TOPIC 5 – ESTIMATING DURATION
EASY QUESTIONS
The transit time consist of
A. Time taken by raw material from machine to machine
B. Time consumed in moving the work between various departments
C. Time taken by a worker to machine a component
D. None of the above
ANSWER:D
Software project management comprises of a number of activities, which contains.
A. Project planning
B. Scope management
C. Project estimation
D. All mentioned above
ANSWER:D
Critical path method is used in which of the following processes:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Durations
ANSWER:C
A Gantt chart indicates:
A. elapsed time of different activities on project.
B. activities occurring in parallel.
C. the sequence of activities.
D. overall elapsed time on project.
ANSWER:C
A document prepared for the customer during project initiation and planning that describes
what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to
complete the project is the:
A. Information Systems Plan
B. Statement of Work
C. Mission Statement
D. Baseline Project Plan
ANSWER:B
A software project manager is a person who undertakes the responsibility of carrying out the
software project.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A
Gantt chart are used for ________
A. forecasting sales
B. production schedule
C. scheduling and routing
D. linear programming
ANSWER:B
Gantt chart provides information about the
A. material handling
B. proper utilisation of manpower
C. production schedule
D. efficient working of machine
ANSWER:C
Basic tool in work study is
A. graph paper
B process chart
C. planning chart
D. stop watch
ANSWER:D
Key to chart is provided in
A. Man machine chart
B. The load chart
C. The progress chart
D. Gantt chart
ANSWER:D
Which of the following elements is not normally common in projects?
A. An objective
B. Uncertainty
C. No defined end point
D. Uniqueness
ANSWER:C
The software scope identifies what the product will do and what it will not do, what the end product
will contain and what it will not contain.
A. Yes
B. No
ANSWER:A
Process layout is employed for_______
A. batch production
B. continuous type of product
C. effective utilisation of machines
D. all of the above
ANSWER:A
A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
ANSWER:A
In PDM, which of the following relationships is rarely used:
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
ANSWER:B
Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:
A. Project Manager who created the WBS
B. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
C. Project Officer
D. Project Stakeholder
ANSWER:B
Which of the following may generate a milestone list:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
ANSWER:A
Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
ANSWER:A
INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS
Dispatching authorizes the start of production operations by
I. Release of material and components from stores to first process
ii. Release of material from process to process
iii. Issue of drawings instruction sheets
Which of the following is (are) true?
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. i & ii
D. i , ii & iii
ANSWER:D
A project can be considered to have failed if it:
A. does not meet the users' requirements.
B. does not meet the business requirements.
C. overran significantly on estimated delivery date.
D. was significantly over budget.
ANSWER:B
The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control is
A. Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up
B. Scheduling-Routing- Dispatching-Follow up
C. Dispatching-Routing-Scheduling- Follow up
D. Routing-Scheduling-Follow up-Dispatching
ANSWER:C
Loading may be defined as
A. Sending the raw material to the machine
B. Sending the finished material to the store
C. Assign the work to the facilities
D. Uploading a software in machine control panel
ANSWER:C
A Project Manager in-charge of a Software Development projects is creating a project schedule
network diagram for the code development component of the project. This is an example of:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Activity-On-Node [AON]
ANSWER:C
What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study?
A. operation
B. inspection
C. transport
D. delay / temporary storage
ANSWER:A
The following BEST describes a subnetwork:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Activity-On-Node [AON]
ANSWER:C
A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:
A. ADM
B. PDM
C. A dependency with lag
D. A dependency with lead
ANSWER:D
Work study is concerned with_____
A. improving present method and finding standard tools
B. motivation of workers
C. improving production capabilities
D. all of the above
ANSWER:A
Activity Resource Requirements is an input to which of the following processes:
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Control Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
ANSWER:A
What-if scenario analysis is done as a part of which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
ANSWER:C
Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Define Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
ANSWER:D
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is BEST done during which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Duration
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is not a main element of the project management process?
A. Schedule.
B. Plan.
C. Estimation.
D. Systems design.
ANSWER:C
ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Which of the following is true for ‘Routing’?
