Project- Create an AP Test
Emma Feyler
SECTION I
c.
The ability to impeach the President,
provide welfare within the states, and
establish and maintain schools.
d. The ability to establish circuit courts,
convene a joint session of Congress,
and coin money.
e. The ability to negotiate foreign treaties,
to issue drivers’ licenses, and convene a
joint session of Congress.
4) Which of the following is the best definition of
federalism?
a. A political system in which power is
divided in three branches in the federal
government in order to limit the power
of the government.
b. A political system in which power is
divided and shared between the central
government and the states in order to
limit the power of government.
c. The belief that all powers reserved for
the federal government should be
removed and given to the states.
d. A political system in which a weak
central government is established in
order to preserve the rights of the
people.
e. The belief that the writing of the
Constitution should be abandoned and
the Articles of Confederation should be
maintained with little to no alterations.
5) Which of the following is true about Dual
Federalism and Cooperative Federalism?
I.
Dual Federalism is characterized by
tension.
II.
In Cooperative Federalism power is
shared between all levels of
government.
III.
Today, the United States political
system operates under Dual
Federalism.
IV.
In Cooperative Federalism, the
central, state, and local
governments work together to solve
common problems.
a. Only I and III are true.
Constitutional Underpinnings & Federalism (6
Questions)
1) Under the Articles of Confederation
a. The federal government could not levy
taxes, while under the Constitution the
federal government was given that
power.
b. The army was raised by Congress,
while under the Constitution the army is
raised solely by the judicial branch.
c. There were federal and circuit courts
that were regulated by the states.
d. A majority vote was needed to pass
laws, while under the Constitution 9 out
of 13 states need to approve.
e. The president was granted a 4 year term
with no limit to the number of terms he
or she may serve.
2) One way in which the different branches of
government are able to check each other is
a. The Supreme Court nominates judges
for circuit courts which the President
approves.
b. The President can veto congressional
legislation and the veto cannot be
overturned.
c. The Senate has the power to impeach
the President and the House of
Representatives has the power to
remove him or her from office.
d. The House of Representatives has the
power to impeach the President and the
Senate has the power to remove him or
her from office.
e. The Executive branch controls the
budget.
3) A few examples of enumerated powers are:
a. The ability to establish circuit courts, to
issue drivers’ licenses, and to set up a
national bank.
b. The ability to regulate both interstate
and intrastate trade, conduct elections,
and negotiate foreign treaties.
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b. Only II, III and IV are true.
c. I, II, III and IV are true.
d. Only I, II and IV are true.
e. Only III is true.
6) Categorical grants
a. Are preferred by states as they allow for
much freedom in using the money.
b. Are competitive grants issued for a
specific project.
c. Are based on a formula and given to
states and localities for broad purposes.
d. Are the same as unfunded mandates in
that in order to be eligible for grants,
states and localities have to enforce
federal laws and regulations.
e. Are no longer practiced due to the
Supreme Court case The People vs.
Categorical Grants in 1903 which ruled
Categorical Grants unconstitutional
based on Article I, section 8 of the
Constitution.
e.
9)
10)
Political Beliefs and Behaviors (9 Questions)
7) In regards to voter turnout, the presidential
election
a. Lower than non-presidential elections.
b. About the same as non-presidential
elections.
c. Higher than non-presidential elections.
d. Only election in which people vote.
e. The only election that Cubans have a
voter turnout of over 50%.
8) Which of the following is true of the MotorVoter Law (1993)?
a. It allowed people to register to vote
when they were issued their license.
b. It restricted voting to only owners of an
automobile.
c. It was a widespread belief 1970s the
Civil Rights Movement that the
government purposefully placed polls in
remote places so that only people who
owned a car would be able to get to
them and vote.
d. It was a movement during the 1990s
that organized car-pooling to voting
sites.
11)
12)
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It overturned a previous law that stated
that only people who owned cars were
allowed to vote in closed primaries.
