Biology 1306 First Semester Final
1. The common feature of starch and glycogen is the molecules of both:
a. form microfibrils that give support to connective tissue fibers
b. are polymers of glucose
c. have a 1-4 glycosidic linkage
d.are important in the structure of cell walls
e. both a and c
f. both b and d
Refer to the following groups of biological compounds for questions 3 -8.
a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. nucleic acids
d. lipids
e. steroids
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Major component of cell membranes - _______
Synthesized at the ribosome - ____
Used to carry the genetic code - ______
Used for insulation and buoyancy in marine Arctic mammals - _____
Includes glycogen, chitin, cellulose, etc - _____
Which of the following is true about the structure of proteins?
a. The primary structure is a long chain of amino acids.
b. Alpha helices and beta pleated sheets are examples of secondary structure.
c. The side chains (R-group) of amino acids can be hydrophilic or hydrophobic.
d. Proteins are made of two or more polypeptide chains have a quarternay structure.
e. All of the above are true.
8. H2CO3/ NaHCO3 is a buffer system in the body. What effect will the addition of an acid have on the pH of this
buffer?
a. the pH will increase
b. the pH will decrease
c. the pH will remain the same
d. the pH will change very little
9. _______________ is an example of a globular (and functional) protein?
a. Bone
b. Muscle
c. Antibodies
d. Channel protein
10. Which of the following organelles would be unique for a cell that is both eukaryotic and autotrophic?
a. mitochondria
b. ribosomes
c. rough endoplasmic reticulum
d. chloroplast
11. Two potato cubes (1 mm3 and 2 mm3) were placed in a solution of iodine. The absorption of iodine can be
visualized by observing the purple color from the iodine and starch reaction. Why would the smaller (1 mm3) be
completely purple in a shorter amount of time?
a. The surface area is larger and more iodine can be absorbed.
b. The enzymes in the smaller cube have a higher metabolic rate and an increased reaction rate.
c. The distance the iodine migrates is directly related to the surface area to volume ratio.
d. The surface area to volume ratio is smaller for the small cube.
12. The building of the bacterial cell wall requires the incorporation of the amino sugar, N-acetylmuramic acid.
Penicillin prevents this amino sugar from being incorporated into the bacterial cell wall. If bacteria are exposed to
penicillin, then the
a. penicillin affects bacteria but not eukaryotes because eukaryotic cell walls are different
b. bacterial cells that had already formed their cell walls would be unaffected
c. penicillin would have no effect on a plant cell wall
d. All of the above are true
13. “Freezer burn” occurs when meat and other food stuffs are repeatedly thawed and refrozen. Each time the water in
the cells freeze, long sharp crystals will damage the organelles of the cells. While frozen, virtually no chemical
reactions occur in the cells. Which statement below explains the bad taste of “freezer burned” food?
a. The Golgi bodies cannot form vesicles to release toxins.
b. The lysosomes will start auto-digestion of the damaged organelles.
c. The rough endoplasmic reticulum releases the ribosomes from its surface.
d. The nuclear membrane is lysed causing mixing of nucleoplasm and cytoplasm.
14. Which of the following is supporting evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?
a. Mitochondria have a single phospholipid membrane.
b. Mitochondria are similar in size to bacteria.
c. Mitochondria can separate from their host cell and live independently.
d. The DNA in mitochondria has been traced to viral DNA.
15. The springtail is a common small insect found in rotten logs, rich soil, and other humid places. Its cuticle is water
repelling (hydrophobic) except for a strange organ, the collophore. The collophore remains in contact with water
and functions in maintaining an ion balance and in secretion of wastes. The cells in the collophore would contain
high numbers of
a. nuclei
b. ribosomes
c. Golgi bodies
d. lysosomes
16. Which prokaryotic structure is correctly paired with its function?
a. Nucleus; contains genetic information
b. Inclusion bodies; waste storage granules
c. Mesosomes; pouches to increase surface area
d. Ribosomes; produces plasmid DNA
17. The cells that line our respiratory tract and one-celled paramecia both have short hair-like projections called
a. flagella
b. microfilaments
c. centrioles
d. cilia
18. Why do plants wilt on a hot summer day?
a. Loss of water
b. Lack of turgor pressure
c. Heat weakens the plant cell walls
d. Both loss of water and therefore lack of turgor pressure
19. A plant poison, colchicine blocks the assembly of microtubules. What cellular function would be disrupted when a
cell is exposed to colchicine?
a. Maintenance of the shape of the cell
b. Movement of organelles
c. Cell division
d. All of the above.
