Name____________________________________
Chapter 26—Urinary System
Short answer/essay:
Identify the two parts of a nephron.
Where is blood “filtered?”
The kidneys serve several functions. Summarize them.
Compare sympathetic stimulation with autoregulation of glomerular filtration while at rest.
With a sudden increase in blood pressure, the heart atria secrete ANP. What is its affect on
glomerular filtration?
With dropping blood pressure, the walls of the renal arterioles collapse causing the
juxtaglomerular cells to produce rennin, which in turn stimulates angiotensin II secretion. What
is the affect of angiotensin II?
1. Urine leaves the urinary bladder through the
A. urethra
B. collecting duct
C. ureter
D. renal vein
2. Which of the following structures are found in the renal cortex?
A. distal convoluted tubules
B. renal columns
C. collecting ducts
D. minor calyces
3. Fenestrations are associated with the
A. loop of Henle
B. Bowman's capsule
C. collecting duct
D. glomerulus
4. Urine contains
A. waste products of digestion
B. waste products of metabolism
C. only water
D. only water and proteins
5.
The renal pelvis
A. is formed by the union of minor calyces
B. channels urine toward the renal pyramids
C. contains collecting tubules
D. drains into the ureter
6.
The kidneys help control blood pressure by the secretion of
A. erythropoietin
B. angiotensin
C. aldosterone
D. renin
7.
Sodium is moved out of the cells of the proximal convoluted tubule and into the interstitial fluid by the
process of
A. diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
C. active transport
D. osmosis
8.
The outer layer of the three layers of tissue that surround the kidney is the
A. renal fascia
B. adipose capsule
C. renal capsule
D. peritoneum
9.
In renal interstitial fluid
A. sodium chloride has the same concentration from cortex to medulla
B. sodium chloride concentration decreases from cortex to medulla
C. water concentration increases from cortex to medulla
D. sodium chloride concentration increases from cortex to medulla
10. Filtration of blood
A. occurs in the glomerulus
B. occurs in the renal tubules
C. increases systemic blood pressure
D. causes H+ and K+ to concentrate in blood
11. The loop of Henle is associated with
A. filtration
B. reabsorption
C. secretion
D. assimilation
12. A function of the kidney is to
A. remove nutrients from the blood
B. remove microorganisms from the blood
C. regulate blood ionic composition
D. add vitamins and rare ions to the blood
13. Which of the following molecules cannot pass the filtration membranes in the kidneys?
A. sodium ions
B. glucose
C. amino acids
D. large proteins
14. The innermost layer of the three layers of tissue that protect the kidney is the
A. renal fascia
B. adipose capsule
C. renal capsule
D. peritoneum
15. The renal papillae contain papillary ducts which empty into the
A. minor calyces
B. ureters
C. renal pelvis
D. urethra
16. Reabsorption is the movement of molecules from the _____ into the _____ .
A. glomerulus, renal tubule
B. tissues, distal convoluted tubule
C. renal tubules, peritubular capillaries
D. proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule
17. Very little water reabsorption occurs in the
A. thick ascending loop of Henle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. thin descending loop of Henle
D. collecting ducts
18. Sodium ions move through the apical membranes of principal cells of the collecting duct by
A. secondary active transport
B. osmosis
C. sodium pumps
D. diffusion
19. Glomerular filtrate is produced as a result of
A. reabsorption
B. blood hydrostatic pressure
C. tubular secretion
D. facilitated diffusion
20. The external opening of the urinary system is the
A. anus
B. urethra
C. external urethral orifice
D. vaginal orifice
21. The kidneys secrete the hormone erythropoietin, which functions to
A. regulate blood pressure
B. activate vitamin D
C. concentrate salt in the nephron
D. control the rate of red blood cell production
22. Which of the following accurately represents the pathway of fluid through a juxtamedullary nephron?
proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of
A.
