Test 2 Practice Test
1. A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?
a. basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
b. basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
c. granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
d. corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
2. The delicate membrane on internal surfaces of bone; it also contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts
a. Endosteum
b. Diaphysis
c. Periosteum
d. Medulla
e. None of the above
3. Which of the following is a logical sequence of events in wound healing?
a. Inflammation, organization, granulation tissue deposit, regeneration
b. Organization, regeneration, inflammation, granulation tissue deposit
c. Regeneration, inflammation, granulation tissue deposit, organization
d. Granulation tissue deposit, regeneration, inflammation, organization
e. There is no order
4. Which of the following types of cartilage serves as the embryonic precursor to long bones?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Articular cartilage
e. Any of the above could serve as the embryonic precursor to long bones
5. The principal component of bone that contributes to its hardness is __________.
a. Hydroxyapatite
b. Inorganic
c. Collagen
d. Organic
e. Both a and b are true
6. Where are you most likely to find simple squamous epithelia?
a. In areas where diffusion must occur rapidly
b. In glands
c. In the skin
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
7. Which of these is NOT a function of the integumentary system?
a. helps regulate body temperature
b. removes body wastes
c. contracts and relaxes muscles
d. helps prevent infection
8. Simple columnar epithelia would most likely be found in the
a. Mammary glands
b. Kidney tubules
c. The ducts that drain sweat glands
d. Stomach
9. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found
a. Lining the trachea
b. Lining blood vessels
c. Forming the kidney tubules
d. At the surface of the skin
10. An example of an organ where transitional epithelium would be found is the
a. Sweat glands
b. Urinary bladder
c. Kidney tubules
d. Bronchi in the lungs
11. Epithelial cells that are adapted for absorption usually have ______ at their free surface.
a. Microvilli
b. Golgi complexes
c. Cilia
d. Mitochondria
12. The framework of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of _______ tissue
a. Regular dense connective
b. Irregular dense connective
c. Reticular connective
d. Adipose
13. Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
a. Bones
b. Blood
c. Neural tissue
d. Fat
14. What s significant about strata basale in the epidermis?
a. It is always undergoing mitosis
b. It is always undergoing meiosis
c. It is constantly sloughing off
d. It consists of hard keratin
15. Which of the following is a sensory receptor in the skin that detects sensations such as pain,
temperature and touch?