All of the following contribute to low voter
turnout EXCEPT:
a. The difficulty of absentee voting.
b. Voter fatigue.
c. Weak political parties.
d. Weekday, non-holiday voting.
e. Sickness.
Which of the following is the best definition of
political socialization?
a. A process during the ages of 5-15 by
which people form their ideas about
politics and acquire political values.
b. A lifelong process by which people
form their ideas about politics and
acquire political values.
c. A period during early adulthood that
people’s political efficacy is at its
highest.
d. The process by which the government
conveys information to the people.
e. A process by which a person’s ideas
about politics are shaped by their
family.
All of the following a factors that contribute to
political socialization, EXCEPT:
a. Family
b. Education
c. Media
d. Dietary habits
e. Peer Groups
Which of the following describes a push poll?
a. An unofficial vote which is taken to
discover what people think about an
idea or problem or how they intend to
vote in an election.
b. An official poll that contains a
randomized set of representative
participants.
c. A purposefully inaccurate poll designed
to get voters to think in a certain way by
offering suggestive wording of
questions.
d. A poll conducted outside of a voting
location, in which Pollsters as voters
who they chose.
e.
A type of poll in which people are
bribed to answer a certain way.
13) Who is most likely to vote liberal?
a. A Roman Catholic who lives in the city.
b. A Cuban who lives just outside of
Chicago and has been recently
naturalized.
c. A lower class African American woman
who lives in the city.
d. A rich, white, male college graduate
who hails from South Carolina.
e. A Jewish woman who had a very poor
childhood but is now a very successful
lawyer.
14) All of the following are true of someone with
high political efficacy, EXCEPT:
a. Someone with high political efficacy
holds the belief that he/she can
influence the government.
b. Is more likely to be politically active.
c. Is more likely to participate in a rally
and contribute to a political campaign.
d. Is more likely to vote in a low profile
election.
e. Supports everything the government
does no matter what.
15) Which of the following is an example of a crosscutting cleavage?
a. An African American in the South.
b. A rich, white man.
c. A Jewish, urban-dweller.
d. A poor Hispanic.
e. A rich Mormon.
of political parties, interest groups, and
the media.
c. There are three linkage institutions:
political parties, interest groups, and the
media.
d. A linkage institution is a contraption
that links two otherwise separate objects
together, such as a staple or the clasp on
a necklace.
e. Linkage institutions consist mainly of
interest groups, which are further
broken down into six types.
17) Which of the following is true of political
parties?
a. The regulation of political parties is
established in the Constitution as an
enumerated power in Article I, Section
8.
b. The number of dominant political
parties varies from election to election,
but typically stays somewhere within
the range of 2-4.
c. They were the cause of the Great
Depression due to an inability to work
together to establish a budget.
d. Though the names of the dominant
political parties have changed, there are
usually two powerful parties: one liberal
and one conservative.
e. Third parties, such as the Green Party,
play a vital role in policy making in the
federal government.
18) All of the following are true of congressional
elections EXCEPT:
a. Congressional elections are regional;
Senate by state and the House by
district.
b. House elections are less competitive
than Senate due mainly to incumbency
advantage.
c. Every two years one third of the Senate
and the entire House is up for
reelection.
d. The coattail effect, the consequence of
the popularity of the President effecting
Congressional elections in midterm
years, is outdated and no longer an issue
in modern day politics.
Political Parties, Interest Groups & Media (9
Questions)
16) Which of the following is the best explanation of
linkage institutions?
a. Linkage institutions, used mainly during
President Lincoln’s era, were the means
by which important information was
shared between the North and the
South.
b. Linkage institutions are the channels
through which people’s concerns
become political issues on the
government’s policy agenda, consisting
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e.
Only about 36% of people vote in a
midterm, or “off,” year.
19) One criticism of “horse race politics” is that
a. It perpetuates the gambling epidemic
spreading throughout the country.
b. It favors underdogs too highly and
therefore hardly gives incumbents a fair
chance of winning.
c. It becomes a gossipy, unreliable source
of news.
d. It places too much emphasis on the
candidate and not parties and elections
thus become less about ideals and more
like popularity contests.
e. Only jockeys have access to it.