Henle
B.
proximal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, distal convoluted
tubule
C.
distal convoluted tubule, descending loop of Henle, ascending loop of Henle, proximal convoluted
tubule
D.
distal convoluted tubule, ascending loop of Henle, descending loop of Henle, proximal convoluted
tubule
23. Urine reaches the urinary bladder through the
A. urethra
B. external urethral orifice
C. ureter
D. renal vein
24. The nephron has two parts. They are the
A. glomerulus and renal tubule
B. capsule and loop of Henle
C. glomerulus and peritubular capillaries
D. renal corpuscle and renal tubule
25. The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule is covered with specialized cells called
A. podocytes
B. fenestrations
C. pedicels
D. slits
26. Increased sodium and chloride ion concentrations in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla is the result
of
A. renin secretion
B. tubular secretion
C. reabsorption of glucose
D. countercurrent mechanism
27. Externally, the kidney is protected and supported by connective tissue and
A. mesentery
B. adipose tissue
C. serous fluid
D. cartilage
28. Renal blood pressure remains fairly constant due to the function of the
A. loop of Henle
B. Bowman's capsule
C. fenestra
D. juxtaglomerular apparatus
29. Chloride ions are actively reabsorbed from the
A. collecting tubule
B. glomerulus
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
30. A patient has symptoms that include painful, frequent urination, and low back pain. Further examination
reveals inflammation of the mucosa and submucosa of the urinary bladder. The patient has
A. polycystic disease
B. cystitis
C. bilirubinuria
D. gall stones
31. Potassium ions are actively secreted into the tubular fluid of the
A. distal convoluted tubule
B. loop of Henle
C. peritubular capillaries
D. ascending limb
32. A patient is brought to the emergency room. Blood evaluation reveals high levels of creatinine, urea, uric
acid, and potassium. Family members report failure to urinate, even though the patient consumed a fairly
large quantity of water during the day. The patient is experiencing
A. pyelitis
B. urinary tract infection
C. renal failure
D. horseshoe kidney
33. Most reabsorption occurs in the
A. loop of Henle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. Bowman's capsule
D. distal convoluted tubule
34. The process by which water is reabsorbed by following solutes when they are reabsorbed is called
A. facultative water reabsorption
B. obligatory water reabsorption
C. rennin-angiotensin water reabsorption
D. osmotic water reabsorption
35. Which layer of the endothelial-capsular membrane prevents red blood cells from leaving the blood, but
allows all components of the blood plasma to pass through?
A. fenestrated endothelial cells
B. basal lamina
C. fatty acids
D. slit membranes of podocytes
36. In cortical nephrons, the
A. renal corpuscle lies in the outer portion of the renal cortex
B. loop of Henle penetrates far down into the medulla
C. glomerulus is larger then the juxtamedullary nephron glomeruli
D. proximal convoluted tubules are very short
37. The proximal convoluted tubule is made up of
A. simple squamous cells
B. columnar cells covered with cilia
C. podocytes
D. cuboidal cells with many microvilli
38. Normally, net filtration pressure in the kidney is about
A. 5 mm Hg
B. 10 mm Hg
C. 50 mm Hg, the same as in capillaries
D. 80 mm Hg, the same as diastolic blood pressure
39. In the process of renal autoregulation, when the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes less vasoconstrictor
substance,
A. the afferent arterioles dilate, increasing glomerular filtration rate
B. the efferent arterioles dilate, allowing blood to flow through the kidney faster
C. the loop of Henle reabsorbs more sodium and chloride ions
D. the collecting tubule reabsorbs less water
40. Which of the following chemicals is an enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A. aldosterone
B. antidiuretic hormone
C. atrial naturetic peptide
D. renin
41. Glucose enters the proximal convoluted tubule cells by _____ and leaves the cell into the interstitial fluid
by _____.
A. simple diffusion, active transport
B. facilitated diffusion, simple diffusion
C. sodium ion-glucose symporters, facilitated diffusion
D. primary active transport, sodium ion-glucose symporters
42. The main region of the kidney tubule that is impermeable to water is the
A. collecting duct
B. thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
43. The main regulator of facultative water reabsorption is
A. antidiuretic hormone
B. aldosterone
C. renin
D. angiotensin
44. In the embryo, the first kidney to form is the
A. mesonephros
B. pronephros
C. metanephros
D. urogenital diaphragm
45. Which of the following occurs by the action of Na+ symporters in the apical membranes of tubule cells?
A. reabsorption of hydrogen ions by proximal convoluted tubule cells
B. reabsorption of amino acids by proximal convoluted tubule cells
C. secretion of hydrogen ions by intercalated cells
both reabsorption of glucose by proximal convoluted tubule cells and reabsorption of amino acids
D.
