IBPS CWE Practice Paper / Sample Paper
Subject: – Reasoning
Direction: Complete the following series with the alternatives provided in each question.
1. E P Y E J ? ?
(a) U, V
(b) B, M
(c) W, X
(d) J, M
(e) None of these
2. b a _ b a _ _ b b a a a _ b b b _ _ a a
(a) b a a b a b
(b) b a b b a b
(c) b b b a a a
(d) b a b b a a
(e) b a b a b a
Direction: Complete the following number series with the alternatives provided in each
question.
3. 8, 1, 9, 10, 19, 29, ?, 27
(a) 38
(b) 48
(c) 40
(d) 52
(e) 32
4. 55, 54, 52, 49, ?, ?
(a) 48, 46
(b) 45, 40
(c) 45, 39
(d) 45, 38
(e) 46, 35
Direction: Study the following alpha-numeric arrangement and answer the question given
below.
B84CRM9NPDKWFA2EJ7XUQHLTY6GS
5. Complete the following sequence with reference to the above arrangement. BRC, 8MR, 49M,
?
(a) CNP
(b) 4PN
(c) 4N9
(d) None of these (e) 7XU
Direction: Answer the question with reference to the symbol-letter-number sequence given
below.
2PJ@8$LB1V#Q6&GW9KCD3=f5FR7AY4
6. How many symbol and number is there in the sequence which are either immediately preceded
or followed by the letter from the first half of the English alphabet?
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) 9
Direction: Answer the following one is similar in relation to their position right
symbol/letter/number. Now, how many letters are there in the sequence which are immediately
followed by a number and immediately preceded by a symbol?
EKM3P5RTVZ9DIFQX46GHJ28W
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regard to their position in the above
sequence. Which is unlike the other four?
(a) 3E
(b) 73
(c) F9
(d) 4A
(e) 4H
8. ACDE : OGHI : : ESTU : ?
(a) ABCD
(b) EPQU
(c) XYZE
(d) HKGO
(e) PQAB
9. ‘Coal’ is related to ‘heat’ in the same ways as ‘wax’ is related to
(a) Honey
(b) Bee
(c) Light
(d) Energy
(e) Candle
10. Clay is to pottery, as gold is to
(a) Women
(b) Goldsmith
(c) Ornaments
(d) Metal
(e) Diamond
Direction: Find the odd one among the following.
11. (a) H G F E (b) P O N M
(c) D C B A (d) M S T U
(e) None of these
Direction: Find the odd one out.
12. (a) 2397
(b) 3729
(c) 4578
(d) 9732
(e) 8327
Direction: Find the odd one out.
13. (a) Lung
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Eyes
(e) None of these
14. (a) Maize
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane
(e) None of these
Direction: Study the codes given below and based on the same code, solve the question that
follows.
15. If 135*604 = 43056 and 27*698 = 82976, then 32*864 = ?
(a) 43682
(b) 43628
(c) 82643
(d) 82634
(e) 82682
Direction: Study the code given below for ‘CIRULATED’ and based on the same coede, draw
up codes for the following words.
Word:
CIRCULATED
Code:
ektwncx
16. HATED/HATEDLY
(a) icufemz
(b) jcxna
(c) jcvgfna
(d) icuxmz
(e) ijfezm
Direction: Given below are combinations of an operation and an operand.
(A) means ‘÷ 3’
(B) means ‘× 3’;
(C) means ‘- 3’;
(D) means ‘+ 3’;
(E) means ‘÷ 2’;
(F) means ‘× 2’;
(G) means ‘- 1’;
(H) means ‘+ 2’;
Select the appropriate choice to replace the question mark in the equations.
17. 18 × 3 ÷ 2 + 3 < 27 (?)
(a) (D) followed by (A)
(b) (A) followed by (G)
(c) (D) followed by (G)
(d) (D) followed by (H)
(e) None of these
Direction: In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is ‘&’ and for 1 (one) is ‘$’. There is no
other number than one. The numbers greater than 1 are to be written only by using the two
symbols given above. The value of the symbols for 1 doubles itself every time it shifts one place
to the left. Study the following example.
0 is written as &; 1 is written as #; 2 is written as #&;
3 is written as ##; and 4 is written as #&& and so on.
18. Which of the following numbers will be represented by ##&#?
(a) 8
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) 12
(e) None of these
Direction: In each question below, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter
underlined. For each underlined letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. Find
the code for the underlined letter. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may
be coded differently.
19. PRISM
(a) r
(b) o
(c) h
(d) q
(e) i
20. A is the father of X. B is the mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following
statements is definitely not true?
(a) B is the wife of A
(b) B has one daughter
(c) Y is the son of A
(d) X is the sister of Z
(e) B is the mother of Z
Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) There are six people in a family (A, B, C, D, E, F).
(ii) C is the wife of B and the mother of F.
(iii) F is the granddaughter of E.
(iv) D is the grandmother of A and the mother of B.
(v) There are two married couples in the family.
21. Which of the following is true?
(a) A is the sister of F
(b) A is the brother of F
(c) B has two daughters
(d) none of these
(e) F is father of A
Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
(i) A, B, C, D, E, and F are six members of a family
(ii) One is a student, one housewife, one doctor, one teacher, one lawyer, and one engineer.
(iii) There are two married couples in the family.
(iv) B is a teacher and the mother of C.
(v) D is the grandmother of C and is a housewife.
(vi) F is a lawyer and is the father of A.
(vii) C is the brother of A. E is the father of F and is a doctor.
(viii) E is the father of F and is a doctor.
22. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
(a) A is an engineer
(b) E is the father of the teacher
(c) D is the mother of the teacher
(d) F is the father of the engineer
(e) C is the father of the engineer
Direction: Using the following information, answer the questions given below.
(i) In a family of six (1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6), there are two married couples.
(ii) 4 is the grandmother of 1 and the mother of 2.
(iii) 3 is the wife of 2 and the mother of 6.
(iv) 6 is the granddaughter of 5.
23. Which of the following is true?
(a) 1 is the sister of 6
(b) 1 is the brother of 6
(c) 2 has two daughters
(d) 4 has two grandchildren
(e) 3 is sister of 6
24. Vandana starts walking towards the east and, after covering a distance of 20 m, she turns left
and runs for 15 m. She then turns to her right and moves 25 m. From here, she again turns right
and walks for 15 m. How far is she from the starting point?
(a) 40 m
(b) 45 m
(c) 50 m
(d) 60 m
(e) 20 m
25. Rohit is as much younger to Neelu as he is older to Prince. If the sum of the ages of Neelu
and Prince is 48 years, how old is Rohit?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 32
(e) 22
Direction: There are 125 cubes of similar size arranged in the form of a bigger cube (5 cubes on
each side, that is, 5*5*5). From one corner of the top layer of this cube, four smaller cubes
(2*2*1) are removed. From the column on the opposite side, two cubes (1*1*2) are removed.
From the third corner too, three cubes (1*1*3) are removed, and from the fourth column four
cubes (1*1*4) are removed. All exposed faces of the block thus formed are coloured red.
26. A cube is painted green on all sides. It is then cut into 64 cubes of equal size. How many of
these smaller cubes are painted on one side only?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 24
(e) 12
Direction: Answer the following questions based on the letter-number sequence given gelow.
EKM3P57RTVZ9D1FQX46GHJ28W
27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the seventh letter/number from the
left end and the ninth letter/number from the right end of the above sequence?
(a) D
(b) 9
(c) 1
(d) there is no such letter/number
(e) None of these
28. If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them
becomes the next letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged,
then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter
only once in a word?
(a) None
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 1
(e) None of these
Direction: Answer the following questions based on the symbol-letter-number sequence given
below.
2PJ@8$LB1V#Q6dGW9KCD3.D£5FR7AY4
29. How many symbols and numbers are there in the sequence which are ei-there immediately
preceded or immediately followed by the letter which is from the first half of the English
alphabet?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
(e) None of these
30. In the word CONTRACTUAL, the positions of the first and the eleventh letters and
interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and tenth letters are interchanged and so on
upto the positions of fifth and seventh letters are interchanged keeping the position of sixth letter
unchanged. Which letter will be the third to the right of the sixth letter from the left end?
(a) T
(b) N
(c) U
(d) A
(e) None of these
Direction: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question. Read both are statements and give answer (i) if the data in statement I
alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
Give answer (ii) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (iii) if the data either in statement I or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (iv) if the data in both the statement together is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Given answer (v) if the data in both statements I and II together and needed to answer the
question.
31. Who among Satish, Vilas, Jayant and Naresh is the tallest?
I. Satish is taller than Jayant who is not as tall as Vilas but is taller than Naresh.
II. Vilas is not taller than Satish.
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
(e) (v)
Direction: In an office there are eight sections named I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, and VIII. No visitor
is allowed to visit one section for more than an hour. If a visitor has to visit more than one
section he has to come back to the security officer to get a fresh visitor’s pass by surrendering the
earlier section’s pass.
Every hour the security officer generates seven passwords for all sections by choosing a set of
seven words, which is used for Section I which is the reception-cum-visitors hall. Following is
an illustration of the generation of seven passwords for each section:
Section I : sri am cue way meat fro le
II : le cue am way meat fro sri
III : cue le way am meat sri cue
IV : fro way le am meat sri cue
V : way fro am le meat cue sri and so on till Section VIII.
32. A visitor wanted to visit Section VI but he was wrongly given the password for Section IV
‘ear two it rye sit he wu’. What would be his correct password for Section VI, if hourly password
remains the same?
(a) he rye ear it sit wu two
(b) two ear rye it sit wu he
(c) wu it two rye siot he ear
(d) rye he it ear sit two wu
(e) None of these
33. From a point, Rajneesh started walking towards east and walked 35 m. He then turned
towards his right and walked 20m and he again turned right and walked 35 m. Finally he turned
to his left and walked 20 m and he reached his destination. Now, how far is he from his starting
point?
