Semester 2 Final Exam
Study Extravaganza!
Adapting your study guide into many
questions to help focus your study.
Chapter 10
Cell Growth and Division
1. As a cell becomes larger, its…
a. Volume increases faster than its surface
area.
b. Surface area increases faster than its
volume.
c. Volume increases, but its surface area
stays the same.
d. Surface area stays the same, but its
volume increases.
1. As a cell becomes larger, its…
a. Volume increases faster than its surface
area.
b. Surface area increases faster than its
volume.
c. Volume increases, but its surface area
stays the same.
d. Surface area stays the same, but its
volume increases.
Think about your Great Divide Lab Results!
2. As a cell grows, it…
a) Places more demands on its DNA.
b) Uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
Has more trouble moving enough materials
across its cell membrane.
d) All of the above.
c)
2. As a cell grows, it…
a) Places more demands on its DNA.
b) Uses up food and oxygen more quickly.
Has more trouble moving enough materials
across its cell membrane.
d) All of the above.
c)
3. If the surface area of a cell
increases 100 times, its volume
increases about…
a) 5 times.
b) 10 times.
100 times.
d) 1000 times.
c)
3. If the surface area of a cell
increases 100 times, its volume
increases about…
a) 5 times.
b) 10 times.
100 times.
d) 1000 times.
c)
1 surface area unit = 10 volume units so…
Surface area number x 10 = volume
4. The rate at which wastes are
produced by a cell depends on
the cell’s…
a) Ratio of surface area to volume.
b) Environment.
Volume.
d) Surface area.
c)
4. The rate at which wastes are
produced by a cell depends on
the cell’s…
a) Ratio of surface area to volume.
b) Environment.
Volume.
d) Surface area.
c)
5. All of the following are
problems that growth causes
for cells EXCEPT…
a) DNA overload.
b) Excess oxygen.
Obtaining enough food.
d) Expelling wastes.
c)
5. All of the following are
problems that growth causes
for cells EXCEPT…
a) DNA overload.
b) Excess oxygen.
Obtaining enough food.
d) Expelling wastes.
c)
6. Compared to small cells,
large cells have more trouble…
a) Dividing.
b) Producing daughter cells.
Moving needed materials in and waste
products out.
d) Making copies of their DNA.
c)
6. Compared to small cells,
large cells have more trouble…
a) Dividing.
b) Producing daughter cells.
Moving needed materials in and waste
products out.
d) Making copies of their DNA.
c)
7. The process by which a cell
divides into two daughter cells
is called…
a) Cell division.
b) Metaphase.
Interphase.
d) Mitosis.
c)
7. The process by which a cell
divides into two daughter cells
is called…
a) Cell division.
b) Metaphase.
Interphase.
d) Mitosis.
c)
8. Which of the following is NOT
a way that cell division solves the
problems of cell growth?
a) Cell division provides each daughter cell
with its own copy of DNA.
b) Cell division increases the mass of the
original cell.
c) Cell division increases the surface area of
the original cell.
d) Cell division reduces the original cell’s
volume.
8. Which of the following is NOT
a way that cell division solves the
problems of cell growth?
a) Cell division provides each daughter cell
with its own copy of DNA.
b) Cell division increases the mass of the
original cell.
c) Cell division increases the surface area of
the original cell.
d) Cell division reduces the original cell’s
volume.
9. If a normal cell divides, you
can assume that…
a) Its surface area has become larger than its
volume.
b) Its volume has become larger than its
surface area.
c) It has grown to its full size.
d) It has grown too large to meet its needs.
9. If a normal cell divides, you
can assume that…
a) Its surface area has become larger than its
volume.
b) Its volume has become larger than its
surface area.
c) It has grown to its full size.
d) It has grown too large to meet its needs.
10. If a cell’s DNA were not
copied before cell division, the
cell could…
a) Have a DNA overload.
b) Become cancerous.
Fail to exchange materials.
d) Divide.
c)
10. If a cell’s DNA were not
copied before cell division, the
cell could…
a) Have a DNA overload.
b) Become cancerous.
Fail to exchange materials.
d) Divide.
c)
11. Which of the following
happens when a cell divides?
a) The cell’s volume increases.
b) It becomes more difficult for the cell to get
enough oxygen and nutrients.
c) The cell has DNA overload.
d) Each daughter cell receives its own copy of
the parent cell’s DNA.