by proximal convoluted tubule cells
46. Ions, but not water, are reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in the ascending loop of Henle. Therefore, the
osmolarity of the fluid entering the distal convoluted tubule is
A. less than pure water
B. greater than blood
C. greater than the glomerular filtrate
D. less than blood
47. The most important solutes that contribute to the high osmolarity of the interstitial fluid in the renal
medulla are
A. potassium ions, hydrogen ions, and water
B. sodium ions, chloride ions, and urea
C. glucose, proteins, and calcium ions
D. renin, aldosterone, and angiotensin
48. During the micturition reflex ___________.
sympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the brain that cause contraction of the external urethral
A.
sphincter
B.
sympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the spinal cord that cause relaxation of the external
urethral sphincter
C.
parasympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the spinal cord that cause relaxation of the detrusor
muscle
D.
parasympathetic fibers conduct impulses from the spinal cord that cause contraction of the detrusor
muscle
49. The only place in the kidney where filtration occurs is in the
A. renal corpuscle
B. proximal convoluted tubule
C. loop of Henle
D. distal convoluted tubule
50. Creatinine is produced by the breakdown of creatine phosphate in the skeletal muscles. It is useful for
determining glomerular filtration rate (GFR) because it is
A. filtered but not reabsorbed or secreted
B. filtered and extensively secreted but not reabsorbed
C. filtered and secreted to a very small extent
D. secreted but not filtered or reabsorbed
51. The urinary bladder in the female lies inferior to the
A. small intestines
B. uterus
C. rectum
D. vagina
52. The color of urine is due to the presence of a chemical called
A. urochrome
B. urea
C. creatinine
D. inulin
53. The normal kidneys are only about _____ as effective at the age of 70 as they are at the age of 40.
A. 10 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 75 percent
54. Which vessel carries blood to the glomerulus?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
55. What type of nephron is indicated by A?
A. cortical nephron
B. juxtamedullary nephron
C. juxtacortical nephron
D. medullary nephron
56. Which nephron type enables the kidney to excrete very dilute or very concentrated urine?
A. A
B. B
C. neither of these
D. both of these
57. Which cells constitute the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. B and C
D. B and D
58. What is the function of B?
A. prevents filtration of blood cells but allows all components of blood plasma to pass through
B. prevents filtration of large proteins
C. prevents filtration of medium-sized proteins
D. allows filtration of all blood components
60. Which pressure is the primary pressure driving glomerular filtration?
A. glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure
B. capsular hydrostatic pressure
C. blood colloid osmotic pressure
D. capsular colloid osmotic pressure
61. Which structure allows voluntary control over urination?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Chapter 28
1. Which of the following functions in both urinary and reproductive systems in the male?
A. prostate
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Sertoli cells
D. urethra
2. The function of chemicals within the acrosomal cap is to
A. protect the DNA of the sperm
B. aid the sperm in penetration into a secondary oocyte
C. provide energy for the flagellum
D. provide motility for the sperm
3. The portion of the penis which surrounds the urethra is the
A. tunica albuginea
B. corpus spongiosum
C. corpus cavernosum
D. prepuce
4. The fructose in semen is secreted by the
A. epididymis
B. ductus deferens
C. seminal vesicles
D. seminiferous tubules
5. The corpus luteum secretes
A. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B. progesterone and estrogens
C. hCG and progesterone
D. estrogens and hCG
6.
Sperm move by means of
A. cilia
B. microvilli
C. flagella
D. enzymes
7.
After ovulation the _____ becomes the _____.
A. secondary oocyte, primary oocyte
B. zona pellucida, corona radiata
C. mature (Graafian) follicle, corpus luteum
D. amount of glucose ingested
8.
The portion of the ovary that contains the ovarian follicles is the
A. mesovarium
B. germinal epithelium
C. cortex
D. tunica albuginea
9.
