BASIC PART 1 contains the auditory cortex that is 1. Where is the lesion located for a patient responsible in transmitting sounds with inability to determine sounds heard in the absence of ear abnormalities? a. Temporal lobe b. Superior temporal gyrus c. Occipital lobe d. Superior parietal lobe 2. Where are the nicotinic receptors in the The sarcolemma at the junction has myoneural junction located? invaginations called postjunctional folds, which increase its surface area facing the a. Terminal ends of the motor synaptic cleft. These postjunctional folds neuron form the motor end plate, which is studded with nicotinic acetylcholine b. T-tubule receptors (nAChRs) at a density of 10,000 c. Epimysium d. Motor end-plate 3. Student X has normal defecation which Sympathetic supplies rectum to the rectum is mostly due to the activity of the: is from lumbar splanchnic nerves and superior and inferior hypogastric plexuses. a. Pelvic Splanchnic Nerves Parasympathetic supplies are S4 via the b. Sympathetic Nerves PELVIC SPLANCHNIC NERVES and inferior hypogastric plexuses. c. Vagus Nerves d. Prevertebral ganglia 4. Seeing Korean food on your Grab app made your mouth watery and is due to the activation of which preganglionic neuron? a. Otic ganglion b. Inferior salivatory nucleus c. Submandibular ganglion d. Superior salivatory nucleus 5. While explaining anemia to a 32 year old patient, you explain that this bone is no Hematopoiesis is the process by which immature cells develop into mature blood longer a site for hematopoiesis: cells. In adults the site of hematopoiesis is located in the bone marrow of the skull, ribs, o Ribs sternum vertebral column, pelvis, proximal o Sternum ends of femur. FEMUR GRADUALLY o Vertebra DECREASED IN THE HEMATOPOIESIS AT o Femur AROUND 20-30 YEARS OLD. 6. As part of the neurologic exam, the cranial nerves were tested and you elicited the corneal reflex which helps you access which region of the CNS? a. Mesencephalon b. Myelencephalon c. Metencephalon d. Diencephalon Metencephalon 7. A newly wed male argues that the newborn baby with blood type O is not his. The father is a type B homozygous and the mother is a type AB, what is the probability that this newborn will have that blood type? 25% a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 8. Why would tetany not happen in cardiac The refractory period of cardiac muscle muscles? is dramatically longer than that of skeletal muscle. This prevents tetanus a. They have a more calcium from occurring and ensures that each ions contraction is followed by enough time to allow the heart chamber to refill with b. They have a long absolute blood before the next contraction. refractory period c. They have more mitochondria than skeletal muscles d. They have a hyperpolarized period long 9. For a left-handed person, an ischemic event to this area presents a problem in the regulation of speaking: a. Left superior temporal gyrus b. Left inferior frontal gyrus c. Right superior temporal gyrus d. Right inferior frontal gyrus ● ● left inferior frontal gyrus houses the broca’s area broca’s area is responsible in expressing spoken and written language 10. A patient complaining of frequent bruising followed up with a bleeding time Underlying medical disorders may cause a result that is prolonged, this may be due to: bleeding phenotype due to thrombocytopenia . a. Vit. K deficiency b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hemophilia d. Protein C deficiency 11. After eating a heavy breakfast, the distention of the stomach will: o Trigger gastrocolic reflex o Inhibit gastric emptying o Decrease salivary secretion o Cause glucose absorption The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that controls the motility of the lower gastrointestinal tract following a meal. As a result of the gastrocolic reflex, the colon has increased motility in response to the stretch of the stomach with the ingestion of food. 12. While playing basketball, a blunt injury Fractures of the clavicle are frequent to the neck occurred after which a tingling injuries and are responsible for 2% to sensation in the clavicular area was felt. ... from the C3 and C4 nerve roots of The most probable level of injury is at: the superficial cervical plexus a. C1 b. C3 c. C5 d. C7 13. A patient with a failing heart was Answer: Increase myocardial contractile prescribed cardiac glycosides in order to: force a. Increase fluids the excretion of Cardiac glycosides increase the force of contraction of the muscle of the heart by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme (ATPase) b. Increase myocardial that controls the movement of Calcium, contractile force Sodium and Potassium into the heart muscle. c. Increase the storage of fluids in the venous system d. Decrease the absorption of sodium 14. Checking a patient’s arterial blood gas, you take note that this factor increases the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen: a. Increase in pH Increase in pH The following