11. Which of the following
happens when a cell divides?
a) The cell’s volume increases.
b) It becomes more difficult for the cell to get
enough oxygen and nutrients.
c) The cell has DNA overload.
d) Each daughter cell receives its own copy of
the parent cell’s DNA.
12. When during the cell cycle
are chromosomes visible?
a) Only during interphase.
b) Only when they are being replicated.
Only during cell division.
d) Only during the G1 phase.
c)
12. When during the cell cycle
are chromosomes visible?
a) Only during interphase.
b) Only when they are being replicated.
Only during cell division.
d) Only during the G1 phase.
c)
13. Which of the following is a
phase in the cell cycle?
a) G1 phase.
b) G2 phase.
M phase.
d) All of the above.
c)
13. Which of the following is a
phase in the cell cycle?
a) G1 phase.
b) G2 phase.
M phase.
d) All of the above.
c)
14. Which pair is correct?
a) G1 phase, DNA replication.
b) G2 phase, preparation for mitosis.
S phase, cell division
d) M phase, cell growth
c)
14. Which pair is correct?
a) G1 phase, DNA replication.
b) G2 phase, preparation for mitosis.
S phase, cell division
d) M phase, cell growth
c)
15. When during the cell cycle
is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a) G1 phase.
b) G2 phase.
S phase.
d) M phase.
c)
15. When during the cell cycle
is a cell’s DNA replicated?
a) G1 phase.
b) G2 phase.
S phase.
d) M phase.
c)
16. Which event occurs during
interphase?
a) The cell grows.
b) Centrioles appear.
Spindle fibers begin to form.
d) Centromeres divide.
c)
16. Which event occurs during
interphase?
a) The cell grows.
b) Centrioles appear.
Spindle fibers begin to form.
d) Centromeres divide.
c)
17. Which of the following is a
correct statement about the
events of the cell cycle?
a) Little happens during the G1 and G2
phases.
b) DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
c) The M phase is usually the longest phase.
d) Interphase consists of the G1, S, and G2
phases.
17. Which of the following is a
correct statement about the
events of the cell cycle?
a) Little happens during the G1 and G2
phases.
b) DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
c) The M phase is usually the longest phase.
d) Interphase consists of the G1, S, and G2
phases.
18. Which of the following is
NOT a correct statement about
the events of the cell cycle?
a) Interphase is usually the longest phase.
b) DNA replicates during the S phase.
Cell division ends with cytokinesis.
d) The cell grows during the G2 phase.
c)
18. Which of the following is
NOT a correct statement about
the events of the cell cycle?
a) Interphase is usually the longest phase.
b) DNA replicates during the S phase.
Cell division ends with cytokinesis.
d) The cell grows during the G2 phase.
c)
19. Cell division is represented in
the figure provided by the letter...
a) A.
b) B.
C.
d) D.
c)
19. Cell division is represented in
the figure provided by the letter...
a) A.
b) B.
C.
d) D.
c)
20. The cell cycle is the…
a) Series of events that cells go through as
they grow and divide.
b) Period of time between the birth and the
death of a cell.
c) Time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d) Time it takes for one cell to undergo
mitosis.
20. The cell cycle is the…
a) Series of events that cells go through as
they grow and divide.
b) Period of time between the birth and the
death of a cell.
c) Time from prophase until cytokinesis.
d) Time it takes for one cell to undergo
mitosis.
21. Which of the following is a
phase of mitosis?
a) Cytokinesis.
b) Interphase.
Prophase.
d) S phase.
c)
21. Which of the following is a
phase of mitosis?
a) Cytokinesis.
b) Interphase.
Prophase.
d) S phase.
c)
22. The first phase of mitosis is
called…
a) Prophase.
b) Anaphase.
Metaphase.
d) Interphase.
c)
22. The first phase of mitosis is
called…
a) Prophase.
b) Anaphase.
Metaphase.
d) Interphase.
c)
23. During which phase of mitosis
do the chromosomes line up along
the middle of the dividing cell?
a) Prophase.
b) Telophase.
Metaphase.
d) Anaphase.
c)
23. During which phase of mitosis
do the chromosomes line up along
the middle of the dividing cell?
a) Prophase.
b) Telophase.