Which female reproductive structure is located between the urinary bladder and the rectum?
A. ovary
B. uterus
C. vagina
D. prostate
10. In males, FSH
A. acts indirectly with testosterone to stimulate spermatogenesis
B. stimulates the testes to secrete testosterone
C. has no function
D. causes sperm cells to secrete inhibin
11. The cells in the testis responsible for producing testosterone are the
A. spermatogenic cells
B. spermatogonia
C. Sertoli cells
D. Leydig cells
12. The testes are covered by a dense white fibrous capsule called the
A. scrotum
B. tunica vaginalis
C. tunica albuginea
D. visceral peritoneum
13. Which of the following cells lies next to the basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules?
A. spermatogonia
B. primary spermatocytes
C. secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids
14. The perimetrium or serosa is part of the
A. parietal peritoneum
B. visceral peritoneum
C. parietal pleura
D. visceral pericardium
15. In the testis, spermatogonia divide by
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. reduction division
D. equation division
16. The cells formed by meiosis II are called
A. spermatogonia
B. primary spermatocytes
C. secondary spermatocytes
D. spermatids
17. The daily production of sperm in the testes is about
A. 30 thousand
B. 300 thousand
C. 30 million
D. 300 million
18. Which of the hormones produced in the male directly stimulates testosterone secretion?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. inhibin
D. GnRH
19. In the male, the protein hormone inhibin is produced by the _____ and inhibits secretion of _____.
A. hypothalamus; LH
B. anterior pituitary gland; testosterone
C. Sertoli cells; FSH
D. Leydig cells; GnRH
20. The longest duct of the male reproductive tract, passing from the scrotum into the pelvic cavity, is the
A. ductus deferens
B. epididymis
C. ejaculatory duct
D. urethra
21. The ejaculatory duct attaches to the urethra in a region surrounded by the
A. seminal vesicles
B. prostate gland
C. urogenital diaphragm
D. urinary bladder
22. The epididymis and ductus (vas) deferens develop from the embryonic
A. genital tubercle
B. labioscrotal swelling
C. paramesonephric duct
D. mesonephric duct
23. A male is likely to be infertile if his sperm count is below _____ per mL of semen.
A. one thousand
B. ten thousand
C. one million
D. twenty million
24. The bulb of the penis is located at the base of the
A. corpus cavernosum
B. corpus spongiosum
C. glans penis
D. prepuce
25. At birth, hundreds of thousands of oogonia are present in each ovary at birth, but only about _____ of these
will mature and ovulate.
