Name:____________________________
BIOL. 1406. Fall Semester, 2004
FINAL EXAM (COMPREHENSIVE)
1. Proteins which act as catalysts of chemical reactions [in cells] are called:
a. enzymes.
b. coenzymes.
c. reaction cofactors.
d. substrates.
e. reactants
2. A final product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an early enzyme in the pathway. This is likely
to be an example of:
a. competitive inhibition
b. feedback inhibition
c. cooperativity
d. energy coupling
e. a second messenger
3. Enzyme-catalized reactions move forward more readily than uncatalyzed reactions because:
a. their temperature increases
b. the DG has been decreased
c. entropy has been increased
d. the required activation energy has been decreased
e. entropy has been decreased
4. A chemical reaction that releases energy is known as a(an) __________ reaction.
a. exergonic.
b. coupled.
c. anabolic.
d. endergonic.
e. unfavored
3. The second law of thermodynamics states that for chemical reactions:
a. entropy always increases.
b. entropy always decreases.
c. free energy always increases.
d. free energy always decreases.
e. anabolic reactions must always be paired with catabolic reactions .
4. Which is the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a. prokaryotes have RNA, eukaryotes have DNA
b. Prokaryotes have DNA, eukaryotes have RNA
c. Prokaryotes have a nucleus, eukaryotes have a nucleoid
d. prokaryotes have a nucleoid, eukaryotes have a nucleus
e. prokaryotes have a cell wall, eukaryotes do not.
5. The electron transport chain utilized to make ATP during photosynthesis by plants is located
in the:
a. stroma.
b. thylakoid membrane.
c. inner chloroplast membrane.
d. outer chloroplast membrane.
e. plasma membrane.
6. In the process of _______________ reactions, energy usually gets released.
a. endergonic
b. hypergonic
c. exoteric
d. exergonic
e. endotermic
7. The replacement electrons for the reaction center of photosystem II come from
a. photosystem I
b. water
c. glucose
d. oxygen
e. NADPH
8. Energy stored in ATP is located exactly:
a. in the bonds between phosphate groups
b. inside the phosphate group
c. in the free electron
d. attached to the nucleotide
e. between the sugar and the phosphate
9. Active site is the term used to describe the location where:
a. chemiosmosis occurs
b. the dark reactions of photosynthesis occur
c. water is split during photosynthesis
d. chromosomes migrate along the microtubules during mitosis
e. substrates bind to enzymes and catalysis occurs
10. NAD+ and NADP+ are examples of
a. electron carriers
b. oxidizing compounds
c. photosynthetic pigments
d. sugar-storage molecules
e. competitive inhihibitors
11. Ribosomes are the site of synthesis of
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. proteins
d. nucleoli
e. glucose
12. The 5 carbon sugar that captures (fixes) carbon dioxide in C3 plants as the first step in the
Calvin cycle is:
a. PEP carboxylase.
b. glucose kinase.
c. pyruvate synthetase
d. CAM synthetase
e.RuBP
13. Where does the O2 released during photosynthesis come from?
a. CO2
b. H2O
c. ATP
d. C6H12O6
e. RuBP
14.The products of photosynthesis are
a. glucose and water.
b. carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
c. glucose and carbon dioxide.
d. carbon dioxide, chlorophyll, and oxygen.
e. glucose and oxygen.
15. Glycolysis occurs:
a. on the plasma membrane
b. on the mitochondrial matrix
c. on the mitochondrial inner membrane
d. in the mitochondrial intermembrane space
e. in the cytoplasm
16. In which phase of meiosis do the homologous chromosomes undergo separation?
a. metaphase I
b. anaphase II
c. prophase I
d. metaphase II
e. anaphase I
17. During which phase of meiosis are the tetrads of homologous chromosomes aligned at the
center of the dividing cell?
a. prophase I
b. metaphase I
c. anaphase II
d. anaphase I
e. metaphase II
18. During which phase of meiosis do the centromeres uncouple and sister chromatids
separate?
a. anaphase I
b. prophase II
c. metaphase II
d. anaphase II
e. metaphase I
19. ATP is synthesized by ATP synthase in the mitochondria by the process of:
a. chemiosmosis
b. electron transport
c. substrate level oxidation
d. oxidative innovation
e. hydroosmosis
20. A human gamete has:
a. 23 chromosomes.
b. 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
c. 46 chromosomes.
d. 23 autosomes.
e. two sex chromosomes.
21.The two sister chromatids of a eukaryotic chromosome are connected at the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
centromere.
centriole.
chiasma.
telomere.
centrosome.
22. DNA replication occurs in eukaryotic cells during:
a. G1 phase
b. S phase
c. G2 phase
d. mitosis
e. G0 phase
23. The intertwining (crossing over) of paternal and maternal homologous chromosomes during
meiosis is called:
a. partitioning.
b. anaphase
c. chiasma.
d. pleiotropy.
e. epistasis.
24. Sexual life cycles produce genetic variation in offspring by:
a. independent assortment of chromosomes
b. crossing over between nonsister chromatids
c. random fertilization
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
25.The electrons from NADH, when fed through the electron transport chain of mitochondria,
provide a theoretical yield of:
a. 1 ATP.
b. 2 ATP.
c. 3 ATP.
d. 4 ATP.
e. 1 oxygen.
