Name:____________________________
Spring Semester, 2005
Exam III
1) In addition to ATP, glycolysis produces:
a) GTP.
b) NADH.
c) lactate.
d) FADH2.
e) a proton gradient across the membrane
2) At what point during cell division does synapsis/chiasma occur?
a) prophase I of meiosis
b) telophase I of meiosis
c) metaphase II of meiosis
d) prophase of mitosis
e) anaphase I of meiosis
3) In which phase of meiosis do the homologous chromosomes undergo separation?
a) metaphase I
b) anaphase II
c) prophase I
d) metaphase II
e) anaphase I
4) During which phase of meiosis are the tetrads of homologous chromosomes aligned at the
center of the dividing cell?
a) prophase I
b) metaphase I
c) anaphase II
d) anaphase I
e) metaphase II
5) During which phase of meiosis do the centromeres uncouple and sister chromatids
separate?
a) anaphase I
b) prophase II
c) metaphase II
d) anaphase II
e) metaphase I
6) Between the metaphases of meiosis I and meiosis II,:
a) there is a full cell cycle.
b) there is an extended G1 period.
c) there is a prolongued interphase
d) a decrease in chromosome number has occurred.
e) a single round of DNA replication is carried out
7) ATP is synthesized by ATP synthase in the mitochondria by the process of:
a) chemiosmosis.
b) electron transport.
c) substrate level phosphorylation.
d) oxidative phosphorylation.
e) redox reactions.
8) A human gamete has:
a) 23 chromosomes.
b) 46 chromosomes (23 pairs).
c) 46 chromosomes.
d) 23 autosomes.
e) two sex chromosomes.
9) The two sister chromatids of a eukaryotic chromosome are connected at the:
a) centromere.
b) centriole.
c) chiasma.
d) telomere.
e) centrosome.
10) DNA replication occurs in eukaryotic cells during:
a) G1 phase.
b) S phase.
c) G2 phase.
d) mitosis.
e) G0 phase.
11) The intertwining (crossing over) of paternal and maternal homologous chromosomes during
meiosis is called:
a) partitioning.
b) anaphase
c) chiasma.
d) pleiotropy.
e) epistasis.
12) Sexual life cycles produce genetic variation in offspring by:
a) independent assortment of chromosomes.
b) crossing over between nonsister chromatids.
c) random fertilization.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
13) Gametes are examples of:
a) haploid cells.
b) somatic cells.
c) diploid cells.
d) the products of mitotic division.
e) things your parents don’t want to talk about
14) The sequence of nitrogen-containing bases on one strand of DNA could determine the
A) sequence of nitrogen-containing bases in mRNA.
B) sequence of amino acids in protein.
C) sequence of nitrogen-containing bases in the other DNA strand.
D) All of the above choices are correct.
E) sequence of amino acids in the mRNA.
15) The "one-gene one-enzyme" hypothesis concluded that
A) each type of gene codes for a single type of protein.
B) specific enzymes give rise to specific genes.
C) only certain genes function in cells.
D) enzymes regulate gene activity.
E) DNA ? RNA ? protein.
16) Which of these is found in RNA but NOT in DNA?
A) adenine
B) uracil
C) thymine
D) phosphate groups
E) deoxyribose sugar
17) The number of consecutive mRNA bases needed to specify an amino acid is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 20.
D) 64.
E) a variable number
18) If the sequence of bases in a section of DNA is TAGGCTAA, what is the corresponding
sequence of bases in mRNA?
A) ATCCGATT
B) TAGGCTAA
C) CGAAUCGG
D) AATCGGAT
E) AUCCGAUU
19) The number of nucleotides in a codon is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 20.
D) 64.
E) a variable number.
20) The number of different possible codons is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 20.
D) 64.
E) unknown
21) The process of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called
A) translation.
B) transformation.
C) replication.
D) transcription.
E) polymerization
22) Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from the nucleus to the
cytoplasm?
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) proteins
E) lipids
23) A transcription start signal is called
A) an initiation codon.
B) a promoter.
C) an origin.
D) a start site.
E) a nonsense codon.
24) The anticodon for AUC is
A) TAG.
B) AUC.
C) GAU.
D) CUA.
E) UAG.
25) An anticodon is
A) 4 consecutive nucleotides in tRNA.
B) 3 consecutive nucleotides in tRNA.
C) the beginning of a DNA molecule.
D) 3 consecutive nucleotides in mRNA.
E) 3 consecutive amino acids in a protein
26) A type of RNA that binds to a specific amino acid is
A) messenger RNA.
B) ribosomal RNA.
C) transfer RNA.
D) nuclear RNA.
E) cytoplasmic RNA.
27) The site of protein synthesis is the
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
B) nucleus.
C) nucleolus.
D) ribosome.
E) eukaryotic chromosome
28) A gene mutation is defined as change in the
A) nucleotide sequence of RNA.
B) nucleotide sequence of DNA.
C) amino acid sequence in protein.
D) activation of a gene.
E) structure of ribosomes.
29) Calico cats are almost always female. This is because of
A) X-chromosome inactivation.
B) the lack of a Y chromosome in females.
C) activation of the calico gene by the female sex hormone estrogen.
D) the calico gene in males is inactivated by the sex hormone testosterone.
E) a mutation found on the X chromosome.