Metaphase.
d) Anaphase.
c)
24. Which of the following
represents the phases of mitosis in
their proper sequence?
a) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase.
b) Interphase, prophase, metaphase,
anaphase, telophase.
c) Interphase, prophase, metaphase,
telophase.
d) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase, ctyokinesis.
24. Which of the following
represents the phases of mitosis in
their proper sequence?
a) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase.
b) Interphase, prophase, metaphase,
anaphase, telophase.
c) Interphase, prophase, metaphase,
telophase.
d) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase, ctyokinesis.
25. What is the role of the
spindle during mitosis?
a) It helps separate the chromosomes.
b) It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
It duplicates the DNA.
d) It divides the cell in half.
c)
25. What is the role of the
spindle during mitosis?
a) It helps separate the chromosomes.
b) It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
It duplicates the DNA.
d) It divides the cell in half.
c)
26. One difference between cell
division in plant cells and in animal
cells is that plant cells have…
a) Centrioles.
b) Centromeres.
A cell plate.
d) Chromatin.
c)
26. One difference between cell
division in plant cells and in animal
cells is that plant cells have…
a) Centrioles.
b) Centromeres.
A cell plate.
d) Chromatin.
c)
27. During normal mitotic cell division, a
parent cell having 3 chromosomes will
produce two daughter cells, each
containing…
a) One chromosome.
b) Three chromosomes.
Six chromosomes.
d) Twelve chromosomes.
c)
27. During normal mitotic cell division, a
parent cell having 3 chromosomes will
produce two daughter cells, each
containing…
a) One chromosome.
b) Three chromosomes.
Six chromosomes.
d) Twelve chromosomes.
c)
28. What happens when cells come
into contact with other cells?
a) They divide more quickly.
b) They stop growing.
They produce cyclins.
d) They produce p53.
c)
28. What happens when cells come
into contact with other cells?
a) They divide more quickly.
b) They stop growing.
They produce cyclins.
d) They produce p53.
c)
29. Which of the following explains why
normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to
stop growing once they have covered the
bottom of the dish?
a) The cells lack cyclin.
b) The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
d) Most cells grown in petri dishes have a
defective p53.
c)
29. Which of the following explains why
normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to
stop growing once they have covered the
bottom of the dish?
a) The cells lack cyclin.
b) The petri dish inhibits cell growth.
Contact with other cells stops cell growth.
d) Most cells grown in petri dishes have a
defective p53.
c)
30. Which of the following is
an internal regulator of the cell
cycle?
a) Cyclins.
b) Growth factors.
The mitotic spindle.
d) Cancer cells.
c)
30. Which of the following is
an internal regulator of the cell
cycle?
a) Cyclins.
b) Growth factors.
The mitotic spindle.
d) Cancer cells.
c)
31. Cancer cells form masses of
cells called…
a) Tumors.
b) Cyclins.
Growth factors.
d) P53.
c)
31. Cancer cells form masses of
cells called…
a) Tumors.
b) Cyclins.
Growth factors.
d) P53.
c)
32. What is a tumor?
a) An accumulation of cyclins.
b) A mass of cancer cells.
The rapidly dividing cells found at the site
of a wound.
d) A defective p53 gene.
c)
32. What is a tumor?
a) An accumulation of cyclins.
b) A mass of cancer cells.
The rapidly dividing cells found at the site
of a wound.
d) A defective p53 gene.
c)
Chapters 11 and 14
Genetics
1. Gregor Mendel used pea
plants to study…
a) Flowering.
b) Gamete formation.
The inheritance of traits.
d) Cross-pollination.
c)
1. Gregor Mendel used pea
plants to study…
a) Flowering.
b) Gamete formation.
The inheritance of traits.
d) Cross-pollination.
c)
2. Offspring that result from
crosses between parents with
different traits…
a) Are true-breeding.
b) Make up the F2 generation.
Make up the parental generation.
d) Are called hybrids.
c)
2. Offspring that result from
crosses between parents with
different traits…
a) Are true-breeding.
b) Make up the F2 generation.
Make up the parental generation.
d) Are called hybrids.
c)
3. The chemical factors that
determine traits are called…
a) Alleles.
b) Traits.
Genes.
d) Characters.
c)
3. The chemical factors that
determine traits are called…
a) Alleles.
b) Traits.
Genes.
d) Characters.
c)
4. The principle of
dominance states that…
a) All alleles are dominant.
b) All alleles are recessive.