(a) 50 m
(b) 55 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 40 m
(e) None of these
34. Manish remembers that his father had called him after the 16th but before the 21st of the
month, while Suresh remembers that father had called after the 19th but before the 22nd. On
which date had father called?
(a) 10th
(b) 17th
(c) 20th
(d) 19th
(e) None of these
35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
(a)Kanpur
(b) Chennai
(c) Dispur
(d) Kolkata
(e) Jaipur
36. A man walks 30 m towards south, then turning to his right, he walks 30 m. Then turning to
his left, he walks 20 m. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 m. How far is he from his initial
position?
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 20 m
(e) None of these
Direction: Study the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and answer the following question:
(A) 1, 5, 9 means ‘You better go.’
(B) 1, 6, 7 means ‘Better come here.’
(C) 5, 6, 7 means ‘You come here.’
(D) 1, 5, 6 means ‘Better you here.’
(E) 3, 7, 9 means ‘Come and go.’
37. Which of the following group of minimum statements are necessary to find the code number
for ‘better’?
(a) A and B
(b) D and E
(c) C and D
(d) B and E
(e) None of these
38. Ram walks 10 m south from his house, turns left and walks 25, again turns left and walks 40
m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach his school. In which direction is the school from his
house?
(a) South-west
(b) North-east
(c) East
(d) North
(e) South-east
Direction: Read the following and answer the questions given below it.
In a certain code language: (i) ‘481’ means ‘Sky is blue’; (ii) ‘246’ means ‘Sea is deep’; and (iii)
‘698’ means ‘Sea looks blue’.
39. What number is the code for ‘looks’?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 9
(e) 2
40. Shivani’s mother was three times older than Shivani 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be
twice as old as Shivani. How old is Shivani today?
(a) 10 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 12 years
(e) 18 years
41. A directional post is erected on a crossing. In an accident, it was turned in such a way that the
arrow which was first showing east is now showing sough. A passerby went in a wrong direction
thinking it is west. In which direction is he actually traveling now?
(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
(d) West
(e) South-east
Direction: Select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship to each other as the
words in the given pair.
42. Cells: Cytology
(a) Worm: Ornithology
(b) Insect: Entomology
(c) Disease: Anatomy
(d) Tissue: Physiognomy
(e) None of these
Direction: In the following questions, three similar words have been given. Choose a suitable
description for these words from the options provided.
43. Sandy rock, Lime rock, Coal
(a) These are made of metamorphic rocks
(b) These are chemical minerals
(c) These are situated on the banks of rivers
(d) These are made of sedimentary rocks
(e) None of these
Direction: Find the odd man out.
44. (a) Earth
(b) Moon
(c) Venus
(d) Mars
(e) Uranus
Direction: Find the missing number in each of the following question.
45. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, … ?
(a) 48
(b) 42
(c) 40
(d) 36
(e) 38
Direction: Choose the alternative which has the same relationship as the first two pairs.
46. Chromate : Chromium : : Ilmenite : ?
(a) Lime
(b) Cobalt
(c) Manganese
(d) Titanium
(e) Alluminium
47. Ram’s age was square of a number last year and it will be cube of a number next year. How
long must he wait before his age is again the cube of a number?
(a) 39 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 38 years
(d) 64 years
(e) 32 years
48. Arrange the following in a meaningful order:
Doctor, Fever, Medicine, Medical Shop
(a) Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever, Doctor
(b) Fever, Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine
(c) Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever
(d) Medicine, Doctor, Medical Shop, Fever
(e) Medical Shop, Medicine, Doctor, Fever
49. TLRIA is related to Would in the same way as YBVLKA is related to
(a) Matter
(b) Before
(c) Beyond
(d)Normal
(e) After
50. I am facing the North East-direction. I turn 90o clockwise, then 180o anticlockwise, and then
another 90o in the same direction. Which direction am I facing now?
(a) West
(b) South
(c) South-west
(d) South-east
(e) East
Answer of these Questions:1
D
11
D
21
D
31
E
41
A
2
D
12
C
22
D
32
A
42
B
3
B
13
C
23
A
33
D
43
D
4
B
14
D
24
B
34
C
44
B
5
C
15
B
25
B
35
A
45
A
6
C
16
B
26
D
36
E
46
D
7
E
17
D
27
D
37
A
47
C
8
B
18
C
28
E
38
B
48
B
9
C
19
A
29
C
39
D
49
C
10
C
20
C
30
C
40
C
50
C
IBPS Clerk Practice Paper / Sample Paper
Subject: – Mathematics
1. The difference between the place values of 7 in the numeral 574873 is
(a) 69930
(b) 59930
(c) 96390
(d) 69305
(e) None of these
2. (387*387+114*114+2*387*114) = (?)
(a) 250001
(b) 251001
(c) 260110
(d) 261001
(e) None of these
3. A trader has three types of oils: 400 litres and 465 litres, respectively. If he wants to fill them
separately in tins of equal capacity, what is the least number so tins required?
(a) 42
(b) 21
(c) 7
(d) 84
(e) None of these
4. The length and breadth of a room are 13m and 7.5m, respectively. The floor of the room is to
be paved with square tiles of uniform size. Determine the length of the largest possible size of
the tile.
(a) 1.0 m
(b) 0.5 m
(c) 1.5 m
(d) 5.0
(e) 6.0
5. If the unit digit in the product (459*46*28?*484) is 2, the digit in place of ?is
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) None of these
6. Which one of the following numbers is not a square of any natural number?
(a) 17956
(b) 18225
(c) 53361
(d) 63592
(e) None of these
7. A third of Vinod’s marks in mathematics exceeds a half of his marks in social studies by 30. If
he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in social studies?
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 90
(e) None of these
8. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After
every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period is
(a) 42 minutes
(b) 48 minutes
(c) 51 minutes
(d) 53 minutes
(e) None of these
9. If (64)2-(36)2= 20z, the value of z is
(a) 70
(b) 180
(c) 120
(d) 50
(e) None of these
10. What number should replace both the asterisks in (?/21*?/189) = 1?
(a) 21
(b) 63
(c) 147
(d) 3969
(e) 4968
11. Which one of the following fractions is the smallest?
(a) 13/16
(b) 15/19
(c) 17/21
(d) 7/8
(e) None of these
12. If the difference between the 4/5th part and 1/3rd part of a number is 4 what is the number?
(a) 60
(b) 100
(c) 80
(d) 120
(e) None of these
13. If x and y are +ive integers such that (3x+7y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following
will also be divisible by 11?
(a0 4x+6y
(b) x+y+4
(c) 9x+4y
(d) 4x-9y
(e) None of these
14. If x and y are the two digits of the number 653 xy such that this number is divisible by so,
then x+y is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
(e) None of these
15. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube?
(a) 9
(b) 50
(c) 300
(d) 450
(e) 500
16. What may be substracted from 39468 to make it perfect square?
(a) 192
(b) 264
(dc) 246
(d) 280
(e) None of these
17. 1399*1399=?
(a) 1687401
(b) 1901541
(c) 1943211
(d) 1957201
(e) None of these
18. The product of two numbers is y/x. IF one of the numbers is x/y2, then the other one is
(a) y3/x2
(b) y2/x3
(c) x2/y
(d) x/y2
(e) x2/y2
19. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what
Pankaj has. If the average money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has
(a) Rs 55
(b) Rs 60
(c) Rs 90
(d) Rs 180
(e) Rs 200
20. A cricketer has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs,
thereby increasing his average by 8 runs. His new average is
(a) 20 runs
(b) 24 runs
(c) 28 runs
(d) 32 runs
(e) None of these
21. A number when divided by 296 gives a remainder 75. What will be the remainder when the
same number is divided by 37?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 6
(e) 8
22. What will be the sum of all odd numbers between 30 and 50?
(a) 625
(b) 400
(c) 225
(d) 500
(e) 600
23. In an election between two candidates, a candidate who gets 40 percent of total votes is
defeated by 15000 votes. The number of votes polled by the winning candidate is
(a) 6000
(b) 10000
(c) 22500
(d) 45000
(e) 10% increase
24. The population of a town increases by 15 percent annually. If its population was 8000 in
1995, what would it be in 1997?
(a) 9200
(b) 10400
(c) 9600
(d) 10580
(e) None of these
25. What will be the sum of all the even numbers between 1 and 60?
(a) 870
(b) 960
(c) 840
(d) 720
(e) None of these
26. Find the largest number of five digits which is divisible by 17.
(a) 99999
(b) 99960
(c) 99994
(d) 10013
(e) 10014
27. A sum of money was divided between A, B and C, such that when A gets Re 1 then B gets
65 paise and C gets 40 paise. If C’s share be Rs 40 then what is that sum of money?
(a) Rs 82
(b) Rs 126.15
(c) Rs 105
(d) Rs 205
(e) Rs 305
28. Marks obtained by Komal in English are equal to 1/3rd of marks obtained by her in Music.
Total marks obtained by her in both the subjects is 160. How many marks did she secure in
Music?
(a) 120
(b) 60
(c) 30
(d) 90
(e) 100
29. How many numbers up to three digits are divisible by 19?
(a) 48
(b) 47
(c) 25
(d) 52
(e) 54
30. What is the largest prime number by which 871 is exactly divisible?
(a) 13
(b) 1
(c) 67
(d) 871
(e) None of these
31. Vivek purchased 120 tables at a price of Rs 110 per table. He sold 30 tables at a profit of Rs
12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of Rs 14 per table. The remaining tables were sold at a loss
of Rs 7 per table. What is the average profit per table?
(a) Rs 12.875
(b) Rs 10.04
(c) 10.875
(d) Rs 12.80
(e) Rs 13.80
32. A book dealer allows 16 per cent discount to a retailer and the retailer allows 10 per cent
discount to a customer. These both discounts are given on the printed price of the book. If the
customer pays Rs 270 for a book and the dealer makes a profit of 5 per cent what is the cost price
of the book for the dealer?