20. In 1917, Langmuir determined that amphipathic phospholipids will form an artificial membrane on the surface of
water with only the hydrophilic heads immersed. From this evidence, what deduction can be made regarding the
structure of the plasma membrane?
a. Phosphate groups are hydrophobic.
b. Fatty acid tails are hydrophilic.
c. Proteins are located only between the two layers.
d. Phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.
21. If a living plant were moved from a freshwater aquarium to a saltwater aquarium, which of the following would
occur?
a. Nothing. The plant would be fine in either aquarium.
b. The plant's cells would take on ions.
c. The plant's cells will lose water.
d. The plant's cells will lose sodium.
22. The major functions of the plasma membrane include
a. impermeable barrier for separation of the fluid environments inside and outside the cell
b. recognition and communication between different cells and tissues
c. allowing the cell to survive in isolation
d. production of proteins used in construction of the cell wall
23. Which is the best definition of diffusion?
a. Movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
b. Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of
lower water concentration
c. Movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration
d. Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area of
higher water concentration
24. Which is the BEST definition of active transport?
a. Movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
b. Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of
lower water concentration
c. Movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration
d. Movement of a substance against its concentration gradient through the release of energy from ATP
25. Which of the following associations is correct?
a. Adhesion junctions—hold cells together to form a barrier
b. Tight junctions—between cells with the same plasma membrane to create channels
c. Plasmodesmata—between adjacent plant cells to aid in exchange of cytoplasm
d. Gap junctions—space between differing types of plasma membranes to prevent communication
26. Which of the following is most likely to enhance the activity of an enzyme?
a. phosphorylation
b. a synthase
c. 2-4 degree increase in temperature
d. an acid
27. All of the biochemical pathways used in a cell constitute:
a. coupling reactions
b. endergonic reactions only
c. exergonic reactions only
d. metabolism
28. ATP is considered to be
a. an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells
b. a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes
c. a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond
d. the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein
29. Enzyme inhibition occurs
a. in competitive inhibition when the inhibitor binds to the inhibition site of the enzyme
b. in noncompetitive inhibition when the inhibitor binds to the active site of the substrate
c. at the genetic level
d. in competitive inhibition and can be overcome by the addition of more substrate
30. Which of the following is characteristic of enzymes?
a. They lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
b. They raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
c. They lower the amount of energy present in the substrate.
d. They react chemically with the substrate and gradually get used up in the process.
31. Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together?
a. As the product is released, the enzyme breaks down.
b. The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate.
c. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction.
d. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the substrate changes to accommodate the reaction.
32. Coupling of endergonic and exergonic reactions within cells
a. uses energy released by one reaction to fuel the other reaction
b. utilizes ATP to carry energy between the exergonic and endergonic reactions
c. is a common process used by both plants and animals
d. All of the choices are correct
33. What establishes the electrochemical gradient across a membrane to provide energy for ATP production?
a. The electrons that are moved to the inner space.
b. The hydrogen ions that are released by a coenzyme.
c. The hydrogen ions that are pumped across the membrane by carrier proteins.
d. The ATP synthase channels pump the hydrogen ions to the outside of the membrane.
34. The electron transport systems of chloroplasts and mitochondria are similar in that they both
a. consist of a series of cytoplasmic proteins that transfer electrons from one carrier to another
b. Have high energy electrons enter the system and low energy electrons exit the system
c. Store energy when the electrons are transferd from one carrier to another
d. All of the above.