20) Which of the following includes the five tools
that interest groups use to influence policy
making?
a. Lobbying the government, mobilizing
the public, litigation, electioneering, and
educational reform.
b. Lobbying the government, educating
the public, litigation, impeaching the
President, and the revolving door.
c. Electioneering, litigation, blackmail,
mobilizing the public, lobbying the
government, and educating the public.
d. Litigation, mobilizing the public,
educating the public, electioneering,
and lobbying the government.
e. The revolving door, impeaching the
President, blackmail, electioneering,
and mobilizing the public.
21) In politics, the “revolving door,”
a. Is the movement of high-level
employees from public sector jobs to
private sector jobs and vice versa.
b. Is the 1998 legislation that states that
politicians who have held their seat for
over 7 years must not run in the next
election in order to minimize the effects
of incumbency advantage.
c. Is the back door of the White House
that only the President and his family
are authorized to use.
d. Refers to the constant flow of new
Congress people.
e. Is a term coined by President Hoover
that refers to the uncertainty of politics.
22) All of the following are types of interest groups
EXCEPT:
a. Trade associations
b. Peak organizations
c. Unions
d. Corporations
e. The media
23) Superdelegates
a. Include governors, members of
Congress, and members of the
Democratic/Republican National
Committee whom are free to vote for
any candidate they wish at the National
Convention.
b. Are the “superheroes” of politics, taking
over in states of emergency.
c. Are members of the Electoral College
who vote for the President.
d. May cast a vote, but it is worth only 1/3
of what a “regular” vote is worth.
e. Are candidates on “standby,” ready to
step in in case their Presidential
candidate dies suddenly or becomes
extremely sick.
24) What types of candidates do interest groups
typically target and why?
a. Those running for office for the first
time because the public is always
looking for fresh blood.
b. Incumbents because they already have
the job and are more likely to win the
election.
c. Those running for office for the first
time because it is widely known that
interest groups are perpetually
unsatisfied with the state of the
government.
d. Incumbents because they are many
times good friends of people in the
interest group.
e. Interest groups do not typically target
one type of candidate, it depends
completely on the election and who the
candidates are.
Institutions: Congress, President, Courts,
Bureaucracy (24 Questions)
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25) What is the order of leadership in the House of
Representatives?
a. Speaker of the House, majority whip,
President Pro Tempore
b. President of the Senate, majority leader,
majority whip, Speaker of the House
c. Speaker of the House, majority leader,
Majority whip
d. Vice President, Minority leader,
minority whip, majority whip
e. Speaker of the House, majority whip,
majority leader
26) Which of the following perpetuates incumbency
advantage in the House of Representatives?
I. Franking
II. Name recognition
III. The revolving door
IV. A proven track record.
b. I and II only.
c. I, III and IV only.
d. I only.
e. I, II and IV only.
f. I, II, III and IV.
27) The President has which of the following powers
pertaining to bills:
a. To approve and sign or veto a bill.
b. To approve only certain parts of a bill.
c. To override Congress’ veto of a bill.
d. To assign bills to committees.
e. To veto only certain parts of a bill.
28) A Conference Committees
a. Consist of only House Representatives
or Senators and handle bills in specific
policy areas.
b. Consist of both House and Senate
members and are temporary committees
meant to draw attention to specific
issues.
c. Are exactly the same as Select
committees except that they consist of
both House and Senate members.
d. Are long-standing, well established
committees with the most influence in
Congress.
e. Consist of both members from the
House and Senate and are formed to
hammer out differences between House
and Senate versions of similar bills.
29) All of the following are criticisms of Congress
EXCEPT:
a. Pork-barrel legislation.
b. Blue-slipping.
c. Logrolling.
d. Christmas Tree Bills.
e. Franking.
