EXAM 4. BIOLOGY 1406
NAME __________________________
Chapters 12, 14, 15 & 16
Multiple Choice
1) If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i),
the cross Ii x ii is expected to produce
A) all with inflated pods.
B) all with constricted pods.
C) half with inflated and half with constricted pods.
D) 3/4 with inflated and 1/4 with constricted pods.
E) 3/4 with constricted and 1/4 with inflated pods.
2) According to the Law of Segregation
A) each individual carries a single copy of each "factor."
B) pairs of factors fuse during the formation of gametes.
C) pairs of factors separate during the formation of gametes.
D) the sex chromosomes of males and females differ.
E) there is an independent assortment of non-homologous chromosomes during
meiosis.
3) A recessive gene is one
A) that is not expressed as strongly as a dominant allele.
B) whose effect is masked by a dominant allele.
C) that appears only in a heterozygote.
D) that produces no effect when present in the homozygous condition.
E) that must be lethal in the homozygous condition.
4) The physical manifestation of an organism's genes is its
A) environment.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) genetic code
E) number of chromosomes.
5) The genetic makeup of an individual is its
A) phenotype.
B) sex cells.
C) mutation
D) gene pool.
E) genotype.
6) A Mendelian test cross is used to determine whether
A) an allele is dominant or recessive.
B) flowers are purple or white.
C) the genotype or phenotype is more important.
D) an individual is homozygous or heterozygous.
E) segregation or independent assortment is occurring.
7) Colorblindness is more common in men than in women because
A) men have only one X chromosome.
B) the gene is located on the Y chromosome.
C) women cannot inherit the gene from their fathers.
D) crossing-over occurs only in women.
E) men get more copies of the gene than do women.
8) Blood typing is often used as evidence in paternity cases in court. In one
case, the mother had blood type B and the child had blood type O. Which of the
following blood types could the father NOT have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) Both choices C and D are correct.
9) Autosomal nondisjunction can result in
A) XYY males.
B) Turner syndrome.
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Trisomy X.
E) Down syndrome.
10) The incorrect theory that "organisms can modify their bodies through use or
disuse of parts, and that these modifications can be passed on to their offspring"
was formulated by
A) Hutton.
B) Darwin.
C) Aristotle.
D) Lamarck.
E) Lyell.
11) Which of these statements indicates a problem with the theory of
catastrophism?
A) Not all species have been recovered.
B) Many species have become extinct.
C) There are millions of undescribed species in the world.
D) There are no humans in early fossil records.
E) The Earth is billions of years old.
12) The author of On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection is
A) Mendel.
B) Malthus.
C) Galvani.
D) Darwin.
E) Lamarck
13) Darwin and Wallace both realized that most species produce many more
offspring than is necessary to maintain a constant population. What is the fate of
the excess individuals?
A) They have evolved so that they cannot survive in their environment.
B) Some less favorable individuals do not survive to reproduce.
C) They evolve to take advantage of natural resources.
D) Some individuals die arbitrarily.
E) They mutate and then are able to adapt to new environments.
14) The theory of natural selection states that
A) all individuals live to reproduce in each generation.
B) only the largest and strongest survive.
C) random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following
generations.
D) the best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most
genes to the next generation.
E) individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive.
15) Natural selection on a trait can only occur if the trait is ________.
A) inheritable
B) behavioral
C) favorable
D) morphological
E) a new mutation
16) Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?
A) Plants with thorns are less likely to be eaten by herbivores than other
members of the same species that lack thorns.
B) Bacterial populations in hospitals develop resistance to drugs used to combat
infection by them.
C) Scientists breed cows that give greater amounts of milk than their ancestors.
D) Fruit fly larvae with an enzyme to break down alcohol are better able to feed
on fermenting fruit than those that lack the enzyme.
E) Female fish that produce more eggs leave more offspring than those that
produce fewer eggs.
17) Specific inheritable mutations, which may allow a population to evolve, are
produced
A) by chance.
B) as a response to environmental change.
C) as a response to selection pressure.
D) by other species in the environment.
E) by artificial selection.
18) A change in the genetic makeup of a population is
A) natural selection.
B) uniformitarianism.
C) artificial selection.
D) evolution.
E) genetic drift.
19) Evidence which supports the theory of evolution is found in the studies of
A) embryos.
B) biochemistry.
C) fossils.
D) artificial selection.
E) all of these
20) The fossil record indicates that over the last 50 million years the horse has
evolved in all but which of the following ways?
A) tooth structure
B) leg anatomy
C) overall size
D) abundance of hair
E) It has evolved in all these respects.
21) Structures (like molar teeth in vampire bats) which are homologous to
important structures in other organisms but serve no purpose in the organism
being considered are
A) analogous.
B) mutations.
C) homozygous.
D) convergent.
E) vestigial
22) Which of the following structures is NOT homologous to the others?
A) alligator forelimb
B) bird wing
C) human arm
D) insect wing
E) bat wing
23) Strong evidence for the close relatedness of vertebrates is
A) they all have legs.
B) their means of reproduction.
C) the similarity of their embryological stages.
D) they all evolved from fish.
E) they all possess DNA.
24) The many different breeds of domestic dog were produced by
A) natural selection.
B) artificial selection.
C) kin selection
D) mutation.
E) divergent evolution.
25) Most commercial pesticides are effective for only 2-3 years. This is because
A) new pests invade the area.
B) the chemicals induce mutations that convey immunity.
C) the chemicals mutate.
D) the pests learn to ignore the chemicals.
E) those pests with advantageous mutations will survive and reproduce.
26) Anolis lizards are transplanted from an area with many large trees to islands
with many small plants and few trees. You would predict them to
A) undergo no evolutionary change.
B) evolve shorter legs.
C) evolve longer legs.
D) evolve to be able to run away from predators more quickly.
E) evolve to be able to maneuver less efficiently.
27) Which of the following is a mechanism or cause of evolution?
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
e. all of the above
28) Selection against individuals at both ends of a phenotypic distribution for a
character, favoring those in the middle or average of the distribution, is an
example of __________.
a. kin selection
b. sexual selection
c. directional selection
d. disruptive selection
e. stabilizing selection
29) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium represents an idealized, evolution-free
population in which the allele frequencies and genotype frequencies will not
change over time. In order for this to happen, five conditions must be met: 1)
there must be no mutation; 2) there must be no gene flow between populations;
3) the populations must be very large; 4) all mating must be random; and 5) there
must be no natural selection. If one of these five conditions was violated, genetic
change, and thus evolution, would occur in the populations of subsequent
generations. Suppose that only condition 3 were violated—that the population
was very small. In this situation, the evolution would probably be due to
_________.
a. mutation
b. migration
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
e. all of the above
30) What is a gene pool?
a. a region of DNA found at a specific position on a chromosome
b. the number of copies of an allele for a specific gene in a population
c. the total number of all the genes in a population
d. none of the above
31) Genetic drift, population bottlenecks, and founder populations all illustrate
__________.
a. decreasing population size has a greater effect on changing allele frequencies
than increasing the population size
b. that reducing population size will likely decrease genetic variability within the
population
c. the strong role played by very small isolated populations in the creation of new
species
d. all of the above
32) What type of natural selection favors individuals with rarely encountered traits
over individuals with traits that are frequently encountered?
a. disruptive selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. directional selection
33) Evolution is best defined as a change in __________.
a. number of species
b. physical traits
c. DNA sequence
d. allele frequencies
34) Gene flow __________.
a. cannot influence the evolution of a population
b. prevents the spread of alleles through a species
c. causes populations to diverge from each other
d. makes populations more genetically similar
35) Why is the sickle cell allele found at a high frequency in African human
populations?
a. Individuals with sickle cell anemia are resistant to malaria, which has
historically been prevalent in Africa.
b. Heterozygote carriers of the allele are susceptible to malaria, which has
historically been absent in Africa.
c. Individuals with sickle cell anemia are susceptible to malaria, which has
historically been absent in Africa.
d. Heterozygote carriers of the allele are resistant to malaria, which has
historically been prevalent in Africa.
36. What happens if a baby has only one X chromosome, and no Y?
a. Such a major chromosome deficiency is lethal, so the baby
would be stillborn.
b. This baby would be a female with Turner syndrome.
c. The baby would be a male with Turner syndrome.
d. The individual would have Klinefelter syndrome.
37. What are alleles?
a. specific physical locations of genes on a chromosome
b. variations of the same gene (i.e., similar nucleotide sequences on
homologous chromosomes)
c. homozygotes
d. heterozygotes
38. A single gene capable of influencing multiple phenotypes within a single
organism is said to be __________.
a. codominant for that gene
b. incompletely dominant for that gene
c. polygenic for that gene
d. pleiotropic for that gene
39. A plant has a dominant phenotype but an unknown genotype. The proper
experiment to determine its correct genotype would be a/an:
a. heterozygotic cross.
b. testcross.
c. homozytic cross.
d. F1 cross.
e. back cross.
40. The Law of Independent Assorttment (Mendel) is best demonstrated using:
a. a monohybrid cross.
b. a dihybrid cross
c. a testcross.
d. a back cross.
e. two recessive varieties of the gene under study.
41. Which of the following lines of evidence support(s) the idea that evolution
occurs?
a. the fossil record
b. genetic and biochemical analyses
c. comparative anatomy and embryology
d. artificial selection
e. all of the above
42. In what way does the human population influence evolution?
a. Human development changes the habitats of many species,
influencing natural selection on those species.
b. Use of antibiotics by humans has selected for antibiotic-resistant
bacterial populations.
c. Humans are responsible for the many breeds of dogs found
today.
d. all of the above
43. Natural selection acts on ____________________, while evolution occurs in
________________.
a. populations; individual organisms
b. individual organisms, populations
c. species; individual organisms
d. ecosystems; organisms
44. Which of the following is a mechanism or cause of evolution?
a. mutation
b. gene flow
c. genetic drift
d. natural selection
e. all of the above
45. Selection against individuals at both ends of a phenotypic distribution for a
character, favoring those in the middle or average of the distribution, is an
example of __________.
a. kin selection
b. sexual selection
c. directional selection
d. disruptive selection
e. stabilizing selection