35. Chlorophyll and other accessory pigments in plants
a. absorb heat energy
b. provide electrons that will be used to produce ATP
c. provide the enzymes needed to produce carbohydrates
d. absorb all wavelengths of light
36. Photosynthesis involves the movement of electrons. Which of the following correctly justifies the step in the
photosynthetic reactions with its relation to redox terms?
a. NADP+ is oxidized because it will gain an electron
b. CO2 is reduced because it will gain hydrogen atoms
c. H2O is oxidized because it will lose electrons when it is split
d. O2 is reduced because it was split from water
37. What are the products of photosynthesis?
a. Water and carbon dioxide
b. Water and oxygen
c. Oxygen and carbohydrate
d. Carbohydrate and water
38. Which structure is correctly related to its function?
a. Thylakoid; sac that contains chlorophyll in its center
b. Stomata: pore that allows carbon dioxide to enter leaf
c. Chloroplast; membrane contains pigments for energy absorption
d. Grana; the layers of membranes that will later produce new seeds
39. Which statement is true about a photosystem?
a. Each photosystem contains pigment molecules that act as antennas to capture a specific wavelength
b. Photosystem II contains a pigment complex that loses electrons which are then replaced by electrons from
water.
c. Photosystem I receives electrons from NADPH
d. All are true.
40. Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle?
a. ATP production
b. Oxygen production
c. Carbon dioxide fixation
d. Carbon dioxide production
41. Why would a CAM plant be found in arid conditions?
a. CAM plants only carry out photorespiration so they do not require water
b. CAM plants have developed protective spines to prevent herbivores from destroying their photosynthetic cells
c. CAM plants open their stomata only at night to take in CO2
d. CAM plants structurally separate the photosynthetic cells from the stomata
42. What would determine whether acetyl CoA or ethanol is produced?
a. the presence of NAD+
b. the presence of oxygen
c. the presence of a nucleus
d. the presence of CoA
43. The correct sequence of steps in the aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose is
a. glycolysis-preparatory reaction-citric acid cycle-electron transport system
b. preparatory reaction-glycolysis-electron transport-citric acid cycle
c. electron transport system-citric acid cycle-preparatory reaction-glycolysis
d. light reactions-electron replacement-ATP production-Calvin cycle
44. Glycolysis is a universal process across all kingdoms of life. Why is glycolysis thought to be the first type of
respiration?
a. occurs in cytoplasm without membranes
b. occurs in prokaryotic cells
c. does not require oxygen
d. all of the above are correct
45. The citric acid cycle
a. occurs once for each glucose molecule metabolized
b. produces 2 ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation
c. produces 2 carbon dioxide molecules per glucose molecule
d. occurs in the cristae of the mitochondria
46. Which area of the mitochondria would be most acidic?
a. matrix
b. intermembrane space
c. outside of mitochondria
d. all equal
47. Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water?
a. the citric acid cycle
b. glycolysis
c. the electron transport system
d. the preparatory reaction
48. The carbon dioxide exhaled by animals is produced in
a. glycolysis
b. the electron transport system
c. lactate fermentation
d. the citric acid cycle
49. Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle?
a. G1, G2, S, M
b. G1, G2, M, S
c. G1, M, G2, S
d. G1, S, G2, M
50. Apoptosis refers to cell death and
a. is always biologically detrimental to an organism
b. is merely the accumulation of genetic errors
c. can be programmed and is essential to normal development
d. is a failure in the translation or transcription mechanism
51. Scientists were studying a group of cells that underwent mitosis but not cytokinesis. How did the scientists
determine this fact?
a. The cells had extra ‘bubbles’ on the plasma membrane.
b. The cells were multinucleated.
c. The cells had extra sets of chromosomes in the nucleus.
d. The cells die from the lack of organelles.
52. During which stage of the cell cycle is cell growth and replication of organelles most significant?
a. G1 phase
b. G2 phase
c. S phase
d. G0 phase
53. The event that signals the start of anaphase is
a. division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids
b. migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space
c. a cleavage furrow starts to form
d. chromosomes line up along the center of the cell
55. Which cell above correctly illustrates metaphase?
a. cell A
b. cell B
c. cell C
d. cell D
56. The overall process of mitosis functions to ensure
a. growth and tissue repair
b. that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information
c. new cells are identical to the cells from which they develop
d. All of the choices are correct.