Some alleles are dominant and others are
recessive.
d) Alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.
c)
4. The principle of
dominance states that…
a) All alleles are dominant.
b) All alleles are recessive.
Some alleles are dominant and others are
recessive.
d) Alleles are neither dominant nor recessive.
c)
5. When Gregor Mendel crossed truebreeding tall plants with truebreeding short plants, all the offspring
were tall because…
a) The allele for tall plants is recessive.
b) The allele for short plants is dominant.
The allele for tall plants is dominant.
d) They were tree-breeding like their parents.
c)
5. When Gregor Mendel crossed truebreeding tall plants with truebreeding short plants, all the offspring
were tall because…
a) The allele for tall plants is recessive.
b) The allele for short plants is dominant.
The allele for tall plants is dominant.
d) They were tree-breeding like their parents.
c)
6. In the P generation, a tall plant was
crossed with a short plant. Short
plants reappeared in the F2 generation
because…
a) Some of the F2 plants produced gametes
that carried the allele for shortness.
b) The allele for shortness is dominant.
c) The allele for shortness and the allele for
tallness segregated when the F1 plants
produced gametes.
d) They inherited an allele for shortness from
one parent and an allele for tallness from
the other parent.
6. In the P generation, a tall plant was
crossed with a short plant. Short
plants reappeared in the F2 generation
because…
a) Some of the F2 plants produced gametes
that carried the allele for shortness.
b) The allele for shortness is dominant.
c) The allele for shortness and the allele for
tallness segregated when the F1 plants
produced gametes.
d) They inherited an allele for shortness from
one parent and an allele for tallness from
the other parent.
7. In the P generation, a tall plant was
crossed with a short plant. If alleles
did not segregate during gamete
formation…
a) All of the F1 plants would be short.
b) Some of the F1 plants would be tall and
some would be short.
c) All of the F2 would be short.
d) All of the F2 plants would be tall.
7. In the P generation, a tall plant was
crossed with a short plant. If alleles
did not segregate during gamete
formation…
a) All of the F1 plants would be short.
b) Some of the F1 plants would be tall and
some would be short.
c) All of the F2 would be short.
d) All of the F2 plants would be tall.
8. When you flip a coin, what
is the probability that it will
come up tails?
a) ½
b) ¼
1/8
d) 1
c)
8. When you flip a coin, what
is the probability that it will
come up tails?
a) ½  Correct answer
b) ¼
1/8
d) 1
c)
9. In the P generation, a tall plant is
crossed with a short plant. The
probability that an F2 plant will be tall
is…
a) 25%
b) 50%
75%
d) 100%
c)
9. In the P generation, a tall plant is
crossed with a short plant. The
probability that an F2 plant will be tall
is…
a) 25%
b) 50%
75%  F2 generation not F1!!!
d) 100%
c)
10. Organisms that have two identical
alleles for a particular trait are said to
be…
a) Hybrid.
b) Homozygous.
Heterozygous.
d) Dominant.
c)
10. Organisms that have two identical
alleles for a particular trait are said to
be…
a) Hybrid.
b) Homozygous.
Heterozygous.
d) Dominant.
c)
11. The Punnett square in Figure 3
shows that the gene for pea shape and
the gene for pea color…
a) Assort
independently.
b) Are linked.
c) Have the same
alleles.
d) Are always
homozygous.
11. The Punnett square in Figure 3
shows that the gene for pea shape and
the gene for pea color…
a) Assort
independently.
b) Are linked.
c) Have the same
alleles.
d) Are always
homozygous.
12. How many different allele
combinations would be found in the
gametes produced by a pea plant who
genotype was RrYY?
a) 2
b) 4
8
d) 16
c)
12. How many different allele
combinations would be found in the
gametes produced by a pea plant who
genotype was RrYY?
a) 2  Correct answer (RY and rY only)
b) 4
8
d) 16
c)
13. Situations in which one allele for a
gene is not completely dominant over
another allele for that gene are called…
a) Multiple alleles
b) Incomplete dominance.
Polygenic inheritance.
d) Multiple genes.
c)
13. Situations in which one allele for a
gene is not completely dominant over
another allele for that gene are called…
a) Multiple alleles
b) Incomplete dominance.
Polygenic inheritance.
d) Multiple genes.
c)
14. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with
a white chicken (WW) produces all
speckled offspring (BBWW). This type
of inheritance is known as…
a) Incomplete dominance.
b) Polygenic inheritance.