A. It is flow of work in the plant
B. Route sheets include list of machine tools that are to be followed
C. It depends upon material handling facilities
D. All of the above
ANSWER:D
Procurement cycle time is time consumed for
A. Receiving of raw material
B. Inspection of various raw materials
C. Inspection of purchased components parts
D. All of the above
ANSWER:D
The bill of material does not consists of
A. Part number
B. Specifications of part
C. Name of the part
D. Price of the part
ANSWER:D
The three phases involved in the management of large projects are
A. scheduling, operating, evaluating.
B. scheduling, designing, operating.
C. planning, scheduling, evaluating.
D. planning, scheduling, controlling.
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is not an activity attribute:
A. Person responsible for the activity
B. Location where to perform the activity
C. Time when to perform the activity
D. Leads and Lags
ANSWER:C
Which of the following functions of the project manager is the most difficult and important
function?
A. planning
B. organizing
C. directing
D. controlling
ANSWER:D
Which is the first stage in the project management model?
A. Project control
B. Project planning
C. Project definition
D. Understanding the project environment
ANSWER:D
State if the following are true or false
For scheduling a project, it is necessary to.
1) Break down the project tasks into smaller, manageable form
2) Find out various tasks and correlate them
3) Estimate time frame required for each task
4) Divide time into work-units
A. Yes
B. No
ANSWER:A
A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would not normally contain:
A. Control mechanisms
B. The purpose
C. Success criteria
D. Desired end result
ANSWER:A
Software project management is the process of managing all activities that are involved in software
development, they are.
A. Time
B. Cost
C. Quality management
D. All mentioned above
ANSWER:D
TOPIC 6 – PROJECT NETWORK DIAGRAM
EASY QUESTIONS
Centralized and decentralized are the types of
A. Routing
B. Dispatching
C. Scheduling
D. Follow up
ANSWER:B
Which of the following are claimed as advantages of the AON method over the AOA method of
network diagram notation?
A. Most computer software uses the AON approach.
B. AON do not need dummy activities to maintain the relationship logic.
C. AON diagrams have a clearer notation than AOA.
D. The first, second and third answers.
ANSWER:C
With respect to PERT and CPM, slack
A. is a task or subproject that must be completed.
B. is the latest time an activity can be started without delaying the entire project.
C. is the amount of time a task may be delayed without changing the overall project completion
time.
D. marks the start or completion of a task.
ANSWER:C
Which of the following is especially useful for monitoring project progress against plan?
A. Network diagrams.
B. Capacity loading graphs.
C. Gantt charts.
D. Flow diagrams.
ANSWER:C
Which of the following is not a reason to reduce project completion time?
A. Eliminate project critical path.
B. Release resources for other projects.
C. Reduce new product development time to market.
D. Gain incentives for early completion.
ANSWER:A
Which of the following are benefits of the network analysis approach?
A. Allows progress to be monitored against plan.
B. Derive error free forecasts.
C. Avoid need to use structured approach.
D. Eliminate need for management judgement.
ANSWER:A
A dummy activity is required when
A. two or more activities have the same ending events.
B. the network contains two or more activities that have identical starting and ending events.
C. two or more activities have different ending events.
D. two or more activities have the same starting events
ANSWER:B
Gantt chart is mostly used for
A. Routing
B. Scheduling
C. Follow up
D. Inspection and quality control
ANSWER:B
Which of the following chart is drawn Machine vs time?
A. Man machine chart
B. The load chart
C. The progress chart
D. Curve chart
ANSWER:B
An event is indicated on the network by
A. a straight line
B. a number enclosed in a circle or a square
C. a straight line with circles at the ends
D. an arrow
ANSWER:B
A critical path network diagram does not:
A. Calculate earned-value
B. Calculate the duration of the whole project
C. Identify the particularly important activities
D. Help determine the amount of float
ANSWER:A
AON refers to:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Mandatory Dependencies
ANSWER:A
An activity has an optimistic time of 15 days, a most likely time of 18 days, and a pessimistic time of
27 days. What is its expected time?
A. 60 days
B. 20 days
C. 18 days
D. 19 days
ANSWER:D
Activities A and B are both 6 days long and the only immediate predecessors to activity C. Activity A
has ES=8 and LS=8 and activity B has ES=7 and LS=10. What is the ES of activity C?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 13
ANSWER:A
An activity has an optimistic time of 11 days, a most likely time of 15 days, and a pessimistic time of
23 days. What is its variance?
A. 16.33
B. 15.6
C. 2
D. 4
ANSWER:D
The time of an activity in a network can be approximated by which distribution?