a. Arrector pili
b. Merkel disks
c. Free nerve endings
d. Langerhaan’s cells
16. Which glands in the skin are responsible for producing sweat?
a. Sebaceous glands
b. Apocrine and eccrine sweat glands
c. Ceruminous glands
d. Mammary glands
17. The muscle tissue that shows no striations is _________ muscle
a. Cardiac
b. Voluntary
c. Skeletal
d. Smooth
18. The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are
a. Collagen, reticular, and elastic
b. Tendons ligaments, and elastic ligaments
c. Loose, dense, and irregular
d. Cartilage, bone, and collagen
19. An albino individual lacks the ability to produce:
a. Melanin
b. Eleidin
c. Keratin
d. Carotene
20. Mesenchyme gives rise to all
A. Adipose tissue
B. Exocrine glands
C. Endocrine glands
D. Epithelia
E. All of the above
21. Most of the bones of the skeleton are formed by:
A. intramembranous bone formation.
B. cartilaginous bone formation.
C. periosteal bone formation.
D. endochondral bone formation.
E. appositional bone formation.
22. Endochondral formation of a long bone
A. Continues in the epiphyseal plates throughout your life
B. Involves bone cells dying and being replaced by cartilage cells
C. Is completed prior to birth
D. Involves producing new bone tissue at the articular cartilages
E. Involves secreting bone matrix on calcified cartilage
23. True or false: Exocrine glands are more numerous than Endocrine glands?
24. Which of the following suffixes implies "growth" or "formation":
a. -blast
b. -lemma
c. -stasis
d. –cyte
25. Type of cell in connective tissue that "eats" foreign material
a. Mast cells
b. Macrophages
c. Leukocytes
d. Adipocytes
26. Tight junctions serve as:
a. Intercellular communication
b. Permeability barrier
c. Protein channels
d. None of the above
27. Where is melanin produced?
a. Hypodermis
b. Dermis
c. Epidermis
d. Reticular
28. True or false: Immediate threat is the leading cause to loss of life
29. A group of concentric rings (osteons) can also be called
a. Structural unit
b. Lamellae
c. Central canal
d. Osteocytes
30. True or false: The ear’s skin is filled with elastic fibers that contract after being stretched
31. From which of the following does the basic structure of hair and nails form?
a. Friction ridges
b. Keratin
c. Lunule
d. None of the above
32. Medullary cavity in adults contain _________ marrow
a. Brown
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Orange
33. All of the following are characteristics of epithelial tissue except:
a. Avascular
b. Polarity
c. Supported by connective tissue
d. Regeneration
e. None, all of the above are correct
34. If you were to get arrested your finger prints are technically your
a. Epidermal ridges
b. Dermal papillary
c. Friction ridges
d. Sweat glands
35. True or false: Incisions made parallel to cleavage lines heal more readily
36. Hair thinning in both sexes after the age of 40 is called
a. Frank baldness
b. Alopecia
c. Dihydrotestoterone
d. None of the above
37. A burn of the entire skin thickness is a:
A. zero degree burn
B. first degree burn
C. second degree burn
D. third degree burn
38. True or false: It is crucial if >10% of the body has second degree burns
39. Which one of the skin cancers are the most dangerous?
a. Melanoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. None of the above
40. All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except
a. support
b. blood cell production
c. calcium storage
d. excretion
41. Spaces occupied by the osteocytes cell body are called
a. Lacunae
b. Canaliculi
c. Nucleus
d. Bone matrix
42. Another name for Perforating canals:
a. Haversian
b. Sharpey’s fibers
c. Volkmann’s
d. Lamellae
43. True or false: Interstitial growth is how bones grow
44. If calcium levels are low in the blood, which blood cells are stimulated to increase their activity?
a. Osteoclast
b. Osteoblast
c. Osteocytes
d. None of the above
45. A bone grows or remodels in response to forces or demands placed upon it correlates to
a. Rule of nines
b. Wolff’s law
c. PTH
d. None of the above
46. A football player gets hurt during game. His doctor tells him that his bone ended in it’s normal
position and it did not penetrate his skin. His fracture can be classified as:
a. Complete and linear
b. Nondisplaced and simple
c. Transverse and compound
d. Simple and displaced
47. Which epiphyseal plate description correlates to the zone of calcification
a. Cartilage attaches to the epiphysis
b. New cartilage is produced
c. Matrix is calcified and chondrocytes die
d. Chondrocytes mature and enlarge
48. Spongy bone differ from compact bone because they contain
a. Osteons
b. Canaliculi
c. Lamellae
d. Trabecula
Match the following tissues with it’s function
A
c
B
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
E
Supports and protects; stores calcium
Forms tendons and ligaments
Supports and protects, insulates against heat loss; reserve source of fuel
Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock
Composed of cells in a fluid matrix
D
Answer key
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
D
A
A
A
E
A
C
D
C
B
A
C
A
A
C
B
D
A
A
A
D
E
True
A
B
B
C
False
A
Truse
B
C
E
C
True
B
D
False
A
D
A
C
False
A
B
B
C
48.D 49.A 50.E 51.B 52.D 53.C
INTEGUMENTARY!
54.
Sweat glands
A)
aid in cooling the body.
B)
serve as "anchors" for the arrector pili muscles.
C)
produce a secretion that oils the hair and skin.
D)
produce a secretion that protects the body from growth of bacteria.
46.
Sweat
A)
is a hypertonic fluid.
B)
is produced by a merocrine or apocrine gland.
C)
contains only water.
D)
reaches the body only through the hair follicles.
47.
Skin glands do not include
A)
sebaceous glands.
B)
salivary glands.
C)
ceruminous glands.
D)
mammary glands.
48.
Nails
A)
protect the ends of digits.
B)
alternate between growing and resting stages.
C)
grow from their free edges.
D)
are part of the dermis.
49.
The nail root and the nail body attach to the
A)
lunula.
B)
nail bed.
C)
nail groove.
D)
hyponychium.
51.
Nail cells are produced by the
A)
lunula.
B)
cuticle.
C)
nail body.
D)
nail matrix.
53.
One type of experimental contraceptive device is a skin patch that contains a chemical absorbed
through the skin. Which of the following substances might be the type of chemical involved?
A)
proteins
B)
water-soluble substances
C)
lipid-soluble substances
D)
carbohydrates
54.
Intact skin provides protection because
A)
it forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes.
B)
its secretions keep the skin slightly alkaline.
C)
the skin contains components of the excretory system.
D)
the skin enhances water loss from the body.
E)
macrophages roam in the epidermis.
55.
An increase in body temperature causes
A)
sweating.
B)
arterioles in the dermis to constrict.
C)
arrector pili muscles to contract.
D)
an increase in keratinization of the skin.
56.
Which of the following will help cool the body?
A)
absorption of ultraviolet light rays by the skin
B)
evaporation of sweat from the skin's surface
C)
contraction of the arrector pili muscles
D)
decreased blood flow to the skin
57.
An abrasion of the skin results in which of the following?