Codominance.
d) Multiple alleles.
c)
14. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with
a white chicken (WW) produces all
speckled offspring (BBWW). This type
of inheritance is known as…
a) Incomplete dominance.
b) Polygenic inheritance.
Codominance.
d) Multiple alleles.
c)
15. Variation in human skin
color is an example of…
a) Incomplete dominance.
b) Codominance.
Polygenic traits.
d) Multiple alleles.
c)
15. Variation in human skin
color is an example of…
a) Incomplete dominance.
b) Codominance.
Polygenic traits.
d) Multiple alleles.
c)
16. A male and female bison that are both
heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation
produce an albino offspring (aa). Which of
Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is
albino?
a) Dominance only.
b) Independent assortment only.
Dominance and segregation.
d) Segregation only.
c)
16. A male and female bison that are both
heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation
produce an albino offspring (aa). Which of
Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is
albino?
a) Dominance only.
b) Independent assortment only.
Dominance and segregation.
d) Segregation only.
c)
17. Gametes are produced by
the process of…
a) Mitosis.
b) Meiosis.
Crossing-over.
d) Replication.
c)
17. Gametes are produced by
the process of…
a) Mitosis.
b) Meiosis.
Crossing-over.
d) Replication.
c)
18. Gametes have…
a) Homologous chromosomes.
b) Twice the number of chromosomes found
in body cells.
c) Two sets of chromosomes.
d) One allele for each gene.
18. Gametes have…
a) Homologous chromosomes.
b) Twice the number of chromosomes found
in body cells.
c) Two sets of chromosomes.
d) One allele for each gene.
19. Unlike mitosis, meiosis
results in the formation of…
a) Diploid cells.
b) Haploid cells.
2N daughter cells.
d) Body cells.
c)
19. Unlike mitosis, meiosis
results in the formation of…
a) Diploid cells.
b) Haploid cells.
2N daughter cells.
d) Body cells.
c)
20. Crossing-over rarely occurs in mitosis,
unlike meiosis. Which of the following is
the likely reason?
a) Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.
b) Tetrads rarely form during mitosis.
A cell undergoing mitosis does not have
homologous chromosomes.
d) There is no prophase during mitosis.
c)
20. Crossing-over rarely occurs in mitosis,
unlike meiosis. Which of the following is
the likely reason?
a) Chromatids are not involved in mitosis.
b) Tetrads rarely form during mitosis.
A cell undergoing mitosis does not have
homologous chromosomes.
d) There is no prophase during mitosis.
c)
21. If the gene for seed color and the
gene for seed shape in pea plants were
linked…
a) All of Mendel’s F1 plants would have
produced wrinkled, green peas.
b) Mendel’s F2 plants would have exhibited a
different phenotype ratio for seed color
and seed shape.
c) Mendel’s F1 plants would have exhibited a
different phenotype ratio for seed color
and seed shape.
d) All of Mendel’s P plants would have
produced wrinkled, green peas.
21. If the gene for seed color and the
gene for seed shape in pea plants were
linked…
a) All of Mendel’s F1 plants would have
produced wrinkled, green peas.
b) Mendel’s F2 plants would have exhibited a
different phenotype ratio for seed color
and seed shape.
c) Mendel’s F1 plants would have exhibited a
different phenotype ratio for seed color
and seed shape.
d) All of Mendel’s P plants would have
produced wrinkled, green peas.
22. The farther apart two genes are
located on a chromosome, the…
a) Less likely they are to be inherited
together.
b) More likely they are to be linked.
c) Less likely they are to assort
independently.
d) Less likely they are to be separated by a
crossover during meiosis.
22. The farther apart two genes are
located on a chromosome, the…
a) Less likely they are to be inherited
together.
b) More likely they are to be linked.
c) Less likely they are to assort
independently.
d) Less likely they are to be separated by a
crossover during meiosis.
23. On a normal human
karyotype, how many
chromosomes are there?
a) 2
b) 23
44
d) 46
c)
23. On a normal human
karyotype, how many
chromosomes are there?
a) 2
b) 23
44
d) 46  Correct answer
c)
24. Which of the following
are shown on a karyotype?
a) Homologous chromosomes
b) Sex chromosomes
Autosomes
d) All of the above.
c)
24. Which of the following
are shown on a karyotype?
a) Homologous chromosomes
b) Sex chromosomes
Autosomes
d) All of the above.
c)
25. In humans, a males
has…
a) One X chromosome only.
b) Two X chromosomes.