30) The correct labeling is :
a. A= G1; B= G2; C=mitosis; D=meiosis
b. A= G1; B= DNA replication; C= G2; D= mitosis
c. A= G1; B= Cell growth; C=G2; D= mitosis
d. A= Growth; B= Replication; C= Premitosis; D=mitosis
31) Indicate the specific stage and the type of division (mitosis or meiosis) for these two
diagrams below:
a. A= Prophase, mitosis; B= prophase, meiosis
b. A= Prophase, meiosis; B= prophase, mitosis
c. A= Metaphase, meiosis I; B= metaphase meiosis II
d. A= Metaphase, meiosis I; B= metaphase, mitosis.
e. A= metaphase, mitosis; B= metaphase, meiosis I
32) RNA splicing is the
A) addition of introns to the mRNA.
B) deletion of introns from the mRNA.
C) addition of exons to the mRNA.
D) deletion of exons from the mRNA.
E) combination of two different genes together
33) This figure is illustrating:
a. A= Homologous chromosomes ; B= sister chromatids
b. A= sister chromatids; B= homologous chromosomes
c. A= homologous chromatids; B= sister chromosomes
d. A= homolotids chromogous; B= sismes chromoters
34)The final acceptor for the mitochondrial electron transport chain is:
a.
water.
b.
oxygen.
c.
NAD.
d.
ATP.
e.
ADP.
35) At what level(s) can transcription be regulated in eukaryotic cells?
A) individual genes
B) regions of chromosomes
C) entire chromosomes
D) All of the above are correct.
E) None of the above are correct.
36) At the end of glycolysis, the original carbons of the glucose molecule form:
a. six molecules of carbon dioxide
b. two molecules of NADH
c. Two molecules of citric acid
d. two molecules of pyruvate
e. two molecules of fructose
37) Which event occurs in the fluid portion of the cytoplasm of a cell undergoing glucose
metabolism?
a. Krebs cycle
b. electron transport
c. chemiosmosis
d. endocytosis
e. glycolysis
38) What is the significance of the conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid during fermentation?
a. pyruvic acid becomes available to enter matrix reactions
b. the citric acid cycle is initiated
c. NAD+ is regenerated for use in glycolysis
d. the oxidation of pyruvic acid becomes possible.
e. ATP is produced.
39) During cell respiration, the pyruvate produced in glycolysis is :
a. transported to the mitochondria
b. broken down to carbon dioxide and water
c. the source of electrons for NADH and FADH2
d. converted to Acetyl CoA
e. all of the above
40) The portion of aerobic respirartion that produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose is:
a. chemiosmosis
b. the citric acid cycle
c. glycolysis
d. lactic acid fermentation
e. alcohol fermentation
41)
During DNA replication, the "lagging strand" is synthesized as a series of small DNA
fragments which are later connected into a continuous DNA molecule. These short segments
are called :
a.
Okazaki fragments.
b.
replicons.
c.
replication forks.
d.
transcription units.
e.
Griffith units.
42)
The enzyme which unwinds the DNA helix, allowing replication to occur is called:
a.
primase.
b.
DNA replicase.
c.
reverse transcriptase.
d.
helicase.
e.
DNA litigase
43)
DNA replication in bacteria occurs by a _____________ mechanism
a.
semi-conservative
b.
conservative
c.
dispersive
d.
continuous
e.
none of the above
44)
The enzyme which covalently connects the short DNA fragments synthesized on the
lagging strand (i.e. "ties" them together) is called:
a.
DNA nuclease.
b.
DNA polymerase.
c.
helicase.
d.
DNA ligase.
e.
primase.
45)
Griffith used rodents and strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae (the bacterial species he
used were at that time known as Pneumococcus) to demonstrate:
a.
that RNA is the genetic material.
b.
DNA replication occurs semiconservatively.
c.
bacterial transformation.
d.
protein coats of viruses are not required for successful infection.
e. German bombs can adversely affect experimental results.
46)
The structure of DNA molecules was first elucidated by:
a.
Watson and Crick.
b.
Avery.
c.
Franklin and Wilkins.
d.
Griffith.
e.
Beadle and Tatum.
47)
Which of the following is NOT true of the presently accepted model for the structure of
DNA?
a.
It is a double helix.
b.
The two strands are antiparallel.
c.
d.
e.
The bases are located on the interior of the helix.
The two strands are complementary.
All of the above are true of this model for DNA structure.
Chargaff’s studies lead him to conclude:
a.
that the amount of adenine (A) in the DNA from an organism always equaled the
amount of thymine (T) in the DNA from the same organism.
b.
that DNA was a helix.
c.
that the lactose operon was inducible.
d.
that DNA was in fact the genetic material responsible for bacterial transformation.
e.
he should have gone to medical school and make money
48)
49)
The X-ray crystallography pictures critical to the discovery of the structure of DNA were
obtained by:
a.
Franklin and Wilkins.
b.
Watson and Crick.
c.
Avery and Griffith.
d.
Beadle and Tatum.
e.
Messelson and Stahl.
50)
The individual nucleotides which make up a single strand of DNA are connected to the
nucleotides above and below them (NOT CONNECTING TWO STRANDS OF THE DUPLEX to
each other) by:
a.
peptide bonds.
b.
hydrogen bonds.
c.
phosphodiester bonds.
d.
reversible bonding.
e.
faith.
51)
In a DNA duplex, the base A is always paired with:
a.
guanine.
b.
cytosine.
c.
thymine.
d.
uracil.
e.
deoxyribose.
52)
The base pairs between two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by:
a.
phosphodiester bonds.
b.
ionic bonds involving the phosphate groups.
c.
polar covalent bonds.
d.
hydrogen bonds.
e.
a combination of all of the above.
53)
The location on a chromosome where DNA replication begins is called a/an:
a.
origin (ori).
b.
promoter.
c.
centromere.
d.
telomere.
e.
initiator.