A. Normal
B. Chi2
C. Beta
D. Exponential
ANSWER:C
The standard deviation of a path through a network is equal to the sum of the standard deviations
for each of the activities that make up that path.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
The time of activity in a project can be estimated to have a most likely completion time of 7 days, an
optimistic time of 6 days, and a pessimistic time of 9 days. Which of the following is true of the
Expected time and the variance for this activity
A. 0.25 days, 7.17 days
B. 7.33 days, 0.25 days
C. 7.17 days, 0.25 days
D. 3.67 days, 0.25 days
ANSWER:C
Master schedule is prepared for
A. Single product continuous production
B. Multi product batch production
C. Assembly product continuous production
D. Single product batch production
ANSWER:C
ABC analysis deals with _________
A. analysis of process chart
B. flow of material
C. ordering schedule of job
D. controlling inventory costs money
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is not generally considered a player in the software process?
A. customers
B. end-users
C. project managers
D. sales people
ANSWER:D
The early finish time for an activity equals:
A. The earliest possible time that the activity can begin.
B. The earliest start time plus the time needed to complete the activity.
C. The latest time an activity can end without delaying the project.
D. The earliest time an activity can start minus the activity time.
ANSWER:B
What is the expected duration of the path BCDEGH?
Activity
A. 17
B. 26
C. 25
D. 37.33
ANSWER:B
Predecessors
Optimistic Most Likely
Pessimistic
A
2
3
4
B
2
4
6
C
A, B
3
4
8
D
C
2
3
7
E
D
4
6
8
F
E
5
8
13
G
E
4
4
4
H
F, G
2
4
6
INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS
Dummy relationships or dummy activities can be used in which of the following Activity Sequencing
techniques:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Schedule Network Templates
ANSWER:B
When a network is crashed, every activity is reduced to its shortest possible time
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
A project's critical path is composed of activities A, B, and C. Activity A has a standard deviation of 2,
activity B has a standard deviation of 1, and activity C has a standard deviation of 2. What is the
standard deviation of the critical path?
A. 25
B. 9
C. 3
D. 5
ANSWER:C
What is the probability that a project with a mean completion time of 23.9 days and a variance of 6
days will be finished in 26 days?
A. 0.20
B. 0.37
C. 0.63
D. 0.80
ANSWER:D
The EF of an activity is the
A. LF-Activity time.
B. Max{EF of all immediate predecessors}.
C. Min{LS of all immediate following activities}.
D. ES + Activity time.
ANSWER:D
The ethical issue of divulging confidential information to some bidders to give them an unfair
advantage is known as
A. low balling.
B. bid rigging.
C. bribery.
D. expense account padding.
ANSWER:B
The early finish time equals:
A. the earliest possible time that the activity can begin.
B. the earliest start time plus the time needed to complete the activity.
C. the latest time an activity can end without delaying the project.
D. the earliest time an activity can start minus the activity time.
ANSWER:B
The critical path of a project can be characterized in the following way:
A. The slack times for each task in the project are zero.
B. The chain of activities (from start to finish) that has the largest sum of activity durations.
C. The early start date and early finish date are always the same for each activity on the critical path.
D. To reduce the project duration, you must reduce the slack time of a task on the critical path.
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is a technique for Sequence Activities:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Rolling Wave Planning
D. Mandatory Dependencies
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is NOT an input to the Sequence Activities process:
A. Project Scope Statement
B. Activity Attributes
C. Activity List
D. Change Requests
ANSWER:D
AOA refers to:
A. Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]
B. Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]
C. Fragment Network
D. Mandatory Dependencies
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is a limitation of PERT and CPM?
A. They are applicable to only a narrow variety of projects and industries.
B. They can be used only to monitor schedules.
C. The graphical nature of a network delays comprehension of the activity list's interrelationships.
D. There is inherent danger of too much emphasis being placed on the critical path.
ANSWER:D
Dummy activities
A. are found in both AOA and AON networks.
B. have a duration equal to the shortest non-dummy activity in the network.
C. cannot be on the critical path.
D. are used when two activities have identical starting and ending events.
ANSWER:D
In activity on arrow networks the only reason for using a dummy activity is to make the logic correct.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
Nodes (events) in a network diagram are numbered to satisfy the following:
A. They must be numbered in a strict sequence
B. They are for identification and can be numbered in whichever way you prefer.
C. The head node of an activity must be a greater number than the tail node of the activity
D. The head node of an activity can be a smaller number than the tail node of the activity
ANSWER:C
An objective statement should EXCLUDE which following parts:
A. A time frame
B. A measure
C. An action
D. PERT
ANSWER:D
The shortest time of a project is the time of the path with the longest duration.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A
For an activity duration is 5 days and the node at the start has an early start time of 4 days and a
latest start time of 5 days. The node at the end has an early start time of 10 days and a latest start
time of 11 days. The Total Float is:
A. 0 days
B. 1 day
C. 2 days
D. 5 days
ANSWER:C
ADVANCED QUESTIONS
COCOMO stands for
A. COnsumed COst MOdel
B. COnstructive COst MOdel
C. COmmon COntrol MOdel
D. COmposition COst Model
ANSWER:B
What is the critical path through the following network?
A. ABDEF
B. ABGHIF & ABDEF
C. ABCF
D. ABCEF
ANSWER:A
What would be the critical path if the duration of activity C increased to 10?
A. ABGHIF
B. ABCF
C. ABDEF
D. ABCEF
ANSWER:B
What is the critical path through the following network?
A. ABGHIF & ABDEF
B. ABCF
C. ABGHIF
D. ABCEF
ANSWER:B
What would be the critical path if the duration of activity C decreased to 6?
A. ABGHIF
B. ABDEF
C. ABCF
ANSWER:B
In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having
A. +ve slack
B. –ve slack
C. zero slack
D. critical activities
ANSWER:C
Which of the following are features of Belbin’s ‘resource investigator’ role?
A. Unorthodox, discerning, single-minded
B. Sober, unemotional and prudent
C. Extroverted, enthusiastic and communicative
D. Painstaking, orderly and conscientious
ANSWER:C
The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering
practitioner available.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the
A. closed paradigm
B. open paradigm
C. random paradigm
D. synchronous paradigm
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is a common multicriteria selection model?
A. Checklist
B. Net Present Value
C. Weighted criteria model
D. Both A and C are correct
ANSWER:D
PERT analysis is based on
A. optimistic time
B. pessimistic time
C. most likely time
D. all of the above
ANSWER:D
Pessimistic time is ________
A. the maximum time which an activity might require
B. the average time required for a job
C. the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished
D. the earliest finish
ANSWER:A
In PERT chart
A. all activities should be numbered
B. only important activities should be numbered
C. only critical activities are numbered
D. no activity is numbered
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is a major disadvantage of the Matrix method of project management?
A. A single project manager is held responsible for the successful completion of the project.
B. Team members must leave their functional "home" - jeopardizing their career path.
C. Communication between functional disciplines is discouraged.
D. Team members report to two bosses - creating a potential conflict.
ANSWER:D
In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?
A. Putnam model
B. COCOMO
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
ANSWER:B
To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development project is the
purpose of:
A. economic feasibility
B. technical feasibility
C. operational feasibility
D. schedule feasibility
ANSWER:A
Tangible benefits would include:
A. improved organizational planning
B. ability to investigate more alternatives
C. improved asset control utilization
D. lower transaction costs
ANSWER:D
Software project manager is engaged with software management activities. He is responsible for.
A. Project planning.
B. Monitoring the progress
C. Communication among stakeholders
D. All mentioned above
ANSWER:D
Critical path on PERT / CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having
A. maximum slack
B. minimum slack
C. average slack
D. no slack
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is a basic assumption of PERT?
A. No activity in the network must be repeated.
B. Activity completion times are known with certainty.
C. There is only one complete route from the start of a project to the end of a project.
D. Only critical path activities in the network must be performed.
ANSWER:A
PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as
A. the sum of the variances of all activities in the project.
B. the sum of the variances of all activities on the critical path.
C. the sum of the variances of all activities not on the critical path.
D. the variance of the final activity of the project.
ANSWER:B
The critical path of a network is the
A. path with the fewest activities.
B. longest time path through the network.
C. shortest time path through the network.
D. path with the most activities.
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is a direct responsibility of the project manager?
A. Calculating completion probabilities for all tasks in the project.
B. Drawing the network diagram.
C. Making sure that the people assigned to the project receive the motivation, direction, and
information needed to do their jobs.