(a) Rs 252
(b) Rs 243
(c) Rs 240
(d) Rs 250
(e) Rs 350
33. The difference between the greatest and the least numbers of eight digits which begin with 8
and end with 6 is
(a) 99999999
(b) 10000000
(c) 80000006
34. If a*b=a2+b2 then 3*5 is equal to
(d) 9999996
(e) None of these
(a) 16
(b) 34
(c) 8
(d) 15
(e) 18
35. The Simple interest on a sum of money at 8 per cent per annum for 6 years is half the sum.
The sum is
(a) Rs 4800
(b) Rs 6000
(c) Rs 8000
(d) Rs 7000
(e) Data inadequate
36. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 5 per cent per annum simple interest to
increase its value by 40 per cent?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 8 years
(e) 10 years
37. A number, when successively divided by 3 and 5, leaves remainder of 2 and 1, when the
same number is divided by 15, the remainder is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 7
(e) 10
38. The numbers 1, 3, 5, ………., 25 are multiplied together. The numbers of zeros at the right
end of the product is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 8
39. What will be the compound interest on Rs 240 for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum?
(a) Rs 19.20
(b) Rs 9.60
(c) Rs 19.18
(d) Rs 19.58
(e) Rs 20.58
40. Find the compound interest on Rs 15000 at 8 per cent per annum payable half-yearly for 1
year.
(a) Rs 1500
(b) Rs 1432
(c) Rs 1200
(d) Rs 1224
(e) Rs 1324
41. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The
number of days taken by A alone to finish the work, is
(a) 11
(b) 21
(c) 28
(d) 42
(e) 50
42. A and B can do a work in 10 days. B and C in 12 days while C and A in 15 days. How long
would they take if all the three work together?
(a) 5days
(b) 4 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 8 days
(e) 10 days
43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes
will be covered by B in
(a) 18 min
(b) 27 min
(c) 38 min
(d) 9 min
(e) 10 min
44. In how many seconds a cyclist will pass a distance of 100 metres at the speed of 10 km/hr.
(a) 25 sec
(b) 36 sec
(c) 40 sec
(d) 42 sec
(e) 50 sec
45. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of
(a) 120o
(b) 125o
(c) 130o
(d) 135o
(e) 140o
46. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 44
(d) 48
(e) 50
47. Today is Tuesday. After 62 days it will be
(a) Wednesday (b) Monday
(c) Thursday
(d) Sunday
(e) Tuesday
48. The day on March of 5 of a year is the same day on what date of the same year?
(a) 5th August
(b) 5th October (c) 5 November (d) 5 December (e) None of these
49. A garden is 70 m long and 30 m wide. It is surrounded by a footpath 5 m wide outside. What
is the area of the path?
(a) 2200 m2
(b) 1100 m2
(c) 550 m2
(d) 625 m2
(e) 700 m2
50. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The radius of the
sphere is
(a) 81 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 54 cm
(d) 36 cm
(e) 40 cm
Answer of these Questions:1
A
11
B
21
C
31
C
41
B
2
B
12
D
22
B
32
C
42
D
3
A
13
B
23
D
33
D
43
A
4
B
14
D
24
D
34
B
44
B
5
C
15
D
25
A
35
D
45
C
6
D
16
B
26
C
36
D
46
C
7
D
17
D
27
D
37
C
47
B
8
B
18
A
28
A
38
B
48
C
9
D
19
D
29
D
39
D
49
B
10
B
20
C
30
C
40
D
50
A
Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper
Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If
there is no error, the answer is ‘E’ (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).
1. Hardly he reached/A) to his seat /B) than he /C) was called back by his boss/D). No error/E)
2. Baba Saheb Ambedakar rose/A) more highly than /B) his comtemporary political leaders/C)
by sheer dint of merit/D). No error/E)
3. Politicians always are/A) indulged in/B) controversies/C) of sorts/D). No error/E)
4. It’s only later/A) that she’s been/B) well enough /C) to go out/D). No error/E)
5. She usually learns/A) language very quickly/B) but she did not seem/C) able to learn
Sanskrit/D). No error/E)
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital leters. Choose
the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters.
6. FIASCO
(a)empathy
(b) animosity
(c) Swindle
(d) success
(e) Petulance
7. ALTRUISM
(a) Surrogate
(b) discord
(c) Selfishness
(d) anarchy
(e) Savagery
8. PERFUNCTORY
(a) Prohibited
(b) mean
(c) Thorough
(d) petty
(e) Brazen
9. DEFINTE
(a) Indirect
(b) vague
(c) Separate
(d) acute
(e) Perfect
10. PLACID
(a) Depressed
(b) feign
(c) Trifling
(d) swayed
(e) Ruffled
Directions (Q. 11 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is nay
error in it. Each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The error, if any, will be is one
underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer, if there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore
the error of punctuation, if any).
11. He will be/A) released from/b) the/C) prison after/D) a week. No error/E)
12. Finally/A), the government has succeeded to bring/B) about/C) consensus over/D) economic
reforms. No error/E)
13. She knew/A) that/B) what her mother was/C) saying is/D) correct. No error/E)
14. Prof. Narayanan’s/A) command/B) both of his subject and his language/C) is/D) perfect. No
error/E)
15. There was/A) violent protests against/B) Religious places bill both in/C)Delhiand/D)
inlucknow. No error/E)
Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is
underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing. Select the answer from among
the five options which produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact.
16. When the Mughal empire was on the decline, among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds
of Nawabs.
(a) Among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs.
(b) Among the casualties, it claimed, were hundreds of Nawabs.
(c) Among the casualties it claimed, was the hundreds of Nawab.
(d) Among the casualties it claimed, were the hundreds of Nawab.
(e) Among the casualties it had claimed, was the hundreds of Nawabs.
17. Promod Mahajan is more vocal but not as competent as his senior party leaders.
(a) Is more vocal but not as competent as
(b) Is more vocal but not competent as
(c) Is more vocal than not competent as
(d) Is more vocal than but not as competent as
(e) More vocal but least competent than
18. Khushwant Singh was never come out from his sex obsession, his new novel. ‘In company of
women’ is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex.
(a) Is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex?
(b) Has nothing than a fiction about cheap sex?
(c) Is nothing of a fiction on cheap sex?
(d) Is nothing but a fiction on cheap sex?
(e) Is about noting than a fiction on cheap sex.
19. Whether Suzuki will make a bid to the government stake will have to be weighed.
(a) A bid to the government stake will have to be weighed.
(b) A bid for the government stake will have to be weighed.
(c) A bid to the government stake will be weighed.
(d) A bid for the government stake will have weighed.
(e) A bid on the government stake will be weighed.
20. For some reason, women’s contribution to science, technology and literature are considerably
lower than man.
(a) Are considerably lower than men.
(b) Are considerably lower to men.
(c) Is considerably lower than men.
(d) Is considerably lower than that of men.
(e) Are considerably lower to that of men.
Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of the questions below has a phrase/clause underlined. From the
given options choose the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined part.
21. Please leave the door slighty open.
(a) Lewd
(b) inclinatory
(c) Astray
(d) ajar
(e) Chasm
22. The swindler used a series of false names.
(a) Delinquencies
(b) aliases
(c) Masons
(d) mates
(e) Alibi
23. Ill tempered bus conductor had brief noisy argument with a passenger.
(a) Transgression
(b) burlesque
(c) Anodyne
(d) parachronism
(e) (An) altercation
24. This situation is in every way different from the earlier situation.
(a) Enviably
(b) altogether
(c) Specially
(d) eternally.
(e) Banefully
25. Creation of rural character and atmosphere in drawing room is in vogue today.
(a) Amalgamation
(b) muddle
(c) Ambience
(d) modesty
(e) Arrangement
Directions (Q. 26 to 30): Arrange the following b, c, d and e sentences between (a) and (f) in a
logical sequence in order to construct a logical coherent paragraph.
26.
a. There is one but truly serious problem and that is suicide.
b. Judging whether life is worth living or not amounts to answering the fundamental problem of
our existence.
c. As for me, I have come to believe that to die well requires greater moral stamina than to live
well.
d. Heroism consists in facing death with equanimity.
e. Since in the beginning people have debated whether it is natural or perverse to escape from
life’s difficulties.
f. And this reflects the highest qualities of a well resolved life.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbdef
(c) adbcef
(d) abecdf
(e) aebdcf
27.
a, One such faith which seems well developed and has many oral texts that are
beautiful is the faith of the tribals of Arunachal Pradesh.
b. Only the name is new.
c. They have in them the magic that lends itself graciously to piety.
d. Today the tribes have given it a name Donyipoloism.
e. Their sacred texts called’ a ‘abhangs’ are as old as the hills.
f. It has served them well in the difficult conditions on the eastern Himalayas where the life is
hard and cold.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbdef
(c) adbecf
(d) aebdcf
(e) abedcf
28.
a. Blame it on the cow or on the sun.
b. Australian scientists doing an inventory of green house gasses came up recently with methane
emission.
c. Belching and flatulence in cows and sheep produce an estimated 90 percent ofAustralia’s
methane emission in agricultural sector.
d. To every one’s astonishment they traced the source to Australia’s cattles which produce a six
and half billion of methane annually, emitted largely through burps.
e. Never before has a hot environmental issue like global warning generated 50 many studies that
seem intent on placing onus for our heated planet on sources ranging from the cattle to the
cosmos.
f. Methane is said to be 25 percent more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2) in contributing to
global warming.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbdef
(c) adbcef
(d) aebdcf
(e) acdebf
29.
a. understandably, high profile business barons have begun lobbying for a change in
SEBI’s takeover code.
b. This flies in the face of the logic.
c. Promoters are not required to hold 100 percent equity in a company to control it.
d. One of the suggestions is that raiders should be asked to make an open offer for 100 percent of
the target’s equity, not just 20 percent.
e. Why should raiders be asked to do so?
f. Besides, it would become prohibitively expensive for potential predators to dislodge
managements, regardless of their performance, and be a body blow to shareholders democracy.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbdef
(c) acdebf
(d) adbcef
(e) adecbf
30.
a. The Indian hand-knoted carpet industry is a traditionally rural based cottage
industry.
b. It is highly labour intensive and almost entirely export oriented.
c. It is when the migration of skilled craftsomer from Persia and Afghanistan took place.
d. The present dominant tradition of pile carpet goes back to 16th centery.
e. The patronage extended by Mughal rulers enabled the craft to take its root and flourish in
India.
f. The newly revived carpet industy in India had to follow the traditional oriental style to
compete in the market.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbdef
(c) abdecf
(d) adbcef
(e) abdcef
Directions (Q. 31 to 35): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below
each sentence there are five pairs of words/ phrases. Choose a pair of words /phrases that fits into
the blanks to give a meaningful sentence.
