 × 1013 J Energy Total energy Power = ⇒t = Time Power 13 15.75 × 10 ⇒ t= = 1.96 × 1011s 800 = = 1.96 × 1011 = 6.2 × 103 years 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 4 18. He + 4He → 8Be + Q (i) Dm = 2 × 4.0026 – 8.0053 = 8.0052 – 8.0053 = – 0.0001 amu (ii) Q = (2mHe – mBe) c 2 MeV = (2 × 4.0026 – 8.0053)c2 × 931 2 c = –0.0931 MeV = –93.1 keV (iii) Since Q is negative, the fusion is not energetically favourable. 19. Rate of electrical energy generation is 250 MW = 250 × 106 W (or J s–1). CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 114 So, electrical energy generation is 250 MW = 250 × 106 W (or J s–1). Therefore, electrical energy generated in 1 year is (250 × 106 J s–1) × (365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s) = 7.884 × 1015 J Thermal energy from fission of one 235U nucleus is 200 MeV = 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 = 3.2 × 10–11 J Since the efficiency is 25%, the electrical energy obtained from the fission one 235U nucleus, 25 E1 = 3.2 × 10 −11 × = 8.0 × 10 −12 J 100 \ The number of fissions of 235U required in one year, N= 15 7.884 × 10 −12 9.855 × 1026 23 ∆m = 4m (11H) − m (24 He) Energy released Q = [4m (11H) − m (24 He)] × 931MeV (21H) may be greater than the product nucleus 3He and 2 the outgoing neutron 01n. So from the law of conservation of mass-energy some energy (3.27 MeV) is released due to mass defect in the nuclear reaction. This energy is called Q-value of the nuclear reaction. 24. Applying principle of conservation of energy, ,4 Binding energy, E ′ = 918 me = 2.2 MeV ...(ii) 8 ∈20 h 2 Dividing eq. (ii) by (i), we get \ 4 6 2.2 × 10 e′ 918 = e 13.6 e′ = (176.21)1/ 4 = 3.64 e Nuclear Fission 1. The process of splitting of 1. a heavy nucleus into two nuclei of nearly comparable masses with liberation of energy is called nuclear fission. Example: n 22. Energy released = Dm × 931 MeV = 1.636 × 103 Replacing e by e′ and m by m′, reduced mass of neutron – proton, M × M M 1836m m′ = = = = 918 m 2 M +M 2 (M = mass of neutron/proton) 235 1 92 U +0 3. The products of nuclear fission 3. The products of nuclear reaction are radioactive. fusion are not radioactive. = [4 × 1.007825 – 4.002603] × 931 MeV = 26.72 MeV. 23. I n a given nuclear reaction, the sum of the masses of the target nucleus (21H) and the bombarding particle 6.02 × 10 Therefore, mass of 235U required per year, m = 1.636 × 103 × 235 = 3.844 × 105 g = 384.4 kg 20. We know that binding energy of hydrogen atom in ground state, me 4 = 13.6 eV …(i) E = 8 ∈20 h 2 21. 2. The lighter nuclei have to be brought very close to each other against electrostatic repulsion. = 9.855 × 1026 8.0 × 10 Number of moles of 235U required per year, N= 2. A suitable bullet or projectile like neutron is needed. →141 56 Ba 1 + 92 36 Kr + 30 n +Q Nuclear Fusion When two or more than two light nuclei fuse together to form heavy nucleus with the liberation of energy, the process is called nuclear fusion. Example: 2 2 4 1 H +1 H →2 He + 24 MeV ( ) 2 pn2 p p + …(i) 2m 2m From law of conservation of momentum, pn + pp = E/c when E = B, from equation (i), pn = pp = 0 \ Process cannot take place. For process to take place, let E be very slightly bigger than B so that E = B + l, (l << B.) E – B = Kn + Kp = 2 p2 pp λ= n + 2m 2m 1 2 λ= [p + ( p p − E /c )2 ] 2m p pp = E2 E E m ± − − λ 2c 4c 2 2c 2 For pp (momentum of proton) to be real, the determinant must be positive. E2 E2 B2 m − − λ ≥ 0 or λ = 4c 2 2c 2 4mc 2 4mc 2 E2 Therefore, for the given process to occur the value of energy E must be greater than binding energy B by a factor l which is equal to B2 4mc 2 . CHAPTER 14 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Recap Notes Classification of solids on the basis of their conductivity : On the basis of the relative values of electrical conductivity (s) and resistivity (r = 1/s), the solids are broadly classified as, X Metals : Those solids which have high conductivity and very low resistivity. The value of conductivity for metals lies in between 102 to 108 S m–1 and of resistivity in between 10–2 to 10–8 W m. X Insulators : Those solids which have low conductivity and high resistivity. The value of conductivity for insulators lies between 10–11 to 10–19 S m–1 and of resistivity between 1011 to 1019 W m. X Semiconductors : Those solids which have conductivity and resistivity intermediate to metals and insulators. The value of conductivity for semiconductors lies in between 105 to 10–6 S m–1 and of resistivity between 10–5 to 106 W m. Energy bands of solids or band theory of solids X Valence band : This band contains valence electrons. This band may be partially or completely filled with electrons. This band is never empty. Electrons in this band do not contribute to electric current. X Conduction band : In this band, electrons are rarely present. This band is either empty or partially filled. Electrons in the conduction band are known as free electrons. These electrons contribute to the electric current. X X X X X Forbidden energy gap or forbidden band : The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is known as forbidden energy gap or forbidden band. No electrons are present in this gap. It is a measure of energy band gap. The minimum energy required for shifting electrons from valence band to conduction band is known as energy band gap. If l is the wavelength of radiation used in shifting the electron from valence band to conduction band, then energy band gap is hc E g = hυ = λ where h is called Planck’s constant and c is the speed of light. The forbidden energy gap Eg in a semiconductor depends upon temperature. Fermi energy : It is the maximum possible energy possessed by free electrons of a material at absolute zero temperature (i.e., 0 K) Differences between metals, insulators and semiconductors on the basis of band theory X Metals – In metals either the conduction band is partially filled or conduction band and valence band partially overlap each other. – In metals, there is no forbidden energy gap between the valence and conduction bands. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 116 – Hole : It is a seat of positive charge which is produced when an electron breaks away from a covalent bond in a semiconductor. Hole has a positive charge equal to that of electron. Mobility of hole is smaller than that of electron. X Insulators – In insulators, valence band is completely filled and conduction band is completely empty. – In insulators, there is a very wide forbidden energy gap between the valence and conduction bands. It is of the order of 5 eV or more. Empty X Semiconductors – In semiconductors, valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is empty. – In semiconductors, there is a small forbidden energy gap between the valence and the conduction bands. It is of the order of 1 eV. For silicon, it is 1.1 eV and for germanium it is 0.72 eV. – At absolute zero, semiconductors behave as a perfect insulator. Intrinsic semiconductor : A pure semiconductor which is free from every impurity is known as intrinsic semiconductor. Germanium (Ge) and silicon (Si) are the important examples of intrinsic semiconductors. X In intrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni where ne , nh are number density of electrons in conduction band and number density of holes in valence band, ni is the intrinsic carrier concentration. X When an electric field is applied across an intrinsic semiconductor, electrons and holes move in opposite directions so that total current (I) through the pure semiconductor is given by I = Ie + Ih where Ie is the free electron current and Ih is the hole current. X Effect of temperature on conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor – An intrinsic semiconductor will behave as a perfect insulator at absolute zero. – With increasing temperature, the density of hole-electron pairs increases and hence the conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor increases with increase in temperature. In other words, the resistivity (inverse of conductivity) decreases as the temperature increases. – The semiconductors have negative temperature coefficient of resistance. Doping : It is a process of deliberate addition of a desirable impurity to a pure semiconductor in order to increase its conductivity. The impurity atoms added are known as dopants. Extrinsic semiconductor : A doped semiconductor is known as extrinsic semiconductor. Extrinsic semiconductors are of two types : 117 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits X X n-type semiconductor – When a pure semiconductor of Si or Ge (tetravalent) is doped with a group V pentavalent impurities like arsenic (As), antimony (Sb), phosphorus (P) etc, we obtain a n-type semiconductor. The pentavalent impurity atoms are known as donor atoms. – It is called n-type semiconductor because the conduction of electricity in such semiconductor is due to motion of electrons i.e., negative charges. – It is called donor type semiconductor, because the doped impurity atom donates one free electron to semiconductor for conduction. – In n-type semiconductor electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers. – The representation of n-type semiconductor is as shown in the figure. – n-type semiconductor is neutral. – In n-type semiconductor ne ≈ Nd > > nh where Nd is the density of donor atoms. p-type semiconductor : When a pure semiconductor of Si or Ge (tetravalent) is doped with a group III trivalent impurities like aluminium (Al), boron (B), indium (In) etc, we obtain a p-type semiconductor. The trivalent impurity atoms are known as acceptor atoms. – It is called p-type because the conduction of electricity in such semiconductor is due to motion of holes i.e., positive charges. – It is called acceptor type semiconductor because the doped impurity atom creates a hole in semiconductor which accepts the electron, resulting conduction in p-type semiconductor. – In p-type semiconductor, holes are majority carriers and electrons are minority carriers. – The representation of p-type semiconductor is as shown in the figure. – p-type semiconductor is neutral. – In p-type semiconductor nh ≈ Na > > ne where Na is the density of acceptor atoms. Mass action law : Under thermal equilibrium, the product of the free negative and positive concentrations is a constant independent of the amount of donor and acceptor impurity doping. This relationship is known as the mass action law and is given by nenh = ni2 where ne , nh are the number density of electrons and holes respectively and ni is the intrinsic carriers concentration. X Electrical conductivity in semiconductor : The conductivity of the semiconductor is given by s = e(neme + nhmh) where me and mh are the electron and hole mobilities, ne and nh are the electron and hole densities, e is the electronic charge. – The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor is si = nie(me + mh) – The conductivity of n-type semiconductor is sn = eNdme – The conductivity of p-type semiconductor is sp = eNamh p-n junction : When donor impurities are introduced into one side and acceptors into the other side of a single crystal of an intrinsic semiconductor, a p-n junction is formed. It is also known as junction diode. The most important characteristic of a p-n junction is its ability to conduct current in one direction only. In the other (reverse) direction it offers very high resistance. It is symbolically represented by X Depletion region : In the vicinity of junction, the region containing the uncompensated acceptor and donor ions is known as depletion region. There is a depletion of mobile charges (holes and free electrons) in this region. Since this region has immobile (fixed) ions which CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 118 X X X are electrically charged it is also known as the space charge region. The electric field between the acceptor and the donor ions is known as a barrier. The physical distance from one side of the barrier to the other is known as the width of the barrier. The difference of potential from one side of the barrier to the other side is known as the height of the barrier. – For a silicon p-n junction, the barrier potential is about 0.7 V, whereas for a germanium p-n junction it is approximately 0.3 V. – The width of the depletion layer and magnitude of potential barrier depend upon the nature of the material of semiconductor and the concentration of impurity atoms. The thickness of the depletion region is of the order of one tenth of a micrometre. Forward biasing of a p-n junction : When the positive terminal of external battery is connected to p-side and negative to n-side of p-n junction, then the p-n junction is said to be forward biased. – In forward biasing, the width of the depletion region decreases and barrier height reduces. – The resistance of the p-n junction becomes low in forward biasing. Reverse biasing of a p-n junction : When the positive terminal of the external battery is connected to n-side and the negative terminal to p-side of a p-n junction, then the p-n junction is said to be reverse biased. – In reverse biasing, the width of the depletion region increases and barrier height increases. – The resistance of the p-n junction becomes high in reverse biasing. Breakdown voltage : A very small current flows through p-n junction, when it is reverse biased. The flow of the current is due to the movement of minority charge carriers. The reverse current is almost independent of the applied voltage. However, if the reverse bias voltage is continuously increased, for a certain reverse voltage, the current through the X p-n junction will increase abruptly. This reverse bias voltage is thus known as breakdown voltage. There can be two different causes for the breakdown. One is known as zener breakdown and the other is known as avalanche breakdown. I-V characteristics of a p-n junction : The I-V characteristics of a p-n junction do not obey Ohm’s law. The I-V characteristics of a p-n junction are as shown in the figure. – Knee voltage : In forward biasing, the voltage at which the current starts to increase rapidly is known as cut-in or knee voltage. For germanium it is 0.3 V while for silicon it is 0.7 V. – Dynamic resistance : It is defined as the ratio of a small change in voltage (DV) applied across the p-n junction to a small change in current DI through the junction. ∆V rd = ∆I Ideal diode : A diode permits only unidirectional conduction. It conducts well in the forward direction and poorly in the reverse direction. It would have been ideal if a diode acts as a perfect conductor (with zero voltage across it) when it is forward biased, and as a perfect insulator (with no current flows through it) when it is reverse biased. The I-V characteristics of an ideal diode as shown in figure. X An ideal diode acts like an automatic switch. 