BIO210 Practice Multiple Choice Questions Exam 1 1) A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is a(n) ________. complex tissue organ system *organ complex cell 2) ________ is the most abundant chemical substance in the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight. oxygen protein *water hydrogen 3) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________. the lowest possible energy usage a relatively stable internal environment, within limits a static state with no deviation from preset points *a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances 4) Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes. Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures. Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a virtual space between the two. *Visceral pericardium covers the heart’s outer surface, and parietal pericardium lines the heart’s internal walls. Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid. 5) Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: 1. molecules 2. Atoms 3. Tissues 4. Cells 5. organs 1-2-3-4-5 *2-1-4-3-5 2-1-3-4-5 1-2-4-3-5 6) What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? frontal regional *sagittal transverse 7) The basic structural material of the body consists of ________. Carbohydrates Lipids. *Proteins. Nucleic acids. 8) The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________. regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules *sequence of the nucleotides three-dimensional structure of the double helix arrangement of the histones 9) A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________. *the release of energy the consumption of energy a synthesis forming a larger molecule 10) The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom? 2, 8, 8 2, 8 2 *2, 8, 1 11) Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? H2O NaCl NaOH *CH4 12) The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________. carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium *carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen 13) If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following? 37 protons and 37 neutrons 37 electrons *74 protons 37 protons and 37 electrons 74 neutrons 14) Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape? Carbon *Hydrogen Oxygen Amino acid 15) Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages? exocytosis *phagocytosis pinocytosis intracellular vesicular trafficking 16) In certain kinds of muscle cells, calcium ions are stored in ________. *the smooth ER the rough ER both smooth and roughER the cytoplasm 17) The RNA responsible for carrying amino acids to ribosomes for protein formation is_______. rRNA mRNA *tRNA ssRNA mtRNA 18) Which of the following describes the plasma membrane? a single-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus of the cell a double layer of protein enclosing the plasma *a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell a membrane composed of tiny shelves or cristae 19) Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells? stereocilia *microvilli primary cilia flagella 20) Which type of cell junction acts as anchors and distributes tension through a cellular sheet and reduces the chance of tearing when it is subjected to great mechanical stress? gap junctions *desmosomes connexons tight junctions 21) If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution with a solute impermeable to the cell membrane, what could happen? The cells will swell and ultimately burst. *The cells will lose water and shrink. The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition. The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent. 22) Which of the following is a function of a plasma membrane protein? circulating antibody *molecular transport through the membrane forms a lipid bilayer oxygen transport 23) If the nucleotide or base sequence of the DNA strand used as a template for messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then what would be the sequence of bases in the corresponding mRNA? TGCAA ACGTT *UGCAA GUACC 24) Passive membrane transport processes include ________. *movement of a substance down its concentration gradient movement of water from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low concentration consumption of ATP the use of transport proteins when moving substances from areas of low to high concentration 25) Mitochondria ________. are always the same shape are single-membrane structures involved in the breakdown of ATP *contain some of the DNA and RNA code necessary for their own function synthesize proteins for use outside the cell 26) Which of the following statements is most correct regarding the intracellular chemical signals known as "second messengers"? Second messengers act through receptors called K-proteins. Second messengers usually inactivate protein kinase enzymes. *Cyclic AMP and calcium may be second messengers. Second messengers usually act to remove nitric oxide (NO) from the cell. 27) The functions of centrioles include ________. * organizing the mitotic spindle in cell division providing a whiplike beating motion to move substances along cell surfaces serving as the site for ribosomal RNA synthesis producing ATP 28) A gene can best be defined as ________. a three-base triplet that specifies a particular amino acid noncoding segments of DNA up to 100,000 nucleotides long *a segment of DNA that carries the instructions for one polypeptide chain an RNA messenger that codes for a particular polypeptide 29) Which of the following is true regarding the generation of resting membrane potential (RMP)? *When the Na/K pump is activated 2 K+ ions are pumped into the cell for every 3 Na+ ions pumped out. Both K+ and Na+ can “leak” through the cell membrane due to diffusion. Maintenance of the RMP is exclusively based on ion diffusion across the membrane. In the polarized state, K+ and Na+ concentrations are in static equilibrium. 