30) Senators who do not want to see a bill voted on
may delay the vote by means of filibuster,
a. A protracted, one-sided argument
against a bill designed to derail the
legislative process by consuming the
time and patience of the Senate.
b. A protracted, one-sided argument
against a bill designed to derail the
legislative process by consuming the
time and patience of the House.
c. The process by which a Joint
Committee goes through each point of a
bill and explains why it should not be
passed.
d. Or “bust-a-filler,” which is when
someone takes over speaking
indefinitely and eventually the full room
empties, or is “busted.”
e. Which, similar to Amicus Curiae, is
something an interest group can present
to sway the court.
31) Which of the following are methods of
gerrymandering?
I. Malapportionment
II. Logrolling
III. Packing
IV. Cracking
a. I only.
b. II, III and IV only.
c. II and IV only.
d. III and IV only.
e. I, III and IV only.
32) What is senatorial courtesy?
a. Holding the door for the Senator behind
you.
b. A custom of interest groups “courting”
a senator and wining and dining him or
her.
c. A custom of the United States Senate of
refusing to confirm a presidential
appointment of an official in or from a
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state when the appointment is opposed
by the senators from that state.
d. Manipulating district boundaries to
benefit a party or group.
e. Groupings of Senators pushing for
similar interests.
33) Which of the following is the correct order of
superiority of the courts, from lowest to highest?
a. District Courts, Courts of Appeals,
Supreme Court.
b. District Courts, Supreme Court, Court
of Appeals.
c. Supreme Court, Courts of Appeals,
District Courts.
d. Supreme Court, District Courts, Courts
of Appeals.
e. Courts of Appeals, District Courts,
Supreme Court.
34) Which of the following is true of judicial
review?
a. It is a publication that rates Supreme
Court justices on the quality of their
decisions.
b. It is expressly defined in Article III of
the Constitution as “A constitution, is,
in fact, and must be regarded by the
judges, as a fundamental law. It
therefore belongs to them to ascertain
its meaning, as well as the meaning of
any particular act proceeding from the
legislative body.”
c. It allows courts to rule on the
constitutionality of laws, giving the
court the power to strike down or
reinforce policy.
d. It was declared unconstitutional in the
1803 Marbury vs. Madison Supreme
Court ruling.
e. It was put into effect by the Judiciary
Act of 1789.
35) Which of the following is true of amicus curiae
briefs?
I. 3rd parties are permitted to file
these briefs on behalf of either
litigant.
II. 3rd parties are often wellfunded interest groups,
corporations or special interest
groups.
III. The Supreme Court does not
need to consider these briefs
but often do.
IV. Amicus curiae briefs are an
example of influencing the
SCOTUS.
a. I and II only.
b. I, II, and III only.
c. II and IV only.
d. II and III only.
e. I, II, III, and IV.
36) What is selective incorporation?
a. The tradition that only a select number
of corporations are invited to the State
of the Union Address.
b. When only parts of a bill are passed and
the rest is vetoed.
c. It is the process by which certain rights
given to us in the Bill of Rights are
applied at the state level by the Supreme
Court through the 14th amendment Due
Process clause.
d. When power is given back to the states
by the federal government.
e. The process by which rights given to us
in the Bill of Rights are applied at the
federal level by the Supreme Court
through the 14th amendment Due
Process clause.
37) Which of the following are ways in which the
power of the Supreme Court is checked?
I. The President appoints all
judges and Congress must
approve them.
II. Congress may alter the
structure of the court system.
III. Judges may be impeached if
they have broken federal law.
IV. Congress may amend the
Constitution if the courts find a
law unconstitutional.
a. I only
b. I and III only
c. I, III and IV only.
d. I, II and IV only.
e. I, II, III and IV.
38) Which of the following best describes a writ of
mandamus?
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a.
Something that a higher court issues
and all lower courts must abide by the
ruling.
b. A law that retroactively changes the
legal consequences before the
enactment of the law.
c. When a higher court approves a lower
court’s ruling.
d. Says that you must be charged with a
crime to be put in jail.
e. Means “according to the law.”