physiological factors influence the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: ● b. Increase in pCO2 c. Increase in 2,3 DPG ● d. Increase in temperature ● ● ● The partial pressure of CO2 ○ Increasing CO2 shifts the curve to the right ○ Hyperventilation and hypocapnia shifts the curve to the left pH , independent of CO2 ○ Decreasing pH (acidosis) shifts the curve to the right ○ Alkalosis shifts the curve to the left The concentration of 2,3-DPG inside the erythrocytes ○ Increased 2,3-DPG (eg. in response to hypoxia or erythropoietin) shifts the curve to the right ○ Decreased 2,3-DPG (eg. as a red cell storage lesion ) shifts the curve to the left The presence of unusual haemoglobin species ○ Methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin and foetal haemoglobin shift the curve to the left ○ Sulfhaemoglobin shifts the curve to the right Temperature ○ Hyperthermia shifts the curve right ○ Hypothermia shifts it left 15. A patient complains of palpitations. While examining him, you place the diaphragm of the stethoscope at which best location if you want to hear the sound produced by closing of the mitral valve? th 5 ICS, LMCL a. 4th ICS, LMCL b. 4th ICS, LPSM c. 5th ICS, LPSM d. 5th ICS, LMCL 16. Lymph from the skin of the lateral side of the foot drains into ____? a. Internal iliac node b. Inguinal node Popliteal Nodes The popliteal lymphatic nodes are small in size, usually between five and seven in number, and are often found embedded in fat reserves in the popliteal fossa. They receive lymph from the lateral superficial vessels. c. Subsartorial nodes d. Popliteal node 17.Most fractured carpal bone to suspect if > Scaphoid fractures are by far the most one will fall from an outstretched hand? common of the carpal fractures, and account for 10 percent of all hand fractures a. Pisiform and about 55 percent of all carpal fractures b. Capitate c. Hamate d. Scaphoid >The scaphoid is usually fractured secondary to hyperextension of the wrist, often from falls onto the outstretched hand. The scaphoid is wedged between the radius and the surrounding carpal bones, particularly the capitate. 18. The penile urethra is embedded in what > The urethra is located concentrically specific structure? within the corpus spongiosum. a. Corpus spongiosum b. Corpus cavernosum >The penile urethra runs through the penis, within the corpus spongiosum c. Corpus striatum d. Corpus spinosum 19. Which part of the intestines is movable? > The transverse colon is the longest and most movable part of the colon a. Rectum b. Sigmoid c. Transverse colon d. Ascending colon 20. Largest and strongest bone of the foot. a. Calcaneus -1st b. Cuboid > Calcaneus: The largest bone of the foot, it is commonly referred to as the heel of the foot. It points upward, while the remaining bones of the feet point downward. c. Cuneiform d. Talus -2nd 21. Children aged 12 months through age 12 years can be given 2 doses of varicella vaccine subcutaneously, separated by at least 3 months and results in faster and higher antibody production brought by which attribute of B cells? a. Memory b. Clonal proliferation c. Antigenicity d. Specificity Vaccines utilise this adaptive immunity and memory to expose the body to the antigen without causing disease, so that when then live pathogen infects the body, the response is rapid and the pathogen is prevented from causing disease. 22. A patient with acute gastroenteritis with no signs of dehydration was given oral rehydration solution. Glucose with sodium in the ORS when absorbed in the GIT exemplifies what type of transport process? lower concentration concentration (active,uphill) to high a. Primary active transport b. Passive transport c. Secondary active transport d. Vesicular transport 23. Patient X obtained abrasions from falling off his bicycle after avoiding a migration of neutrophils into the site of injury pedestrian. Which is NOT expected from the resulting inflammatory process? a. Migration of large number of granulocytes and monocytes into the injured tissue b. Vasoconstriction blood vessels local blood flow of local decreasing c. Clotting of fluid in the interstitial space due to leakage of fibrinogen d. Increased permeability of the capillaries with leakage of fluid into the interstitium 24. A patient with bilious vomiting showed this compensatory mechanism: a. Increased secretion of H+ ion by the proximal tubules b. Increased generation of hydrogen ions from food c. Increased activity of beta intercalated cells of collecting ducts d. Decreased rate and depth of breathing 25. Which of the following factors decrease Afterload The resistance against which the the cardiac output in normal physiologic ventricle must pump. Excessive afterload = difficult to pump blood → reduced CO/SV states? a. b. c. d. Venous Return Afterload Effective filling time Effective filling pressure 26. The presence of this manifestation in your patient made you pinpoint the location of his brain tumor in the medial side of the medulla