57. Which of the following is a difference between anaphase I and anaphase II?
a. Each chromosome is composed of two homologues in anaphase I and only one homologue in anaphase II.
b. Anaphase I occurs in a haploid cell while anaphase II occurs in a diploid cell.
c. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II while homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.
d. Anaphase I results in separation of sister chromatids, while anaphase II results in separation of homologous
chromosomes.
58. Which event is descriptive of both mitosis and meiosis II?
a. Two nuclear divisions occur
b. Crossing over does not occur
c. The number of chromosomes is reduced
d. Bivalents are formed
59. If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an organism that has ______ chromosomes in somatic cells.
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 24
60. Which event is descriptive of both mitosis and meiosis II?
a. Two nuclear divisions occur
b. Crossing over does not occur
c. The number of chromosomes is reduced
d. Bivalents are formed
61. Species X reproduces asexually by fission and species Y reproduces sexually. Consider that all other relevant
characteristics are similar between these species. When the environment gradually changes, then
a. species X and Y will have an equal chance of surviving
b. species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X
c.. species X should have a better chance of surviving than species Y
d. neither species should have an advantage in surviving since organisms often become extinct when the
environment changes
62. Homologous chromosomes
a. result from the pairing of chromosomes after fertilization
b. are similar in shape and location of the centromere.
c. carry the same genetic code for the same traits.
d. carry the same genetic code for different traits.
63. Sources of genetic variation in a sexually reproducing population include(s) all of the following EXCEPT
a. independent assortment in metaphase I
b. fertilization
c. mutations
d. crossing over in prophase II
64. If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype,
a. it can be either Tt or tt
b. it can be only TT
c. it can be only tt
d. it can be TT, Tt, or tt
65. Which of the following crosses would always result in offspring that display only the dominant phenotype?
a. TT x tt
b. Tt x Tt
c. Tt x tt
d. Both Tt x Tt and TT x tt
66. Some plants fail to produce chlorophyll, and this trait appears to be recessive. If we locate a plant that is
heterozygous for this trait, self-pollinate it, and harvest seeds, what are the likely phenotypes of these seeds when
they germinate?
a. All will be green with chlorophyll, because that is the dominant trait.
b. All will be white and lack chlorophyll, because this is self-pollinated.
c. About one-half will be green and one-half white (lack chlorophyll), because that is the distribution of the genes
in the parents.
d. About one-fourth will be white (lack chlorophyll) and three-fourths green, because it is similar to a
monohybrid cross.
67. Which statement clarifies the definition of alleles?
a. Alleles are genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color.
b. Alleles are alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes.
c. Alleles are the locations of genes on a chromosome.
d. Alleles are symbols for the recessive forms of genes.
68. A classical example of incomplete dominance is
a. ABO blood groups in humans
b. height in garden peas
c. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons
d. coat color in rabbits
69. If a person who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their
tongue and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue roller with attached
earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? The second parent?
a. Yes; TtEe; ttee
b. Yes; TtEE; ttEe
c. No; TTEE; ttee
d. Yes: TTEe; ttee
70. If the parents have type A and type B phenotypes for the ABO blood group, their children could include which of
the following genotypes?
a. IAi and IBi
b. IAi, IBi and IAIB
c. IAIA, IBIB, and IAIB
d. IAi, IBi, IAIB, and ii
71. Which of the statements below is true regarding the pattern of inheritance in the pedigree?
a. It is autosomal recessive; the children of the affected son are not affected.
b. It is X-linked dominant; the daughter of the affected son is also affected.
c. It is X-linked recessive; all the sons of the affected daughter would be affected.
d. It is autosomal dominant; the children with one affected parent have a 50% chance of inheriting the allele.
72. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele, and her husband is normal, what are their chances that a
son will be color-blind?
a. None, because the father is normal.
b. 50%, because the mother is the only carrier.
c. 100%, because the mother has the gene.
d. 25%, because the mother is a hybrid.