31. India was up for grabs and the only ———block was the English-who also——-imperial
ambitions.
(a) Impeding; promoted
(b) solid; encouraged
(c) Stumbling; fostered
(d) limping; nurtured
(e) Mature; having
32. A———of guides surrounded me, all offering their services to ———me around the temple.
(a) Flock; tour
(b) gaggle; escort
(c) Bundle; guide
(d) multitude; chase
(e) Huddle; follow
33. Much love and —–had gone into ——–one of the most undignified diseases known to man.
(a) Devotion; submerging
(b) care; enduring
(c) Sympathy; overpowering
(d) discipline; defeating
34. And it was Clive who was given the job of ——-the ——–that was to become known as the
black hole of Calcutta.
(a) Avenging; tragedy
(b) revenging; incidence
(c) Placating; nawab
(d) punishing; hooligans
(e) Managing; comedy
35. Then he ———–my hand and kissed it repeatedly found it all immensely —————.
(a) Held; quavering
(c) Caught; inspiring
(b) grabbed; embarrassing
(d) gobbled; sophisticated
(e) Swayed; annoying.
Directions (Q. 36 to 40): Each of the sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank
indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are
given. Which, when inserted in the sentence, best fit in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
36. We admired the triumphant but we did not ———–what we knew we could not ———-.
(a) Visualize; attain
(b) envy; emulate
(c) Estimate; examine
(d) aggrandize; suppress
(e) Follow; target
37. They are making the new ball ————a lot this morning.
(a) Elevate
(b) transcend
(c) turn-away
(d) swerve
(e) Raise
38. One likes to have an ———-of books on their self.
(a) Illustration
(b) array
(c) Outline
(d) extension
(e) Abode
39. We turn again to him in the expectation that some thing profoundly ———will be said to us.
(a) Agrarian
(b) illuminating
(c) Belligerent
(d) pliable
(e) Palatable
40. The falling water plashed with a ———-sound as soft as a sleep.
(a) Devilish
(b) shallow
(c) Murmurous
(d) appreciative
(e) Mute
Directions (Q. 41 to 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
With the economy experiencing lower real growth than anticipated by some, higher inflation,
incomplete adjustment to external (oil) price shocks and sluggish reforms, there is renewed
pressure on the rupee. The RBI has often proclaimed that it is not interested in pegging the value
of the rupee with respect to the dollar at any particular level but only in minimizing volatility.
Thus, a policy of leaning against the wind’: if rupee value moves ‘too fast’, various policy
measures are unleashed.
These range from ‘talking to dealers’, implicitly taxing locked in export earnings, intervening in
the foreign exchange market and changing the bank rate. Surely, the current point blank refusal
of the RBI alter the bank rate is part of the set of policies to soften the pressures on the rupee. At
the same time, the sluggish growth of the economy has prompted calls for loosening monetary
policy. It is important to understand the implications of this against the background of the chosen
exchange rate regime and other instruments of policy, especially fiscal policy. The word over,
being part of an internationally integrated financial system has made the variable-peg exchange
rate regime difficult to practice, particularly for developing countries. Countries are moving
either in the direction of an immutable fix (currency boards, dollarisation) or managed floating.
The RBI appears to have moved decisively in the direction of managed float. However, its
professed objective of minimizing volatility has often been understood as pegging, especially
because the exchange value of the rupee against the dollar has a definite downward trend. A
move toward either a variable peg or managed float vis-à-vis a dominant currency like the dollar
in the context of highly integrated capital markets has serious implications for the conduct of
monetary policy. These go beyond the simple dictums of the Mundell-Flemming model: with a
fixed exchange rate you give up independent monetary policy whereas with a managed float, the
efficacy of fiscal policy is compromised.
With a managed float both the interest rate and the exchange rate become part of the monetary
transmission mechanism. Thus, a pure interest rate shock (say a fall) will have complex effects.
In addition to the standard income effect (a fall in the rate implies lower income from savings
thus lowering current consumption) and substitution effect (a fall in the interest rate decreases
the attractiveness of postponing consumption) there will be effects on asset prices and value of
debt stocks of different term structures and associated risks. The inclusion of exchange rate in the
transmission mechanism adds another layer of uncertainty. An expansionary monetary policy
would lead to a weaker rupee.
This would shift consumption away from imports (the substitution effect) and should have direct
pass-through effects on the prices of exports, imports and substitutes for imports and exports.
However, a weaker rupee would turn the terms of trade against us, which would reduce
spending. Increase in the domestic resource cost of financing external debt repayments,
consequent upon a weaker rupee, will have a wealth effect and also discourage spending. These
effects would tend to reduce the expansionary impact of the postulated loose monetary policy.
With complementary exchange and interest rate movements, interest rates will have to fall less to
effect any desired level of monetary expansion. Consequently, domestic bond prices do not rise
by enough in response to monetary expansion. If such bonds then become the basis for further
domestic credit expansion then the expansionary expectations from monetary profligacy would
have been belied. Also, the smaller fall in interest rates will not lower the cost of servicing the
internal debt as much as expected and would not be able to stimulate private investment by as
much.
However, the lower value for the rupee would make domestic producers more competitive so
that the trade deficit might narrow. As a consequence the foreign debt may not go up at least on
this count.
A fiscal policy that arrests the fall in the value of the rupee and permits sufficient drop in the
interest rate would be the obvious antidote in this situation. A natural corollary would be that if
monetary policy is directed primarily toward price stabilization, then fiscal policy should be used
for correcting the external imbalance. But such a fiscal policy becomes difficult to pursue if
exchange rate expectations are volatile. Volatile expectations are rational if exchange rates
overshot equilibrium values in response to a monetary shock.
In addition, financial markets (domestic and international) are subject to ‘bubble like behaviour’.
Each such bubble would correspond to markets reacting to ‘news’ that could not be justified as
‘rational’ by subsequent events. Examples would include the recent overvaluation of technology
stocks as well as the strength of the yen in early 1995. Such sharp changes in asset values would
reverberate in currency markets. Even if interest rate movements offset the implied changes in
currency values, there would be an effect on anticipated inflation (through prices of imports and
exports) in an economy that is getting increasingly integrated with the world economy. This
would again impact on the monetary transmission mechanism.
For these reasons countries look for capital controls as a way to ease the pressure on monetary
and fiscal policy when international capital markets are highly integrated. Thus, China, Malaysia,
Russia and others have opted for some forms of capital controls. Chile experimented with a
much-studied form of capital controls and India shelved its plans for capital account
convertibility. However, the danger with capital controls is that they tend to become porous over
time. Further, they may, like most controls, be misused. All these tend to make the choice of
fixed exchange rate regime, which can be changed when needed (a variable peg), look attractive.
41. Exchange rate mechanism adopted by RBI for rupee is
(a) Immutable fixed exchange rate.
(b) Managed-floating exchange rate.
(c) Free-floating exchange rate.
(d) Any of the above, depending upon the prevailing over-all economic situation.
(e) None of the above
42. What is related to Mundell-Flemming model?
(a) A country has to give up its independent monetary policy in fixed exchange rate mechanism.
(b) With a managed float exchange rate mechanism effectiveness of the fiscal policy is at stakes.
(c) Managed float exchange rate mechanism is most appropriate
(d) Both A and B
(e) None of the above
43. What possible effect might depreciating rupee have on foreign debt?
(a) Foreign debt is likely to increase.
(b) Foreign debt is likely to remain unaffected
(c) Foreign debt is likely to decrease.
(d) The foreign-trade deficit might increase
(e) None of the above
44. Which of the following trend might be considered as not healthy for Indian economy?
(a) A relatively stable rupee
(b) A low interest rate.
(c) A volatile rupee in foreign exchange market
(d) A monetary policy directed towards domestic price stablilsation.
(e) Only C and D
45. What is implied by ‘leaning against the wind’ mentioned in the first paragraph?
(a) That RBI is interested in maintaining a fixed price of rupee with respect to dollar.
(b) That monetary policy is dependent upon fiscal policy
(c) That RBI will intervene in currency market if slide in value of rupee is ‘too fast’
(d) That Government of India (Gol) will only regulate policies to minimize untoward
fluctuations in foreign currency market.
(e) None of the above.
46. Which policy measures is not adopted by RBI to control the value of rupee in the currency
exchange market?
(a) Regulation of bank rate.
(b) Fixation of value of rupee at a desired level with respect to dollar.
(c) Taxing locked in export earnings.
(d) By directly intervening in the foreign exchange market.
(e) None of the above
47. If the bank rates are decreased substantially what effect it would have on rupee in foreign
currency exchange market?
(a) The value of rupee will appreciate.
(b) The value of rupee will depreciate.
(c) Indian rupee will remain unaffected.
(d) Value of rupee depends upon multiple of other factors and its effects would be difficult to
predict.
(e) Only A and D
48. What is meant by ‘bubble like behaviour’?
(a) Reverberations in currency market because of sharp changes in asset value.
(b) Over valuation of technology stocks.
(c) Irrational behavior of financial market leading to occasional boom-bust cycle.
(d) Unjustified strength of yen in mid 1990s.