oblongata: a. Impaired gag reflex b. Inability to close an eye c. Deviation of the neck on one side d. Paralysis of the tongue 27. Hypokalemia was found in a hypertensive patient on prolonged hydrochlorothiazide who had difficulty ambulating. This finding can explain the muscle weakness due to: a. Hyperpolarization of the resting membrane potential requiring greater stimulus intensity to initiate an action potential b. Hyperpolarization of the resting membrane potential requiring lesser stimulus intensity to initiate an action potential c. Hypopolarization of the resting membrane potential requiring greater stimulus intensity to initiate an action potential d. Hypopolarization of the resting membrane potential requiring lesser stimulus intensity to initiate an action potential 28. Which of the following will lead to an increase in stroke volume? a. An increase in aortic pressure b. A decrease in venous return c. A highly tachycardic heart d. A more negative intrathoracic pressure 29. Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of a thromboembolic condition? a. Normal bleeding clotting time time and b. Platelet count 150,000-300,000/ul of c. Smooth endothelial surface d. Adequate levels of calcium on the blood 30. After eating a hamburger, most of its majority of chemical digestion occurs in chemical digestion will occur where in the the SI; this is where chyme will be mixed GI tract? with other digestive juice from the pancreas and bile form the liver a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Small intestines d. Large intestines 31. Weakest joint. a. b. c. d. area or part of the shoulder Anterior Posterior Superior Inferior 32. Part of the brain that separates frontal The central sulcus runs posterior-medial to from parietal lobe of cerebrum: anterior-lateral and separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe a. Precentral gyrus b. Central sulcus of Rolando c. Lateral Sylvian fissure d. Longitudinal fissure 33. As the facial nerve emerges from the stylomastoid foramen, it immediately gives out a branch that goes behind the ear to innervate the occipitalis and auricularis posterior muscles. What do you call that nerve branch? a. b. c. d. Ans: Posterior auricular nerve Great auricular nerve Posterior auricular nerve Marginal mandibular nerve Auriculotemporal nerve 34. What vertebra that is identified by the presence of mammillary process? a. Atlas b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Lumbar Ans: Lumbar 35. The antero-posterior diameter of pelvic Ans: Diagonal conjugate inlet that can be measured through vaginal exam: The anteroposterior diameter from the sacrococcygeal joint to the lower border a. Diagonal conjugate of the symphysis pubis is estimated through measuring the diagonal b. Obstetrics conjugate conjugate which is normally about 15in.(13cm). c. Sagittal conjugate d. Transverse conjugate 36. Which of the following nerves is NOT a Ans: Mental branch of CN VII: Facial nerve runs forward within the a. Buccal substance of the parotid gland, it divides into its five terminal branches: b. Mental ● Temporal ● Zygomatic c. Mandibular ● Buccal ● Mandibular d. Temporal ● Cervical 37. The following are unpaired cranial bones, EXCEPT: a. b. c. d. Frontal Temporal Sphenoid Occipital Ans: Temporal (Paired bone) (Unpaired bones) ● Fontal ● Ethmoid ● Sphenoid ● Occipital 38. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT originate from the pons? Ans: Trochlear (Midbrain) CN IV a. Trochlear b. Trigeminal c. Abducens d. Facial 39. This muscle flexes the Flexor hallucis brevis - felexes the metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe and metatarsopharyngeal joint of the big toe, also supports the medial longitudinal arch supports the medial longitudinal arch. Flexor hallucis longus - f lexes the distal phalanx of the big toe, plantar flexes the b. Flexor hallucis brevis foot, and supports the medial longitudinal arch c. Adductor hallucis Oblique Adductor hallucis oblique head - flexes head the big toe, supports the transverse arch Lumbricals - flex MCP joints and extends d. Lumbricals interpharyngeal joints of fingers. a. Flexor hallucis longus 40. Which of the following is not part of the Levator ani? a. Puborectalis b. Coccygeus Ans: Coccygeus Parts of Levator ani ● Iliococcygeus ● Pubococcygeus ● Puborectalis c. Iliococcygeus d. Pubococcygeus 41. A patient followed up for the reading of B. Tuberculin-Type Hypersensitivity his tuberculin skin test, which you interpret as a positive response. This is due to which Delayed hypersensitivity to antigens of microorganisms occurs in many infectious type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Immediate b. Delayed c. Antibody-mediated d. Immune-complex diseases and it has been used as an aid in diagnosis. It is typified by the tuberculin reaction. When a small amount of tuberculin is injected into the epidermis of a patient previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis,there is little immediate