39) Which of the following is an example of de jure
and de facto?
a. De jure, apples are all red. De facto,
some apples are green.
b. De jure, the President must address
Congress from “time to time.” De facto,
it’s once a year.
c. De jure, you are supposed to come to a
complete stop at a stop sign for four
seconds. De facto, most people roll
through stop signs.
d. De jure, there is something called
executive privilege. De facto, Nixon
had to give up his tapes anyway.
e. De jure, this is a test. De facto, this is a
standardized test.
c.
42)
43)
40) Which of the following best describes a writ of
44)
certiorari?
a. Says that you must be charged with a
crime to be put in jail.
b. Means “according to the law.”
c. When a higher court approves a lower
court’s ruling.
d. A writ that is issued by a higher court
that requests a case be sent up for
review.
e. When 4 out of the 9 judges decide to
hear a case.
41) Which of the following best describes the Rule
of Four?
a. All four Supreme Court justices must
agree to hear a case.
b. All four levels of the court system must
rule in favor of capital punishment in
order for someone to be put on death
row.
45)
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Four percent of the Senate and four
percent of the House of Representatives
must vote in favor of impeachment in
order for a judge to be impeached.
d. There must be four lawyers present in
the court at all times.
e. In order for the Supreme Court to take a
case, four out of the nine judges must
agree to hear it.
What does it mean to be “borked?”
a. A nickname for pork barrel legislation.
b. To bring eat a meal during a meeting
with the press.
c. In the Senate, when someone takes
control of the mic and does not stop
talking until the bill up for debate is
pulled.
d. To be rejected based solely on your
politics instead of your qualifications.
e. To be impeached.
All of the following are presidential duties
EXCEPT:
a. Commander in Chief of the armed
forces.
b. Approving legislation.
c. Appointment of judges and bureaucrats.
d. Budge approval.
e. Diplomatic head of state.
The primary reason why the popular vote and the
electoral vote for president may differ is
a. The prevalence of horse-trading and
corruption in American politics.
b. The candidates focus their campaigns
only on a few swing states.
c. Small states have more power in the
Electoral College than their population
would merit.
d. Electors often switch votes to vote for
the winning candidate to gain political
influence and advance their careers.
e. The winner-take-all system most states
use in selecting electors.
Which of the following actions of the president
has no basis in the Constitution?
a. Issuing executive orders.
b. Serving as leader of his political party.
c. Stationing U.S. troops at bases abroad.
d. Negotiating free trade agreements with
other countries.
e. Proposing legislation to Congress.
46) An issue network occurs when
a. Many competing interests (including
the media) enter the debate, slowing the
policy making process and derailing the
iron triangle.
b. Alliances form between legislators,
regulators and interest groups to make
or preserve policies that promote their
common interests.
c. Many different interest groups are
working towards the same goal but
there is too much competition among
the groups for any unity so nothing gets
done.
d. Those in a political party’s beliefs are
not all aligned with one another and
alliances are made with the opposing
party.
e. Many competing interests (including
the media) enter the debate, speeding up
the policy making process and
reinforcing the iron triangle.
47) Which of the following is an independent
regulatory commission?
a. An organization under a cabinet
department the sets health regulations.
b. An organization that regulates a sector
of the economy that is independent of
both the president and larger
departments.
c. An agency that is not part of the
cabinet, does not regulate the economy,
does not report to the president but has
a special function, like NASA.
d. A for-profit business run by the
government but has a large degree of
freedom, like the post office.
e. A department in the cabinet headed by a
secretary like the State Department.
48) Which of the following are criticisms of the
bureaucracy?
I. Bureaucracies often have
overwhelming rules and
regulations that are difficult to
navigate.
II. Competing agencies often
work toward opposite goals.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
III. Difficulty in firing an
incompetent bureaucrat.
IV. Several agencies that appear to
do the same things.
I only
I and III only
I, III and IV only.
I, II and IV only.
I, II, III and IV.
Public Policy (6 Questions)
49) Which of the following is the largest source of
federal government revenue?
a. Sales tax.
b. Corporate income tax.
c. Personal income tax.
d. Bank loans.
e. Bond sales.