A)
fluid retention by the kidney
B)
increased melanin production
C)
portal of entry for microorganisms
D)
loss of cell regeneration ability
E)
irreversible damage to the epidermis
58.
On coming inside from the cold, students notice that their cheeks are red. This results from
A)
constriction of the blood vessels in the epidermis of the cheeks.
B)
dilation of the blood vessels in the dermis of the cheeks.
C)
damage to the epidermis by the cold.
D)
constriction of the sweat glands in the cheeks.
E)
increased permeability of superficial vessels.
59.
Which vitamin begins its synthesis in the skin exposed to ultraviolet light?
A)
vitamin A
B)
vitamin B
C)
vitamin C
D)
vitamin D
E)
vitamin E
60.
Which of the following statements concerning vitamin D is false?
A)
Vitamin D begins its synthesis in the skin when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet light.
B)
Vitamin D causes the kidney to excrete calcium.
C)
Vitamin D is necessary for the uptake of calcium from the intestine.
D)
Vitamin D is necessary for the formation of bones and teeth.
E)
Vitamin D is important for calcium homeostasis.
61.
Eskimos wear a great deal of clothing and have limited exposure to U.V. light, but do not suffer
from vitamin D deficiency. A possible explanation is
A)
they do not need vitamin D.
B)
their exposure to U.V. light in the summer will last for a year.
C)
they get enough vitamin D in their diet of fish and marine mammals.
D)
they do not require sunlight for vitamin D formation.
E)
their bodies produce vitamin D another way.
62.
Barney sat on a hot camp stove while on a camping trip. The burn was painful and blistered. His
would was what type of burn?
A)
first degree
B)
second degree
C)
third degree
D)
fourth degree
E)
fifth degree
63.
Which of the following skin changes is usually associated with aging?
A)
Skin becomes thicker.
B)
There is an increase in the number of elastic fibers in the skin.
C)
Loss of subcutaneous tissue contributes to sagging of the skin.
D)
Localized increase in sebaceous glands leads to dry skin.
64.
With aging, individuals tend to feel colder and usually need the thermostat in their home set
higher in the winter to feel warm enough. This is probably because the elderly
A)
no longer experience hot flashes at night.
B)
exhibit a decrease in melanin production.
C)
experience a decrease in the thickness of their subcutaneous fat layer.
D)
have less blood flowing to the skin.
65.
Bob was completely bald on the top of his head by the time he was 35 years of age. Bob noticed
he produced abundant sweat on his head when he exercised. He also noticed that his scalp was no
longer oily. Which of the following changes account for the observations?
1. He has fewer functional hair follicles now.
2. He has fewer functional sebaceous glands now.
3. He has fewer merocrine sweat glands now.
4. He has fewer apocrine sweat glands now.
A)
1, 2, 3, 4
B)
1, 2, 3
C)
1, 2, 4
D)
1, 3, 4
E)
1, 2
23.
Skin color is the result of
A)
the quantity of melanin in the skin.
B)
the number of keratinocytes in the skin.
C)
the amount of fat in the hypodermis.
D)
the thickness of the stratum basale.
24.
If you accidentally cut your arm and see connective tissue and fat, which layers were cut?
A)
stratum corneum
B)
stratum basale
C)
dermis
D)
hypodermis
E)
all of these layers
25.
Vitamin C is essential for normal collagen synthesis. If a child suffered from a vitamin C
deficiency, which layer of the skin would be most affected?
A)
reticular layer of dermis
B)
stratum corneum
C)
stratum granulosum
26.
Cedric slipped and cut his finger. The cut did bleed, but did not penetrate to the hypodermis.
The most superficial layer penetrated is
A)
the stratum spinosum.
B)
the stratum granulosum.
C)
the stratum basale.
D)
the reticular layer of the dermis.
E)
the papillary layer of the dermis.
27.
Melanin production can be influenced by
A)
genetics.
B)
hormones.
C)
exposure to sunlight.
D)
pregnancy.
E)
all of these
28.
Melanin
A)
is transferred to other cells by osmosis.
B)
is increased with exposure to infrared light.
C)
is absent in individuals known as albinos.
D)
is a pigment produced by cells in the stratum corneum.
29.
Which of the following statements regarding melanin is true?
A)
During pregnancy melanin production is increased.
B)
Both melanocytes and keratinocytes produce melanin.
C)
In Addison's disease, less melanin is produced.
30.
Light-skinned races such as Caucasians have
A)
more melanocytes than races with darker skins.
B)
fewer melanocytes than races with darker skins.
C)
approximately the same number of melanocytes as races with darker skins.
MUSCLE TISSUE
1) Skeletal muscle
A) is striated.
B) is under voluntary control.
C) is primarily regulated by hormones from the endocrine system.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
2) Smooth muscle
A) is largely under voluntary control.