(e) All of the above
49. Why do some countries opt for some form of capital controls to regulate the value of their
currency in foreign exchange?
(a) To ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy in globalised capital market.
(b) To control capital account convertibility of currency
(c) To make capital control more porous.
(d) Only A and C
(e) All the above
50. What is the suggestion of the author regarding monetary transmission mechanism for India?
(a) Rupee should be made fully convertible on capital account.
(b) Fixed exchange rate regime is best suited for India
(c) India’s managed float mechanism is best in present circumstance
(d) Rupees value should be fixed to a basket of international currency.
(e) All of the above
Answer these Questions:1
C
11
D
21
D
2
B
12
B
22
B
3
A
13
D
23
E
4
A
14
C
24
B
5
C
15
A
25
C
6
D
16
B
26
D
7
C
17
D
27
C
8
C
18
D
28
D
9
B
19
B
29
D
10
E
20
D
30
E
31
C
41
B
32
B
42
D
33
E
43
A
34
D
44
C
35
B
45
C
36
B
46
B
37
D
47
D
38
B
48
C
39
B
49
A
40
C
50
C
Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper
Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part of the sentence. The alphabet of
that part is answer. If there is no error the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).
1. A planning of the hospital/A) and its surroundings/B) is drawn on the hoarding/C) outside the
hospital-site/D). No error/E)
2. He asked me/A) when and where/B) had I planned/C) to spend my holidays? / D) No error / E)
3. The NATO had miserably/A) failed in anticipating/B) the out come of /C) airstrikes on
Yugoslavia/D). No error/E)
4. The fleeing refuges/A) are at risk to get/B) caught in/C) heavy cross fire/D). No error/E)
5. I have been/A) really/B) looking forward to/C) visit you again/D). No error/E)
Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of following sentences there are two blank spaces.
Below each sentence, there are five pairs of word/phrases. Choose a pair of words/phrases that
fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence.
6. Star TV makes a last ditch attempt to revive its ——–even as the over all TV scenario remains
in the ——(a) Capital; difficulty
(b) chance; fraction
(c) Luck; lurch
(d) fortunes; doldrums
(e) Luck; store
7. In west Bengal, the public health system has ———away and ———-government hospitals
are run by party –sponsored unions.
(a) Withered; imitating
(b) plundered; robust
(c) Plucked; absurb
(d) pondered; rapacious
(e) Burnished; dilapidated
8. The editor claims they have only removed mistakes that ———in while ———–but other
accuse them of changing meaning.
(a) Blurred; imitating
(b) bombarded; shooting
(c) Braced; writing
(d) brooded; copying
(e) Crept; transcribing
9. A former chief minister, ———pariah by his party boss has a word of ——–to supporters
who might wish to dive with him, “Don’t”.
(a) Renounced; advice
(b) rendered; advice
(c) Disowned; caution
(d) abjured; promise
(e) Ceded; help
10. He was ———-with the ———-task of putting up a defence for Jeans, the country’ official
submission for the Best Foreign Film Oscar.
(a) Saddled; unenviable
(b) burdened; impartial
(c) Mustered; absurd
(d) pestered; unsuitable
(e) referred; uncanny
Directions (Q. 10 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any
error in it. Each sentence has four underlined parts. The error, if any, will be in one underlined
part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’ (Ignore the error of
punctuation, if any).
11. We all/A) had some/B) of the cakes/C), she probably ate most/D). No error/E)
12. The/A) fire doesn’t/B) seem to be giving out/C) much/D) heat. No error/E)
13. Nobody /A) but/B) she /C) could be so/D) selfish. No error/E)
14. My father is in/A) the /B) CBI team which/C) is investigating the/D) security scam. No
error/E)
15. No sooner did/A) the news of his murder flash/B) when/C) the violence erupted/D). No
error/E)
Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is
underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the
answer which produces most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact.
16. The government may soon have no alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum.
(a) No alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum.
(b) No alternative but to increase the prices of petroleum.
(c) No alternative for the increase of the prices of petroleum.
(d) No alternative for increasing the prices of petroleum.
(e) No alternative other than to increase the prices of petroleum.
17. Even the choice of a Deputy CM may prove to be a problematic because it is likely to set
about intense factionalism in the party.
(a) Because it is likely to set about intense factionalism
(b) Because it like to set forth intense factionalism.
(c) That it is likely to set an intense factionalism.
(d) Because it is likely to set off intense factionalism.
(e) But it would like to set about an intense factionalism.
18. It was obviously Mr. Basu’s stature which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline
for which a junior member would have had to pay a heavy price.
(a) Which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline?
(b) Which enabled him to get away with this act of indiscipline?
(c) That allowed him to get away with this act of indiscipline.
(d) That allowed him to get out with this act of indiscipline.
(e) Which enabled him to get off with this act of indiscipline?
19. While Mahatma has suffered many martayrdoms at our hands when he was slain by Godse.
(a) When he was slain by Godse.
(b) Than he was slain by Godse.
(c) Since he was slain by Godse.
(d) When he had been slain by Godse.
(e) Because he was slain by Godse.
20. Monarchy, democray and communism have all failed, so go the argument.
(a) Have all failed, so go to the argument.
(b) Have all failed, so goes to the argument.
(c) Are all failed so go the argument. (d) Has all been failed, so goes the argument?
(e) All have failed, so is the argument.
Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank
indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are
given. Choose one word or set of words, which when inserted in the sentence best fits in the
meaning of the sentence, as a whole.
21. We paced the pavement for a time in ———on friends and books.
(a) Adventure
collusion
(b) appraisement
(c) discourse
(d) exaggeration
(e)
22. She shook the money box so as to make it ——–.
(a) Hallow
(b) surge
(c) secure
(d) rattle
(e) corrupt
23. The only money box ——–with virtue is a box out of which one can get money when one
wants it.
(a) Consonant
impious
(b) obsolete
(c) dozy
(d) whimsical
(e)
24. There is a vast ———-of birds of the crow family.
(a) Consignment
(b) grime
(c) dump
(d) eddy
(e) concourse
25. Exercise is a ——–with many writers on health and longevity.
(a) Contest
(b) freak
(c) fetish
(d) terror
(e) stupor
Directions (Q. 26 to 32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
It has been a long hot summer and almost everyone seems to be having fun criticising the
economic reforms. The congress party has taken leave of its lenses and wants to undo all the
good work of its worthiest member, Manmohan Singh. The RSS continues to make noises
against globalization. The left parties want to protect the labour aristocracy in the public sector
against the interests of the labouring masses. Sharad Yadav has shamelessly given away free
telephones to all telephone company employees. That leaves only the Prime Minister to fight for
India’s future all alone, with only a handful of reformers to depend upon.
The reforms are anti-poor this is the constant refrain of the critics. Talk of the poor, I am
convinced, confuses the debate on reforms. In the short term, the reforms will have no impact on
the poor. In the longer run, the reforms will pull up the poor into the middle class.
In any society, the top 15 per cent of the people will do well and look after themselves. The
bottom 15 per cent will fail and will need to be looked after. In between is the 70 per cent or the
vast majority or the people, which in successful economies becomes the middle class. Our real
tragedy in the last 50 years is not our poverty but that we did not create the middle class. Our
socialist policies suppressed initiative, jobs, economic growth and middle class opportunities.
Hence, our middle class was barely eight per cent of the population in 1980.
After the economy started seriously growing from the 1980s, the middle class has tripled,
according to the National Council of Applied Economic Research, and is now 18 per cent of a
much larger population. Given the right incentive system, the middle class invariably pulls itself
up through hard work, self-help and education in a competitive society and the task of the
economic reforms is precisely to create such an incentive system. If the reforms are successful,
they will succeed in making a majority of India’s population middle class within a generation.
And then, it will also be easier to look after the poor when they are 15 per cent of the population
rather then forty.
Who have the reforms hurt so far? Scrapping licensing has only hurt the corrupt bureaucrat and
businessman. It does not immediately affect the poor. Similarly, opening the economy to trade
and investment has only hurt the inefficient Indian producer and his labour. Neither of them are
the wretchedly poor. Reducing controls on the economy has only brought efficiency, removed
monopolies, and liberated new entrepreneurs. It is true that the second phase of reforms will
cause job losses and pain. But these jobs belong to our pampered organized labour, primarily in
inefficient public sector companies. This labour has amongst the lowest productivity in the
world, is insensitive to consumers, and gives Indian industry a bad name. By no stretch of the
imagination can we call it poor.
Nor will cutting subsidies significantly hurt the poor. Experts are unanimously agreed that over
75 per cent of the subsidies do not reach the poor. Fertiliser and power subsidies are enjoyed by
the rich and the middle class farmers –the rural poor are mainly landless labour. Similarly, the
food subsidy through the PDS does not reach the poor, especially in Bihar and UP. Food subsidy
has largely been enjoyed by the urban middle class. Economists around the world have been
arguing that subsidies are the worst way to help the poor because they distort the price
mechanism for the whole economy and misallocate society’s scarce resource. Instead of
subsidies it is beter to give money to the poor (which, of course, has its own problems, for all
Indians, including millionaires, will stand in a queue to be counted among the poor).
The reforms, thus, do not hurt the poor. Unlike our past policies, the reforms focus on prosperity
and not on poverty. They assume that the poor do not want handouts; they want viable jobs so
that they can pull themselves up into the middle class. By making the economy efficient and
productive the reforms will create jobs, growth, and the middle class. Our politicians need to
understand this, and proclaim from the rooftops: “The reforms are not anti-poor!”
Meanwhile, the experts in the academia, the NGOs, and the development institutions need to dig
deeper into the explosive growth in our middle class to gauge the success of the reforms (and not
be mesmerized by our controversial poverty figures). Finally, let us remember what Aristotle
said: “The most perfect political community is one in which the middle class is in control and
outnumbers both of the other classes.”
26. Since 50 years of independence, we failed to
(a) Bring-up poor above poverty line.
(b) Accelerate economic growth.
(c) Create a middle class.