50) What is the main goal of the federal reserve?
a. To set prices of precious metals.
b. Keep the economy from overheating or
bottoming out.
c. To collect taxes and organize tax
returns.
d. To influence public policy.
e. To print money.
51) Which of the following are actions that the
Federal Reserve Board can take?
I. Raising and lowering the
interest rate.
II. Increasing and decreasing the
money supply.
III. Increasing and lowering the
reserve rate.
IV. Disallowing the sale of bonds.
a. I only
b. I and III only
c. I, III and IV only.
d. I, II and III only.
e. I, II, III and IV.
52) In the last 80 years,
a. Spending on entitlement programs has
been steadily increasing.
b. Discretionary spending has become a
much larger percentage of the budget
than mandatory spending.
c. Presidents and Congresses have become
more reluctant to increase spending on
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social programs and very slow to
increase taxes.
d. The United States government has
passed a “Balanced Budget
Amendment” that requires Congress to
limit spending to tax revenues.
e. Income tax has been trending steadily
downward as the largest source of
revenue for the federal government.
53) An African American female voter from Chicago
would most likely favor,
a. A decrease in federal program
spending.
b. A reduction of monetary regulation.
c. Tax cuts to the wealthy.
d. An increase in federal program
spending.
e. Stricter immigration laws.
54) The difference between mandatory and
discretionary spending is that
a. Discretionary spending is dictated by
previous policy decisions and is
composed of entitlements interest
payments on bonds and loans, while
mandatory spending is authorized by
the current administration and may
expire or be renewed.
b. In the past few decades, discretionary
spending has become a much larger
percentage of the budget than
mandatory spending.
c. Discretionary spending applies only to
state governments while mandatory
spending applies to both federal and
state governments.
d. Mandatory spending is formulated by
the president, the OMB, the IRS and
Congress, while discretionary spending
is formulated by Congress alone.
e. Mandatory spending is dictated by
previous policy decisions and is
composed of entitlements interest
payments on bonds and loans, while
discretionary spending is authorized by
the current administration and may
expire or be renewed.
55) The primary effect of Furman v. Georgia was
a. That it limited the use of the death
penalty by ruling that the defendant’s
character must be taken into account.
b. Is set the precedent for evolving
standards of decency.
c. It held the constitutionality of the
Defense of Marriage Act.
d. It limited the use of the death penalty by
ruling that capital punishment cannot be
used on the mentally disabled.
e. It overturned Brown v. Board of
Education, ruling that segregation was
unconstitutional.
56) The 13th Amendment did which of the
following?
a. It incorporated the Bill of Rights to the
states.
b. It banned involuntary servitude except
as a form of punishment.
c. It says that suffrage cannot be denied
based on race or previous condition of
servitude.
d. It was adopted as a condition of the
Southern state’s readmission to the
Union after the Civil War.
e. It provided a basis for the selective
incorporation of the 6th Amendment
right to a counsel.
57) Which of the following is true of civil liberties?
a. They are constitutionally established
guarantees against government
interference.
b. The term applies to both
constitutionally established guarantees
against government interference, and
positive acts of government designed to
protect individual liberties.
c. They are positive acts of government
designed to protect individual liberties.
d. It is another term for the Bill of Rights.
e. They are core American values
established in the Declaration of
Independence.
58) When dealing with the 14th Amendment’s
relationship to the Bill of Rights, the Supreme
Court has adopted a policy of
a. Complete incorporation.
b. Limited incorporation.
Civil Rights and Liberties (6 Questions)
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c. Partial incorporation.
d. “Somewhat” incorporation.
e. Selective incorporation.
59) Which of the following types of speech is
generally protected under the Constitution?
a. Commercial speech.
b. Speech that presents a clear and present
danger.
c. “Eminent domain” speech.
d. Obscenity.
e. Slander and Libel.
60) All of the following are amendments that deal
with protecting due process for the criminally
accused, EXCEPT
a. The Third Amendment.
b. The Fourth Amendment.
c. The Fifth Amendment.
d. The Sixth Amendment.
e. The Thirteenth Amendment.
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