73. Women with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to ______, while men with X-linked
disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to _______.
a. only their daughters; only their daughters
b. both their daughters and sons; only their sons
c. both their daughters and sons; only their daughters
d. both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons
74. If a DNA sample contains 13% adenine, what percentage of the sample contains cytosine?
a. 13%
b. 37%
c. 26%
d. 74%
75. Because one original strand of the double-stranded helix is found in each daughter cell, the replication process is
called
a. proofreading
b. semiconservative
c. redundant
d. freeing of DNA
76. How does DNA overcome the opposite strand’s polarity during replication?
a. By using helicase and other enzymes to untwist and snip one side of the helix to allow it to flip
b. By forming a circular chromosome so that DNA polymerase can continue simultaneously in both directions
c. The lagging strand in discontinuous segments after the DNA has been separated - known as Okazaki
fragments.
d. The entire chromosome unzips so that DNA polymerase can work from opposite ends.
77. Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information needed for the construction of a protein?
a. Ribosomal RNA
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. Primary mRNA transcript
Figure 12-1
78. What is the term for one of the three-part units composing the segment of DNA in Figure 12-1?
a. Nucleic acid
b. Pyrimidine
c. Purine
d. Nucleotide
79. If one strand of DNA has the base sequence AAGCAA, the complementary strand is
a. UUCGUU
b. TTCGTT
c. AAGCAA
d. UTCGTU
80. Which of the following is directly responsible for the sequence of amino acids in a protein?
a. The sequence of the anticodons
b. The number of codons in mRNA
c. The sequence of codons in mRNA
d. The sequence of introns
81. Using Figure 12-3, if the next codon on mRNA is CUG, what tRNA would bind to it? Explain.
a. Only GAC; each base has a single complementary base it pairs with.
b. Any codon that begins with G; the ribosome contains the first space that only allows this specific tRNA. This
is similar to the active site of a protein.
c. GAC or GAG; the first two bases must be complementary, but the third base can be variable. The resulting
pairing has a slight wobble in the stability of the bonds.
d. CUG; the tRNA has an ability to translocate down mRNA until it finds the correct codon to pair with.
82. Regarding the lac operon, if lactose is present, which of the following occurs?
a. Lactose binds to the operator, preventing the promoter from attracting RNA polymerase and preventing
transcription.
b. Lactose binds to RNA polymerase, which then binds to the promoter and transcribes the needed genes.
c. Lactose binds to the repressor, which prevents the binding to the operator, and RNA polymerase transcribes the
needed genes.
d. Lactose binds to the operon, which attracts RNA polymerase, and then transcription of the needed genes
occurs.
83. Which gene in an operon is incorrectly matched with its function?
a. Promoter—section where enhancers bind to DNA to start transcription
b. Regulator—binds to the repressor protein
c. Structural—contains section of DNA that will be transcribed into enzymes
d. Operator—RNA polymerase attaches and binds with DNA
84. An oncogene is
a. a viral gene with no relation to the host cell's genes
b. a mutated form of a proto-oncogene
c. a bacterial gene that causes cancer in the host
d. a gene that turns off cellular reproduction
85. If the base sequence of p53 gene normally
a. stimulates apoptosis
b. blocks the formation of free radicals
c. turns off the repair enzymes
d. allows the formation of free radicals
86. What is the function of restriction enzymes that naturally occur in bacterial cells?
a. They are used during DNA replication in the bacterial cell.
b. They are used to degrade the bacterial cell's DNA.
c. Restriction enzymes are intended to destroy foreign DNA that enters the cell.
d. These enzymes are used to attach pieces of DNA together.
87. What is the function of gel electrophoresis in genetic engineering?
a. Cut DNA into many fragments
b. Link together newly joined fragments of DNA
c. Make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA
d. Separate fragments of DNA by their length and electrical charges
88. Darwin's theory of natural selection to explain evolution is also known as
a. descent with modification
b. inheritance of acquired characteristics
c. uniformitarianism
d. catastrophism
89. Which of the following distinguishes the evolutionary species concept from the biological species concept?
a. The evolutionary species concept relies on the identification of morphological traits, which indicate differences
in species.
b. The evolutionary species concept recognizes that each species shares its evolutionary history.
c. The evolutionary species concept assumes that species are geographically isolated.
d. The evolutionary species concept relies on reproductive isolation instead of trait differences.