B) is located in the coverings of solid organs.
C) is striated.
D) moves blood through the heart
E) is regulated by the autonomic division of the nervous system.
3) The ability to respond to stimuli by producing action potentials
A) is called electrical excitability.
B) is a property of muscle tissue.
C) is not exhibited by nervous tissue.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
4) The ability of a muscle tissue to stretch without being damaged is called
A) electrical excitability.
B) contractility.
C) extensibility.
D) irritability.
E) elasticity.
5) A muscle fiber (myofiber) is a muscle
A) contractile unit.
B) cell.
C) protein.
D) sarcomere.
E) A and B are correct.
6) Muscular fascia
A) is composed of loose (aerolar) connective tissue.
B) is found between the muscles and the skin.
C) holds muscles with similar functions together.
D) limits movement of muscles.
E) blocks the penetration of nerves and blood vessels into muscles.
7) A skeletal myofiber
A) has one centrally located nucleus.
B) is derived from embryonic cells called myoblasts.
C) retains mitotic potential even in the adult.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
8) An adult has more muscle mass than a child. How did that increase in muscle mass occur?
A) atrophy
B) dysplasia
C) hyperplasia
D) dystrophy
E) hypertrophy
9) Transverse tubules put A for this only
A) are actually tiny pockets of plasma membrane that extend into the muscle cell.
B) are filled with interstitial fluid.
C) prevent the spread of an action potential to the interior of a myofiber.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
10) The sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle tissue
A) stores Ca2+ ions required for muscle contraction.
B) is called rough endoplasmic reticulum in other tissues.
C) is part of the transverse tubule.
D) is a thread of protein running the length of the muscle cell.
E) removes Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm so that an action potential can be generated.
11) Myofibrils
A) include contractile proteins which stabilize the structure of the sarcomere.
B) include the contractile proteins actin and myosin.
C) include regulatory proteins that keep thick and thin filaments in proper alignment.
D) include structural proteins that decrease the extensibility and elasticity of the myofiber.
E) include structural proteins the turn the contraction process off or on.
12) Which of the following does NOT happen during a muscle contraction?
A) The myosin heads bind to actin.
B) The myosin heads pull the thin filaments toward the M line.
C) The sarcomere shortens.
D) The myofiber and the muscle itself shorten.
E) The thick and thin filaments shorten.
13) A contraction cycle
A) cannot begin until Ca2+ has bound to troponin.
B) cannot begin until the myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed.
C) cannot begin until Ca2+ has bound to tropomyosin.
D) A and B are correct.
E) B and C are correct.
14) Place the events of a contraction cycle in the order in which they occur:
1. ATP hydrolysis
2. detachment of myosin head from actin
3. power stroke
4. crossbridge formation
A) 1, 4, 3, 2
B) 1, 4, 2, 3
C) 1. 3, 4, 2
D) 1, 3, 2, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
15) Repetition of the contraction cycle
A) requires the absence of ATP.
B) requires the presence of an adequate number of Ca2+ ions.
C) requires the action of the ATPase found on actin.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
16) All of the following is true of rigor mortis EXCEPT:
A) Cellular membranes become leaky after death.
B) Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum accumulates in the cytoplasm.
C) Ca2+ binds to troponin allowing crossbridges to form.
D) Myosin ATPase activity allows the contraction cycle to repeat indefinitely.
E) Muscles contract until proteolytic enzymes from the lysosomes digest crossbridges.
17) A neuromuscular junction (NMJ)
A) is the synapse of a motor neuron with a muscle fiber.
B) includes the synaptic end bulbs of the muscle fiber.
C) includes the motor endplates of the motor neuron.
D) uses Na+ as a neurotransmitter.
E) All of the above are correct.
18) Place the events at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) in the order in which they occur:
1. release of acetylcholine (ACh)
2. activation of ACh receptors on motor endplate
3. termination of ACh activity by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
4. arrival of an action potential at the synaptic end bulb
5. diffusion of ACh across the synaptic cleft
6. opening of Na+ channels in the motor endplate
7. production of muscle fiber action potential
A) 4, 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3
B) 4, 1, 5, 6, 2, 7, 3
C) 4, 1, 5, 2, 7, 6, 3
D) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3, 7, 6
E) 4, 1, 5, 2, 6, 7, 3
19) How do muscle fibers produce ATP?
A) from creatine phosphate
B) through anaerobic cellular respiration
C) through aerobic cellular respiration
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
20) Creatine phosphate
A) is produced when ATP levels in a muscle cell are depressed.
B) production requires the activity of creatine kinase.
C) is much less plentiful in the cytoplasm than is ATP.
D) provides enough energy for 15 minutes of muscle activity.
E) provides enough energy to run a 10 Km race.