26.Snapdragons have a single gene (locus) that determines flower color. The allele R is for red flowers and it
shows incomplete dominance over the recessive allele r for white flowers. What color flowers are produced
by Rr plants?
a. All red
b. Mixed red and white (some flowers of each color)
c. pink
d. white with pink streaks
e. purple
27. A human is heterozygous at a blood group locus and expresses both genotypes (e.g. they have AB
blood). This is an example of
a. polygenic inheritance
b. codominance
c. incomplete or partial dominance
d. pleiotropy
e. complete dominance
28. Genes located on the same chromosome are said to be:
a. polygenic.
b. bottlenecked.
c. pleiotropic.
d. linked.
e. epistatic.
29.An inactivated ‘X’ chromosome in a human female cell is seen as a/an:
a. centrosome.
b. Barr body.
c. genetic imprint.
d. nucleosome.
e. centromere.
30.A human with the XXY karotype is:
a. phenotypically a male and no Barr body.
b. phenotypically female.
c. phenotypically male but with a Barr body.
d. phenotypically female with no Barr body.
e. frequency-dependent selection.
31.A person with a karyotype of trisomy 21 will suffer from:
a. Tay-Sachs.
b. Down Syndrome.
c. Kleinfelter Disease.
d. Huntington Disease.
e. Turner Syndrome.
32. The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases. What percentage of its
bases would be adenine?
A) 0%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 30%
E) 40%
33. Semiconservative DNA replication means:
a. the old DNA is completely broken down
b. the old DNA remains completely intact
c. A pairs with T and G pairs with C
d. only half of the DNA is replicated
e. each new DNA molecule has half of the old one
34. The sequence of nitrogen-containing bases on one strand of DNA most directly determines
the sequence of
a. fatty acids in a fat molecules
b. amino acids in a protein molecule
c. sugars in a polysaccharide molecule
d. all of the above choices are correct
e. bases in a protein molecule
35. Which of these is found in RNA but NOT in DNA?
a. adenine
b. uracil
c. thymine
d. phosphate groups
e. none of theabove
36.The process of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called
a. translation.
b. transformation.
c. replication.
d. transcription.
e. polymerization.
37.What mRNA carries from the nucleus is
a. enzymes
b. ribosomes
c. information
d. amino acids
e. tRNA
38. Ribosomes are a collection of
a. small proteins that function in translation
b proteins and small RNAs that function in translation
c. proteins and tRNAs that function in transcription
d. proteins and mRNAs that function in translation
e. mRNAs and tRNA that function in translation
39. A random change in a DNA nucleotide base sequence
a. has no influence on genetic variation.
b. is never expressed phenotypically.
c. constitutes a mutation.
d. is never beneficial to the organism.
e. will kill the cell when it occurs.
40.RNA splicing is the
a. addition of introns to the mRNA.
b. deletion of introns from the mRNA.
c. addition of exons to the mRNA.
d. deletion of exons from the mRNA.
e. combination of two different chromosomes together
41.Evidence which supports the theory of evolution is found in the studies of
a. comparative anatomy and embryology.
b. genetics and molecular biology
c. fossils.
d. artificial selection.
e. all of these
42.Boa constrictors have tiny pelvic girdles and leg bones within their bodies. Since these
structures are nonfunctional, they are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
extra.
analogous.
maladaptive.
homologous.
vestigial.
43.Founder populations may quickly become very different from the parent population in a
similar habitat due to
a. natural selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. bottleneck.
d. genetic drift.
e. mutation.
44.A population with ________ is at risk for extinction.
a. large size
b. low genetic variation
c. too little gene flow
d. low levels of genetic drift
e. random mating
45.Mutations
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
are random.
occur to solve problems for species (are goal oriented).
can alone cause drastic changes in the gene frequencies of a population.
Only choices A and B are correct.
are always detrimental.
46.Giraffe leg and neck length increased under ________ selection, but currently is probably
maintained by ________ selection.
a. directional; disruptive
b. directional; stabilizing
c. disruptive; stabilizing
d. stabilizing; disruptive
e. disruptive; directional
47) Two populations of mountain dwelling salamanders are separated by an impassable valley.
The populations are ________.
A) allopatric
B) sympatric
C) divergent
D) founders
E) subspecies
48) When a species invades a new habitat and evolves rapidly into several new species to
better exploit new resources (e.g., Darwin's Finches), what has occurred?
A) phyletic speciation
B) divergent speciation
C) stabilizing selection
D) polyploidy
E) adaptive radiation
49) Two different species of pine release their pollen at different times. This is an example of
A) geographical isolation.
B) ecological isolation.
C) behavioral incompatibility.
D) temporal isolation.
E) mechanical isolation.
50) Two species of garter snakes live in the same geographic area. One mainly lives in water
and the other mainly on land so that they rarely encounter each other and do not interbreed.
This is an example of what type of genetic isolation?
A) ecological
B) temporal
C) mechanical
D) behavioral
E) directional
51) In many species of fireflies males flash to attract females. Each species has a different
flashing pattern. This is an example of
A) allopatric speciation.
B) geographical isolation.
C) temporal isolation.
D) natural selection.
E) behavioral isolation.
52) The great dane and the chihuahua are both domestic dogs (the same species), but mating
between them is limited by
A) hybrid infertility.
B) hybrid inviability.
C) mechanical incompatibility.
D) behavioral isolation.
E) heterozygote disadvantage.
53) Donkeys and horses can interbreed and produce offspring called mules that live normal life
spans but are sterile. Horses and donkeys remain isolated genetically because of
A) hybrid infertility.
B) hybrid inviability.
C) mechanical incompatibility.
D) behavioral isolation.
E) heterozygote disadvantage.
54) The greatest cause of extinctions is
A) asteroid impacts.
B) interactions with other species.
C) overwork
D) habitat change.
E) limited species range.