(d) To bridge the gap between rich and poor.
(e) None of the above
27. In any society, a middle class grows when
(a) The policy of economic reform is successfully pursued.
(b) Proper opportunities are provided.
(c) Socialistic pattern of economy is withdrawn.
(d) Fifteen percent well to do looks after the rest.
(e) None of the above
28. According to author, the worst hits by reforms are
(a) Middle class and new entrepreneurs.
(b) Corrupt bureaucrats and businessmen and inefficient producers and labours.
(c) The poor.
(d) Only A & B
(e) Only B & C
29. According to author, subsidies should be scrapped because
(a) Most of the fertilizer and power subsidies are enjoyed by rich and middle class farmers and
the rural poor mainly constitute landless labour.
(b) The food subsidies through PDS does not reach poor but enjoyed by urban middle class.
(c) Subsidies are the worst way to help poor because they distort the price mechanism and
misallocate the scarce resources of the state.
(d) Only A & B
(e) All the above
30. According to author, which one of the following is not true about reforms?
(a) Reforms are not anti-poor but focused on prosperity, not on poverty.
(b) It does not intend to help poor by hand outs but by providing better opportunity and viable
jobs.
(c) Reforms are successful only when it creates vast majority of population into middle class.
(d) It does not let the 15 per cent of population to pull up into middle class.
(e) It brings efficiency, removes monopoly and creates new entrepreneurs.
31. According to author, what should be the task of economic reforms?
(a) To create job opportunities for unemployed.
(b) To pull the people into middle class.
(c) To create the right incentive system.
(d) To create such a situation so that the benefits of reforms reach the poorest of the poor.
(e) None of the above
32. According to the author, in India, the success of reforms can be gauged from the fact that
(a) The Govt. has reduced the subsidies.
(b) The Govt. has started the second phase of reforms.
(c) Since 1980, the growth in our middle class has tripled from 8 to 18 percent.
(d) A much larger population under poverty line has pulled themselves up.
(e) None of the above
Directions (Q. 33 to 37): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters.
Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters.
33. ALIGHT
(a) Light
(b) remain
(c) prevail
(d) reduce
(e) mount
34. ADVERSITY
(a) Adherent
(b) occasion
(c) fondness
(d) ease
(e) dimple
35. HUSBANDRY
(a) Munificence
(b) consort
(c) riddle
(d) convocation
(e) rectitude
(c) convenient
(d) conscious
(e) horrible
36. APPROPRIATE
(a) Partial
(b) unsuitable
37. METICULOUS
(a) Bourgeois
(b) foolish
(c) gypsy
(d) careless
(e) antagonistic
Directions (Q. 38 to 42): Each sentence or phrase given below is followed by five words. Pick
the word which is closest in meaning to the preceeding phrase or sentence.
38. Having a strong sharp taste and smell.
(a) Gruesome
(b) pungent
(c) frivolous
(d) opalescent
(e) mortifying
(d) myraid
(e) surmise
(d) perturbation
(e) idiosyncrasy
39. An extremely large number
(a) Impetus
(b) inconceivable (c) urge
40. A painful experience which is difficult to endure.
(a) Frustration
(b) rage
(c) ordeal
41. Love without sensual desire.
(a) Triumph
(b) Devine
(c) platonic
(d) debauches
(e) facsimile
42. To mix at random, as playing cards.
(a) puzzle
(b) poach
(c) synchronise
(d) emulate
(e) suffle
Directions (Q. 43 to 45): Arrange the sentences b, c, d, e to form a logical sequence between
sentences (a) and (f).
43.
a. Once the problem is diagnosed the prescription follows logically.
b. The solution must be to create a strong body of opinion among the constituents in favour of
reforms.
c. And as experience, has shown once political class has brought around to your side, the
bureaucracy, ever willing to sway with the wind will following suit.
d. In a democratic polity if this were to happen, the politicians would have to fall in line or face
marginalization by electorate.
e. The real task before PM, therefore, is to build a conseusus in favour of reforms not just among
a handful of ministers, but among the people of India whom the reforms are meant to serve.
f. It is admittedly a more demanding task than campaigning to one’s own kind but it is
more rewarding and more imperative.
(a) abcdef
(b) abdcef
(c) acbedf
(d) aecbdf
(e) acbdef
44. a. If the higher rate of inflation could have been explained by higher fuel costs alone,
there might not have been much cause for worry.
b. In a dramatic reversal of past trend, prices of primary articles as well as manufactured articles
have registered an increase during the week-in question.
c. Agreed, it is the non food category within the primary group that has recorded the sharpest
increase, but that is small comfort.
d. Unfortunately, however that is not the case.
e. And while the rise in the prices of manufactured articles is quite nominal, it is difficult to be
sanguine about the rise in primary article.
f. Price rises here are bound to feed through to the rest of the economy and none of this bodies
well for consumer or for the government either.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbdef
(c) abdcef
(d) adbecf
(e) aecdbf
45. a. With the passing of the information technology bell, India is now poised to become one
of the first few nations to have such legislation.
b. a digital signature is equivalent to a physical signature and is unique to an individual.
c. The IT bill seeks to give legal validity to digital signatures and certificates.
d. Any digital document carrying this signature has signed it and it will now hold in a court of
law.
e. A digital signature not only authenticates a user but also ensures confidentiality and integrity
of message.
f. The backbone of this technology is crytography.
(a) abcdef
(b) acbedf
(c) acbdef
(d) aedbcf
(e) adecbf
Directions (Q. 46 to 50): Four incomplete sentences are given below. They can be meaningfully
completed by the words given below. You have to choose the word that fits maximum number of
blank.
46.
I. Father advised his daughter not to ———–boy friend after 7.P.M
II. It is hard to ———your explanation for being late to work.
III. Please ———the children with your stories and jokes.
IV. It was hard for Mr. Sinha to ———the notion that he would retire next Monday.
(a) Accept
47.
(b) consider
(c) entertain
(d) receive
(e) digest
I. He was so hungry that he ——–everything served to him.
II. The plot in the novel was so interesting that I ———it in one siting.
III. The forest fire ——–every thing that came into its way.
IV. She was ———by intense hatered to destroy him.
(a) Exhumed
48.
(b) devoured
(c) ate
(d) destroyed
(e) consume
I. An interesting———-of rural life is simplicity.
II. After the skirmish events began to take a more sinister ————
III. The worst ———-of the holocaust was that millions of people were killed.
IV. You should look at the problem from every ————
(a) Feature
49.
(b) turn
(c) point of view (d) consideration
(e) aspect
I. Three people were ——-on charges of murder.
II. Adequate preventive measures ———the spread of malaria.
III. Delicate miniature sculpture on the temple wall ——–our attention.
IV. Police ———-a thief stealing valuable from the house.
(a) Caught
50.
(b) arrested
(c) stopped
(d) checked
(e) seized
I. They ——– a virulent campaign against their political opponents.
II. New model of the car will be ——–at the end of Independence Day.
III. New air craft carrier is unlikely to be ——–in next five years.
IV. He has ——–himself on a carrier in property dealing.
(a) Instituted
(b) started
(c) initiated
(d) launched
(e) made available
Answer these Questions:1
A
11
C
21
C
31
C
41
C
2
C
12
C
22
D
32
C
42
E
3
B
13
C
23
A
33
E
43
B
4
B
14
A
24
E
34
D
44
D
5
D
15
C
25
C
35
A
45
C
6
D
16
B
26
C
36
B
46
C
7
A
17
D
27
A
37
D
47
B
8
E
18
B
28
B
38
B
48
E
9
B
19
C
29
E
39
D
49
B
10
A
20
b
30
D
40
C
50
D
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and
elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?
(a) US
(b) Britain
(c) France
(d) Denmark
(e) None of these
2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can
be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so
warrants.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam
(d) Mizoram
(e) None of these
3. Who among the following has won the Durand Cup held in New Delhi recently?
(a) JCT
(c) East Bengal
(b) Chirag United
(d) Mohun Bagan
(e) None of these
4. Name the Spanish world champion who won the Valencia Grand Prix in the final round of the
world championship.
(a) Jorge Lorenzo
(b) Malcolm Campbell
(c) Enzo Ferrari
(d) Louis Chiron
(e) None of these
5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Swiss Indoors – Roger Federer
(b) ATP Valencia Open – David Ferrer
(c) WTA tournament of Champion – Ana Ivanovic
(d) Questnet Open ITF Women’s – Nicha Lertpitak
(e) US Open 2010 – Roger Federer
6. Who is the author of the book World of All Human Rights?
(a) Harish Salve
(b) Santosh Hegde
(c) Arundhati Roy
(d) Soli J Sorabjee
(e) None of these
7. Name the Ethiopian legend who announced his retirement after dropping out of the New york
City Marathon with a knee injury.
(a) Haile Gebreslassie
(b) Duncan Kibet
(c) James Kwambai
(d) Patrick Makau
(e) None of these
8. Name the deputy governor of RBI who retired recently after spending nearly 38 years there in
various capacities during which she has had a stint in virtually every area of central banking.
(a) Mohan Rakesh
(b) Subir Gokarn
(c) Usha Thorat
(d) Shyamala Gopinath
(e) None of these
9. Name the person who has been honoured with the prestigious 2010 Intel Environment Award
for his efforts to solve global safe drinking water and sanitation crises.
(a) Subir Bhomick
(b) Rajesh Shah
(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(d) Chandi Prasad
(e) None of these
10. The three-day India Economic Summit, organized by the Geneva-based World Economic
Forum (WEF), November 14-17 was held in
(a) New Delhi
(c) Washington
(b) Geneva
(d) Brussels
(e) None of these
11. Name Myanmar’s celebrated pro-democracy leader and a political prisoner of global stature
who was set free from house arrest in Yangon.