21) Aerobic cellular respiration
A) converts the pyruvate from glycolysis into CO2, H2O, heat and ATP.
B) occurs in the mitochondria.
C) requires O2, which can be obtained from hemoglobin or myoglobin.
D) is required for muscle activities lasting longer than one minute.
E) All of these are correct.
22) Oxygen debt (recovery oxygen uptake)
A) is the amount of O2 required by the body to convert glycogen into lactic acid.
B) is the amount of O2 required by the body to remove O2 from myoglobin.
C) is the amount of O2 required by the body to recuperate from exercise.
D) is the amount of O2 required by the body to convert ATP to ADP.
E) is the amount of O2 required by the body to convert creatine phosphate to pyruvate.
23) Which of the following is true of a twitch contraction?
A) During a twitch, all fibers in a motor unit respond to an action potential in a motor neuron.
B) During its latent period, Ca2+ binds to troponin.
C) During its contraction period, Ca2+ is actively transported in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) During its relaxation period, an action potential moves across the sarcolemma and T tubules.
E) All of the above are correct.
24) Slow oxidative muscle fibers
A) are the muscle cells most involved in short-term activity such as sprinting.
B) are the largest and most powerful of the skeletal muscle fiber types.
C) contract rapidly and generate ATP anaerobically.
D) resist fatigue and contain large amounts of myoglobin.
E) All of the above are correct.
25) What is the relationship of exercise to skeletal muscle fibers?
A) Endurance exercise can transform some FG fibers into FOG fibers..
B) Strength training exercises can induce production of more filaments in FG fibers.
C) Exercise does not change the number of skeletal muscle fibers.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
26)When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane
becomes
A) less permeable to sodium ions.
B) less permeable to potassium ions.
C) more permeable to calcium ions.
D) more permeable to sodium ions.
E) repolarized.
27)Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters that are released by ________ when the action
potential arrives.
A) endocytosis
B) apoptosis
C) hydrolysis
D) sodium
E) exocytosis
28)Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
A) calcium ion binds to channels on the end plate.
B) the nerve action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.
C) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the end plate membrane.
D) acetylcholinesterase binds to receptors on the end plate.
E) Any of the above can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.
29)A fascicle is
A) a group of muscle fibers and motor neurons.
B) a collection of myofibrils in a muscle fiber.
C) the belly of a muscle.
D) a group of muscle fibers that are all part of the same motor unit.
E) a group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium.
30)Which of the following is NOT a property of the myosin head?
A. They form cross-bridges with the active sites of actin
B. They have a hinge region to bend and straighten
C. They bind to troponin
D. They have ATPase activity
E. None of the above is the correct answer
31)The sarcolemma is the
A. Cell membrane of a muscle fiber
B. Cytoplasm of muscle cells
C. Structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
D. Contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
E. Protein strand composed of actin
32)What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
A. Tropomyosin is the name of the contracting unit
B. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on
the actin molecules
C. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the
myosin molecules
D. Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmittier
E. None of the above
33)What type of neuroglial cells are these?
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglial
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Satellite cells
E. Ependymal
34)Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release
of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release
of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion
release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release
of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
35)Which of the following is necessary for muscle relaxation?
A. Ca2+ moves back into sarcoplasmic reticulum by active transport
B. Ca2+ moves away from troponin-tropomyosin complex
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
36)True or false? In smooth muscle there are no troponin/tropomyosin complexes. Instead
calcium binds to PTH.
Match the following concerning concentration differences across the plasma membrane (37-38)
A. Concentration of potassium
B. Concentration of sodium and chloride
C. Negatively charged proteins
D. Plasma membrane is more permeable to this ion because of nongated ion channels
37)Large molecules trapped inside cell
38)Higher concentration of this ion inside cell
39)Most unipolar neurons are ____________ neurons.
40)___________ are processes that conduct electric signals toward the cell body.
41)____________ are collections of neuron cell bodies
42)The nervous system has two subdivisions - the central nervous system and the
____________ nervous system.
43)Why isn't an action potential transmitted from a postsynaptic membrane to a presynaptic
terminal?
A) Presynaptic terminals have no acetylcholine receptors.
B) Presynaptic neurons do not have a resting membrane potential.
C) Acetylcholine can only diffuse in one direction across the synaptic cleft.
D) Synaptic vesicles in the postsynaptic membrane are inactive.
E) Acetylcholine is destroyed too fast.
44)The absolute refractory period ends when
A) inactivation gates of voltage-gated Na+ ion channels reopen.
B) activation gates of voltage-gates Na+ ion channels reopen.
C) the sodium-potassium exchange pump stops.
D) voltage-gated K+ channels open.
E) none of the above occurs.
45)During depolarization of the plasma membrane,
A) sodium ions move rapidly into the cell.