30) Which of the following is a principle of the Fluid Mosaic Model of cell membrane structure? The lipid bilayer is solid at room temperature, thereby protecting the cell. Phosholipids are composed of a polar head and a non-polar tail of 3 or more fatty acid chains. All proteins associated with the cell membrane are contained in the fluid layer on the outside of the cell. *Phospholipids form the bilayer that presents a hydrophobic barrier impermeable to H2O-soluble molecules. 31) In the maintenance of the cell resting membrane potential _______________. Cells are more permeable to Na+ compared to K+. The steady state involves only passive diffusion processes. *ATP must be expended to maintain high intracellular K+ vs. high extracellular Na+ concentrations. The inside of the cell is generally more positive in terms of electrical charge vs the outside of the cell. 32) DNA replication that occurs before mitosis and cytokinesis occurs _______________. during prophase after the G2 checkpoint *in S phase of interphase spontaneously as mitosis proceeds only sporadically during cell division processes 33) Within the majority of cells in the body, DNA is found _____________. in the endomembrane system in peroxisomes *in the nucleus and mitochondria in the nucleus only 34) Which of these cells are labile cells, that is, continue to divide throughout their entire lifespan? gametes neurons cardiac muscle cells skeletal muscle cells *stratum basale cells within the epidermis 35) Cells with the following characteristics: cylindrical in shape, a single nucleus, are often branched and are connected by intercalated disk, would only be found in which tissue? bone cardiac muscle spinal nerves smooth muscle *skeletal muscle Exam 2 1) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium ________. * lines most of the respiratory tract aids in digestion possesses no goblet cells is not an epithelial classification composes nearly all of the skin 2) The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. elastic *collagen reticular muscle keratin 3) Arteries, veins, and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ layer is intact and healthy. *endothelium mesothelium transitional epithelium simple cuboidal epithelium stratified squamous epithelium 4) The first step in all tissue repair involves ________. replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells proliferation of fibrous connective tissue *inflammation formation of scar tissue bone remodeling 5) What are the three main components of connective tissue in their respective order of composition? *ground substance, fibers, and cells alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts vesicles, vacuoles and inclusions 6) Epithelial cells that stretch from a cuboidal shape/columnar shape to a squamous shape are classified as? stratified squamous epithelium simple cuboidal epithelium simple columnar epithelium *transitional epithelium stratified columnar epithelium 7) Connective tissue cells that produce extracellular matrix are called _______________. *blasts cytes clasts bone lining cells stem cells 8) A type of connective tissue with collagen fibers, proteoglycans and chondrocytes is ____________. adipose tissue blood *cartilage dense irregular connective tissue connective tissue does not have chondrocytes 9) Cells with the following characteristics: cylindrical in shape, a single nucleus, are often branched and are connected by intercalated disk, would only be found in which tissue? bone *cardiac muscle spinal nerves smooth muscle skeletal muscle 10) A tissue with matrix composed almost entirely of collagen fibers, that can be oriented all in one direction or many different directions, and are able to withstand strong pulling forces in the direction of fiber orientation are best described as which tissue? hyaline cartilage loose connective tissue *dense regular or irregular connective tissue bone there is no tissue like that described composing any tissue in the body 11) Inflammation of the serous membranes associated with abdominopelvic cavity is termed _______. *peritonitis pericarditis periodontal disease pleurisy atrophic rhinitis 12) Which of the following cell to cell connections attaches epithelial cells to the basement membrane? gap junctions hemidesmosomes *desmosomes tight junctions Sharpey’s fibers 13) Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells? stereocilia *microvilli primary cilia flagella caniculi 14) What tissue has lacunae, osteocytes, a high amount of calcium and phosphate salts, nerves and blood vessels? cartilage tissue fibrocartilaginous tissue * osseous tissue areolar tissue muscular tissue 15) Changes in the color of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease? *the skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance. black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause. the skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint. it is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin. bright red, flushed appearing skin in blotches 16) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are classified into two distinct types: _____________. sebaceous and merocrine mammary and ceruminous *eccrine and apocrine holocrine and mammary endocrine and paracrine 17) The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. primarily uric acid *99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins metabolic wastes and toxins oils and waxes 18) Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, are found in which locations in the human body? in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis beneath the flexure lines in the body *in the axillary and anogenital area in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet within the walls of blood vessels 19) How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss? by measuring urinary output and fluid intake by observing the tissues that are usually moist through blood analysis *by using the "Rule of Nines" ABCDE method 20) What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn? infection *catastrophic fluid loss unbearable pain loss of immune function scarring due to