(a) Ne Win
(c) Maung Maung
(b) San Yu
(d) Than Shwe
(e) None of these
12. The 10th Russia-India-China (RIC) meeting was held in
(a) Guilin (China)
(c) Bangalore (India)
(b) Beijing (China)
(d) Wuhan (China)
(e) None of these
13. Which of the following has been removed from the United Nations list of unresolved
disputes, in a setback to Pakistan which has been asking the world body to intervene on the
issue?
(a) Siachin
(c) Baglihar dam
(b) Sir Creek
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
(e) None of these
14. Which of the following has not been conferred Maharatna status by the Central government?
(a) ONGC
(b) IOC
(c) NTPC
(d) SAIL
(e) Railways
15. Who has been re-appointed as the prime minister of France?
(a) Dominique de Villepin
(c) Francois Fillon
(b) Jean-Perre Raffarin
(d) Lionel Jospin
(e) None of these
16. Who among the following became the first enlisted Sikh soldier in the US Army in more than
two decades to complete basis training after getting a rare religious exemption for his turban and
beard because the military requires his language skills?
(a) Kamaljeet Singh Kalsi
(b) Tejdeep Singh Rattan
(c) Bob Singh Dhillon
(d) Simran Preet Singh Lamba
(e) None of these
17. Ending weeks of opposition to a European Union bailout, heavily-indebted –has agreed
finally with the EU and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on a multi-billion euro rescue
package to avert bankruptcy. It will be the first country to receive financial support from the euro
750-billion (nearly trillion dollars) financial safety net, spread by the EU and the IMF six months
ago, to help euro zone nations facing liquidity crisis.
(a) Ireland
(b) Spain
(c) Argentina
(d) Denmark
(e) None of these
18. Sonal Mansingh is associated with
(a) Painting
(b) Theatre
(c) Dance
(d) Sports
(e) None of these
19. Who has won the Indian Open golf title recently?
(a) Baek Seuk-Hyun
(b) Rikard Karlberg
(c) Manar Jaini
(d) Shiv Kapur
(e) None of these
20. Serbia has won the Davis Cup title by defeating
(a) France
(c) Switzerland
(b) US
(d) Sweden
(e) None of these
21. Who has been crewned Miss Earth Talent 2010 after beating 17 other contestants at a talent
competition in Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam?
(a) Jennifer Pazmino
(c) Yeidy Bosquez
(b) Watsaporn Wattanakoon
(d) Nicole Faria
(e) None of these
22. Who won the 21st Lal Bahadur Shastri hockey tournament?
(a) ONGC
(c) Air India
(b) Indian Oil
(d) Indian Railways
(e) None of these
23. Which country has recently won the ICC Inter Continental Cup in Dubai?
(a) Kenya
(c) Afghanistan
(b) Scotland
(d) China
(e) None of these
24. World leaders from 193 countries signed a new global climate regime on Dec 11 called
(a) Cancun Agreement
(c) Copenhagen Agreement
(b) Kyoto Agreement
(d) London Agreement
(e) None of these
25. Mobile banking is set to get a boost form IMPS, which stands for
(a) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment Service
(b) Inter-Bank Money Payment Service
(c) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(d) Inter-Bank Money Payment System
(e) None of these
26. With the aim of giving a fillip to development schemes in tribal and backward regions,
mostly affected by Naxal violence, the Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs (CCEA) has
approved the commencement of an Integrated Action Plan (IAP) in
(a) 20 districts
(c) 60 districts
(e) None of these
(b) 40 districts
(d) 100 districts
27. Name of the animal rights crusader who was presented the shining World Compassion
Award along with a cheque for 20,000 dollars from Supreme Master Ching Hai International
Association.
(a) Vandana Shiva
(b) Sunita Narain
(c) Maneka Gandhi
(d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(e) None of these
28. Name the founder of the whistleblower website Wikileaks.
(a) Julin Assange
(b) Navi Pillay
(c) Phillip Adams
(d) BenLaurie
(e) None of these
29. Name the country’s only government award for an environmental film.
(a) Vasudha Award
(b) Vasundhara Award
(c) Vaishali Award
(d) Vriksha Mistra Award
(e) None of these
30. The controversial UDRS system used in cricket is
(a) Universal Decision Review System
(b) Unified Decision Review System
(c) Umpire Decision Review System
(d) Unmanned Decision Review System
(e) None of these
31. Which of the following is anti-corruption watchdog?
(a) WTO
(c) UN Security Council
(e) None of these
(b) Transparency International
(d) Wikileaks
32. Who among the following has been appointed as the new director of the Central Bureau of
investigation watchdog?
(a) Ashwani Kumar
(b) Amar Pratap Singh
(c) DP Kohli
(d) VS Tiwari
(e) None of these
33. Who is the author of the book Yes, We Can!?
(a) M Karunanidhi
(c) Vaiko
(b) Dr Ramadoss
(d) MK Azhagiri
(e) None of these
34. Who is the author of the book A Rainbow in the Night?
(a) Jim Corbett
(c) Riduard Lo[;omg
(b) George Orwell
(d) Dominique Lapierre
(e) None of these
35. Which country will host the FIFA World Cup in 2018?
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) Portugal
(d) Belgium
(e) None of these
36. Name the film which is an Indo-Bangladesh joint production and has bagged the coveted
Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film at the 41st International Film Festival of India (IFFI)
2010.
(a) Moner Manush
(b) Bilet Pherat
(c) Andhare Lao
(d) Neel Akasher Neechey
(e) None of these
37. Beighton Cup is associated with
(a) Football
(b) Cricket
(c) Badminton
(d) Hockey
(e) None of these
38. Name the tiny the energy-rich gulf Arab country that has been picked to host the FIFA 2022
World Cup.
(a) UAE
(b) Oman
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Qatar
(e) None of these
39. World Disabled Day is observed on
(a) 1 December
(b) 2 December
(c) 3 December
(d) 4 December
(e) None of these
40. Name the concept introduced by the
speedy justice to rural population.
UPA govt through an Act in 2008 for imparting
(a) Gram Nyayalayas
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Nyaya Sabha
(d) Gram Sabha
(e) None of these
41. Name the son of the late Andhra chief minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy who resigned form
the Kadapa Lok Sabha constituency and Congress recently.
(a) K Rossiah
(b) YS Jaganmohan
(c) Kiran Reddy
(d) Gopal Rao
(e) None of these
42. What is Wikileaks?
(a) A spy agency
(b) A terrorist organization
(c) A whistle-blowing website
(d) A hackers, group
(e) None of these
43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) IDBI Bank – RBI
(b) ULIP—SEBI
(c) Pension – PFRDA
(d) Insurance—IRDA
(e) Mutual Fund – PFRDA
44. Which of the following is not an instrument of capital market?
(a) Share
(b) Bond
(c) Debenture
(d) Repo
(e) All the above
45. Lemuam rimmer David R
udisha and Croatian high jump star Blanka Vlasic were
named male and female athletes of the year respectively by the
(a) IAAF
(b) World Athletic Organisation
(c) European Athletic Organisation (d) World Athletic Federation
(e) None of these
46. Which of the following is the last book of VS Naipaul?
(a) A House for Mr Biswas
(b) The Masque of Africa
(c) India: A Wounded Civilization
(d) India: A Million Mutinies Now
(e) None of these
47. Who among the following is not an economist?
(a) Bhagwati Prasad
(b) Suresh Tendulkar
(c) Kaushik Basu
(d) Vandana Shiva
(e) All the above
48. Name the chief minister of Andhra Pradesh who resigned recently.
(a) YS Jaganmohan
(b) YV Reddy
(c) Janardhan Reddy
(d) K Rosaiah
(e) None of these
49. Nallari Kiran Kumar Reddy has been appointed as the Chief Minister of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) None of these
50. Who has been conferred Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for
2010?
(a) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva
(b) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Bingu Wa Mutharika
(e) None of these
ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 51-64): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
July 15, 2010 turned out to be a historic day, as the Indian Rupee got the much-awaited symbol,
just like other leading currencies of the world, viz Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling and the Yen. The
new symbol Rs. is an amalgamation of Devanagari “Ra” and the Roman “R” without the stem.
Till now, the Rupee was written in various abbreviated forms in different languages.
The new symbol designed by IIT Bombay postgraduate Shri D Udaya Kumar was approved by
the Union Cabinet on July 15. “It’s a big statement on the Indian currency… The symbol would
lend a distinctive character and identity to the currency and further highlight the strength and
global face of the Indian economy,” said Information and Broadcasting Minister Smt Ambika
Soni, while briefing the media on the Cabinet decision.
The new symbol will not be printed or embossed on currency notes or coins, but it would be
included in the “Unicode Standard” to ensure that it is easily displayed and printed in the
electronic and print media. The encoding of the rupee symbol in the Indian Standards is
estimated to take about six months while encoding in the Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646 will take
about 18 months to two years. It will also be incorporated in software packages and keyboards
for use in India.
On March 5, 2009 the Government announced a contest to create a symbol for the Rupee,
inviting entries for the symbol, which would reflect and capture the Indian ethos and culture.
Over 3000 entries were received, which were evaluated by a jury headed by the Deputy
Governor, RBI, which also included experts from three reputed art and design institutes. The
Jury selected five entries and also gave its evaluation of these five entries to the Government to
take a final decision.
Shri Udaya Kumar’s entry was the ‘Best of Five”. He will get an award of Rs. 2.5 lakh and more
than that an incredible fame, as the designer of the Rupee symbol. “My design is a perfect blend
of Indian and Roman letters – capital ‘R’ and Devanagri ‘Ra’ which represents rupaiah, to appeal
to international and Indian audiences… It is based on the tricolour, with two lines at the top and
white space in between,” a visibly-happy Kumar said.
The genesis of the word ‘rupee’ is in the Sanskrit word ‘raupya’ which means silver. Indian
Rupee is variously called ‘rupaya’ in Hindi, ‘rupiya’ in Gujarati, ‘roopayi’ in Telugu and
Kannada, ‘rubai’ in Tamil and ‘rupyakam’ in Sanskrit. However in Eastern India it is called
‘Taka/Toka’ in Bengali and Assamese and ‘Tanka’ in Oriya.