B) potassium ions move rapidly out of the cell.
C) membrane permeability to sodium ions decreases.
D) the outside of the cell becomes positively charged relative to the inside.
46)A stimulus either causes an action potential or it doesn't. This is called
A) an all-or-none response.
B) a graded response.
C) a latent period response.
D) a relative refractory response.
E) a local response.
.47) Which of the following events is not a characteristic of an action potential?
A) The plasma membrane becomes highly permeable to sodium ions and depolarization
results.
B) As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative.
C) At the peak of depolarization, sodium channels begin to close and potassium channels
open.
D) In repolarization, potassium ions flow out of the cell.
E) Action potentials occur according to the all-or-none principle.
48)An action potential
A) occurs when the local (graded) potential reaches threshold level.
B) propagates across the plasma membrane in a decremental fashion.
C) has no repolarization phase.
D) is an example of negative feedback.
E) cannot transmit information.
48)Which of the following situations will lead to hyperpolarization?
A) increase the permeability of the plasma membrane to Na+ ions
B) decrease the permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ ions
C) decrease the permeability of the plasma membrane to chloride ions
D) any positive ion entering the cell
E) none of these will lead to hyperpolarization
49)The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to potassium ions because
A) of its positive electrical charge.
B) there are more non-gated channels for K+ than Na+.
C) protein molecules cannot exit through the cell membrane.
D) calcium ions block Na+ and Cl- channels.
E) there are more non-gated channels for Na+ than K+.
50)Which of the following is mismatched?
A) microglia - provide support for the neuron cell body
B) astrocytes - blood-brain barrier
C) oligodendrocytes - form myelin sheaths
D) ependymal cells - produce cerebral spinal fluid
E) ependymal cells – choroid plexus
51)A graded potential
A) does not occur until threshold.
B) transmits information from one cell to another.
C) might be a depolarization event but cannot be a hyperpolarization event.
D) increases or decreases in direct proportion to the stimulus strength
E) does not alter resting membrane potential
52)Schwann cells differ from oligodendrocytes in which of the following ways?
A) Schwann cells form myelin; oligodendrocytes do not.
B) Oligodendrocytes are only found in the PNS; Schwann cells are only found in the CNS.
C) Schwann cells form sheaths around several axons, while oligodendrocytes form sheaths
around only one axon.
D) Schwann cells form a myelin sheath around a portion of only one axon, while
oligodendrocytes can surround portions of several axons.
E)None of the above are true differences.
53)Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid could be the result of over activity of the
A) astrocytes.
B) microglial cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) macrophages.
E) ependymal cells.
54)A neuroglial cell that is a major component of the blood-brain barrier is the
A) astrocyte.
B) microglial cell.
C) oligodendrocyte.
D) ependymal cell.
E) macrophage.
55)Neurons in the skin that are responsible for detecting pain are
A) apolar.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) multipolar.
E) pseudopolar.
56)The motor neurons responsible for making a fist are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) multipolar.
D) pseudopolar.
E) none of the above
57)A neuron that conducts pain sensations to the central nervous system would be classified
as a(n)
A) motor neuron.
B) sensory or afferent neuron.
C) efferent neuron.
D) association neuron.
E) interneuron.
58)Which of the following is mismatched?
A) central nervous system - brain
B) autonomic nervous system - sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
C) peripheral nervous system - spinal nerves
D) somatic nervous system - sensory division of PNS
E) peripheral nervous system – sensory and motor divisions
59)The peripheral nervous system includes the
A) brain.
B) spinal cord.
C) cranial nerves.
D) blood-brain barrier.
E) cerebellum.
60) What regulates resting or vegetative functions such as digesting food or emptying of the
urinary bladder.
A. Parasympathetic
B. Sympathetic
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system
E. A&D
MUSCLE TISSUE ANSWER!
1.
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48.
49.
D
50.A
E
51.D
D
52.D
C
53.E
B
54.A
C
55.B
B
56.C
E
57.B
D
58.D
A
59.C
B
60.E
E
D
A
B
D
A
E
E
B
E
C
A
D
E
D
E
D
E
C
A
B
E
A
C
False
C
A
Sensory
Dendrites
Ganglia ,ganglion … same thing
Peripheral
A
A
A
A
B
E
B
SKETAL TISSUE
1.
Important functions of the skeletal system include
A)
protection of the brain and soft organs.
B)
storage of water.
C)
production of Vitamin E.
2.
A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is a(n)
A)
aponeurosis.
B)
ligament.
C)
bursa.
D)
epimysium.
E)
tendon.
3.
Ligaments attach
A)
muscle to muscle.
B)
bone to bone.
C)
muscle to bone.
4.
Chondroblasts produce
A)
ligaments.