A. fifty
B. four hundred
C. four thousand
D. half
26. In the ovary, oocytes begin meiosis I
A. during fetal development
B. during early childhood
C. after puberty
D. after ovulation
27. The open, funnel-shaped portion of a uterine tube is called the
A. fimbria
B. ampulla
C. infundibulum
D. isthmus
28. Fertilization of the oocyte by a sperm usually occurs in the
A. vagina
B. cervix of the uterus
C. ovary
D. ampulla of the oviduct
29. The uterus is attached to both sides of the pelvic cavity by
the
A. round ligaments
B. broad ligaments
C. oviducts
D. cardinal ligaments
30. A Pap smear is a test performed to detect
A. cancer of the cervix
B. pregnancy
C. infections of the ovary
D. vaginitis
31. The normal flexure of the uterus, projecting it anteriorly and superiorly over the vagina, is called
A. uterine prolapse
B. dorsiflexion
C. anteflexion
D. retroflexion
32. A hysterectomy is the
A. downward displacement of the uterus into the vagina
B. most common sterilization procedure used in women
C. surgical procedure sometime used during childbirth to open the vaginal canal
D. surgical removal of the uterus
33. The stratum basalis of the uterus
A. is shed during menstruation
B. repeatedly gives rise to a new stratum functionalis after each menstruation
C. contracts during childbirth to help expel the fetus
D. is part of the visceral peritoneum and becomes part of the broad ligament
34. The acidity of the vagina is due to
A. breakdown of glycogen that produces organic acids
B. secretion of small amounts of hydrochloric acid by cells lining the tube
C. reabsorption of bicarbonate ions, reducing their buffering action
D. secretions of bacteria that normally reside in this tube
35. The small folds that are lateral to the vaginal opening are the
A. hymen
B. clitoris
C. labia minora
D. mons pubis
36. The milk secreting glands in the breast are called
A. alveoli
B. lobules
C. lobes
D. lactiferous sinuses
37. The last tubes through which milk flows before it reaches the outside through the nipple are the
A. lactiferous ducts
B. lactiferous sinuses
C. mammary ducts
D. secondary tubules
38. The American Cancer Society recommends that a woman should have a baseline mammogram taken, to
serve as a comparison, between the ages of
A. 20 and 24
B. 25 and 29
C. 30 and 34
D. 35 and 39
39. Which of the following hormones have the greatest direct control over the changes in the uterus?
A. GnRH
B. FSH and LH
C. estrogens and progesterone
D. inhibin and relaxin
40. The principal estrogen hormone in the nonpregnant woman is
A. beta-estradiol
B. estrone
C. estriol
D. progesterone
41. Which hormone has effects on general metabolism to increase protein production and reduce cholesterol
production as well as controlling the reproductive cycle in the female?
A. estrogens
B. progesterone
C. FSH
D. LH
42. __________ increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis at the end of pregnancy.
A. estrogen
B. progesterone
C. relaxin
D. inhibin
43. The mature (Graafian) follicle continues to enlarge and increase its estrogen production during the
A. menstrual phase
B. preovulatory phase
C. ovulation phase
D. postovulatory phase
44. The hormone responsible for stimulating the development of the secondary follicles in the ovary is
A. progesterone
B. FSH
C. LH
D. GnRH
45. An over-the-counter test is now available for purchase that indicates ovulation. This test measures the
levels of
A. estrogens
B. FSH
C. GnRH
D. LH
46. Low levels of progesterone cause
A. menstruation
B. inhibition of GnRH
C. a sudden surge of LH
D. inhibition of FSH and LH
47. Oral contraceptive pills contain estrogens and progestin that
A. cause the developing follicle to degenerate
B. inhibit the secretion of inhibin
C. prevent the development of the endometrium
D. inhibit the release of FSH and LH
48. The birth control method that is based on knowledge of certain physiological changes that occur during the
menstrual cycle is
A. coitus interruptus
B. sympto-thermal
C. the intrauterine device
D. the cervical cap
49. Menarche is
A. the same as menopause
B. the permanent cessation of menses
C. the first menses
D. when oogenesis begins
50. Which structure moves the testes closer to the body where they can absorb body heat?
A. A
B. B
C. both A and B
D. neither a nor b
51. Which structure(s) function(s) in sperm maturation?
A. A and B
B. A and C
C. B and C
D. A, B, C
52. What is the significance of structure A?
A. it enhances nutrient supply to developing sperm
B. it prevents an immune response against the spermatogenic cell's surface antigens
C. it activates sperm development
D. it has no function
53. Which cell type(s) is(are) haploid?
A. A and b
B. B and C
C. C and D
D. D only
54. Which part of the sperm carries enzymes required to break down the barrier of cells around the egg for
fertilization?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
55. Which structure secretes alkaline, viscous fluid that helps neutralize acid in the female reproductive tract,
provides fructose for ATP production by sperm, contributes to sperm mobility and viability, and helps
semen coagulate after ejaculation?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
56. Which structure functions as the site of implantation of a fertilized ovum and development of the fetus
during pregnancy?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
57. Which structure produces progesterone, estrogens, inhibin, and relaxin?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
58. In which stage of meiosis is the secondary oocytes arrested unless fertilized?
A. meiosis I telophase
B. meiosis II anaphase
C. meiosis II metaphase
D. meiosis II telophase
59. Which layer of the uterus lines the uterine cavity and sloughs off during menstruation?
A. A
B. B
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
61. Which hormones are primarily responsible for ovulation?
A. FSH and LH
B. LH and estrogen
C. estrogen and progesterone
D. progesterone and FSH
62. Which hormones maintain the uterine lining during the first trimester of pregnancy?
A. FSH and LH
B. LH and estrogen
C. estrogen and progesterone
D. progesterone and FSH