D. Performing all of the activities in the project.
ANSWER:C
Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT / CPM chart
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. remain constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on various factors
ANSWER:C
What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?
A. A Gantt chart.
B. A critical path network.
C. A product flow diagram.
D. A Pareto chart.
ANSWER:A
Which statement best describes Project management?
A. Just like any other kind of management.
B. Done differently in the United States and Europe
C. A job that should only be undertaken by technical staff
D. The planning and controlling of resources for a specific time to achieve a pre- determined goal
ANSWER:D
TOPIC 7 - RESOURCE AVALIABILITY
EASY QUESTIONS
A resource histogram is a bar chart representing the total resources used per time unit, across all
resources that are used in the activities.
A. True
D. False
ANSWER:B
Resource Leveling is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
ANSWER:A
The textbook indicated that ________ is the major dimension of strategic management.
A. Responding to changes in the external market
B. Allocating scarce resources of the organization
C. Beating competition to the market
D. Both a and b are correct
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is not considered to be part of Project Resource
Management?
A. Working staff.
B. Materials.
C. Equipment.
D. Time and money.
ANSWER:D
Which of the following questions does the organization's mission statement answer?
A. What are our long-term strategies?
B. What are our long-term goals and objectives?
C. How do we operate in the existing environment?
D. What do we want to become?
ANSWER:D
Strategy formulation includes which of the following activities?
A. Determining alternatives
B. Creating profitability targets
C. Evaluating alternatives
D. Both a and c are correct
ANSWER:D
The assessment of the external and internal environments is called _______ analysis.
A. SWOT analysis
B. Competitive
C).Industry
D. Market
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is not one of the requirements for successful implementation of strategies
through projects?
A. Allocation of resources
B. Prioritizing of projects
C. Motivation of project contributors
D. All of these are requirements
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is not one of the commonly heard comments of project managers?
A. Where did this project come from?
B. Why are we doing this project?
C. How can all these projects be first priority?
D. Why is this project so strongly linked to the strategic plan?
ANSWER:C
Strategy considered to be under purview of senior management is
A. Old school thinking
B. A new school of management thought
C. Necessary in a company structure
D. Beneficial to the Project Manager
ANSWER:A
Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the
organization's strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except:
A. Focusing on low priority problems
B. Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself
C. Focusing on the immediate customer
D. All the above are likely mistakes
ANSWER:D
The intended outcome of strategy/projects integration is
A. Clear organization focus
B. Best use of scarce organization resources
C. Improved communication across projects and departments
D. A, B, and C are all correct
ANSWER:D
For network analysis, activities in a project must satisfy one of the following:
A. They use time and resources only
B. They use time, resources, and structure
C. They take time but are independent of the resources used
D. They can be done at any time.
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is not a main project objective?
A. Cost.
B. Quality.
C. Time.
D. Structure.
ANSWER:C
Which of the following could trigger a mid-stage assessment in a PRINCE project?
A. When it is required to start the next stage before the end-stage assessment.
B. Stage tolerance levels have been exceeded.
C. Stage progress check.
The first, second and third answers.
ANSWER:C
Which of the following is a main PRINCE project aim?
A. Stay within budget.
B. Meet specified quantity.
C. Deliver on schedule.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER:C
You have just been asked to oversee 100 people on a two-year project, to develop a new MRI
machine similar to a current product, which will have twice the effectiveness and cost less to
manufacture. You are uncertain about the time required to complete many of the activities. Which
project management technique should you use?
A. CPM with a single time estimate
B. MRP
C. CPM with three time estimates
D. GANTT
ANSWER:D
Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which Project Scheduling
technique:
A. Critical Path Method
B. Schedule Compression
C. What-if Analysis
D. Resource Leveling
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is NOT a basic function of a project manager?
A. controlling
B. programming
C. scheduling
D. directing
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is NOT a project management cause of failed projects?
A. shortcuts taken during the project
B. lack of or imprecise targets
C. inadequate systems analysis and design tools
D. schedule delays
ANSWER:C
A Project can be characterized as.
A. Every project may not have a unique and distinct goal.
B. Project is routine activity or day-to-day operations.
C. Project does not comes with a start time and end time.
D. None of the above
ANSWER:D
For critical path scheduling techniques to be most applicable, the jobs or tasks of a project must be:
A. well-defined.
B. independent.
C. ordered.
D. all of the above.
ANSWER:D
Which of the following factors are of concern in project management?