One X chromosome and one Y
chromosome.
d) Two Y chromosomes.
c)
25. In humans, a males
has…
a) One X chromosome only.
b) Two X chromosomes.
One X chromosome and one Y
chromosome.
d) Two Y chromosomes.
c)
26. Which of the following would
you be least likely to see in a
pedigree?
a) All of the symbols are unshaded.
b) All of the symbols are shaded.
All of the symbols are squares.
d) About half of the symbols are circles.
c)
26. Which of the following would
you be least likely to see in a
pedigree?
a) All of the symbols are unshaded.
b) All of the symbols are shaded.
All of the symbols are squares.
d) About half of the symbols are circles.
c)
27. If a man with blood type A and a woman
with blood type B produce an offspring,
what might be the offspring’s blood type?
a) AB or O
b) A, B, or O
A, B, AB, or O
d) AB only
c)
27. If a man with blood type A and a woman
with blood type B produce an offspring,
what might be the offspring’s blood type?
a) AB or O
b) A, B, or O
c)
A, B, AB, or O  Correct answer
(AA, BB, AO, BO)
d) AB only
28. Most sex-linked genes
are located on…
a) The autosomes.
b) The X chromosome only.
The Y chromosome only.
d) Both the X chromosome and the Y
chromosome.
c)
28. Most sex-linked genes
are located on…
a) The autosomes.
b) The X chromosome only. (Not all!)
The Y chromosome only.
d) Both the X chromosome and the Y
chromosome.
c)
29. Which of the following
statements is true?
a) Females cannot have hemophilia.
b) The father of a colorblind boy may be
colorblind.
c) A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d) The mother of a colorblind boy must be
colorblind.
29. Which of the following
statements is true?
a) Females cannot have hemophilia.
b) The father of a colorblind boy may be
colorblind.
c) A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d) The mother of a colorblind boy must be
colorblind.
30. The failure of chromosomes to
separate during meiosis is called…
a) Nondisjunction.
b) X-chromosome inactivation.
Turner’s syndrome.
d) Down syndrome.
c)
30. The failure of chromosomes to
separate during meiosis is called…
a) Nondisjunction.
b) X-chromosome inactivation.
Turner’s syndrome.
d) Down syndrome.
c)
31. If nondisjunction occurs
during meiosis…
a) Only two gametes may form instead of four.
b) Some gametes may have an extra copy of
some genes.
c) The chromatids do not separate.
d) It occurs during prophase.
31. If nondisjunction occurs
during meiosis…
a) Only two gametes may form instead of four.
b) Some gametes may have an extra copy of
some genes.
c) The chromatids do not separate.
d) It occurs during prophase.
Chapter 12
DNA, RNA,
Protein Synthesis
1. Figure 1 shows the
structure of a(an)
a) DNA molecule.
b) Amino acid.
RNA molecule.
d) Protein.
c)
1. Figure 1 shows the
structure of a(an)
a) DNA molecule.
b) Amino acid.
RNA molecule.
d) Protein.
c)
2. In Figure 1, X represents…
a) A nucleic acid.
b) A chromosome.
A nucleotide.
d) A sugar.
c)
2. In Figure 1, X represents…
a) A nucleic acid.
b) A chromosome.
A nucleotide.
d) A sugar.
c)
3. Because of base pairing in
DNA, the percentage of…
a) Adenine molecules in DNA is about equal
to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b) Pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the
percentage of purines.
c) Purines in DNA is much greater than the
percentage of pyrimidines.
d) Cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater
than the percentage of guanine molecules.
3. Because of base pairing in
DNA, the percentage of…
a) Adenine molecules in DNA is about equal
to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b) Pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the
percentage of purines.
c) Purines in DNA is much greater than the
percentage of pyrimidines.
d) Cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater
than the percentage of guanine molecules.
4. During mitosis, the…
a) DNA molecules unwind.
b) Histones and DNA molecules separate.
DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d) Nucleosomes become more tightly packed.
c)
4. During mitosis, the…
a) DNA molecules unwind.
b) Histones and DNA molecules separate.
DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d) Nucleosomes become more tightly packed.
c)
4. During mitosis, the…
a) DNA molecules unwind.
b) Histones and DNA molecules separate.
DNA molecules become more tightly coiled.
d) Nucleosomes become more tightly packed.
c)
5. Which of the following
include all the others?
a) DNA molecules.
b) Histones.
Chromosomes.
d) Nucleosomes.
c)
5. Which of the following
include all the others?
a) DNA molecules.
b) Histones.
Chromosomes.
d) Nucleosomes.
c)
6. DNA is copied during a
process called…
a) Replication.
b) Translation.
Transcription.
d) Transformation.
c)
6. DNA is copied during a
process called…
a) Replication.
b) Translation.
Transcription.
d) Transformation.
c)
7. What is the structure of
DNA called?
a) Single-stranded.
b) Ladder.
Double helix.
d) Blob of genetic material.
c)
7. What is the structure of
DNA called?
a) Single-stranded.
b) Ladder.
Double helix. (one new strand, one old
strand)
d) Blob of genetic material.
c)
8. RNA contains the sugar…
a) Ribose.
b) Deoxyribose.
Phosphate groups.
d) Thymine.
c)
8. RNA contains the sugar…
a) Ribose.
b) Deoxyribose.
Phosphate groups.
d) Thymine.
c)
9. Which of the following are
found in both DNA and RNA?
a) Ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine.
b) Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and
guanine.
c) Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine.
d) Phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine.
9. Which of the following are
found in both DNA and RNA?
a) Ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine.
b) Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and
guanine.
c) Phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine.
d) Phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine.
10. How many types of RNA
are there?
a) 1
b) 3
Hundreds
d) Thousands
c)
10. How many types of RNA
are there?
a) 1
b) 3  Correct answer
Hundreds
d) Thousands
c)
11. Which of the following
are copied from DNA?
a) mRNA only
b) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
mRNA and tRNA only
d) Proteins
c)
11. Which of the following
are copied from DNA?
a) mRNA only
b) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
mRNA and tRNA only
d) Proteins
c)
12. Which of the following
statements is true?
a) A promoter is part of an intron.
b) A pre-mRNA molecule is longer than the
gene from which the molecule was
transcribed.
c) Introns are sequences of DNA.
d) Any mRNA molecules made from the same
gene are always edited the same way.
12. Which of the following
statements is true?
a) A promoter is part of an intron.
b) A pre-mRNA molecule is longer than the
gene from which the molecule was
transcribed.
c) Introns are sequences of DNA.
d) Any mRNA molecules made from the same
gene are always edited the same way.
13. What does Figure 2
show?
a) Anticodons
b) The order in which
amino acids are
linked
c) The code for
splicing mRNA
d) The genetic code
13. What does Figure 2
show?
a) Anticodons
b) The order in which
amino acids are
linked
c) The code for
splicing mRNA
d) The genetic code
14. How many codons are
needed to specify 5 amino
acids?
a) 5
b) 10
15
d) 20
c)
14. How many codons are
needed to specify 5 amino
acids?
a) 5 (codons not bases!)
b) 10
15
d) 20
c)
15. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be
specified by more than one kind of codon?
a) Some codons have the same sequence of
nucleotides.
b) There are 64 different kinds of codons but
only 20 amino acids.
c) Some codons do not specify an amino
acid.
d) The codon AUG codes for the amino acid
methionine and serves as the “start”
codon for protein synthesis.
15. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be
specified by more than one kind of codon?
a) Some codons have the same sequence of
nucleotides.
b) There are 64 different kinds of codons but
only 20 amino acids.
c) Some codons do not specify an amino
acid.
d) The codon AUG codes for the amino acid
methionine and serves as the “start”
codon for protein synthesis.
16. Which of the following terms
is LEAST closely related to the
others?
a) Intron
b) tRNA
Polypeptide
d) anticodon
c)
16. Which of the following terms
is LEAST closely related to the
others?
a) Intron
b) tRNA
Polypeptide
d) anticodon
c)
17. During translation, the type of
amino acid that is added to the
growing polypeptide depends on the…
a) Codon on the mRNA only.
b) Anticodon on the mRNA only.
Anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino
acid is attached only.
d) Codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on
the tRNA to which the amino acid is
attached.
c)
17. During translation, the type of
amino acid that is added to the
growing polypeptide depends on the…
a) Codon on the mRNA only.
b) Anticodon on the mRNA only.
Anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino
acid is attached only.
d) Codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on
the tRNA to which the amino acid is
attached.
c)
18. Which type of RNA
functions as a blueprint of
the genetic code?
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
mRNA
d) RNA polymerase
c)
18. Which type of RNA
functions as a blueprint of
the genetic code?
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
mRNA
d) RNA polymerase
c)
19. Which of the following
statements is false?
a) Some genes code for enzymes.
b) The instructions for making some proteins
are not specified by genes.
c) An organism’s inherited traits depend on
proteins.
d) An organism’s genes determine its
inherited traits.
19. Which of the following
statements is false?
a) Some genes code for enzymes.
b) The instructions for making some proteins
are not specified by genes.
c) An organism’s inherited traits depend on
proteins.
d) An organism’s genes determine its
inherited traits.
20. Which of the following is not a
gene mutation?
a) Inversion.
b) Insertion.
Deletion.
d) Substitution.
c)
20. Which of the following is not a
gene mutation?
a) Inversion.
b) Insertion.
Deletion.
d) Substitution.
c)
21. Which of the following is NEVER a
frameshift mutation?
a) Substitution.
b) Insertion.
Deletion.
d) Point mutation.
c)
21. Which of the following is NEVER a
frameshift mutation?
a) Substitution.
b) Insertion.
Deletion.
d) Point mutation.
c)
22. Which of the following
is NOT generally part of a
eukaryotic gene?
a) Operon
b) TATA box
Promoter sequences
d) Enhancer sequences
c)
22. Which of the following
is NOT generally part of a
eukaryotic gene?
a) Operon
b) TATA box
Promoter sequences
d) Enhancer sequences
c)
23. In E. coli, the lac operon
controls the…
a) Breakdown of lactose.
b) Production of lactose.
Breakdown of glucose.
d) Production of glucose.
c)
23. In E. coli, the lac operon
controls the…
a) Breakdown of lactose.
b) Production of lactose.
Breakdown of glucose.
d) Production of glucose.
c)
24. Gene regulation in
eukaryotes…
a) Usually involves operons.
b) Is simpler than in prokaryotes.
Allows for cell specialization.
d) Includes the action of an operator region.
c)
24. Gene regulation in
eukaryotes…
a) Usually involves operons.
b) Is simpler than in prokaryotes.
Allows for cell specialization.
d) Includes the action of an operator region.
c)
25. Which of the following
statements is false?
a) Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b) Hox genes that are found in different
animals are very different from each other.
c) Hox genes control the normal development
of an animal.
d) Hox genes occur in clusters.
25. Which of the following
statements is false?
a) Mutations do not occur in hox genes.
b) Hox genes that are found in different
animals are very different from each other.
c) Hox genes control the normal development
of an animal.
d) Hox genes occur in clusters.
26. Hox genes…
a) Are regulated by operons.
b) Are found in bacteria.
Are not found in humans.
d) Determine the location of a dog’s ears.
c)
26. Hox genes…
a) Are regulated by operons.
b) Are found in bacteria.
Are not found in humans.
d) Determine the location of a dog’s ears.
c)
27. What process is being
shown in figure 3?
a) Replication
b) Transcription
Translation
d) Jigsaw puzzling
c)
27. What process is being
shown in figure 3?
a) Replication
b) Transcription
Translation
d) Jigsaw puzzling
c)
28. Which structure in
Figure 3 is a codon?
a) C
b) D
A
d) F
c)
28. Which structure in
Figure 3 is a codon?
a) C
b) D
A
d) F  Correct answer
c)
29. Which structure in
Figure 3 is a ribosome?
a) A
b) D
B
d) F
c)
29. Which structure in
Figure 3 is a ribosome?
a) A  Correct answer
b) D
B
d) F
c)
30. In the figure below, A, B,
and C are three types of…
a) Proteins
b) RNA
DNA
d) Pictures
c)
A
B
C
30. In the figure below, A, B,
and C are three types of…
a) Proteins
b) RNA
DNA
d) Pictures
c)
A
B
C
31. In the figure below, B
represents…
a) A protein
b) mRNA
tRNA
d) rRNA
c)
A
B
C
31. In the figure below, B
represents…
a) A protein
b) mRNA
tRNA
d) rRNA
c)
A
B
C