119 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits X In forward bias, it acts as a closed switch whereas in reverse bias it acts as an open switch as shown in the figure. r= rms value of the components of wave average or dc value 2 I r = rms − 1 I dc X Rectifier : It is a device which converts ac voltage to dc voltage. Diode is used as a rectifier. Rectifier is based on the fact that, a forward bias p-n junction conducts and a reverse bias p-n junction does not conduct. X Half wave rectifier : Diode conducts corresponding to positive half cycle and does not conduct during negative half cycle. Hence, AC is converted by diode into undirectional pulsating DC. This action is known as half-wave rectification. X X Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes : X Light emitting diode (LED) : It converts electrical energy into light energy. It is a heavily doped p-n junction which operates under forward bias and emits spontaneous radiation. – The I-V characteristics of a LED is similar to that of Si junction diode. But the threshold voltages are much higher and slightly different for each colour. The reverse breakdown voltages of LEDs are very low, typically around 5 V. – The semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LEDs must at least have a band gap of 1.8 eV. The compound semiconductor gallium arsenide phosphide (GaAsP) is used for making LEDs of different colours. GaAs is used for making infrared LED. – The symbol of a LED is shown in the figure. X Photodiode : A photodiode is a special type p-n junction diode fabricated with a transparent window to allow light to fall on the diode. It is operated under reverse bias. When it is illuminated with light of photon energy greater than the energy gap of the semiconductor, electron-hole pairs are generated in near depletion region. – The symbol of a photodiode is shown in the figure below. X Solar cell : It converts solar energy into electrical energy. A solar cell is basically a p-n junction which generates emf when solar radiation falls on the p-n junction. It works on the same principle (photovoltaic effect) as the photodiode, except that no external bias is applied and the junction area is kept large. Full wave rectifier : The circuit diagram, input and output waveforms for a full wave rectifier are as shown in the figure. Ripple factor : The ripple factor is a measure of purity of the dc output of a rectifier, and is defined as 1. The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown in figure between the points A and B if VA < VB is 20 (a) 10 W (b) 20 W A B (c) 5 W (d) 40 W 20 2. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Hole is an antiparticle of electron. (b) Hole is a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond. (c) Hole is the absence of free electrons. (d) Hole is an artificially created particle. 3. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the depletion region of a diode? (a) There are mobile charges exist. (b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral. (c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place. (d) None of these. 4. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the p-region to n-region because (a) free electrons in the n-region attract them (b) they move across the junction by the potential difference (c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to n-region (d) all of these. 5. A potential barrier of 0.3 V exists across a p-n junction. If the depletion region is 1 mm wide, what is the intensity of electric field in this region? (a) 2 × 105 V m–1 (b) 3 × 105 V m–1 5 –1 (c) 4 × 10 V m (d) 5 × 105 V m–1 6. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n junction are (a) drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias (b) diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias (c) diffusion in both forward and reverse bias (d) drift in both forward and reverse bias. 7. When the voltage drop across a p-n junction diode is increased from 0.65 V to 0.70 V, the change in the diode current is 5 mA. The dynamic resistance of the diode is (a) 20 W (b) 50 W (c) 10 W (d) 80 W 8. In the circuit shown if drift current for the diode is 20 mA, the potential 4V difference across the diode is (a) 2 V 15 (b) 4.5 V (c) 4 V (d) 2.5 V 9. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal (a) its resistance is increased (b) it becomes a p-type semiconductor (c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor (d) none of these. 10. A sinusoidal voltage of rms value 220 V is applied to a diode and a resistor R in the circuit shown in figure, so that half wave rectification occurs. If the diode is ideal, what is the rms voltage across R1? (a) 55 2 V (c) 110 2 V (b) 110 V (d) 220 2 V 11. If the energy of a proton of sodium light (l = 589 nm) equals the band gap of 121 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits semiconductor, the minimum energy required to create hole electron pair (a) 1.1 eV (b) 2.1 eV (c) 3.2 eV (d) 1.5 eV 12. Which of the following circuits provides full wave rectification of an ac input? (a) (b) (c) (c) Eg(T) = 1.10 – 3.60 × 10–4T eV (d) Eg(T) = 1.10 + 3.60 × 10–4T eV 16. The maximum wavelength of electromagnetic radiation, which can create a hole-electron pair in germanium. (Given that forbidden energy gap in germanium is 0.72 eV) (a) 1.7 × 10–6 m (b) 1.5 × 10–5 m (c) 1.3 × 10–4 m (d) 1.9 × 10 –5 m 17. The circuit shown D1 in the figure contains D2 two diodes each with a forward resistance of 30 W and with infinite backward resistance. If the battery is 3 V, the current through the 50 W resistance (in ampere) is (a) zero (b) 0.01 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.03 18. Which of the junction diodes shown below are forward biased? (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) 13. Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterised by valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to (E g) C, (E g ) Si and (E g ) Ge . Which of the following statements is true? (a) (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C (b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)Si 19. A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists in a p-n junction. If the depletion region is 5.0 × 10–7 m thick, what is the electric field in this region? (a) 1 × 103 V m–1 (b) 1.0 × 106 V m–1 2 –1 (c) 1 × 10 V m (d) 1 × 104 V m–1 (d) 20. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is more likely to occur due to (a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small (b) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is large (c) strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping concentration is small (d) none of these 15. Which of the following equations correctly represents the temperature variation of energy gap between the conduction and valence bands for Si? (a) Eg(T) = 0.70 – 2.23 × 10–4T eV (b) Eg(T) = 0.70 + 2.23 × 10–4T eV 21. In a full wave junction diode rectifier the input ac has rms value of 20 V. The transformer used is a step up transformer having primary and secondary turn ratio 1 : 2. The dc voltage in the rectified output is (a) 12 V (b) 24 V (c) 36 V (d) 42 V (c) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge (d) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si = (Eg)Ge 14. A forward biased diode is (a) (b) (c) CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 122 23. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 6 × 108 per m3. On doping with certain impurity, electron concentration increases to 9 × 10 12 per m 3 . The new hole concentration is (a) 2 × 104 per m3 (b) 2 × 102 per m2 4 3 (c) 4 × 10 per m (d) 4 × 102 per m3 24. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly (Take hc = 1240 eV nm) (a) 1 × 1014 Hz (b) 20 × 1014 Hz 14 (c) 10 × 10 Hz (d) 5 × 1014 Hz 25. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. The signal wavelength is (a) 6000 Å (b) 6000 nm (c) 4000 nm (d) 5000 Å 26. Potential barrier developed in a junction diode opposes the flow of (a) minority carrier in both regions only (b) majority carriers only (c) electrons in p region (d) holes in p region 27. In pure semiconductor, the number of conduction electrons is 6 × 1018 per cubic metre. How many holes are there in a sample of size 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 mm ? (a) 3 × 1010 (b) 6 × 1011 11 (c) 3 × 10 (d) 6 × 1010 28. Mobilities of electrons and holes in a sample of intrinsic germanium at room temperature are 0.54 m2 V –1 s –1 and 0.18 m2 V –1 s–1 respectively. If the electron and hole densities are equal to 3.6 × 10 19 m–3, the germanium conductivity is (a) 4.14 S m–1 (b) 2.12 S m–1 –1 (c) 1.13 S m (d) 5.6 S m–1 29. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction band of an intrinsic semiconductor of finite temperature (a) increases exponentially with increasing band gap. (b) decreases exponentially with increasing band gap. (c) decreases with increasing temperature. (d) is independent of the temperature and band gap. 30. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases when electromagnetic radiation of wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it. The band gap (in eV) for semiconductor is (a) 0.9 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.5 (d) 1.1 31. The following table provides the set of values of V and I obtained for a given diode. Let the characteristics to be nearly linear, over this range, the forward and reverse bias resistance of the given diode respectively are Forward biasing Reverse biasing (a) 10 W, 8 × 106 W (c) 20 W, 8 × 106 W V 2.0 V 2.4 V 0V –2 V I 60 mA 80 mA 0 mA –0.25 mA (b) 20 W, 4 × 105 W (d) 10 W, 10 W 32. The mean free path of conduction electrons in copper is about 4 × 10–8 m. The electric field which can give on an average 2 eV energy to a conduction electron in a block of copper is (a) 4 × 106 V m–1 (b) 5 × 107 V m–1 (c) 10 × 107 V m–1 (d) 2.5 × 107 V m–1 33. The value of ripple factor for full wave rectifier is (a) 41% (b) 141% (c) 48.2% (d) 121% 34. Current through the ideal diode as shown in figure is 100 9 22. In a circuit as shown in the figure, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3 V, the voltage difference between A and B is (a) 1.3 V (b) 2.3 V (c) 0 (d) 0.5 V 2V (a) zero (b) 20 A 5V (c) 1 A 20 (d) 1 A 50 35. In a half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would be (a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 123 Case I : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 36 to 40. Biasing of Diode When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk, called knee voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction,the potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with increase in forward voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small current about a few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse saturation current. 39. In the case of forward biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the following figures correctly depicts the direction of conventional current (indicated by an arrow mark)? 36. In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased. (a) (b) (c) (d) 37. Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as (a) bi-directional device (b) ohmic device (c) non-ohmic device (d) passive element 38. The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance is I (mA) 20 15 10 –10 1 µA (a) 100 (b) 106 0.7 0.8 V(volt) (c) 10 (d) 10–6 (a) –+ n p – + –+ (c) –+ n p – + –+ (b) –+ n p – + –+ (d) –+ n p – + –+ 40. If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is I (a) 0.013 A (c) 0.01 A (b) 0.02 A (d) 0.1 A Case II : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 41 to 43. Photodiode A photodiode is an optoelectronic device in which current carriers are generated by photons through photo-excitation i.e., photoconduction by light. It is a p-n junction fabricated from a photosensitive semiconductor and provided with a transparent window so as to allow light to fall on its junction. A photodiode can turn its current ON and OFF in nanoseconds. So, it can be used as a fastest photo-detector. Anode hu p n Cathode 41. (a) (b) (c) Photodiode is a device which is always operated in reverse bias. which is always operated in forward bias. in which photocurrent is independent of intensity of incident radiation. (d) which may be operated in both forward or reverse bias. 42. To detect light of wavelength 500 nm, the photodiode must be fabricated from a semiconductor of minimum bandwidth of (a) 1.24 eV (b) 0.62 eV (c) 2.48 eV (d) 3.2 eV CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 124 43. Photodiode can be used as a photodetector to detect (a) optical signals (b) electrical signals (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these. Case III : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 44 to 48. p-n Junction Diode A silicon p-n junction diode is connected to a resistor R and a battery of voltage VB through a milliammeter (mA) as shown in figure. The knee voltage for this junction diode is VN = 0.7 V. The p-n junction diode requires a minimum current of 1 mA to attain a value higher than the knee point on the I-V characteristics of this junction diode. Assuming that the voltage V across the junction is independent of the current above the knee point. A p-n junction is the basic building block of many semiconductor devices like diodes. Important process occurring during the formation of a p-n junction are diffusion and drift. In an n-type semiconductor concentration of electrons is more as compared to holes. In a p-type semiconductor concentration of holes is more as compared to electrons. 