I. time
II. cost
III. resource availability
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II and III
ANSWER:D
INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS
Object inherits a class is known as.
A. Maintenance
B. Operations
C. Transitional
D. Development
ANSWER:B
Size of software product can be calculated using which of these methods.
A. Counting the lines of delivered code
B. Counting delivered function points
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
ANSWER:C
In project execution and monitoring, every project is divided into multiple phases in which all major
tasks are performed based on which phase of SDLC.
A. Milestones checklist
B. Status reports
C. Activity monitoring
D. None of the above
ANSWER:A
Some organizations require a preliminary financial analysis of the project before granting approval to
perform the detailed planning. Although such analyses are very rough because not enough
information is known about the project at this time, they will offer a tripwire for project-planning
approval, that is called___________.
A. Feasibility study
B. Financial analysis
C. Risk analysis
D. Break even study
ANSWER:B
ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is MOST likely to give rise to which of the following
dependencies:
A. Finish-to-Start dependency
B. Soft Logic
C. Mandatory dependency
D. External dependency
ANSWER:B
A Project Manager is preparing a Project Schedule network diagram. During the diagram
development, she removes a dependency between two tasks that was defined in an earlier stage.
After the network diagram is completed, she updates activity attributes for the two tasks. This is an
example of:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Lack of change control
ANSWER:D
Reserve Analysis involves:
A. Estimating by multiplying the quantity of work by productivity rate
B. Incorporating time buffers into the activity duration estimates
C. Developing project schedule with contingency reserves as a recognition of the schedule risk
D. Adding resource reserves to the activity resource estimates
ANSWER:B
Susie's department is implementing many projects. She finds herself starting and stopping work on
one task to go and work on another task, and then return to the work on the original task. Susie is
experiencing
A. Poor scheduling
B. Excess work burden
C. Flexible tasking
D. Multitasking
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is not true of multi-weighted scoring models?
A. Will include quantitative criteria
B. Will include qualitative criteria
C. Each criterion is assigned a weight
D. All of the above are true
ANSWER:D
Project selection criteria are typically classified as:
A. Financial and non-financial
B. Short-term and long-term
C. Strategic and tactical
D. Required and optional
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is not one of the classifications for assessing a project portfolio?
A. Sacred cow
B. Bread-and-butter
C. Pearls
D. Oysters
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is not true for Resource Leveling:
A. Project schedule is build with resource buffers to prevent schedule slippage
B. Project’s Critical path may be altered
C. Resource based scheduling method
D. Reverse resource allocation scheduling
ANSWER:A
Which of the following is the reason(s) why project managers need to understand their
organization's mission and strategy?
A. To make appropriate decisions and adjustments
B. To be effective project advocates
C. To be able to get their job done
D. Both A and B are correct
ANSWER:D
When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process
decomposition?
A. when the project is extremely small in size
B. any time the software is mission critical
C. rapid prototyping does not require their use
D. never—the activities should always occur
ANSWER:D
Product and process decomposition often occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A
Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project?
A. context, lines of code, function
B. context, function, communication requirements
C. information objectives, function, performance
D. communications requirements, performance, information objectives
ANSWER:C
Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination
difficulties?
A. interoperability
B. performance
C. scale
D. uncertainty
ANSWER:B
Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management?
A. assessing product usability
B. defect tracking against quality targets
C. empirical cost estimation
D. b, c, and d
ANSWER:D
Process framework activities are populated with
A. milestones
B. work products
C. QA points
D. All of the above
ANSWER:B
Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are
successful and
completed on time.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
Which chart is a tool that depicts project as network diagram. It is capable of graphically
representing main events of project in both parallel and consecutive way.
A. PERT chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
ANSWER:A
TOPIC 8 – JOINT PROJECT PLANNING
EASY QUESTIONS
Following can be BEST described as a kind of dependency that can create arbitrary float values and
limit scheduling options:
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. Start-to-Finish dependency
D. External dependency
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
A. Specification delays
B. Product competition
C. Testing
D. Staff turnover
ANSWER:C
Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations
ANSWER:D
How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure?
A. double the project team size
B. request a large budget
C. start on the right foot
D. both c and d
ANSWER:D
The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions?