fibrosis 21) The outer covering of mature bone, made from fibrous connective tissue, is called the ________________. endosteum *periosteum perichondrium epimysium no such layer 22) Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? calcitonin thyroxine *parathyroid hormone estrogen testosterone 23) Wolff's law states that ________. vertical growth of bones is dependent on age *the thickness and shape of a bone is dependent on stresses placed upon it the function of bone is dependent on shape the diameter of a bone is dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts osteoblasts, like wolves, run in packs 24) Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves? * provide resilience, flexibility and increased strength accommodate muscle attachment improve cervical center of gravity accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle support the weight of the lower limbs 25) Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. no transverse processes *costal facets transverse foramina no intervertebral discs a dens 26) What is the major function of the axial skeleton? give the body resilience provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement *provide central support for the body and protect vital organs movement of the digits circumduction of the lower limbs 27) The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones? *radius and ulna humerus and clavicle scapula and clavicle humerus and radius humerus and ulna 28) The "true wrist" or carpus consists of ________. *a group of eight short bones united by ligaments the phalanges the styloid processes of the radius and ulna the metacarpals the os coxae 29) Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek? *zygomatic bone temporal bone sphenoid bone palatine bone occipital bone 30) Which of the following is true about paranasal sinuses? they open into the oral cavity. *they enhance the resonance of the voice and lighten the skull. they contain passages acting as one-way valves. they are found in maxillary, palatine, and lacrimal bones. they allow intervertebral articulation 31) Which bone is a long bone and contains areas of diaphysis and epiphysis areas, a tuberosity near its middle, and is proportionally more compact than spongy bone? parietal bone talus *humerus cervical vertebra patella 32) The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones? *humerus-ulna humerus-radius femur-tibia femur-fibula atlas – occipital bone 33) The pelvic girdle, or os coxae, does not include the ________. *femur ilium ischium pubis 34) Which of the following bones is not weight bearing? femur tibia *fibula talus calcaneus 35) Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum? *perpendicular plate crista galli cribriform plate orbital plate sella turchica 36) Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant. squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum. basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant. *melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing. all skin carcinomas arise from the same specific cell layer or type 37) The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________ race genetics environmental pollutants *overexposure to UV radiation diet and nutrition 38) A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? granulosum *basale lucidum spinosum corneum 39) Which of the following cutaneous receptors are specialized for touch or light pressure? *Meissner's corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles free nerve endings Krause's end bulbs arrector pili 40) Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for pain? Pacinian corpuscle tactile corpuscle Ruffini body *free nerve ending baroreceptors 41) Vernix caseosa is a ________. substance contributing to acne during adolescence *whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands to protect fetal skin coat of fine, downy hair on the heads of balding men a sudoriferous secretion on the skin of newborns a parasitic infection of the skin 42) The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, wellbeing, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? stratum corneum stratum granulosum *stratum basale stratum lucidum stratum spinosum 43) The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function? cells found in the stratum spinosum *macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile tactile cells fibrocytes 44) Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? *lamellar granules in stratum granulosum cells, and a thick stratum corneum composed of dead keratinized cells size and shape of cells in the stratum spinosum, as well as thick bundles of intermediate filaments. dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it. fat associated with skin prevents water loss. 45) The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes *fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells astrocytes and oligodendrocytes 46) Which layer of the dermis constitutes 80% of its thickness and is responsible for tension lines in skin? *reticular layer subcutaneous layer hypodermal layer papillary layer 47) Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn? an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles. *appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis. dermal blood vessels rupture and blood hemorrhages, causing permanent "black-and-blue marks." stretching causes tension lines to disappear. darkening of the skin 48) What makes up the axial skeleton? the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis arms, legs, hands, and feet *the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage shoulder and pelvic girdles the entire skeleton 49) Calcium is vital to bone health, most importantly, because it ….. *is a component of the calcium phosphate salts of hydroxyapatite neutralizes bone acidity is necessary for muscle contraction binds to Vitamin D is necessary for neurotransmitter release 50) The recommended daily intakes (RDI) of calcium for adult men and women (19-64, premenopausal) are ….. *800 