B)
cartilage matrix.
C)
bone tissue.
5.
The type of cartilage associated with bone function and development is
A)
elastic cartilage.
B)
fibrocartilage.
C)
hyaline cartilage.
D)
interstitial cartilage.
6.
The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the
A)
matrix.
B)
chondrocyte.
C)
ligamentous cord.
D)
lacuna.
E)
perichondrium.
7.
Cartilage
A)
is composed of osteons.
B)
is surrounded by a membrane called the periosteum.
C)
contains chondrocytes located in lacunae.
D)
does not need nutrients and oxygen so it has no blood vessels.
8.
Proteoglycan molecules in the matrix of cartilage
A)
replace collagen fibers in the matrix.
B)
give cartilage its resilient nature.
C)
fill the lacunae.
9.
Which of the following matrix molecules in cartilage tends to trap large quantities of water?
A)
collagen
B)
proteoglycan
C)
hyaluronic acid
10.
In appositional growth of cartilage,
A)
chondroblasts within the tissue proliferate and add more matrix from the inside.
B)
new chondrocytes and new matrix are added on the outside of the tissue.
C)
osteoblasts replace the chondroblasts.
11.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
A)
short bone - carpal bone
B)
long bone - vertebra
C)
irregular bone - femur
12.
An example of a long bone would be
A)
the sternum.
B)
a rib.
C)
a carpal bone.
D)
the tibia.
E)
the clavicle.
13.
An X-ray determines that Peter fractured the shaft of his humerus. The break is in the
_____________ of the bone.
A)
epiphysis
B)
epiphyseal line
C)
diaphysis
D)
growth plate
14.
Which of the following membranes covers the surface of a mature bone?
A)
perimysium
B)
perichondrium
C)
peritendineum
D)
peritoneum
E)
periosteum
15.
A bone is considered to be a (an)
A)
cell.
B)
tissue.
C)
organ.
D)
system.
16.
The medullary cavity is
A)
empty in adult bones.
B)
the site where osteoblasts are found.
C)
lined with an endosteum.
D)
filled with fibrocartilage and elastin fibers.
17.
Collagen and calcium hydroxyapatite are the primary constituents of
A)
bone matrix.
B)
hyaline cartilage.
C)
fibrous cartilage.
18.
The compression (weight-bearing) strength of bone matrix is due to the presence of
A)
elastin fibers.
B)
collagenase.
C)
hydroxyapatite crystals.
D)
collagen fibers.
19.
The proportion of collagen to hydroxyapatite in bone determines the
A)
thickness of the bone.
B)
length of the bone.
C)
strength of the bone.
D)
ability of the bone to heal.
20.
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed is the
A)
osteoclast.
B)
osteoblast.
C)
chondrocyte.
D)
osteocyte.
E)
chondroblast.
21.
Which of the following cell types is responsible for breaking down bone matrix?
A)
chondroclast
B)
osteoclast
C)
chondroblast
22.
The primary function of osteoblasts is to
A)
prevent osteocytes from forming.
B)
resorb bone along the epiphyseal plate.
C)
inhibit the growth of bone.
D)
stimulate bone growth.
E)
lay down bone matrix.
23.
Osteoblasts involved in bone growth in length come primarily from
A)
chondrocytes.
B)
endothelium of blood vessels.
C)
osteocytes.
D)
periosteum.
E)
connective tissue surrounding blood vessels from the endosteum.
24.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
A)
osteocytes - function in bone remodeling
B)
osteoclasts – responsible for resorption
C)
osteoblasts - break down bone tissue
D)
endosteum - lines central canal of the osteon
25.
Which of the following occurs in the formation of mineralized bone matrix?
A)
Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix.
B)
Osteoblasts form collagen and proteoglycans.
C)
The protein components of bone matrix are digested.
26.
Cancellous bone tissue
A)
is very dense.
B)
contains concentric lamellae.
C)
contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae.
D)
has many spaces and lacks osteocytes.
27.
A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a
A)
central canal.
B)
lamella.
C)
canaliculus.
D)
lacuna.
28.
Haversian systems or osteons
A)
are found in spongy bone tissue.
B)
lack concentric lamellae.
C)
are the basic units in compact bone tissue.
D)
do not contain osteocytes.
29.
The type of lamellae found in osteons (Haversian systems) is
A)
circumferential.
B)
concentric.
C)
interstitial.
30.
Lamellar bone
A)
has its collagen fibers randomly oriented.
B)
has a porous appearance.
C)
is organized into thin sheets of tissue.
37.
The processes of intramembranous and endochondral ossification are similar in several
respects. Which of the following statements applies to both intramembranous and endochondral
ossification?
A)
Both processes form compact bone.