48. Which of the below mentioned statement is false regarding a p-n junction diode? (a) Diodes are uncontrolled devices. (b) Diodes are rectifying devices. (c) Diodes are unidirectional devices. (d) Diodes have three terminals. Case IV : Read the passage given below and answer the following questions from 49 to 52. Potential Barrier The potential barrier in the p-n junction diode is the barrier in which the charge requires additional force for crossing the region. In other words, the barrier in which the charge carrier stopped by the obstructive force is known as the potential barrier. When a p-type semiconductor is brought into a close contact with n-type semiconductor, we get a p-n junction with a barrier potential of 0.4 V and width of depletion region is 4.0 × 10–7 m. This p-n junction is forward biased with a battery of voltage 3 V and negligible internal resistance, in series with a resistor of resistance R, ideal millimeter and key K as shown in figure. When key is pressed, a current of 20 mA passes through the diode. + + mA – mA – R + VB 44. the (a) (c) If VB = 5 V, the maximum value of R so that voltage V is above the knee point voltage is 40 kW (b) 4.3 kW 5.0 kW (d) 5.7 kW 45. If VB = 5 V, the value of R in order to establish a current to 6 mA in the circuit is (a) 833 W (b) 717 W (c) 950 W (d) 733 W – 3V K 49. The intensity of the electric field in the depletion region when p-n junction is unbiased is (a) 0.5 × 106 V m–1 (b) 1.0 × 106 V m–1 6 –1 (c) 2.0 × 10 V m (d) 1.5 × 106 V m–1 50. The resistance of resistor R is (a) 150 W (b) 300 W (c) 130 W (d) 180 W 46. If V B = 6 V, the power dissipated in the resistor R, when a current of 6 mA flows in the circuit is (a) 30.2 mW (b) 30.8 mW (c) 31.2 mW (d) 31.8 mW 51. If the voltage of the potential barrier is V0. A voltage V is applied to the input, at what moment will the barrier disappear? (a) V < V0 (b) V = V0 (c) V > V0 (d) V << V0 47. When the diode is reverse biased with a voltage of 6 V and Vbi = 0.63 V. Calculate the total potential. (a) 9.27 V (b) 6.63 V (c) 5.27 V (d) 0.63 V 52. If an electron with speed 4.0 × 105 m s–1 approaches the p-n junction from the n-side, the speed with which it will enter the p-side is (a) 1.39 × 105 m s–1 (b) 2.78 × 105 m s–1 6 –1 (c) 1.39 × 10 m s (d) 2.78 × 106 m s–1 125 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits For question numbers 53-60, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 53. Assertion (A) : The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with rise of temperature. Reason (R) : On rising temperature covalent bonds of semiconductor breaks. 54. Assertion (A) : p-n junction diode can be used even at ultra high frequencies. Reason (R) : Capacitative reactance of a p-n junction diode increases as frequency increases. 55. Assertion (A) : The resistance of p-n junction is low when forward biased and is high when reverse biased. Reason (R) : In reversed biased, the depletion layer is reduced. 56. Assertion (A) : The direction of diffusion current in a junction diode is from n-region to p-region. Reason (R) : The majority current carriers diffuse from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. 57. Assertion (A) : The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature. Reason (R) : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitude at higher temperatures thereby increasing its resistivity. 58. Assertion (A) : The half-wave rectifier work only for positive half cycle of ac. Reason (R) : In half-wave rectifier only one diode is used. 59. Assertion (A) : The ratio of free electrons to holes in intrinsic semiconductor is greater than one. Reason (R) : The electrons are lighter particles and holes are heavy particles. 60. Assertion (A) : In a semiconductor diode, the reverse biased current is due to drift of free electrons and holes. Reason (R) : The drift of electrons and holes is due to thermal excitations. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA) 1. What is the difference between an n-type and a p-type extrinsic semiconductor? 2. What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is (i) forward biased, (ii) reverse biased ? 3. Why cannot we use Si and Ge in fabrication of visible LEDs? 4. What is the function of a photodiode ? 6. In an n-type semiconductor, where does the donor energy level lies. 7. Can the potential barrier across a p-n junction be measured by simply connecting a voltmeter across the junction? 8. Draw the output waveform across the resistor. 5. Name the junction diode whose I-V characteristics are drawn below : A +1 V I 0 V –1V Input waveform at A V0 CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 126 Why are elemental dopants for Silicon or 10. How does an increase in doping concentration Germanium usually chosen from group XIII or affect the width of depletion layer of a p-n group XV? junction diode? 11. The number densities of electrons and hole in pure Si at 27°C is 2 × 1016 m–3. When it is doped with indium, the hole density increases to 4 × 1022 m–3, find the electron density in doped silicon. 16. (a) Mention the important considerations required while fabricating a p-n junction diode to be used as a light emitting diode (LED). (b) What should be the order of band gap of an LED if it is required to emit light in the visible range? 9. 12. A 3 V b a t t e r y m a y b e connected across the points A and B as shown. Assuming ideal diode, find the current supplied by battery if the positive terminal of the battery is connected to the point A. J1 10 W 30 W 17. (a) In the following diagram, which bulb out of B1 and B2 will glow and why? J2 A B 13. Why photodiodes are required to operate in reverse bias ? Explain. 14. The circuit shown in the figure has two oppositely connected ideal diodes connected in parallel. Find the current flowing through each diode in the circuit. (b) If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is changed from 0.5 V to 0.7 V, then the forward current changes by 1.0 mA. Find the forward resistance of diode junction. 18. Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV, respectively. Which ones will be able to detect light of wavelength 6000 Å? 19. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it detect a wavelength of 6000 nm? 12 V 15. Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Explain, why the current under reverse bias is almost independent of the applied voltage up to the critical voltage. 20. What is the current flowing in R 2 in the circuit shown in figure? Given : R1 = 500 W and R2 = 1 kW R1 10 V 5V R2 Short Answer Type Questions (SA-II) 21. (a) Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors on the basis of energy band diagrams. (b) Compare their conductivities at absolute zero temperature and at room temperature. 22. Name the important process that occur during the formation of a p-n junction. Explain briefly, with the help of a suitable diagram, how a p-n junction is formed. Define the term ‘barrier potential’. 23. If each diode in figure has a forward bias resistance of 25 Ω and infinite resistance in reverse bias, what will be the values of the current I1, I2, I3 and I4? 127 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits A C E I1 G I4 125 Ω I3 125 Ω I2 125 Ω based on a certain Ga-As-P semiconducting material whose energy gap is 1.9 eV. Identify the colour of the emitted light. (iv) Assuming the ideal diode, draw the output waveform for the circuit given in figure. Explain the waveform. B D F 25 Ω H 5V 24. Suppose a ‘n’-type wafer is created by doping Si crystal having 5 × 1028 atoms/m3 with 1 ppm concentration of As. On the surface 200 ppm Boron is added to create ‘p’ region in this wafer. Considering ni = 1.5 × 1016 m–3, (a) Calculate the densities of the charge carriers in the n and p regions. (b) Comment which charge carriers would contribute largely for the reverse saturation current when diode is reverse biased. 25. With the help of a simple diagram, explain the working of a silicon solar cell giving all three basic processes involved. Forward current I (mA) 50 40 30 20 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 5V 27. In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency if the input frequency is 50 Hz. What is the output frequency of a full-wave-rectifier for the same input frequency? 28. In the following diagram ‘S’ is a semiconductor. Would you increase or decrease the value of R to keep the reading of the ammeter A constant when S is heated? Give reason for your answer. V – + A S R 29. (a) Why are Si and GaAs preferred materials for fabrication in solar cells? (b) Draw V-I characteristic of solar cell and mention its significance. 30. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a photodiode. Write briefly how it is used to detect the optical signals. 31. The number of silicon atoms per m 3 is 5 × 10 28 . This is doped simultaneously with 5 × 10 22 atoms per m 3 of Arsenic and 5 × 10 20 per m 3 atoms of Indium. Calculate the number of electrons and holes. Given that ni = 1.5 × 1016 m–3. Is the material n-type or p-type? Yellow Green Blue White Infrared Red Amber 26. Direction : Read the following and answer the questions given below. Light emitting diode is a photoelectric device which converts electrical energy into light energy. It is a heavily doped p-n junction diode which under forward biased emits spontaneous radiation. The general shape of the I-V characteristics of an LED is similar to that of a normal p-n junction diode, as shown. The barrier potentials are much higher and slightly different for each colour. 20 sin ωt V (i) Draw the I-V characteristic of an LED. (ii) Draw the schematic symbol of light emitting diode (LED). (iii) An LED is constructed from a p-n junction 32. In the case of n-type Si-semiconductor, the donor energy level is slightly below the bottom of conduction band whereas in p-type semiconductor, the acceptor energy level is slightly above the top of valence band. Explain, giving examples, what role do these energy levels play in conduction and valence bands. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 128 33. An a.c. signal is fed into two circuits ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and the corresponding output in the two cases have the waveforms as shown in figure. (a)Identify the circuits ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Draw their labelled circuit diagrams. (b) Briefly explain the working of circuit Y. (c) How does the output waveform from circuit Y get modified when a capacitor is connected across the output terminals parallel to the load resistor? 36. (a) In the following diagram, is the junction diode forward biased or reverse biased? . (b)The V-I characteristic of a silicon diode is as shown in the figure. Calculate the resistance of the diode at (i) I = 15 mA and (ii) V = –10 V 34. Draw the circuit arrangement for studying the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode in (i) forward and (ii) reverse bias. Briefly explain how the typical V-I characteristics of a diode are obtained and draw these characteristics. 35. Draw the circuit diagram of a p-n diode used as a half-wave rectifier. Explain its working. OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. (b) : When VA < VB, the diode gets reverse biased and offers infinite resistance. No current flows through the upper branch \ R = 20 W 2. (b) : A vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond. This vacancy is known as hole. 3. (a) 4. (c) : In an unbiased p-n junction, the diffusion of charge carriers across the junction takes place from higher concentration to lower concentration. Thus, option (c) is correct. 5. (b) : Electric field V 0.3 E= = = 3 × 105 V m–1 d 1 × 10−6 (c) : Dynamic resistance, rd = −3 = 9. (c) : Adding fifth group element to germanium makes it an n-type semiconductor. Antimony is a fifth group element and so germanium becomes n-type semiconductor. 10. (c) hc 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 11. (b) : Using, E = Eg = = J λ 589 × 10−9 = 6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 589 × 10−9 × 1.6 × 10−19 eV = 2.1 eV 12. (d) 13. (c) 6. (b) : In p-n junction, the diffusion of majority carriers takes place when junction is forward biased and drifting of minority carriers takes place across the junction, when it is reverse biased. 7. 0.7 V − 0.65 V 0.05 × 1000 Ω = 10 Ω 5 5 × 10 A 8. (c) : Since the diode is reversed biased, only drift current exists in circuit which is 20 mA. Potential drop across 15 W resistor = 15 W × 20 mA = 300 mV = 0.0003 V Potential difference across the diode = 4 – 0.0003 = 3.99 4 V rd = ∆V ∆I 14. (a) : A diode is said to be forward biased if p-type semiconductor of p-n junction is at high potential with respect to n-type semiconductor of p-n junction. It is so for circuit (a). 15. (c) : The energy gap Eg depends on the temperature. For silicon, Eg(T) = 1.10 – 3.60 × 10–4T eV For germanium, Eg(T) = 0.70 – 2.23 × 10–4T eV 129 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 16. (a) : Here, Eg = 0.72 eV = 0.72 × 1.6 × 10–19 J If l is the maximum wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which can create a hole-electron pair in germanium, then hc Eg = λ hc 6.62 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 or λ = = = 1.7 × 10−6 m Eg 0.72 × 1.6 × 10−19 17. (c) : In the circuit, the upper diode D 1 is reverse biased and the lower diode D2 is forward biased. Thus there will be no current across upper diode junction. The effective circuit will be as shown in figure. Total resistance of circuit R = 50 + 70 + 30 = 150 W 3V V = 0.02 A Current in circuit , I = = R 150 Ω 18. (a) : The p-n junction diode is forward biased when p is at high potential with respect to n. Hence option (a) is correct. V 0.50 V = 1.0 × 106 V m −1 19. (b) : Electric field, E = = d 5 × 10−7 20. (b) : In reverse biasing, the minority charge carriers will be accelerated due to reverse biasing, which on striking with atoms cause ionisation resulting in secondary electrons and thus produce more number of charge carriers. When doping concentration is large, there will be large number of ions in the depletion region, which will give rise to a strong electric field. 21. (c) : Here, input Vrms = 20 V Peak value of input voltage Vo = 2 Vrms = 2 × 20 = 28.28 V Since the transformer is a step up transformer having transformer ratio 1 : 2, the maximum value of output voltage of the transformer applied to the diode will be V0′ = 2 × Vo = 2 × 28.28 V 2V0′ 2 × 2 × 28.28 = = 36 V π 22 / 7 22. (b) : Let V be the potential difference between A and B, then V – 0.3 = (5 + 5) × 103 × (0.2 × 10–3) = 2 or V = 2 + 0.3 = 2.3 V 23. (c) : As, nenh = ni2 \ dc voltage = Here, ni = 6 × 108 per m3 and ne = 9 × 1012 per m3 ∴ nh = 8 2 ni (6 × 10 ) = = 4 × 104 per m3 12 ne 9 × 10 24. (d) : Here, Eg = 2 eV Wavelength of radiation corresponding to this energy is hc 1240 eV nm λ= = = 620 nm Eg 2 eV c 3 × 108 m s−1 14 Frequency υ = = λ 620 × 10−9m = 5 × 10 Hz 25. (d) : The detection occurs only when the energy of incident photon greater than or equal to the energy band gap hc = 2.5 eV λ 1240 eV hc nm = 496 nm 5000 Å ∴ λ= = 2.5 eV 2.5 eV 26. (b) : Potential barrier developed in a junction diode opposes the majority carriers only. 27. (b) : Here, ne = 6 × 1018 m–3 Volume of the sample = 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 mm = 10–7 m3 Number of holes in the sample = Number of electrons in the sample = ne × V = 6 ×1018 × 10 –7 = 6 × 1011 28. (a) : As s = e(neme + nhmh) = eni(me + mh) = 1.6 × 10–19 × 3.6 × 1019(0.54 + 0.18) = 4.147 S m–1 29. (b) hc 1240 eV nm = = 0.5 eV 2480 nm λ 31. (c) : For forward biasing, DV = 2.4 – 2.0 = 0.4 V; DI = 80 – 60 = 20 mA 0.4 ∆V ∴ rfb = = = 20 Ω ∆I 20 × 10−3 30. (c) : Eg = For reverse biasing, DV = – 2 – 0 = –2 V DI = – 0.25 – 0 = – 0.25 mA −2 rrb = = 8 × 106 Ω −6 −0.25 × 10 32. (b) : The work done on an electron when it moves through distance, d = eEd Work done is equal to the energy transferred to the electron \ eEd = 2 eV 2V 2V ⇒ E= = = 5 × 107 V m−1 d 4 × 10−8 m 33. (c) : Ripple factor for full wave rectifier = 0.482. Expressed in %, it is 48.2%. 34. (a) : Here, p-n junction is reverse biased. Therefore, the current flowing through p-n junction is zero. 35. (b) : Since the output voltage obtained in a half-wave rectifier circuit has single variation in one cycle of ac voltage, hence the fundamental frequency in the ripple of output voltage would be 50 Hz. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 130 36. (c) : The p-n diode is forward biased when p-side is at a higher potential than n-side. 37. (c) 38. (d) : Forward bias resistance, ∆V 0.8 − 0.7 0.1 R1 = = = = 10 − 3 ∆I (20 − 10) × 10 10 × 10−3 10 = 107 Reverse bias resistance, R2 = −6 1 × 10 Then, the ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance, R1 10 = = 10−6 R2 107 39. (d) : In p-region the direction of conventional current is same as flow of holes. In n-region the direction of conventional current is opposite to the flow of electrons. 40 (c) : In the given circuit the junction diode is forward biased and offers zero resistance. 3 V− 1 V 2V = = 0.01 A \ The current, I = 200 Ω 200 Ω 41. (a) : Photodiode is a device which is always operated in reverse bias. 42. (c) : Let Eg be the required bandwidth. Then hc Eg = λ Here, hc = 1240 eV nm, l = 500 nm 1240 eV nm ∴ Eg = = 2.48 eV 500 nm 43. (a) : A photodiode is a device which is used to detect optical signals. 44. (b) : Voltage drop across R, VR = VB – VN = 5 – 0.7 = 4.3 V Here, Imin = 1 × 10–3 A V 4.3 \ Rmax = R = = 4.3 × 103 Ω = 4.3 kW Imin 1 × 10−3 45. (b) : I = 6 mA = 6 × 10–3 A; VR = VB – VN = 5 – 0.7 = 4.3 V V 4.3 R= R = = 717 Ω I 6 × 10−3 46. (d) : Here, VB = 6 V; VN = 0.7 V, VR = 6 – 0.7 = 5.3 V Power dissipated in R = I × VR = (6 × 10–3) × 5.3 = 31.8 × 10–3 W = 31.8 mW 47. (b) : Vt = Vbi + VR = 0.63 + 6 = 6.63 V 48. (d) : Diode is two terminal device, anode and cathode are the two terminals. 49. (b) : E = VB 0.4 = = 1.0 × 106 V m−1 d 4.0 × 10−7 50. (c) : Potential difference across R = 3 – 0.4 = 2.6 V 2.6 Potential difference = = 130 Ω Resistance R = Current 20 × 10−3 51. (b) : When the voltage will be the same as that of the potential barrier, the potential barrier will disappear resulting in flow of current. 1 1 52. (a) : mv12 = eVB + mv22 2 2 1 −31 ⇒ × (9.1 × 10 ) × (4 × 105 )2 2 1 = 1.6 × 10−19 × (0.4) + × 9.1 × 10−31 × v22 2 On solving, we get v2 = 1.39 × 105 m s–1 53. (c) : At 0 K, all semiconductors are insulators. The valence band at 0 K is completely filled and there are no free electrons in conduction band. At room temperature due to thermal energy, the electron jump to the conduction band. When the temperature increases, a large number of electrons cross over the forbidden gap and jump from valence band to conduction band. Thus with rise in temperature conductivity increases. The covalent bonds of semiconductor breaks only when it is heated up extremely either by increasing temperature or by supplying strong current. After which it behaves like conductor and no longer possesses the property of low conduction, hence it is said to be damaged. 54. (c) : As capacitative reactance, 1 1 1 XC = = i.e., XC ∝ ωC 2πυC υ Thus, capacitative reactance decreases on increase in frequency. 55. (c) : A small increase in forward voltage across p-n junction shows large increase in forward current. Hence the resistance (= voltage / current) of p-n junction is low when forward biased. Also the width of depletion layer of p-n junction decreases in forward bias. A large increase in reverse voltage across p-n shows small increase in reverse current. Hence the resistance of p-n junction is high when reverse biased. Also the width of the depletion layer of p-n junction increases in reverse biased. 56. (d) : The direction of diffusion current is that when positively charged particles move from p-type to n-type of diode. 57. (d) : With the increase of temperature, the average energy exchanged in a collision increases and so more valence electrons can cross the energy gap, thereby increasing the electron-hole pairs. As in a semiconductor, conduction occurs 131 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits mainly through electron-hole pairs, so conductivity increases with increase of temperature. Which in turn implies that the resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with rise in temperature. 8. 58. (a) : In half wave rectifier, the one diode is biased only when ac is in positive half of its cycle. For negative half of the ac cycle the diode is reversed biased and there is no output corresponding to that. Since for only one-half cycle we get a voltage output, because of which it is called half wave rectifier. The diode acts as half wave rectifier, it offers low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse biased. 59. (b) : In intrinsic semiconductor n e/n h = 1 and holes are not particles but vacancies created due to breakage of covalent bond. 60. (b) : A reverse bias on a p-n junction opposes the movement of the majority charge carriers thus stopping the diffusion current. It makes the free electrons and holes to drift cross the junction. Therefore a small current in mA flows even when the p-n junction is reverse biased. The drift current is due to the thermal excitations of the electrons and holes. SUBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS 1. n-type Semiconductor p-type Semiconductor (i) It is formed by doping pentavalent impurities. It is formed by doping trivalent impurities. (ii) The electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers. (ne >> nh) The holes are majority carriers and electrons are minority carriers. (nh >> ne) 2. (i) Forward biased : As forward voltage opposes the potential barrier and effective barrier potential decreases. It makes the width of the depletion layer smaller. (ii) Reverse biased : As reverse voltage supports the potential barrier and effective barrier potential increases. It makes the width of the depletion layer larger. +1V 0 9. Size of the dopant atom should be compatible in the pure semiconductor and contribute a charge carrier by forming covalent bond with Si or Ge atoms. Elemental dopants from group XIII and group XV fulfil this condition. 10. When there is an increase in doping concentration, the applied potential difference causes an electric field which acts opposite to the potential barrier. This results in reducing the potential barrier and hence the width of depletion layer decreases. 11. For extrinsic or doped semiconductor ne ⋅ nh = ni2 ⇒ ne = Here ni = 2 × 1016 m–3 and nh = 4 × 1022 m–3 ( 2 × 1016 m−3 ) 2 = 10 −10 m−3 . 4 × 10 22 m−3 12. If A is positive and B is negative, J1 is forward biased and J2 is reverse biased, so effective current is ⇒ ia = = 0.3 A. ⇒ ne = 2Ω 4. Photodiode is used to detect the light signal and to measure light intensity. 4Ω 6. (b) : In n-type semiconductor, the donor energy level lies just below the conduction band. 7. No, the voltmeter should have a very high resistance as compared to the resistance of p-n junction, which is nearly infinite. A B 14. Diode D 1 is reverse biased,so it offers an infinite resistance. So no current flows in the branch of diode D1. D1 The junction diode is solar cell. J1 13. In reverse bias condition of photodiode, the change in saturation reverse current is directly proportional to the change in the incident light flux or light intensity, which can be measured accurately. It is not so when photodiode is forward biased. 3. LED’s must have band gap in the order of 1.8 eV to 3 eV but Si and Ge have band gap less than 1.8 eV. 5. ni2 nh D2 3Ω + 12 V Diode D2 is forward biased, and offers negligible resistance in the circuit. So current in the branch V 12 V I= = = 2A R eq 2 Ω + 4 Ω CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 132 15. 20. The diode is reverse biased, but the voltage across it is given as 5 V. R2 is in parallel with the diode, so current in R2 5V = ⇒ Current in R2 = 5 mA. 1000 Ω z 21. (a) The required energy band diagrams are given below: The reverse current is due to minority charge carriers and even a small voltage is sufficient to sweep the minority carriers from one side of the junction to the other side of the junction. Here the current is not limited by the magnitude of the applied voltage but is limited due to the concentration of the minority carrier on either side of the junction. 16. (a) (i) There is very little resistance to limit the current in LED. Therefore, a resistor must be used in series with the LED to avoid any damage to it. (ii) The reverse breakdown voltages of LEDs are very low, typically around 5 V. So care should be taken while fabricating a p-n-junction diode so that the p side should only attached to the positive of battery and vice versa as LED easily get damaged by a small reverse voltage. (b) The semiconductor used for fabrication of visible LEDs must have at least a band gap of 1.8 eV because spectral range of visible light is about 0.4 mm to 0.7 mm, i.e., about 3 eV to 1.8 eV. 17. (a) Bulb B1 will glow, as diode D1 is forward biased. Bulb B2 will not glow as diode D2 is reverse biased. ∆V (b) Forward resistance = ∆I 0.7 − 0.5 ∴ ∆V = −3 = 200 Ω. ∆I T>0K T>0K (b) at T = 0 K At absolute zero temperature (0 K), conduction band of semiconductor is completely empty, i.e., s = 0. Hence the semiconductor behaves as an insulator. At room temperature, some valence electrons acquire enough thermal energy and jump to the conduction band where they are free to conduct electricity. Thus the semiconductor acquires a small conductivity at room temperature. 22. Two processes that take place in the formation of a p-n junction are diffusion and drift. 1.0 × 10 hc 18. We know that, energy of incident photon, E = λ l = 6000 Å = 600 nm (given) 1242 eV nm = 2.07 eV 600 nm D2 will detect these radiations because energy of incident radiation is greater than the band gap. E = 19. Energy of the incident photon with a band gap of 6000 nm. E= 6.63 × 10 −34 × 3 × 10 8 hc hc J = eV = = 0.207 eV λ eλ 1.6 × 10 −19 × 6 × 10 −6 The photodiode need an energy of 2.8 eV to give response to incident light. As E < Eg, the given photodiode cannot detect the radiation of wavelength 6000 nm. When p-n junction is formed, then at the junction, free electrons from n-type diffuse over to p-type, thereby filling in the holes in p-type. Due to this a layer of positive charge is built on n-side and a layer of negative charge is built on p-side of the p-n junction. This layer sufficiently grows up within a very short time of the junction being formed, preventing any further movement of charge carriers (i.e., electrons and holes) across the junction. Thus a potential difference V0 of the order of 0.1 to 0.3 V is set up across the p-n junction called potential barrier or junction barrier. The thin region around the 133 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits junction containing immobile positive and negative charges is known as depletion layer. 23. Let R be the effective resistance of the circuit, then R = RAB || REF + 25 RAB = 125 + 25 = 150 W REF = 125 + 25 = 150 W 150 \ R = 25 + = 100 W 2 Since diode in the branch CD is reverse biased. I3 = 0. 5 Current, I1 = = 0.05 A 100 According to Kirchhoff’s current rule, I1 = I2 + I3 + I4 or I2 + I4 = I1 = 0.05 RAB = REF, so, I4 = I2 2I4 = 2I2 = 0.05 0.05 I4 = I2 = = 0.025 A 2 24. (a) For n-type region, 1 ne = ND = 6 × 5 × 10 28 = 5 × 1022 m–3 10 1 ∵ 1 ppm = 6 10 As nenh = ni2, ni2 (1.5 × 1016 m−3 )2 = 0.45 × 1010 m–3 = ne 5 × 10 22 m−3 For p-type region, 200 nh = NA = 6 × 5 × 10 28 = 1 × 1025 m–3 10 n i2 (1.5 × 1016 m−3 )2 Now, ne = = 2.25 × 107 m–3 = 25 3 − nh 1 × 10 m (b) The minority carrier holes of n-region wafer (nh = 0.45 × 1010 m–3) would contribute more to reverse saturation current than minority carrier electrons of p–region wafer (ne = 2.25 × 107 m–3) when p – n junction is reverse biased. nh = 25. Principle : A solar cell works on the principle of photovoltaic effect according to which when light photons of energy greater than energy band gap of a semiconductor are incident on p-n junction of that semiconductor, electron-hole pairs are generated which give rise to an emf. Generation of emf : Three basic processes are involved in the generation of emf by a solar cell when solar radiations are incident on it. These are: (i) The generation of electron-hole pairs close to the junction due to incidence of light with photo energy hu ≥ Eb. (ii) The separation of electrons and holes due to the electric field of the depletion region. So, electrons are swept to n-side and holes to p-side. (iii) The electrons reaching the n-side are collected by the front contact and holes reaching p-side are collected by the back contact. Thus, p-side becomes positive and n-side become negative giving rise to a photovoltage. RL When an external load RL is connected as shown in figure, a photocurrent IL begins to flow through the load. 26. (i) The I-V characteristics of an LED is similar to that of a Si junction diode. But the threshold voltages are much higher and slightly different for each colour. (ii) hc hc \ λ= λ Eg Here, Eg = 1.9 eV, hc = 1240 eV nm 1240 eV nm \ λ= = 652.6 nm 1.9 eV Hence, the emitted light is of red colour. (iv) For the voltage less than 5 V, the diode is reverse biased and circuit will act as open circuit. When input voltage is greater than 5 V, diode is in conducting state. (iii) As Eg = 27. In half wave rectification, only one ripple is obtained per cycle in the output. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 134 Output frequency of a half wave rectifier = input frequency = 50 Hz In full wave rectification, two ripples are obtained per cycle in the output. Output frequency = 2 × input frequency = 2 × 50 = 100 Hz 28. We will increase the value of R. On heating a semiconductor, its resistance decreases with rise in temperature. As the semiconductor, S is in series, so net resistance of the circuit also decreases. So by increasing the value of R we can keep the resistance of circuit constant and hence the current in the circuit or the reading of ammeter A can be kept constant. 29. (a) The energy for the maximum intensity of the solar radiation is nearly 1.5 eV. In order to have photo excitation the energy of radiation (hu) must be greater than energy band gap (Eg), i.e., hu > Eg. Therefore, the semiconductor with energy band gap about 1.5 eV or lower and with higher absorption coefficient, is likely to give better solar conversion efficiency. The energy band gap for Si is about 1.1 eV, while for GaAs, it is about 1.53 eV. The gas GaAs is better inspite of its higher bandgap than Si because it absorbs relatively more energy from the incident solar radiations being of relatively higher absorption coefficient. (b) (open circuit voltage) (i) V-I curve is drawn in the fourth quadrant, because a solar cell does not draws current but supply current to the load. (ii) In V-I curve, the point A indicates the maximum voltage VOC being supplied by the given solar cell when no current is being drawn from it. VOC is called the open circuit voltage. (iii) In V-I curve, the point B indicates the maximum current ISC which can be obtained by short circuiting the solar cell without any load resistance. ISC is called the short circuit current. 30. Working of photodiode : h A junction diode made from light sensitive semiconductor is c a l l e d a p h o t o d i o d e. A A photodiode is a p-n junction p-side n-side diode arranged in reverse R biasing. The number of charge carriers increases when light of suitable frequency is made to fall on the p-n junction, because new electron-hole pairs are created by absorbing the photons of suitable frequency. Intensity of light controls the number of charge carriers. Due to this property photodiodes are used to detect optical signals. 31. We know that for each atom doped with Arsenic, one free electron is received. Similarly, for each atom doped with indium, a vacancy is created. So, the number of free electrons introduced by pentavalent impurity added, ne = NAs = 5 × 1022 m–3 The number of holes introduced by trivalent impurity added nh = NIn = 5 × 1020 m–3 We know the relation, nenh = ni2...(i) Now net electrons, n′e = ne – nh = 5 × 1022 – 5 × 1020 = 4.95 × 1022 m–3...(ii) Now using equation (i), net holes ni 2 (1.5 × 1016 )2 = 4.5 × 10 9 m−3 = 22 n ′e 4.95 × 10 So, n′e >> n′h, the material is of n-type. 32. In n-type extrinsic semiconductors, the number of free electrons in conduction band is much more than the number of holes in valence band. The donor energy level lies just below the conduction band. In p-type extrinsic semiconductor, the number of holes in valence band is much more than the number of free electrons in conduction band. The acceptor energy level lies just above the valence band. 33. (a) X = Half wave rectifier Y = Full wave rectifier n′h = (Half wave rectifier) 135 Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits through RL remains same, but its magnitude changes with time, so it is called pulsating d.c. (b) Two p–n junction diodes can be used to make full wave rectifier which is used to convert alternating current into direct current. Centre- Tap Transformer Diode D1 A Centre Tap B X RL Output Diode D2 Y A full wave rectifier consists of two diodes connected in parallel across the ends of secondary winding of a center tapped step down transformer. The load resistance RL is connected across secondary winding and the diodes between A and B as shown in the circuit. During positive half cycle of input a.c., end A of the secondary winding becomes positive and end B negative. Thus diode D1 becomes forward biased, whereas diode D2 reverse biased. So diode D1 allows the current to flow through it, while diode D2 does not, and current in the circuit flows from D1 and through load RL from X to Y. During negative half cycle of input a.c., end A of the secondary winding becomes negative and end B positive, thus diode D1 becomes reverse biased, whereas diode D2 forward biased. So diode D1 does not allow the current to flow through it but diode D2 does, and current in the circuit flows from D2 and through load RL from X to Y. 34. Forward biased characteristics : The circuit diagram for studying forward biased characteristics is shown in the figure. Starting from a low value, forward bias voltage is increased step by step (measured by voltmeter) and forward current is noted (by ammeter). A graph is plotted between voltage and current. The curve so obtained is the forward characteristic of the diode. Current (Full wave rectifier) (c) A capacitor of large capacitance is connected in parallel to the load resistor RL. When the pulsating voltage supplied by the rectifier is rising, the capacitor C gets charged. If there is no external load, the capacitor would have remained charged to the peak voltage of the rectified output. However, when there is no load and the rectified voltage starts falling, the capacitor gets discharged through the load and the voltage across capacitor begins to fall slowly. Voltage (V) Input-Output waveforms At the start when applied voltage is low, the current through the diode is almost zero. It is because of the potential barrier, which opposes the applied voltage. Till the applied voltage exceeds the potential barrier, the current increases very slowly with increase in applied voltage (OA portion of the graph). With further increase in applied voltage, the current increases very rapidly (AB portion of the graph), in this situation, the diode behaves like a conductor. The forward voltage beyond which the current through the junction starts increasing rapidly with voltage is called threshold or cut-in voltage. If line AB is extended back, it cuts the voltage axis at potential barrier voltage. Since in both the half cycles of input a.c., electric current through load R L flows in the same direction, so d.c. is obtained across RL. Although direction of electric current Reverse biased characteristics : The circuit diagram for studying reverse biased characteristics is shown in the figure. Vin O t Vout t O CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 136 Primary of transformer is connected to a.c. supply. During positive half cycle of input a.c., end A of the secondary winding becomes positive and end B negative. Thus, diode D becomes forward biased and conducts the current through it. So, current in the circuit flows from A to B through load resistor RL. Current Voltage (V) In reverse biased, the applied voltage supports the flow of minority charge carriers across the junction. So, a very small current flows across the junction due to minority charge carriers. Motion of minority charge carriers is also supported by internal potential barrier, so all the minority carriers cross over the junction. Therefore, the small reverse current remains almost constant over a sufficiently long range of reverse bias, increasing very little with increasing voltage (OC portion of the graph). This reverse current is voltage independent upto certain voltage known as breakdown voltage and this voltage independent current is called reverse saturation current. 35. Half wave rectifier: During negative half cycle of input a.c., end A of the secondary winding becomes negative and end B positive. Thus, diode D becomes reverse biased and does not conduct any current. So, no current flows in the circuit. Since electric current through load RL flows only during positive half cycle, in one direction only i.e., from A to B, so d.c. is obtained across RL. 36. (a) Voltage at p side is less than voltage at n side of the diode so it is in reverse bias. (b) (i) From the given curve, we have voltage, V = 0.8 volt for current, I = 20 mA voltage, V = 0.7 volt for current, I = 10 mA ⇒ DI = (20 – 10)mA = 10 × 10–3 A ⇒ DV = (0.8 – 0.7) = 0.1 V 0.1 ∆V \ Resistance, R = ⇒ R= ⇒ R = 10 W ∆I 10 × 10 −3 (ii) For V = – 10 V, we have It consists of a diode D connected in series with load resistor RL across the secondary windings of a step-down transformer. I = – 1 mA = –1 × 10–6 A ⇒ R = 10 1 × 10 −6 = 1.0 × 10 7 Ω PRACTICE PAPER 1 Time allowed : 2 hours Maximum marks : 35 General Instructions : (i) All questions are compulsory. There are 16 questions in all. (ii) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. (iii)Section A contains five very short answer questions and two assertion reasoning MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B has one case based question of 4 marks, Section C contains four short answer questions of 2 marks each, Section D contains two short answer questions of 3 marks each and Section E contains two long answer questions of 5 marks each. (iv)There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions. SECTION - A All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one of them. 1. Ultraviolet radiations of different frequencies u1 and u2 are incident on two photosensitive materials having work functions W1 and W2 (W1 > W2) respectively. The kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is same in both the cases. Which one of the two radiations will be of higher frequency? 2. State de Broglie hypothesis. Is it applicable for moving electron of hydrogen atom ? OR Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom. 3. Plot a graph showing variation of current versus voltage for the material Gas. 4. If A is the angle of prism, r angle of refraction, then what is the condition for minimum deviation? OR Find the magnifying power of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm when the image is formed at the near point. 5. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? (mwater = 4/3) For question numbers 6-7, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 6. Assertion (A) : The depletion layer in the p-n junction is free from mobile charge carriers. Reason (R) : There is no electric field across the junction barrier. 7. Assertion (A) : Young’s double slit experiment can be performed using a source of white light. Reason (R) : The wavelength of red light is less than the wavelength of other colours in white light. SECTION - B Question 8 is a Case Study based question and it is compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub parts from this question. Each part carries 1 mark. Refraction through Spherical Surfaces 8. Refraction of light is the change in the path of light as it passes obliquely from one transparent medium to another medium. According to law of refraction sin i = 1µ2 , where 1m2 is called refractive index of second medium with sin r *The paper is for practice purpose. CBSE has yet not released the official sample paper. So, the pattern is suggestive only. For latest information visit www.cbse.gov.in. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 138 µ2 µ1 µ2 − µ1 − = . Similarly from v u R µ µ µ − µ1 refraction at a concave spherical surface when object lies in the rarer medium, we have 2 − 1 = 2 and when v u R µ µ µ − µ2 object lies in the denser medium, we have 1 − 2 = 1 . v u R (i) Refractive index of a medium depends upon (a) nature of the medium (b) wavelength of the light used (c) temperature (d) all of these 14 (ii) A ray of light of frequency 5 × 10 Hz is passed through a liquid. The wavelength of light measured inside the liquid is found to be 450 × 10–9 m. The refractive index of the liquid is (a) 1.33 (b) 2.52 (c) 2.22 (d) 0.75 (iii) A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one face of a rectangular glass slab of refractive index 1.5. The angle of refraction is (a) sin–1(0.95) (b) sin–1(0.58) (c) sin–1(0.79) (d) sin–1(0.86) (iv) A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance of the virtual image from the surface of sphere is (a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 12 cm (v) In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium because in the second medium (a) the frequency is different (b) the co-efficient of elasticity is different respect to first medium. From refraction at a convex spherical surface, we have (c) the speed is different (d) the amplitude is smaller. SECTION - C All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone. 9. Calculate the energy in fusion reaction : 12 H +12 H → 32He + n , where B.E. of 12 H = 2.23 MeV and of 32 He = 7.73 MeV. 10. The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will metal give photoelectric emission for incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm ? OR If the momentum of an electron is changed by p, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%. What will be the initial momentum of electron ? 11. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about the direction of electric and magnetic field vectors? 12. The forbidden energy gap in semiconductors, insulators and metals are Es, Ei, and Em respectively. Arrange these in descending order. The band gap in silicon is 1.12 eV. What is the maximum wavelength of light that can be emitted by it? OR In the following diagram, is the junction diode forward biased or reverse biased? SECTION - D All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one. 13. Write any two distinguishing features between conductors, semiconductors and insulators on the basis of energy band diagrams. 14. A convex lens made of a material of refractive index m1 is kept in a medium of refractive index m2. Parallel rays of light are incident on the lens. Complete the path of rays of light emerging from the convex lens if (a) m1 > m2 (b) m1 = m2 (c) m1 < m2 139 Practice Paper - 1 OR The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index of the material of the lens be 1.5, then show that it will act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies. SECTION - E All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one. 15. A parallel beam of monochromatic light falls normally on a narrow slit of width ‘a’ to produce a diffraction pattern on the screen placed parallel to the plane of the slit. Use Huygens principle to explain that (i) the central bright maxima is twice as wide as the other maxima. (ii) the intensity falls as we move to successive maxima away from the centre of on either side. OR (a)Two monochromatic waves emanating from two coherent sources have the displacements represented by y1 = a cos wt and y2 = a cos (wt + f) where f is the phase difference between the two displacements. Show that the resultant intensity at a point due to their superposition is given by I = 4 I0 cos2 f/2, where I0 = a2. (b) Hence obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive interference. 16. (a)Using Bohr’s atomic model, derive the expression for the radius of nth orbit of the revolving electron in a hydrogen atom. (b) Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom. OR (a)Using de Broglie’s hypothesis, explain with the help of a suitable diagram, Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of energy levels in a hydrogen atom. (b)The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies of the electron in this state? 1. or or or so 1 2 mv = hυ1 − W1 = hυ2 − W2 2 max h(u1– u2 ) = W1 – W2 h(u1 – u2) = positive u1 – u2 = positive u1 > u2 13.6 eV = 3.4 × 1.6 × 10–19 J 4 n h de Broglie wavelength λ = 2mEK EK = [∵ W1 > W2] 2. de-Broglie hypothesis : It states that a moving particle sometimes acts as a wave and sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving particle which controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength is given by h mv where m and v are the mass and velocity of the particle and h is Planck’s constant. Yes, it is applicable for moving electron of hydrogen atom. λ= OR Kinetic energy of the electron in the second state of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV 2 = 6.63 × 10−34 2 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 3.4 × 1.6 × 10−19 = 0.67 nm 3. Variation of current versus voltage for Gas. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 140 4. As r1 + r2 = A At minimum deviation, r1 = r2 = r \ 2r = A OR (d) : When the final image is formed at the near point, the magnifying power is m = 1 + D f where D is the least distance of distinct vision and f is the focal length of the convex lens. Here, D = 25 cm, f = 10 cm 25 cm ∴ m = 1+ = 1 + 2.5 = 3.5 10 cm 5. Angular width for first minima in Young’s double slit experiment, θ = λ a For given value of a, q ∝ l θ λ λ θ 0. 2° = = = µ ⇒ θw = = = 0.15° θw λw λ 4 µ µ 3 6. (c) : Due to diffusion of holes from the p-region to the n-region and of electrons from the n-region to the p-region an electric field is set up across the junction barrier. Once the depletion layer is formed it is in equilibrium and becomes free of mobile charge carriers. 7. (c) : When source in Young’s double slit experiment is of white light, the central fringe is white as all colours meet there in phase. 8. (i) (d) : Refractive index of a medium depends upon nature and temperature of the medium, wavelength of light. (ii) (a) : Here u = 5 × 1014 Hz; l = 450 × 10–9m c = 3 × 108 m s–1 Refractive index of the liquid, c c 3 × 108 = = v υλ 5 × 1014 × 450 × 10−9 m = 1.33 (iii) (b) : Here i = 60° ; m = 1.5 sin i By snell’s law, m = sin r sin i sin 60° 0.866 sin r = = = µ 1. 5 1. 5 sin r = 0.5773 or r = sin–1(0.58) µ= (iv) (c): As object is at the centre of the sphere, the image must be at the centre only. \ Distance of virtual image from centre of sphere = 6 cm. (v) (c) : Speed of light in second medium is different than that in first medium 9. Fusion reaction, Energy released = final B.E. – initial B.E. = 7.73 – (2.23 + 2.23) = 3.27 MeV. 10. Let us calculate the energy associated with incident photons E= −34 × 3 × 108 hc 6.63 × 10 = = 6.027 × 10−19 J −9 λ 330 × 10 or E = 6.027 × 10−19 J = 3.77 eV 1.6 × 10−19 So, energy of incident photons i.e., 3.77 eV is less than work function, hence emission will not take place. OR de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron is h h λ= or p = p λ ∆p p 0. 5 ∆λ ⇒ ∴ =− = p λ pinitial 100 pinitial = 200 p 11. The electric and magnetic field vectors E and B are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave. If a plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the z-direction, then the electric field is along x-axis, and magnetic field is along y-axis. 12. Here, Ei > Es > Em As, E = hυ = hc λ 6.67 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 or λ = hc = E 1.12 × 1.6 × 10−19 l = 1.11 × 10–6 m OR Voltage at p side is less than voltage at n side of the diode so it is in reverse bias. 13. The band diagram for conductors, semiconductors and insulators are given as follows: 141 Practice Paper - 1 15. (i) Two distinguishing features : (i) In conductors, the valence band and conduction band tend to overlap (or nearly overlap) while in insulators they are separated by a large energy gap and in semiconductors they are separated by a small energy gap. (ii) The conduction band of a conductor has a large number of electrons available for electrical conduction. However, the conduction band of insulators is almost empty while that of the semiconductor has only a (very) small number of such electrons available for electrical conduction. 14. In case (a) m1 > m2, the lens behaves as convergent lens. In case (b) m1 = m2, the lens behaves as a plane plate. In case (c) m1 < m2, the lens behaves as a divergent lens. The path of rays in all the three cases is shown in the figure. 2 1 2 2 F 2 1 2 1 F (i) 1 > 2 (ii) 1 = 2 (iii) 1 < 2 OR Here, m = 1.5 If object lies on plane side; R1 = ∞, R2 = – 20 cm 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − f R1 R2 1 1 1 = (1.5 − 1) + = ∞ 20 40 f = + 40 cm. The lens behaves as convex lens. If object lies on its curved side. Then R1 = 20 cm, R2 = ∞ O (a) Width of central maximum = O 1 1 1 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − = (1.5 − 1) − = 20 ∞ 40 f′ R R 1 2 f ′ = 40 cm. The lens behaves as convex lens. Consider a parallel beam of monochromatic light is incident normally on a single slit AB of width a as shown in the figure. According to Huygens principle every point of slit acts as a source of secondary wavelets spreading in all directions. The mid point of the slit is O. A straight line through O perpendicular to the slit plane meets the screen at C. At the central point C on the screen, the angle q is zero. All path differences are zero and hence all the parts of the slit contribute in phase. This gives maximum intensity at C. Consider a point P on the screen. The observation point is now taken at P. Secondary minima : Now we divide the slit into two equal a halves AO and OB, each of width . For every point, M1 2 in AO, there is a corresponding point M2 in OB, such that a M1M2 = . The path difference between waves arriving 2 at P and starting from M1 and M2 will be a sin θ = λ . 2 2 asinq = l In general, for secondary minima asinq = nl where n = ±1, ±2, ±3...... Secondary maxima : Similarly it can be shown that for secondary maxima λ a sinθ = (2n + 1) where n = ±1, ±2........ 2 The intensity pattern on the screen is shown in the given figure. (b) 2D λ a (ii) The reason is that the intensity of the central maximum is due to the constructive interference of wavelets from all parts of the slit, the first secondary maximum is due to the contribution of wavelets from one third part of the slit (wavelets from remaining two parts interfere destructively), the second secondary maximum is due to the contribution of wavelets from the one fifth part only (the remaining four parts interfere destructively) and so on. Hence the intensity of secondary CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 142 maximum decreases with the increase in the order n of the maximum. OR (a) y1 = a cos wt, y2 = a cos (wt + f) From Bohr’s quantization condition nh nh mvr = or v = ...(ii) 2π 2 πmr Using equation (ii) in (i), we get 2 1 e2 1 e2 nh m ⋅ n2h2 = = or m ⋅ 2 2 2 2 πmr 4 πε0 r 4 πε0 r 4π m r or r = where f is phase difference between them. Resultant displacement at point P will be, y = y1 + y2 = a cos wt + a cos(wt + f) = a [cos wt + cos (wt + f)] (ωt − ωt − φ) (ωt + ωt + φ) = a 2 cos cos 2 2 φ φ y = 2a cos ωt + cos ...(i) 2 2 φ Let y = 2a cos = A, the equation (i) becomes 2 φ y = A cos ωt + 2 where A is amplitude of resultant wave, φ Now, A = 2a cos 2 φ On squaring, A2 = 4a2 cos2 2 φ Hence, resultant intensity, I = 4 I0 cos2 2 (b) Condition for constructive interference, cos Df = + 1 ∆x 2π = 0, 2 π, 4 π... or Dx = nl; n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ... λ Condition for destructive interference, cos Df = – 1 ∆x 2π = π, 3π, 5π... or x = (2n – 1) l/2 λ where n = 1, 2, 3... th 16. (a) Radius of n orbit of hydrogen atom : In H-atom, an electron having charge –e revolves around the nucleus of charge +e in a circular orbit of radius r, such that necessary centripetal force is provided by the electrostatic force of attraction between the electron and nucleus. i.e., mv 2 1 e.e = r 4 πε0 r 2 or mv 2 = 2 1 e 4 πε0 r +e r ...(i) F –e mv2 r n2h2ε0 ...(iii) πme 2 where n = 1, 2, 3, ... is principal quantum number. Equation (iii), gives the radius of nth orbit of H-atom. So the radii of the orbits increase proportionally with n2 i.e., [r ∝ n2]. Radius of first orbit of H-atom is called Bohr radius a0 and is given by h 2 ε0 a0 = for n = 1 or a0 = 0.529 Å πme 2 So, radius of nth orbit of H-atom then becomes r = n2 × 0.529 Å (b) The two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom are : (i) This model cannot explain about the stability of matter. (ii) It cannot explain the characteristic line spectra of atoms of different elements. OR (a) According to de Broglie, a stationary orbit is that which contains an integral number of de Broglie waves associated with the revolving electron. For an electron revolving in nth circular orbit of radius rn, Total distance covered = Circumference of the orbit = 2prn \ For the permissible orbit, 2prn = nl According to de-Broglie, l= h mvn where vn is speed of electron revolving in nth orbit. nh nh h = n \ 2prn = or mvnrn = mvn 2π 2π (b) For ground state, n = 1 −13.6 −13.6 E = 2 = 2 = −13.6 eV n 1 \ K.E. = – E = – (–13.6) = 13.6 eV Q P.E. = 2E \ P.E. = 2 (–13.6) = – 27.2 eV PRACTICE PAPER 2 Time allowed : 2 hours Maximum marks : 35 General Instructions : (i) All questions are compulsory. There are 16 questions in all. (ii) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. (iii)Section A contains five very short answer questions and two assertion reasoning MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B has one case based question of 4 marks, Section C contains four short answer questions of 2 marks each, Section D contains two short answer questions of 3 marks each and Section E contains two long answer questions of 5 marks each. (iv)There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions. SECTION - A All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one of them. 1. Do electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum? 2. The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 3 eV. What is its stopping potential? OR What is the difference between kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted from a surface by light of wavelength 2500 Å and 5000 Å ? 3. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superimposed. What is the maximum and minimum possible resulting intensities? 4. The 6563 Å Ha line emitted by hydrogen in a star is found to be red-shifted by 15 Å. Find the speed with which the star is receding from the earth. OR How is the radius of a nucleus related to its mass number A? 5. How is the speed of em-waves in vacuum determined by the electric and magnetic fields? For question numbers 6, 7 two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 6. Assertion (A) : Graph of density of nuclei with mass number is a straight line parallel to mass number axis. Reason (R) : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number. 7. Assertion (A) : Energy is released in nuclear fusion and fission. Reason (R) : In any nuclear reaction the reactants and resultant products obey the law of conservation of mass and energy only. *The paper is for practice purpose. CBSE has yet not released the official sample paper. So, the pattern is suggestive only. For latest information visit www.cbse.gov.in. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 144 SECTION - B Questions 8 is a Case Study based question and is compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub parts from this question. Each part carries 1 mark. Fringe Width 8. Distance between two successive bright or dark fringes is called fringe width. (n + 1)λD nλD λD b = Yn+1 – Yn = − = d d d Fringe width is independent of the order of the maxima. If whole apparatus is immersed in liquid of refractive λD index m then b = (fringe width decreases). Angular fringe width (q) is the angular separation between µd two consecutive maxima or minima β λ θ= = D d (i) The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment, is (a) infinite (b) five (c) two (d) zero (ii) In Young’s double – slit experiment if yellow light is replaced by blue light, the interference fringes become (a) wider (b) brighter (c) narrower (d) darker (iii) In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between the slits is halved and the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled, then the fringe width compared to the unchanged one will be (a) Unchanged (b) Halved (c) Doubled (d) Quadrupled (iv) When the complete Young’s double slit experiment is immersed in water, the fringes (a) remain unaltered (b) become wider (c) become narrower (d) disappear (v) In a two slit experiment with white light, a white fringe is observed on a screen kept behind the slits. When the screen is moved away by 0.05 m, this white fringe (a) does not move at all (b) gets displaced from its earlier position (c) becomes coloured (d) disappears. SECTION - C All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone. 9. If light ray with small angle of incidence falls on glass surface having speed of light in glass as 4/5 of speed of light in air, find the angle of deviation after refraction from first surface. OR Write the relationship between angle of incidence ‘i’, angle of prism ‘A’ and angle of minimum deviation dm for a triangular prism. A ray of light falling at an angle of 50° is refracted through a prism and suffers minimum deviation. If the angle of prism is 60°, find the angle of minimum deviation. 10. Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Write two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of nuclear forces. A ray of light falling at an angle of incidence of 50° is refracted through a prism and suffers minimum deviation. It the angle of prism is 60° then find the angle of minimum deviation. 145 Practice Paper - 2 11. The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. Find the ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance. I (mA) 20 15 10 –10 1 A .7 .8 V(volt) OR Find the resistance of a germanium junction diode whose V – I is shown in figure. (Vk = 0.3 V) 12. Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV respectively. Which of them will not be able to detect light of wavelength 600 nm? SECTION - D All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one. 13. An equiconvex lens with radii of curvature of magnitude R each, is put over a liquid layer poured on top of a plane mirror. A small needle, with its tip on the principal axis of the lens, is moved along the axis until its inverted real image coincides with the needle itself. The distance of the needle from the lens is measured to be a. On removing the liquid layer and repeating the experiment the distance is found to be b. Liquid Given that two values of distances measured represent the focal length values in the two cases, obtain a formula for the refractive index of the liquid. OR A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and eye lens of focal length 10 cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the objective lens (a) Calculate the length of the compound microscope. (b)Calculate magnifying power of the compound microscope, if the final image is formed at the near point. 14. In a full wave junction diode rectifier the input ac has rms value of 20 V. The transformer used is a step up transformer having primary and secondary turn ratio 1 : 2. What would be the dc voltage in the rectified output? CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 146 SECTION - E All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one. 15. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image of an object placed on the axis of a convex refracting surface of radius of curvature ‘R’, separating the two media of refractive indices ‘n1’ and ‘n2’ (n2 > n1). Use this diagram to deduce the relation of the object and the image formed. n2 n1 n2 − n1 − = , where u and v represent respectively the distance v u R (b)A convex lens of focal length f1 is kept in contact with a concave lens of focal length f2. Find the focal length of the combination. OR (a)Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by an astronomical telescope when the final image is formed at infinite. (b) (i) A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm. Find the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing distant objects when the telescope is in normal adjustment and the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision. (ii) Also find the separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece in normal adjustment. 16. (a) How does one explain the emission of electrons from a photosensitive surface with the help of Einstein’s photoelectric equation? (b) The work function of the following metals is given : Na = 2.75 eV, K = 2.3 eV, Mo = 4.17 eV and Ni = 5.15 eV. Which of these metals will not cause photoelectric emission for radiation of wavelength 3300 Å from a laser source placed 1 m away from these metals? What happens if the laser source is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away? OR (a) Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation for two photosensitive materials having work functions W1 and W2(W1 > W2). Write two important conclusions that can be drawn from the study of these plots. (b) Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current with collector plate potential for two different frequencies, u1 > u2, of incident radiation having the same intensity. In which case will the stopping potential be higher? Justify your answer. 1. Yes, electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum. 2. 1 2 mvmax = 3 eV or eV0 = 3 eV or V0 = 3 V. 2 OR hc hc hc(λ 2 − λ1) ∆E = − = (in eV) λ1λ 2 λ1 λ 2 = 6 ⋅ 62 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 × (5000 − 2500) × 10 −10 2500 × 5000 × 10 −20 × 1 ⋅ 6 × 10 −19 = 2.48 eV 3. The maximum and minimum intensities are given by (a + b)2 and (a – b)2 for the superposition of two coherent sources. a, b are amplitudes of superposing waves. Let I = x The amplitude a = I = x, b = 4I = 2x \ Maximum intensity = (a + b)2 = 9x2 = 9I Minimum intensity = (a – b)2 = x2 = I 4. Wavelength of Ha line, l = 6563 Å = 6563 × 10–10 m Red shift observed in star is (l′ – l) = 15 Å = 15 × 10–10 m 147 Practice Paper - 2 OR The volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the number of nucleons (mass number) constituting the nucleus. 4 3 πR ∝ A Where R → radius 3 R ∝ A1/3 A → Mass number R = R0 A1/3 5. The speed of em-waves in vacuum determined by E the electric (E0) and magnetic fields (B0) as, c = 0 B0 6. (a) : Experimentally, it is found that the average radius of a nucleus is given by R = R0A1/3 where R0 = 1.1 × 10–15 m = 1.1 fm and A = mass number 4 4 The volume of a nucleus is V = p R3 = p R03A. 3 3 Now as the masses of a proton and a neutron are roughly equal, say m, the mass of a nucleus is also roughly proportional to the mass number A, M = mA Hence density within a nucleus, ρ = m M mA = = 4 V 4 3 πR 3 πR A 3 0 3 0 is independent of the mass number A. 7. (c) : In both fission and fusion large amounts of energy is released. The reason is correct. Charge, mass, momentum and energy, all are conserved. 8. (i) (b) : The condition for possible interference maxima on the screen is, dsinq = nl where d is slit separation and l is the wavelength. As d = 2l (given) \ 2lsinq = nl or 2sinq = n For number of interference maxima to be maximum, sinq = 1 \ n = 2 The interference maxima will be formed when n = 0, ± 1, ± 2 Hence the maximum number of possible maxima is 5. λD (ii) (c) : Fringe width, β = d \ If we replace yellow light with blue light, i.e., longer wavelength with shorter one, therefore the fringe width decreases. d and D ′ = 2D 2 λD Fringe width, β = d 2D = 4β New fringe width β′ = λ d / 2 (iii) (d) : d ′ = (iv) (c) : When Young’s double slit experiment is λ repeated in water, instead of air. λ ′ = , i.e., wavelength µ λ ′D decreases. β = , i.e., fringe width decreases. d \ The fringe become narrower. (v) (a) : Using white light, we get white fringe at the centre i.e., white fringe is the central maximum. When the screen is moved, its position is not changed. 9. Let velocity of light in rarer medium be v. 4v Then velocity of light in glass is . 5 \ Refractive index of glass with respect to given rarer v 5 medium is µ = = 4v / 5 4 sin i i From Snell’s law, µ = ≈ sin r r (Q for small angles, sinq ≈ q) \ i 5 = r 4 \ Angle of deviation = i – r = i – or r= 4i 5 4i i = 5 5 OR The relation between the angle of incidence i, angle of prism A, and the angle of minimum deviation dm, for a triangular prism is given by, i = A + dm = 100° dm = 100° – 60° = 40° 10. Potential energy (MeV) and speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m s–1 Let the velocity of the star with which it is receding away from the earth be v \ Red shift relation v λ′ − λ = λ c c 3 × 108 × 15 × 10 −10 ∴ v = × (λ′ − λ) = = 6.86 × 105 m s −1 λ 6563 × 10 −10 A + δm 2 +100 0 –100 r0 1 2 3 r(fm) CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 148 From the above plot, following conclusions can be drawn. (i) Nuclear forces are short range forces. (ii) For a separation greater than r0, the nuclear forces are attractive and for separation less than r0, the nuclear forces are strongly repulsive. 11. Forward bias resistance, ∆V 0. 8 − 0. 7 0. 1 R1 = = = = 10 − 3 ∆I for (20 − 10) × 10 10 × 10 −3 Reverse bias resistance, R2 = 10 −6 = 107 1 × 10 then, the ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance, R1 10 = = 10 −6 R2 107 or v0 = + 12 cm For eye lens : fe = + 10 cm and ve = – 25 cm 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 −7 = − or = − =− − = f e v e ue ue v e f e 25 10 50 or ue = –7.14 cm Length of microscope tube is, L = |v0| + |ue| = 12 + 7.14 = 19.14 cm (b) Magnifying power of microscope is, L D M = − 1 + f0 fe 19.14 4 or M=− or M = – 16.75 25 1 + 10 = − 4.785 × 3.5 12. Given, l = 600 nm = 6 × 10–7 m 14. Here, input Vrms = 20 V Peak value of input voltage Vo = 2 Vrms = 2 × 20 = 28.28 V Since the transformer is a step up transformer having transformer ratio 1 : 2, the maximum value of output voltage of the transformer applied to the diode will be V0′ = 2 × Vo = 2 × 28.28 V E= \ OR From graph, Resistance of the germanium junction diode, 2V ∆V 2.3 V − 0.3 V = = 0. 2 k Ω R= = 10 mA − 0 ∆I 10 × 10 −3 A −34 8 hc 6.6 × 10 × 3 × 10 eV = 2.06 eV = λ 6 × 10 −7 × 1.6 × 10 −19 As, energy gaps of diodes D1 and D3 are greater than the given energy of the incident radiation. Hence diodes D1 and D3 will not be able to detect light of wavelength 600 nm. 13. Clearly, equivalent focal length of equiconvex lens and water lens f = a Focal length of equiconvex lens, f1 = b Focal length f2 of water lens is given by ab 1 1 1 1 1 b−a = − = − = or f 2 = f2 f f1 a b ab b−a The water lens formed between the plane mirror and the equiconvex lens is a planoconcave lens. For this lens, R1 = –R and R2 = ∞ Using lens maker’s formula, 1 1 1 = (µ − 1) − f2 R R 1 2 or b−a 1 (a − b)R 1 = (µ − 1) − or µ = 1 + ab ab −R ∞ OR (a) For object lens : f0 = + 4 cm and u0 = – 6 cm 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 = − or = + = − = f v 0 u0 v 0 f 0 u0 4 6 12 2V0′ 2 × 2 × 28.28 = = 36 V π 22 / 7 15. (a) Refraction at convex spherical surface When object is in rarer medium and image formed is real. dc voltage = n1 O N A i u PN n2 r C I R v n1 < n2 In DOAC, i = a + g and in DAIC, g = r + b or r = g – b sin i i α + γ ∴ By Snell’s law, 1n2 = ≈ = sin r r γ − β n2 α + γ = or n2 γ − n2β = n1α + n1γ n1 γ − β or (n2 – n1)g = n1a + n2b...(i) As a, b and g are small and P and N lie close to each other, AN AN So, α ≈ tan α = ≈ NO PO or β ≈ tan β = AN AN ≈ NI PI γ ≈ tan γ = AN AN ≈ NC PC On using them in equation (i), we get 149 Practice Paper - 2 (n2 − n1) AN AN AN = n1 + n2 PC PO PI n2 − n1 n1 n2 = + PC PO PI or where, PC = + R, radius of curvature PO = – u, object distance PI = + v, image distance n −n n −n n n n n So, 2 1 = 1 + 2 or 2 1 = 2 − 1 R −u v R v u This gives formula for refraction at spherical surface when object is in rarer medium. (b) v f1 (ii) Separation between objective and eyepiece when final image is formed at infinity, v L = f 0 + fe I O u L1 L2 I f2 For convex lens 1 1 1 = − ...(i) f1 v′ u For concave lens ( f2 = –ve) − 1 1 1 = − ...(ii) f 2 v v′ Adding equations (i) and (ii) 1 1 1 1 − =− + f1 f 2 u v Also, 1 1 1 − = v u f 1 1 1 − = f1 f 2 f 16. (a) The Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given as Kmax = hu – f0 Since K max must be non-negative implies that photoelectric emission is possible only if hu > f0 φ0 , h This shows that the greater the work function f 0 , higher the threshold frequency u 0 needed to emit photoelectrons. Thus, there exists a threshold frequency φ u 0 = 0 for the metal surface, below which no h photoelectric emission is possible. or uf > u0 where u0 = or hc > f0 λ for l = 3300 Å hc 1.989 × 10 −25 6.03 × 10 −19 = = 3.77 eV = λ 3300 × 10 −10 1.6 × 10 −19 f f So, f = 1 2 f 2 − f1 OR (a) L = 140 cm + 5.0 cm = 145 cm (b) Condition for photo electric emission, hu > f0 where f = focal length of combination ∴ (b) (i) Given f0 = 140 cm, fe = 5 cm When final image is at infinity, magnifying power, −f 140 m= 0 =− fe 5. 0 m = –28 Negative sign shows that the image is inverted. When final image is at the least distance of distinct vision, −f f magnifying power, m = 0 1 + e fe D −140 5.0 = 1+ = −33.6 5.0 25 \ Mo and Ni will not cause photoelectric emission. If the laser source is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away, then photoelectric emission will not effect, since it depends upon the work function and threshold frequency. OR (a) The graph showing the variation of stopping potential (V0) with the frequency of incident radiation (u ) for two different photosensitive materials having work functions W 1 and W 2 (W 1 > W 2) is shown in figure. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 150 (b) The stopping potential is more negative for higher frequencies of incident radiation. Therefore, stopping potential is higher for u1. ∆V h = [ eDV = hDu] ∆υ e \ Slope of the line = h i.e., it is a constant quantity e and does not depend on nature of metal surface. (ii) Intercept of graph 1 on the stopping potential axis (i) Slope of the line = work function(W ) hυ =− 0 e e \ Intercept of the line depends upon the stopping function of the metal surface. = (KE)max = eV0 = hu – f h φ ⇒ V0 = υ − e e From this equation we can conclude that V0 will increase if u increases. PRACTICE PAPER 3 Time allowed : 2 hours Maximum marks : 35 General Instructions : (i) All questions are compulsory. There are 16 questions in all. (ii) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. (iii)Section A contains five very short answer questions and two assertion reasoning MCQs of 1 mark each. Section B has one case based question of 4 marks, Section C contains four short answer questions of 2 marks each, Section D contains two short answer questions of 3 marks each and Section E contains two long answer questions of 5 marks each. (iv)There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions. SECTION - A All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one of them. 1. Write the relation between the refractive index and critical angle for a given pair of optical media. OR State the condition for total internal reflection. 2. Arrange the following materials in increasing order of their resistivity. Nichrome, Copper, Germanium, Silicon 3. In the circuit shown if drift current for the diode is 20 mA, find the potential difference across the diode. 4V 15 4. 5. OR Show the variation of resistivity of Si with temperature in a graph. Is the ratio of number of holes and number of conduction electrons in a p-type semiconductor more than, less than or equal to 1? The circuit shown in the figure has two oppositely connected ideal diodes connected in parallel. Find the current flowing through each diode in the circuit. 12 V For question numbers 6-7 two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false and R is also false 6. Assertion (A) : Velocity of light is different in different media. Reason (R) : Light is an electromagnetic wave whose velocity in a medium depends on refractive index of the medium. *The paper is for practice purpose. CBSE has yet not released the official sample paper. So, the pattern is suggestive only. For latest information visit www.cbse.gov.in. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 152 7. Assertion (A) : V - I characteristic of p-n diode is same as that of any other conductor. Reason (R) : p-n diode behave as conductor at room temperature. SECTION - B Question 8 is a Case Study based question and it is compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub parts from this question. Each part carries 1 mark. Photoelectric Emission 8. When light of sufficiently high frequency is incident on a metallic surface, electrons are emitted from the metallic surface. This phenomenon is called photoelectric emission. Kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons depends on the wavelength of incident light and is independent of the intensity of light. Number of emitted photoelectrons depends on intensity. (hu – f) is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons (where f is the work function of metallic surface). Reverse effect of photo emission produces X-ray. X-ray is not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. Wavelength of a continuous X-ray depends on potential difference across the tube. Wavelength of characteristic X-ray depends on the atomic number. (i) Einstein’s photoelectric equation is 1 (d) E = mv 2 2 (ii) Light of wavelength l which is less than threshold wavelength is incident on a photosensitive material. If incident wavelength is decreased so that emitted photoelectrons are moving with some velocity then stopping potential will (a) Emax = hu – f (b) E = mc2 (c) E2 = p2c2 + m02c4 (a) increase (b) decrease (c) be zero (d) become exactly half (iii) When ultraviolet rays incident on metal plate then photoelectric effect does not occur, it occur by incident of (a) Infrared rays (b) X-rays (c) Radio wave (d) Micro wave (iv) If frequency (u > u0) of incident light becomes n times the initial frequency (u), then K.E. of the emitted photoelectrons becomes (u0 threshold frequency). (a) n times of the initial kinetic energy (b) More than n times of the initial kinetic energy (c) Less than n times of the initial kinetic energy (d) Kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons remains unchanged. (v) A monochromatic light is used in a photoelectric experiment. The stopping potential (a) is related to the mean wavelength (b) is related to the shortest wavelength (c) is not related to the minimum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons (d) intensity of incident light. SECTION - C All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt anyone. 9. In a certain double slit experimental arrangement, interference fringes of width 1 mm each are observed when light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the setup unaltered, if the source is replaced by another of wavelength 6000 Å, then find the fringe width. OR A parallel beam of light of 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit. 153 Practice Paper - 3 10. 11. Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is (a) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation. (b) used to treat muscular strain. Draw the output waveform across the resistor. A V0 +1 V 0 –1 V Input waveform at A OR Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 2.75 eV, respectively. Which ones will be able to detect light of wavelength 5500 Å? 12. State the process responsible for energy generation in Sun. Why such process is difficult to achieve an Earth. SECTION - D All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one. 13. (a) Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment are illuminated by two different lamps emitting light of the same wavelength. Will you observe the interference pattern? Justify your answer. (b) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength l, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is l, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a point where path difference is l/3. 14. Use the lens equation to deduce algebraically: (a) An object placed within the focus of a convex lens produces a virtual and enlarged image. (b) A concave lens produces a virtual and diminished image independent of the location of the object. OR A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially with a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm. The two are kept at 15 cm from each other. A point object lies 60 cm in front of the convex lens. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image by the combination. Determine the nature and position of the image formed. SECTION - E All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one. 15. Using Bohr’s postulates, derive the expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher energy state (quantum number ni) to the lower state, (nf). When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state ni = 4 to nf = 3, 2, 1. Identify the spectral series to which the emission lines belong. OR (i)In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from 2nd excited state to the first excited state and then to the ground state. Identify the spectral series to which these transitions belong. (ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases. 1 1 1 16. Define power of a lens. Write its units. Deduce the relation = + for two thin lenses kept in contact f f1 f2 coaxially. OR A screen is placed 80 cm from an object. The image of the object on the screen is formed by a convex lens placed between them at two different locations separated by a distance 20 cm. Determine the focal length of the lens. 1 , where a and b are the rarer and denser sin C media respectively and C is the critical angle for the given pair of optical media. 1. a µb = OR (a) Conditions for total internal reflection are (i) Light must travel from denser to rarer medium. (ii) Angle of incidence must be greater than critical angle. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 154 2. Materials Copper (Cu) Nichrome (alloy of Ni, Fe, Cr) Germanium Silicon Resistivity (r) (W m at 0°C) 1.7 × 10–8 100 × 10–8 0.46 2300 3. (c) : Since the diode is reversed biased, only drift current exists in circuit which is 20 mA. Potential drop across 15 W resistor = 15 W × 20 mA = 300 mV = 0.0003 V Potential difference across the diode = 4 – 0.0003 = 3.99 ; 4V OR Resistivity () The variation of resistivity of Silicon (Si) with temperature is shown as Temperature (T) 4.The ratio of number of holes and number of conduction electrons in a p-type semiconductor is more than 1. 5. Diode D1 is reverse biased, so it offers an infinite resistance. So no current flows in the branch of diode D 1. Diode D2 is forward biased, and offers negligible resistance in the circuit. So current in the branch 12 V V I= = = 2A Req 2 Ω + 4 Ω In the given graph knee voltage is a voltage at which forward bias becomes greater than the potential barrier, the forward current increases almost linearly. From this graph we can verify that p-n diode characteristics are very different from that of conductor which obey’s Ohm’s law. 8. (i) (a) Einstein’s photo ele c t r ic e quat ion is Emax = hu- f (ii) (a) : According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, hc hc − eV0 = λ λ0 As l0 is constant, so when l is decreased, stopping potential (V0) increases. (iii) (b) : It indicates that threshold frequency is greater than that of ultraviolet light. As X-rays have greater frequency than ultraviolet rays, so they can cause photoelectric effect. (iv) (b) : K.E.1 = hu – f K.E.2 = nhu – f = n(hu – f) + (n – 1)f K.E.2 = nKE1 + (n – 1)f K.E.2 > nKE1 (v) (b) : S topping potential is the measurement of maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons and kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is linearly related with the frequency of incident light (i.e., corresponding to shortest wavelength, K.E. is maximum). Stopping potential is independent of intensity. λD d Since D and d are unaltered, b ∝ l λ′ 6000 β′ λ′ or β′ = β × = 1 × = 1.2 mm ∴ = λ 5000 β λ 9.Fringe width, β = + 12 V 6. (a) : Velocity of light has different values in different media. It depends on the refractive index of the medium. Related by formula velocity in vacuum vmedium = refractive index of medium 7. (d) : The V-I characteristic of p-n diode depends whether the junction is forward biased or reverse biased. This can be showed by graph between voltage and current. OR Position of first minimum in diffraction pattern Dλ y= a Dλ 1 × 500 × 10 −9 So, slit width a = = = 2 × 10 −4 m − 3 y 2.5 × 10 10. (a) Microwaves are suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation. 155 Practice Paper - 3 These waves are produced by special vacuum tubes, namely klystrons, magnetrons and Gunn diodes. (b) Infra-red waves are used to treat muscular pain. These waves are produced by hot bodies and molecules. 11. The diode acts as half wave rectifier, it offers low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse biased. OR We know that, energy of incident photon hc E= λ l = 6000 Å = 600 nm (given) 1242 eVnm E= = 2.25 eV 550 nm or v = –ve m = v / u, As 1 1 < or | v | > | u | |v | |u| So m > 1 and hence image formed is enlarged. (b) For concave lens : f is –ve and u is –ve For u < 0 (object is on left) | f | + | u | 1 1 1 1 1 = + =− + =− v f u | f | | u | | f |⋅| u | or v = –ve As v is –ve, so image lies on the left of lens and is virtual in nature. v 1 1 m = , As > or | v | < | u | u |v | |u | So m < 1, and hence image formed is diminished. OR L M D2 will detect these radiations because energy of incident radiation is greater than the band gap. 12. Nuclear fusion is responsible for energy generation in the Sun. For fusion, temperature of 107 K is required, such a temperature is difficult to achieve. 13. (a) Two different lamps emit light waves which are not coherent, as they are not in same phase or not have stable phase difference. Due to this, no sustained interference pattern can be obtained on screen. φ (b) Intensity at a point, I = 4I0 cos2 2 2π Phase difference = × Path difference λ At path difference l, 2π × λ = 2π Phase difference, φ = λ 2π ∴ Intensity, K = 4I0 cos2 2 [Q Given I = K at path difference l] K = 4I0 ...(i) λ At path difference 3 φ′ = 2π λ 2π × = λ 3 3 K 2π Intensity, I ′ = 4I0 cos2 = (Using (i)) 6 4 14. (a) For convex lens : f is +ve and u is – ve. For 0 < |u| < f, 1 1 1 1 1 |u| − f = + = − = = − ve f |u| v f u f |u | O I I′ 15 cm 60 cm 15 cm 30 cm For the convex lens, u = –60 cm, f = +20 cm 1 1 1 − = gives v = +30 cm v u f For the convex mirror, u = +(30 – 15) cm = 15 cm, f = + 20 cm = 10 cm 2 1 1 1 + = gives v = +30 cm v u f Final image is formed at the distance of 30 cm from the convex mirror (or 45 cm from the convex lens) to the right of the convex mirror. The final image formed is a virtual. mv 2 1 = rn 4πε0 nh and mvrn = 2π From eqn. (i) and (ii) ε h2n2 ∴ rn = 0 2 πme Total energy 15. Q 1 1 En = mvn2 − 2 4πε0 e2 …(i) rn2 e2 1 = rn 8πε0 …(ii) e2 1 − rn 4πε0 e2 rn Visit https://telegram.me/booksforcbse for more books. CBSE Board Term-II Physics Class-12 156 A −Rhc 1 e2 1 me 4 = − 2 2 2 , En = 2 n 8πε0 rn 8ε0 h n me 4 where Rydberg constant R = 2 3 8ε0h c B En = − I I1 v 1 1 Energy emitted DE = Ei – Ef , ∆E = Rhc 2 − 2 n ni f But DE = hu 1 1 1 me 4 1 υ = Rc 2 − 2 or υ = − 8ε20h3 n2f ni2 n f ni When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state ni = 4 to nf = 3, 2, 1, the Paschen, Balmer and Lyman spectral series are found. OR (i) An electron undergoes transition from 2nd excited state to the first excited state is Balmer series and then to the ground state is Lyman series. (ii) The wavelength of the emitted radiations in the two cases. v1 u An object is placed at point O. The lens A produces an image at I1 which serves as a virtual object for lens B which produces final image at I. Given, the lenses are thin. The optical centres (P) of the lenses A and B coincide with each other. For lens A, we have 1 1 1 − = …(i) v1 u f1 1 1 1 For lens B, we have − = …(ii) v v1 f2 Adding equations (i) and (ii), 1 1 1 1 − = + …(iii) v u f1 f2 If two lenses are considered as equivalent to a single lens of focal length f, then 1 1 1 …(iv) − = v u f From equation (iii) and equation (iv), we can write 1 1 1 = + f f1 f2 OR Case I : u = –x, v = 80 – x, f = f For n2 → n1 DE = (–3.40 + 13.6) = 10.20 eV λ2 = P O x 80 – x 80 cm 6.626 × 10 −34 × 3 × 108 \ 10.2 × 1.6 × 10 −19 19.878 × 10 −7 = 1.218 × 10 −7 m = 1218 Å λ2 = 10.2 × 1.6 1 1 1 1 1 = − = + f v u 80 − x x ...(i) Case II : u = –(x + 20), v = 60 – x For n3 → n2 DE = (–1.5 + 3.4) = 1.9 eV 19.878 × 10 −7 = 6.538 × 10 −7 m = 6538 Å 1. 9 × 1. 6 λ 6538 = 5.36 The ratio 1 = λ 2 1218 16. Power of lens : It is the reciprocal of focal length of a lens. 1 P = (f is in metre) f Unit of power of lens : Dioptre λ1 = x + 20 60 – x 80 cm 1 1 1 = + f 60 − x x + 20 From (i) and (ii) 1 1 1 1 + = + ⇒ x = 30 cm 80 − x x 60 − x x + 20 1 1 1 = + ⇒ f = 18.75 cm \ f 80 − 30 30 ...(ii)