and 1000 mg respectively 8 and 10 mg respectively 80 and 100 mg respectively 8000 and 10,000 mg respectively there are no RDI’s for calcium 51) Exercise has many benefits to our bodies. Which type has the greatest benefit at increasing bone density? golf using a golf cart swimming and water aerobics walking, hiking or running rowing machine video games 52) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. *is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone is composed of three bones joined together is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves is the only irregular bone found in the neck is composed of a special kind of bone matrix called hyoid 53) What is the most important stimulant of epiphyseal plate activity and thereby, long bone growth, during infancy and childhood? parathyroid hormone calcium *growth hormone thyroid hormone insulin 54) The resilience of bone is primarily due to which of the following? the high content of mineral salts in the bone the presence of osteoblasts and osteoclast in the bone *sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules, oriented in various directions in compact bone bone remodeling bone resortion Haversian canals 55) The functional unit of compact bone is the _________. *osteon neuron sarcomere nephron alveolus Exam 3 1) During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. a strong base stearic acid hydrochloric acid *lactic acid carbon dioxide 2) In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________. *changes in length and moves the "load" does not change in length but increases tension never converts pyruvate to lactate rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP undergoes a contracture 3) The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. *actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments electricity lighting up the filaments 4) What is the primary function, and thereby the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? the design of the fibers the ability to respond to nervous stimulation the diversity of activity of muscle tissue *the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy absorption and assimilation of nutrients 5) Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers? a sprint by an Olympic runner *long distance running playing baseball or basketball gym climbing high intensity workout such as Insanity 6) If a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________. cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin *no muscle tension could be generated maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract it would undergo fused tetany 7) Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. attach tendons. produce red blood cells (hematopoiesis) *provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints form the synovial membrane permit bone on bone contact 8) Connective tissue sacs, lined with synovial membranes, that cushion where friction develops, are called _______. menisci. *bursae ligaments tendons Articular cartilages 9) In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? immovable joints are called amphiarthroses *all synovial joints are freely movable synarthrotic joints are slightly movable in cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present bone to bone connections are called aponeuroses 10) Menisci are _________________? cavities lined with cartilage small sacs containing synovial fluid *semilunar cartilage pads tendon sheaths intervertebral discs 11) Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. common due to the weight bearing the hip endures *rare because of the ligament reinforcement, muscle placement and reinforcement of the acetabulum common in all people who are overweight rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint neither rare or common 12) Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result? oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament suprapatellar arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate *medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate patellar 13) Which of the following statements best describes angular movements? they allow movement only in one plane they allow movement in several plane they occur only between bones with flat articular processes *they change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones all movements at synovial joints are angular movements 14) Most skeletal muscles contain ________. muscle fibers of the same type *a mixture of fiber types a predominance of slow oxidative fibers a predominance of fast oxidative fibers ½ and ½ of slow and fast oxidative fibers 15) Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances? *Ca2+ and ATP Ca2+ only ATP only ATP and glucose Na+, K+ and Cl16) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________. forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin forming a chemical compound with actin inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments *storing energy in the form of a phosphate group, that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP preventing muscle breakdown 17) What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell? a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma *the arrangement of myofilaments in sarcomeres the sarcoplasmic reticulum the T tubules muscle fiber arrangement 18) The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________. hemoglobin ATP *myoglobin immunoglobin titin 19) The contractile functional units of skeletal muscles are ________. microtubules mitochondria T tubules ‘ Myofibrils *sarcomeres 20) What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction? form hydroxyapatite crystals reestablish glycogen stores *bind to regulatory sites on troponin to allow tropomyosin to move and reveal actin binding sites increase levels of myoglobin stimulate ATP activity in myosin heads 21) Tendon sheaths ________. *act as friction-reducing structures are lined with dense irregular connective tissue are extensions of periosteum help anchor the tendon to the muscle have little or no purpose 22) Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors? *a first-class lever a second-class lever a third-class lever a fourth-class lever no answer is correct 23) What is the major factor controlling how levers work? the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever the weight of the load the direction the load is being moved *the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum 24) Which of the following is not a muscle involved in the breathing process? diaphragm external intercostal internal intercostal *latissimus dorsi 25) What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? the length the shape the number of neurons innervating it *the total number of muscle cells or fiber available for contraction fiber type 26) What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? a synergist *an agonist an antagonist a fixator a transformer 27) When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps is part of a muscle's name, what does it indicate? *the muscle has 2, 3, or 4 origins, respectively the muscle is able to change direction 2, 3, or 4X’s faster than other muscles, respectively the muscle has 2, 3, or 4 functions, respectively the muscle has 2, 3, or 4 insertions, respectively the muscle in found in 4 separate and distinct places in the body 28) The most powerful muscle, that is, the one that can generate the most contractile force in the body is the ________. *quadriceps femoris rectus abdominis gastrocnemius gluteus maximus pronator teres 30) The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean? the muscle flexes and rotates a region the muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint *the muscle elevates or lifts up the muscle functions as a synergist the muscle allows something to float effortlessly 31) The supraspinatus is located on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally *to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major to elevate the spine 32) Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? the medial pterygoid the zygomaticus major *the frontal belly of the epicranius the temporalis the scalenes 33) Which of the following muscles inserts into the calcaneal tendon? semitendinosus sartorius tibialis anterior *gastrocnemius extensor digitorum longus 34) If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________. *load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum lever system is useless effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum load is near the fulcrum and the effort is far from the fulcrum lever works like a seesaw 35) A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a (n) ________. *antagonist fixator synergist agonist protagonist 36) What muscle type aids an agonist by causing a like movement or stabilizing a joint upon which an agonist acts? an antagonist a prime mover *a synergist an agonist protagonist 37) Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings? *gracilis semitendinosus semimembranosus biceps femoris no answer is correct 38) Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis. serratus anterior zygomaticus platysma *sternocleidomastoid coracobrachialis 39) Which general statement concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true? muscles produce movement by pulling on bones bones serve as levers. *during contraction, the two articulating bones move exactly the same movements produced may be of graded intensity the insertion moves towards the origin 40) Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles? muscle location *the type of skeletal muscle fibers the type of action they cause muscle shape muscle fascicle arrangement 41) Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? *it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips it pulls the lower lip down and back it draws the eyebrows together it closes the eye it cause pupillary dilation 42) What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? speed levers *power levers functional levers dysfunctional levers 43) Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? the triceps brachii anconeus *the brachioradialis the flexor digitorum profundus iliopsoas 44) Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants? vastus intermedius vastus medialis rectus femoris *vastus lateralis sartorius 45) Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? * hamstring muscles gluteal muscles brachioradialis soleus rotator cuff muscles 46) Each muscle cell is a _________________ *muscle fiber myofibril myofilament entire muscle sarcomere 47) ________ are invaginations of the sarcolemma that facilitate the conduct of action potentials in muscle fiber. cisternae Z discs Synapses *T-tubules sarcoplasmic reticulum 48) A motor unit is made up of _______________. *a motor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers a sensory neuron and smooth muscle fibers cardiac muscle fibers only ganglia and neuroglia a sensory and motor neuron 49) The type of muscle found in the irises of the eyes and in the blood vessels is called _______________. visceral smooth muscle *multiunit smooth muscle cardiac muscle skeletal muscle 50) When an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction, the most immediate result is __________. a rise in intracellular Ca2+ levels in the muscle fiber *the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron the depolarization of the sarcolemma the formation of actin-myosin cross bridges rigor mortis 51) Continued mild or partial contraction of a muscle that keeps it healthy and ready to respond is known as muscle __________. tetanus summation twitch *tone flaccid paralysis 52) The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is known as the __________. *muscle action potential motor end plate potential resting membrane potential generator potential receptor potential 53) The refractory period in which the muscle will NOT contract if stimulated occurs during __________ of the muscle cell. hyperpolarization depolarization *repolarization polarization excitation-coupling 54) The type of muscle contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension although the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens is called __________. *isometric isotonic isolateral ipsilateral concentric 55) An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the: *A Band I Band Z Line H Band M Line Exam 4 1. Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A) sensory (afferent) division B) somatic nervous system C) sympathetic division D) *parasympathetic division E) intrinsic 2. The concentration of ions in the immediate chemical environment surrounding the neurons in the CNS must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this? A) satellite cells B) *astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes E) microglial cells 3. Bacteria in the blood can be prevented entry to the fluids surrounding the brain. Which cells are most responsible for preventing bacteria from entering the fluids of the brain by helping to form the blood/brain barrier? A) satellite cells B) *astrocytes C) Schwann cells D) oligodendrocytes E) ependymal cells 4. Which brain nucleus is the body's "biological clock"? A) dorsomedial nucleus B) *suprachiasmatic nucleus C) lentiform nucleus D) subthalamic nucleus E) substantia nigra 5. Nuclei of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), and VII (facial) are found in the ________. A) midbrain B) *medulla C) pons D) cerebrum E) dorsal horn of spinal cord 6. The brain stem consists of the ________. A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla B) *midbrain, medulla, and pons C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain D) midbrain only E) 1ST part of spinal cord 7. What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain? A) *ependymal cells B) neurons C) epithelial cells D) astrocytes E) dendritic cells 8. Vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________. A) pons B) *medulla oblongata C) midbrain D) cerebrum E) pineal gland 9. Cell bodies of peripheral sensory neurons are located in ________. A) *the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord C) the thalamus D) sympathetic ganglia E) subcortical nuclei 10. The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________. A) myelinated nerve fibers only B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only C) cell bodies D) adipose tissue E) *mainly myelinated, but some unmyelinated nerve fibers 11. An individual is accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in _______. A) *paraplegia B) hemiplegia C) quadriplegia D) spinal shock only E) poliomyelitis 12. Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________. A) *pyramidal and corticospinal B) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal C) segmental and nigrostriatal D) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine E) optic and olfactory 13. An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________. A) calcarine cortex B) primary visual cortex C) *visual association area D) lateral geniculate body E) visceral sensory area 14. The Frontal eye field and Wernicke’s area ___________. A) *control voluntary movements of the eyes, and reading, speech and language, respectively. B) are usually found only in the right hemisphere C) serve in the recognition of complex objects and control of voluntary movements of the eyes, respectively D) are both considered motor speech areas E) associate olfactory sensory stimuli with past experiences for recognition and discrimination. 15. Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality? A) *prefrontal cortex (anterior association area) B) posterior association area C) limbic association area D) primary motor cortex E) combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex 16. The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________. A) *metabolic waste such as urea B) nutrients such as glucose C) alcohol D) anesthetics E) Blood gases 17. The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________. A) thalamus B) *reticular formation C) pyramids D) limbic system E) arbor vitae 18. Which of the following would you NOT find in normal cerebrospinal fluid? A) glucose B) *red blood cells C) potassium D) small proteins E) myoglobin 19. REM sleep is associated with ________. A) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure B) decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex C) *temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for ocular muscles and diaphragm D) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex E) increased heart rate, respiration rate and skeletal muscle movement 20. Important nuclei of the indirect (multineuronal) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________. A) red nuclei B) *vestibular nuclei C) reticular nuclei D) superior colliculi E) Broca’s area 21. The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________. A) olfactory cortex B) gustatory cortex C) vestibular cortex D) *visceral sensory area E) frontal eye field 22. Which statement about coma is true? A) *coma may be caused by widespread cerebral or brain stem trauma. B) during coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state C) coma is neurologically identical to syncope D) coma is a form of deep sleep E) no answer is true 23. Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________. A) Huntington's disease B) *Parkinson's disease C) cerebellar disease D) Alzheimer's disease E) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis 24. Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate? A) during seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked B) absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and are often severely disabling C) *epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection and tumor D) the aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness E) epilepsy is always caused by a pathogenic agent 25. 2nd -order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________. A) spinal cord B) medulla C) *thalamus D) somatosensory cortex E) cerebellum 26. Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________. A) spinal cord B) *premotor cortex C) primary motor cortex D) rubrospinal tracts E) Wernicke’s area 27. The large structure composed of commissural fibers that connects the right and left sides of the brain is called the ________. A) corona radiate B) *corpus callosum C) internal capsule D) longitudinal fissure E) caudate nucleus 28. Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the _______ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease. A) *substantia nigra B) red nucleus C) internal capsule D) reticular formation E) putamen 29. If someone spills very hot coffee (200°F) on their skin, they will likely perceive much pain. Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation? A) mechanoreceptors B) thermoreceptors C) *nociceptors D) chemoreceptors E) arrector pili 30. A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex? A) free nerve ending B) lamellae corpuscle C) *tendon organ D) bulbous corpuscle E) Organ of Corti receptors 31. Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus' strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves? A) *action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases B) an action potential will increase in strength as stimulus's strength increases C) more than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus D) action potentials and graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases E) an action potential will increase in amplitude 32. A patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. This patient may have damage to which of the following? A) hypoglossal nerve (XII) B) vagus nerve (X) C) facial nerve (VIII) D) *olfactory nerve (I) E) sciatic nerve 33. A patient has lost vision on the left side of both eyes. The patient has likely suffered damage to ________. A) the optic nerves B) *the right optic tract C) the retinas of the eyes D) the optic chiasma E) frontal eye field 34. An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patents pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following? A) patient has suffered brain damage B) *patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III) C) patient has lost function of the optic nerve (II) D) patient has function of the trochlear nerve (IV) E) patient is in a coma 35. A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right, while watching the patient to observe if he/she maintains balance. Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested? A) facial B) abducens (VI) C) *vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) D) oculomotor nerve (III) E) trochlear nerve (IV) 36. Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________. A) *they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury B) they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery C) they show the routes of motor nerves D) they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus 37. A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm. However, he still has normal sensory function in the arm. Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________. A) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra B) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra C) *the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra D) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra 38. Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order) ________. A) *roots, trunks, divisions, and cords B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots E) no answer is true 39. After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________. A) Wallerian cells B) *Schwann cells C) dendrites D) Golgi organs E) oligodendrites 40. In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________. A) also flex B) *extend C) abduct D) adduct E) undergo flaccid paralysis 41. Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc – start to finish? A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor B) *receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector E) receptor – effector, integration center, afferent neuron, efferent neuron 42. The effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. Which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so? A) acetylcholine has many different forms. B) *different post synaptic neurons will have different receptors connected to different cellular mechanisms. C) postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times. D) acetylcholine has a dose effect: larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit. E) it depends on whether it is released at the axon terminal or dendritic ends 43. When a sensory neuron is excited by a form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) _______. A) postsynaptic potential B) excitatory potential C) action potential D) *generator potential E) presynaptic potential 44. The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________. A) *parasympathetic division B) sympathetic division C) somatic division D) peripheral division E) central nervous system 45. Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. A) medulla B) cerebellum C) *hypothalamus D) thalamus E) pineal body 46. Sympathetic responses are often widespread throughout the body because ________. A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow B) preganglionic fibers are short C) preganglionic fibers are long D) sympathetic neurons are unmyelinated E) *NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response 47. The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision. A) optic (II) B) *oculomotor (III) C) trochlear (IV) D) abducens (VI) E) vestibulocochlear 48. Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials? A) *voltage-gated channels for Na and then K B) mechanically gated channel C) leakage channel D) ligand-gated channel E) sodium potassium pump (ATP-ase) 49. Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroin & methadone? A) acetylcholine B) *endorphin C) serotonin D) nitric oxide E) glutamate