90. Which of the following is true about natural selection?
a. It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes.
b. It ensures the survival of each fit individual.
c. On average, it favors the survival of more young with adaptive characteristics.
d. It always selects for more complex forms.
91. The coelacanth’s fins differ from a normal fish. It is sometimes believed to be a missing link between fish and
terrestrial amphibians. What would account for the differences in the fins between it and modern-day bony fish?
a. The use of the fins to crawl from one watery marsh to another
b. The activity of the Hox gene controlled the development of extra limbs/fins and allowed them to be repeated.
c. The transcription factor for the Tbx5 gene was turned off in fish and turned on in coelacanths.
d. Differential gene expression occurred in Pax6.
92. Homologous structures such as the bones in wings, flippers, and arms are most closely concerned with
a. comparative anatomy
b. biogeography
c. comparative embryology
d. comparative biochemistry
93. Birds and insects both have wings, but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of relatedness because
a. bird wings function on different physics principles of lift
b. insect wings are vestigial
c. the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin
d. they did not evolve in the same region or live at the same time period
94. Which of the following would change the gene frequencies of a population?
a. Small population
b. Assortative mating
c. No immigration
d. Stable environment
95. Which of the following would be a cause of genetic drift?
a. A flood kills almost all the wild strawberry plants in a particular area.
b. The largest and strongest male lion chases away other males, and is the only male to mate with females and
produce offspring.
c. Wolves are moved from Canada and introduced into the wild in Wyoming.
d. All of the choices can lead to genetic drift.
96. Which of the following is a biological population?
a. All of the corn plants in Kansas
b. All of the variable-colored ladybird beetles of the species Harmonia axyridis in a forest
c. The male and female English sparrow that reside in your backyard
d. human population in the Canary Islands
97. A student proposes that left-handedness is a recessive trait, and therefore hidden in much of the human population.
A survey of 36 students finds that 27 (0.75) are right-handed and 9 (0.25) are left-handed. Using the HardyWeinberg formula, what would be the expected genotype frequencies and allele frequencies in this theoretical
population?
a. 0.75 right-handed homozygous dominant and 0.25 recessive homozygous for 3-to-1 right-to-left-handed alleles
in the population
b. 0.25 right-handed homozygous, 0.50 heterozygous, and 0.25 recessive homozygous for a 3-to-1 right-to-lefthanded alleles in the population
c. 0.25 right-handed homozygous, 0.50 heterozygous, and 0.25 recessive homozygous for a 0.5 allele frequency
for each allele
d. 0.50 right-handed homozygous, 0.25 heterozygous, and 0.25 recessive homozygous for a 0.5 allele frequency
for each allele
98. If early Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and become the main ancestors of early
North American settlers, rather than the mixture of immigrants from across Europe and other continents, today
there would be a much higher incidence of Nordic traits in the U.S. population. Such a scenario would demonstrate
a. gene flow from continent to continent
b. the founder effect
c. directional selection
d. fitness for the North American environment
99. Descriptions of new species of insects are more likely to contain diagrams of the shape of the male genitalia than
head, wing, or leg parts. Why?
a. This is where mutations usually express themselves in animals.
b. Radiation damage to genes usually occurs in genitalia.
c. Small changes in the genitalia result in reproductive isolation.
d. Arthropods have hard exoskeletons, so head, wing, and leg structures cannot be modified.
100. Assume a new intestinal parasite that affects horses were to evolve. It tends to be fatal to large horses because they
cannot tolerate the level of nutrient loss to the parasite. It also is fatal to small horses because the infection
overwhelms their immune system. Midsize horses however are immunologically unaffected by the parasite and
seem to tolerate the nutrient loss. Over time, what process has occurred in the horse population?
a. Bottleneck affect
b. Directional selection
c. Stabilizing selection
d. Disruptive selection