A. Why is the system being developed?
B. What will be done by whom?
C. Where are they organizationally located?
D. a, c, and d
ANSWER:D
Software scope is not a well-defined boundary, which encompasses all the activities that are done to
develop and deliver the software product.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
Successful project management does NOT include which of the following factors?
A. Responsiveness to clients
B. Competent team members
C. Interchangable staff
D. Control mechanisms
ANSWER:C
Which of the following is not an element of project initiation?
A. establishing management procedures
B. dividing the project into manageable tasks
C. establishing a relationship with the customer
D. establishing the project initiation team
ANSWER:B
The Baseline Project Plan:
A. contains all information collected and analyzed during project initiation and planning
B. specifies detailed project activities for the next life cycle phase, analysis, and less detail
for subsequent project phases
C. is used by the project selection committee to help decide if the project should be acc
D. all of the above
ANSWER:D
The Statement of Work:
A. is a short document prepared for the customer that describes what the project will deliver
and outlines all work required to complete the project
B. is useful for ensuring that both you and your customer gain a common understanding of
the project
C. is a very easy document to create because it typically consists of a high-level summary
of the BPP information
D. all of the above
ANSWER:D
The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
A. Project Management
B. Manager life cycle
C. Project Management Life Cycle
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER:C
Effective software project management focuses on four P's which are
A. people, performance, payoff, product
B. people, product, performance, process
C. people, product, process, project
D. people, process, payoff, product
ANSWER:C
The first step in project planning is to
A. determine the budget.
B. select a team organizational model.
C. determine the project constraints.
D. establish the objectives and scope.
ANSWER:D
Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a higher likelihood of
implementing effective software engineering processes.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A
INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS
Resource Histogram is an effective tool for staff planning and coordination.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A
In Risk management process what make note of all possible risks, that may occur in the project.
A. Manage
B. Monitor
C. Categorize
D. Identification
ANSWER:D
Small agile teams have no place in modern software development.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to
A. give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
B. give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
C. hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
D. reward programmers based on their productivity.
ANSWER: A
The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the
A. customer workflow
B. functionality to be delivered
C. process used to deliver functionality
D. both b and c
ANSWER:D
Which factors should be considered in choosing the organizational structure for a software team?
(Select all that apply)
A. degree of communication desired
B. predicted size of the resulting program
C. rigidity of the delivery date
D. a, b, and c
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the matrix project structure?
A. communication between functional divisions is enhanced
B. duplication of resources is minimized
C. policies of the parent organization are followed
D. there are two bosses - functional managers and project managers
ANSWER:D
All of the following are advantages of the pure project organizational structure EXCEPT:
A. the project manager has full authority over the project.
B. equipment and people are shared across projects.
C. lines of communication are shortened.
D. high team pride and commitment. .
ANSWER:B
The objective of the project planning process is:
A. the development of a Baseline Project Plan and Statement of Work
B. the development of a Systems Service Request
C. the development of entity relationship diagrams
D. the development of transitional operations plans
ANSWER:A
How is project planning distinct from general information systems planning?
A.General information systems planning focuses on assessing the information systems
needs of the entire organization.
B. Project planning focuses on assessing the information systems needs of the entire
organization.
C. General information systems planning focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and
the work needed to complete each activity within a single project.
D. Project planning focuses on defining discrete activities needed to complete all projects.
ANSWER:A
As a rule of thumb estimate, what percentage of the entire development effort should be
devoted to the project initiation and planning process?
A. between 10 and 20 percent
B. less than 5 percent
C. less than 10 percent
D. between 20 and 30 percent
ANSWER:A
Activities designed to assist in organizing a team to conduct project planning is the focus of:
A. project planning
B. project identification and selection
C. project initiation
D. analysis
ANSWER:C
Which of the following is an element of project planning?
A. establishing management procedures
B. establishing a relationship with the customer
C. estimating resources and creating a resource plan
D. establishing the project management environment and project workbook
ANSWER:B
Abbreviate the term PERT.
A. Program Evolution & Review Technique
B. Process Evolution & Review Tool
C. Project Evalution & Request Technique
D. None of the above
ANSWER:A
State if the following are true for Project Management.
During Project Scope management, it is necessary to 1) Define the scope
2) Decide its verification and control
3) Divide the project into various smaller parts for ease of management.
4) Verify the scope
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:A
Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is ______
A. ahead of schedule
B. beyond schedule
C. on critical path
D. none of the above
ANSWER:A
ADVANCED QUESTIONS
In which estimation software size should be known.
A. Time estimation
B. Effort estimation
C. Cost estimation
D. Software size estimation
ANSWER:B
TOPIC 9 – THE PROJECT TEAM
EASY QUESTIONS
Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by calculating number of
function points in the software.
A. Time estimation
B. Effort estimation
C. Cost estimation
D. Software size estimation
ANSWER:D
A Project Manager must have good understanding of the mechanics of power and politics to be
effective. As defined by Pfeffer, power includes all the following except:
A. The Potential to influence behavior
B. Potential to change the course of events and overcome resistance
C. Ability to get people to do things that they would not otherwise do
D. Ability to handle power struggles and organizational games
ANSWER:D
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
A. team
B. project
C. customers
D. project manager
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is not project management goal?
A. Keeping overall costs within budget.
B. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time.
C. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team.
D. Avoiding costumer complaints.
ANSWER:D
Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?
A. travel and training costs
B. hardware and software costs
C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
D. All of the mentioned
ANSWER:D
INTERMEDIATE QUESTIONS
Which of the following would be classified as a tangible cost?
A. loss of customer goodwill
B. cost of hardware
C. employee morale
D. operational inefficiency
ANSWER:B
A 66.6% risk is considered as
A. very low
B. low
C. high
D. very high
ANSWER:C
You are working in the Project Office of your organization. What is your job responsibility?
A. Managing the different activities of a project
B. Always being responsible for the results of the project
C. Providing support functions to Project Managers in the form of training,
software, templates etc.
D. Providing Subject Matter Expertise in the Functional areas of the project
ANSWER:C
Your IT company is responsible for making software virus programs. You are responsible for
managing both the individual product releases and the co-ordination of multiple releases over time.
Your role is that of a:
A. Program Manager
B. Project Manager
C. Functional Manager
D. Operations Manager
ANSWER:A
A major outcome and deliverable from the project initiation and planning phase that contains
the best estimate of a project’s scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements
defines the:
A. Baseline Project Plan
B. Information Systems Plan
C. Mission Statement
D. Statement of Work
ANSWER:A
A cost associated with an information system that can be measured in dollars and with
certainty is referred to as a(n):
A. economic cost
B. tangible cost
C. intangible cost
D. one-time cost
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is a key aspect of quality control?
A. Limited in scope
B. Minimal planning resources
C. Generic cost controls
D. Project wide focus
ANSWER:D
ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are examples of:
A. intangible benefits
B. qualitative benefits
C. tangible benefits
D. legal and contractual benefits
ANSWER:C
Which of the following is not the feature of a project?
A. Constrained by limited resources
B. Planned, executed and controlled
C. Creates unique product or service
D. May be ongoing and repetitive
ANSWER:D
Which of the following is not considered part of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
A. Social needs
B. Safety
C. Motivation
D. Self-actualization
ANSWER:C
Phase end review of projects is also referred to as:
A. Phase Exits
B. Kill Points
C. Stage Gates
D. All the above
ANSWER:D
You are managing the release of a new drug in the market. Your role is that of a:
A. Functional Manager, because you have good understanding functional knowledge of the
pharmaceutical industry
B. Project Manager, because you are creating a unique product within specific time schedules
C. Operations Manager, because you have to do several repetitive tasks
D. Program Manager, because you have to manage several sub-projects to effectively do your job
ANSWER:B
You are managing the release of a new drug in the market. Your role is that of a:
A. Functional Manager, because you have good understanding functional knowledge of the
pharmaceutical industry
B. Project Manager, because you are creating a unique product within specific time schedules
C. Operations Manager, because you have to do several repetitive tasks
D. Program Manager, because you have to manage several sub-projects to effectively do your job
ANSWER:B
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
A. Internship management
B. Change management
C. Version management
D. System management
ANSWER:A
The creator of the project charter is identified as the ______.
A. Project manager
B. Outside senior manager
C. Internal control expert
D. Quality control expert
ANSWER:B
Which of the following are features of Belbin’s ‘coordinator’ role?
A. Calm, self confident and controlled
B. Extroverted, enthusiastic and communicative
C. Sober, unemotional and prudent
D. Mature, confident, delegates
ANSWER:D