India stands among the earliest to issue coin, and as a result it has seen a wide range of monetary
units throughout its history. There is some historical evidence to show that coins may have been
introduced the first time some time between 2500 and 1750 BC.
51. Who is the Union Information and Broadcasting Minister?
(a) Smt Sushma Swaraj
(b) Smt Meera Kumar
(c) Smt Pratibha Devisingh Patil
(d) Smt Ambika Soni
(e) None of these
52. What is the importance of 15 July in the history of Indian rupee?
(a) The new Rupee symbol replaced the old.
(b) The international community approved the Rupee symbol.
(c) The Cabinet approved the much-awaited Rupee symbol.
(d) Both (1) and (3).
(e) None of these
53. Which of the following countries has a currency symbol?
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Singapore
(d) Germany
(e) Not mentioned in the passage
54. Who has designed the newly approved Rupee symbol?
(a) A teacher posted at IIT Bombay (b) Mr Uday Kumar of Maharashtra
(c) Mr D Uday Kumar, a postgraduate
(d) Information and Broadcasting Minister
(e) None of these
55. The new design ‘Rs.’ finds its origin in
(a) Devanagari
(b) Roman
(c) Devanagari and Sanskrit
(d) Devanagari and Roman
(e) None of these
56. What is the importance of the new Rupee symbol?
(a) It highlights the strength of the Indian economy.
(b) Now Indian rupee gets value like Dollar, Pound, Euro Yen.
(c) Now most of the foreign countries will maintain their foreign exchange reserves in Rupee.
(d) Now it will be a fully convertible currency.
(e) None of these
57. Where is the genesis of the term ‘rupee’?
(a) It has been derived from Sanskrit word ‘Raupya’.
(b) It finds its origin in the term ‘Rupaya’ of Hindi.
(c) ‘Rupiyo’ in Gujarati
(d) ‘Roopayi’ in Tamil and Kannada
(e) None of these
58. What does ‘Raupya’ mean in Sanskrit?
(a) Gold
(b) Diamond
(c) Silver
(d) Bronze
(e) None of these
59. What is Rupee called in Oriya?
(a) Taka
(b) Toka
(c) Rupyakam
(d) Tanka
(e) None of these
60. When was the first coin introduced?
(a) Between 250 and 750 BC
(b) Between 2500 and 1750 AD
(c) Between 250 and 759 AD
(d) Between 2500 and 1750 BC
(e) None of these
61. When was the process to develop a new rupee symbol initiated?
(a) 15 July 2010
(b) 5 June 2009
(c) 5 March 2009
(d) 31 January 2010
(e) None of these
62. Which among the following methods did the Government adopt to get the new symbol?
(a) All the leading artists were asked to design.
(b) A contest was announced for the purpose.
(c) The contestants were interviewed.
(d) The governor of RBI was asked to decide the process.
(e) None of these
63. What do the two lines of the design mean?
(a) They reflect the federal structure of the govt.
(b) They reflect the mixed structure of Indian economy.
(c) They reflect the new liberalized Indian economy.
(d) They reflect the tri-colour India flag.
(e) None of these
64. How many designs were sent to the Government for approval?
(a) 3000
(b) 2000
(c) 10 out of 3000
(d) 5 out of more than 3000
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 65-74): Read each sentence carefully and detect the error which may be in any
one of the parts 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case of ‘No error’, 5 will be the answer.
65. (1) To hit a man/(2) when he is down/(3) is a contemptuous/(4) thing to do./(5) No error
66. (1) The climate on this/(2) altitude is cool and dry/(3) but down in the valley/(4) it is very
sultry./(5) No error
67. (1) Since her mother/(2) died when she/(3) was young/(4) she did lack maternal care./(5) No
error
68. (1) In 1665 a/(2) great pestilence caused/(3) the death of 63000 persons/(4) in the city of
London./(5) No error
69. (1) Because of his/(2) lack of interest in the/(3) affairs of the society, the members/(4)
decided to depose the president./(5) No error.
70. (1) In the last three/(2) years Rohan has managed/(3) to obtain for him thousands/(4) of
foreign stamps./(5) No error.
71. (1) We watched the/(2) aeroplane until it/(3) disappeared, surrounded/(4) complete by
clouds./(5) No error
72. (1) Before the police could/(2) seize on the way the thief/(3) escaped across the/(4) river into
the forest./(5) No error
73. (1) If you leave/(2) now, you will have/(3) plenty time to reach/(4) the city by noon./(5) No
error
74. (1) According to/(2) present-day opinion, action/(3) must be taken long/(4) ago to preserve
forests./(5) No error
Directions (Q. 75-79): Rearrange the sentences given below in a way which would make an
appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the
questions given below.
i.
In most of the tourist destinations of the valley, the somber environs greet the visitor.
ii.
But the turmoil has restricted most of the pilgrims only to visit the Amarnath Shrine.
iii.
Besides, most of the Amarnath Yatris too used to visit the valley’s tourist spots after their
pilgrimage to the holy Amarnath cave shrine.
iv.
The tourism industry was expecting a booming business this summer.
v.
But the unrest has dashed the hopes of those associated with this industry, the mainstay of
Kashmir’s economy.
vi.
The industry was expecting at least ten lakh visitors this season.
75. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’?
(a) I
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
(e) v
76. After rearrangement which will be the ‘SECOND’ one?
(a) I
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
(e) v
77. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FOURTH’ one?
(a) v
(b) vi
(c) iv
(d) iii
(e) i
78. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FIFTH’ one?
(a) ii
(b) iii
(c) iv
(d) v
(e) vi
79. After rearrangement which will be the ‘LAST’ one?
(a) vi
(b) v
(c) iv
(d) ii
(e) i
Directions (80-89): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which
is indicated by a number. Find the suitable words from the options given against each number
and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
An increase in repo and reverse repo 80 borrowing and lending cost 81 banks will 82. This 83
ideally lead to overall increase in interest rates like credit, deposit etc. The higher interest will in
turn 84 to lower demand and thereby lower 85. This is 86 monetary transmission process.
However, this 87 may not work 88 and pose 89 problems for a central bank.
80. (a) says
(b) reflects
(c) relates
(d) implies
(e) None of these
81. (a) of
(c) to
(b) for
(d) by
(e) None of these
82. (a) diminish
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) stable
(e) None of these
83. (a) do
(b) could
(c) should
(d) can
(e) None of these
84. (a) lead
(b) come
(c) result
(d) go
(e) None of these
85. (a) recession
(b) deflation
(c) inflation
(d) stagflation
(e) None of these
86. (a) known
(b) called
(c) told
(d) said
(e) None of these
87. (a) route
(c) application
(b) step
(d) process
(e) None of these
88. (a) suitable
(c) perfectly
(b) appropriate
(d) systematic
(e) None of these
89. (a) further
(c) several
(b) many
(d) different
(e) None of these
Directions (Q. 90-94): Fill up the blanks with the most suitable pair of words from the options
given to make a meaningful sentence.
90. We’re late. The film ——— have already started by the time we ——– the cinema hall.
(a) shall, arrive
(c) will, get to
(b) would, reach
(d) should, approach
(e) may, go
91. The fire spread through the building ——– but everybody was ——– escape.
(a) fast, enable to
(c) quick, able
(b) instant, managed to
(d) immediately, safe
(e) quickly, able to
92. I am thinking ——– a house; ——– you think that’s a good idea?
(a) buying, what
(b) of buying, do
(c) taking, what
(d) for, will
(e) of, do
93. I am tired. I’d rather ——– out this evening, if you don’t ——– .
(a) go, feel
(b) not, accompany
(c) not be, worry
(d) never go, annoy
(e) not go, mind
94. I must ——– now. I promised not ——– late.
(a) leave, being
(b) reach, of being
(c) go, to be
(d) do it, for being
(e) get in, of been
Directions (Q. 95-100): Replace the word/words given in bold by one of the given options to
make the sentence correct and meaningful. In case of ‘no correction Required’ (NCR), 5 will be
the answer.
95. It was not long for I discovered that he could neither read nor write.
(a) long before
(b) long since
(c) longer than
(d) long then
(e) No correction required
96. The death toll in the train accident went to six hundred.
(a) increased to
(b) rose to
(c) spread to
(d) counted to
(e) No correction required
97. While walking on the road, a dog bit one man.
(a) a dog had bitted a man
(b) the man was dogged
(c) a dog did bit a man
(d) the man was bitten by a dog
(e) No correction required
98. He promised that he will deliver the letter within two days.
(a) will must deliver
(b) would deliver
(c) will be delivering
(d) will have delivered
(e) No correction required
99. The negotiations faced a doldrums with neither side ready to move even an inch.
(a) a hanger
(b) a crisis
(c) a hold
(d) an abortion
(e) No correction required
100. I started early so that I may cover the maximum of distance before even mid-day.
(a) I would
(b) I shall
(c) I did
(d) I could
(e) No correction required
ANSWER THESE QUESTION
1
B
11
E
21
D
31
B
41
B
51
D
61
C
71
D
81
B
91
E
2
A
12
D
22
C
32
B
42
C
52
C
62
B
72
C
82
C
92
B
3
B
13
D
23
C
33
C
43
B
53
E
63
D
73
E
83
C
93
E
4
A
14
E
24
A
34
D
44
D
54
C
64
D
74
C
84
A
94
C
5
E
15
C
25
A
35
E
45
A
55
D
65
E
75
D
85
C
95
A
6
D
16
D
26
C
36
A
46
B
56
A
66
A
76
E
86
B
96
A
7
A
17
A
27
C
37
D
47
D
57
A
67
D
77
B
87
D
97
D
8
C
18
C
28
A
38
D
48
D
58
C
68
E
78
B
88
C
98
B
9
B
19
B
29
A
39
C
49
B
59
D
69
E
79
D
89
A
99
B
10
A
20
A
30
C
40
A
50
A
60
D
70
C
80
D
90
C
100
D