reaction. Gradually, however, induration and redness develop and reach a peak in 24–72 hours. Mononuclear cells accumulate in the subcutaneous tissue, and there are CD4 Th1 cells in abundance. A positive skin test indicates that the person has been infected with the agent but does not imply the presence of current disease. However, a recent change of skin test response from negative to positive suggests recent infection and possible current activity. A positive skin test response assists in diagnosis. For example, in leprosy, a positive skin test indicates tuberculoid disease with active cell-mediated immunity, whereas a negative test suggests lepromatous leprosy with weak cell-mediated immunity. Jawetz 27th edition Page 142 42. When testosterone produced by the Leydig cells of the testes acts on adjacent seminiferous tubules to stimulate spermatogenesis, what type of chemical signaling is exemplified? a. Autocrine b. Endocrine Forms of chemical signaling Autocrine - a cell targets itself Paracrine- a cell targets nearby cell Endocrine- a cell targets a distant cell through the bloodstream Signaling across the gap junctions- a cell targets a cell connected by gap junctions (Juxtacrine- involves b etween cells) c. Juxtracrine d. Paracrine journals.sagepub.com/doi/pdf/10.1177/09262338 901700219 Page 419 43. Under normal circumstances, which Under normal circumstances, glycine neurotransmitter provides inhibition of provides inhibition of muscle tone that muscle tone that balances the excitation of balances the excitation of muscle tone muscle tone provided by other provided by other neurotransmitters neurotransmitters? a. Glycine b. Glutamine c. Glutamate d. Glucagon 44. Which electrolyte can cause cardiac arrest in diastole when it is in excess? a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium ? d. Sodium Extremely high levels of potassium in the blood (severe hyperkalemia) can lead to cardiac arrest and death. HyperkalemiaAssociated cardiac arrhythmias include sinus bradycardia, sinus arrest, slow idioventricular rhythms, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation and asystole Hypernatremia- Primarily neurologic: change in sensorium is the most common manifestation HyperchloremiaEffects on the cardiovascular system include direct impairment of myocardial contraction (especially at a pH < 7.2), tachycardia, and increased risk of ventricular fibrillation or heart failure with pulmonary edema. Patients may report dyspnea upon exertion or, in severe cases, at rest. Hypercalcemia- Bradycardia, AV block, arrhythmias and shortened QT-interval 45. Motor fibers that form the corticospinal tract are mostly coming from the: a. Premotor area b. Primary motor area c. Primary somatosensory area d. Supplementary motor area Reference: https://www.neuroscientificallychallenged.com/blog /know-your-brain-corticospinal-tract 46. Educating your patient why he is experiencing heartburn after eating meals, you explained that this is because of the inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to contract effectively when food enters the stomach, also called as: Achalasia is a condition of impaired esophageal contractions resulting from degeneration of myenteric (auerbach) plexuses in the esophagus. The lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing. a. Dysphagia b. Achalasia c. Gastric reflux d. Hirschsprung disease Reference: BRS Gross Anatomy 9th edition 47. This blocks the active sites on actin for myosin cross-bridge formation when calcium is not present: a. Actinin and titin b. Troponin-tropomyosin complex c. Sarcolipin and myoregulin d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum and the T-tubules 48. Your asthmatic patient complained that every time he uses his reliever medication he experiences a feeling of incomplete voiding. What kind of drug is his reliever medication? a. Sympathomimetic b. Parasympathomimetic c. Parasympatholytic d. Sympathomimetic and parasympatholytic Reference: BRS Physiology 7th edition 49. A patient with which condition will NOT exhibit an increase in hematocrit? a. Pregnancy b. Dehydration c. Polycythemia Vera d. High altitude dwelling 50. Among water soluble hormones, which of the following is NOT a 2nd messenger? a. Cyclic AMP b. Cyclic GMP c. Calcium d. Acetylcholine Factors that may cause a rise in Hct value such as: 1. Polycythemia Vera 2. Heart or kidney problems 3. Intake of anabolic steroids 4. Dehydration 5. Diarrhea 6. Lung problems 7. Burns 8. Smoking 9. High altitude Binding of Water-Soluble Hormones Water-soluble hormones cannot diffuse through the cell membrane. These hormones must bind to a surface cell-membrane receptor. The receptor then initiates a cell-signaling pathway within the cell involving G proteins, adenylyl cyclase, the secondary messenger cyclic AMP (cAMP), and protein kinases. In the final step, these protein kinases phosphorylate proteins in the cytoplasm. This activates proteins in the cell that carry out the changes specified by the hormone.