B)
Both processes require a precursor of connective tissue membranes.
C)
In both processes, bone replaces cartilage.
38.
Which of the following events occurs last?
A)
Blood vessels grow into the primary ossification center.
B)
Cartilage is calcified in the cartilage model.
C)
A cartilage model is formed by chondroblasts.
D)
Osteoblasts produce trabeculae and lamellae on the surface of calcified cartilage.
E)
Secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphyses.
39.
Which of the following statements about bone growth is true?
A)
Most growth in long bones results from interstitial growth.
B)
Appositional bone growth results in increased bone length.
C)
Endochondral growth in long bones occurs at the epiphyseal plate.
D)
In the epiphyseal plate, osteoblasts degenerate to form chondrocytes.
40.
Appositional growth deposits a new layer of bone
A)
on the surface of the bone.
B)
in the epiphyseal plate of long bones.
C)
in the secondary ossification center of the epiphyses.
41.
The sequence of events that produces growth at the epiphyseal plate is
A)
hypertrophy, proliferation, calcification, ossification, and remodeling.
B)
proliferation, hypertrophy, cell death, calcification, ossification, and remodeling.
C)
hypertrophy, calcification, proliferation, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.
D)
calcification, hypertrophy, proliferation, ossification, cell death, and remodeling.
E)
proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.
42.
If an X-ray shows a black area in the region of the epiphyseal plate,
A)
the bone is fractured.
B)
growth of the bone is complete.
C)
marrow is forming in the cancellous bone.
D)
the epiphyseal plate has not completely ossified.
43.
Long bones grow in length at the
A)
epiphyseal plate.
B)
articular cartilage.
C)
center of the shaft.
44.
The longitudinal growth of long bones ceases when
A)
chondroblasts take over mitosis of osteoblasts.
B)
the epiphyseal plate is completely replaced with bone tissue.
C)
the epiphysis becomes separated from the diaphysis.
45.
Normal bone growth requires adequate amounts of _____, _____, and _____ in the diet.
A)
sodium, calcium, and vitamin E
B)
potassium, calcium, and vitamin D
C)
calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D
D)
vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride
46.
Which of the following is mismatched?
A)
vitamin D - aids calcium absorption
B)
vitamin C - necessary for collagen synthesis
C)
vitamin D – obtained by synthesis or ingestion
D)
sex hormones - cause spurt of growth at puberty
E)
parathyroid hormone – increases calcium loss in the kidneys
47.
The growth spurt seen in puberty is triggered by
A)
parathyroid hormone.
B)
sex hormones.
C)
growth hormone.
48.
A young boy (10 years old) exhibited the following symptoms: advanced development of
secondary sexual characteristics and rapid growth. Which of the following caused his condition?
A)
hypersecretion of growth hormone
B)
hypersecretion of testosterone
C)
hypersecretion of estrogen
49.
A boy grew rapidly and reached a height of 6’2” by the time he was 13. He had normal body
proportions and sexual development was only slightly retarded. Which of the following caused his
condition?
A)
an adrenal tumor that secretes androgens
B)
hypersecretion of testosterone
C)
elevated vitamin D synthesis
D)
hypersecretion of growth hormone
50.
Which of the following statements about bone remodeling and repair is correct?
A)
Bone remodeling involves removal of old bone by osteoblasts.
B)
As a long bone increases in diameter, the size of the marrow cavity decreases.
C)
The rate of bone remodeling increases in the elderly.
D)
Exposure of a bone to increased stress can lead to bone remodeling.
51.
The remodeling of bone tissue is a function of
A)
osteoblast and osteoclast activity.
B)
osteoclast and osteocyte activity.
C)
chondroblast and osteoclast activity.
52.
In which of the following locations in a growing bone would the greatest osteoclast activity be
found?
A)
diaphysis
B)
the endosteum
C)
epiphyseal plate
D)
articular cartilage
E)
B and C
53.
Bone remodeling may occur
A)
as bones grow.
B)
as bones adjust to stress.
C)
as fractures heal.
D)
constantly during a person’s lifetime.
E)
all of the above
54.
Which of the following statements regarding calcium homeostasis is true?
A)
Parathyroid hormone inhibits osteoclast activity.
B)
When blood calcium levels are too low, osteoclast activity increases.
C)
Increased osteoblast activity increases blood calcium levels.
55.
When a fractured bone is cast, it is important to leave some tension on the bone so that the
A)
fractured pieces will align properly.
B)
bone will heal faster.
C)
osteoclast activity increases.
56.
The proper sequence of events in bone repair is
A)
callus formation, hematoma formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.
B)
remodeling of bone, callus ossification, hematoma formation, callus formation.
C)
hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.
D)
callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone, hematoma formation.
E)
hematoma formation, callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone.