Honors Biology Midterm Review / Practice Exam January 2016
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Biology is the study of
a. minerals.
c. the weather.
b. life.
d. energy.
2. All organisms possess DNA. DNA
a. creates energy for the cells.
b. allows sensitivity to environmental stimuli.
c. contains information for growth and development.
d. captures energy from the sun.
3. Homeostasis means
a. a change over long periods of time.
c. rapid change.
b. keeping things the same.
d. the same thing as evolution.
4. Which of the following is a means by which heterotrophs can obtain energy?
a. using water, carbon dioxide, and energy from the sun to produce sugars
b. using water and carbon dioxide to produce energy-rich compounds
c. consuming autotrophs
d. consuming simple chemicals from the environment and using them to assemble complex
chemicals and structures needed by the organism
5. The smallest units that can carry on all the functions of life are called
a. molecules.
c. organelles.
b. cells.
d. species.
6. Living things
a. need energy for life processes.
c. are composed of cells.
b. have the ability to reproduce.
d. All of the above
7. All organisms are composed of
a. diatoms.
c. cells.
b. cellulose.
d. None of the above
8. Which example of scientific methodology is incorrect?
a. Observation—A number of people in Zaire dying of a disease outbreak
b. Measurement—A record of the number of people with symptoms of the disease and the
number of people who had died from the disease
c. Analysis of data—Comparison of the effects of mixing monkey cells with virus-containing
blood in test tubes and the effects of mixing of liquid from these test tubes with fresh
monkey cells
d. Inference making—Identification of the Ebola virus as the cause of the disease by taking
electron micrographs of substances found in the blood of persons affected with the disease
9. The English physician Ronald Ross wanted to try to find the cause of malaria. Based on his observations, Dr.
Ross suggested that the Anopheles mosquito might spread malaria from person to person. This suggestion was a
a. prediction.
c. theory.
b. hypothesis.
d. scientific “truth.”
10. A light microscope that has an objective lens of 10 and an ocular lens of 20 has a magnification of
a. 30.
c. 300.
b. 200.
d. 2000.
____ 11. A reaction in which the products have less energy than the reactants is
a. an endergonic reaction.
c. a filamentous reaction.
b. an exergonic reaction.
d. impossible.
____ 12. If the products of a chemical reaction contain less energy than the reactants, the reaction must
a. involve the release of energy.
c. be an energy-storing reaction.
b. result in the production of sugar.
d. occur in the cytoplasm of cells.
____ 13. Refer to the graph above. Reaction “1” in the graph
a. is an energy-storing reaction.
b. requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c. may use the same initial reactant condition needed to form Product “B.”
d. All of the above
____ 14. Refer to the graph above. Reaction “3” in the graph
a. probably occurred in the presence of a catalyst.
b. requires a greater activation energy than Reaction “2.”
c. is the same as Reaction “1,” but faster.
d. takes longer than Reaction “2.”
____ 15. Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates what happens during an exergonic reaction?
a. Graph “A”
b. Graph “B”
c. Both graphs; they each show a different stage of an exergonic reaction.
d. Neither graph shows an exergonic reaction.
____ 16. Refer to the graphs above. Which graph illustrates a reaction during which reaction energy is released into the
environment?
a. Graph “A”
b. Graph “B”
c. Both graphs, since all chemical reactions release energy into the environment
d. Neither graph, since chemical reactions do not involve energy
____ 17. Enzymes
a. are able to heat up molecules so that they can react.
b. provide CO2 for chemical reactions.
c. are biological catalysts.
d. absorb excess heat so that reactions occur at low temperatures.
____ 18. Nonpolar molecules have
a. no negative or positive poles.
c. only a negative pole.
b. both negative and positive poles.
d. only a positive pole.
____ 19. A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the other side is called
a
a. nonpolar molecule.
c. charged molecule.
b. polar molecule.
d. bipolar molecule.
____ 20. Water molecules break up other polar substances,
a. such as sugars.
b. because of the uneven charge distribution that exists in water molecules.
c. thus freeing ions in these substances for use by the body.
d. All of the above
____ 21. Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
a. DNA
c. wax
b. insulin
d. sucrose
____ 22. Amino acids are monomers of
a. disaccharides.
c. nucleotides.
b. proteins.
d. steroids.
____ 23. Long chains of amino acids are found in
a. carbohydrates.
c. proteins.
b. lipids.
d. sugars.
____ 24. The size to which a cell can grow is limited by its
a. location.
c. function.
b. structure.
d. surface area.
____ 25. One difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that
a. nucleic acids are found only in prokaryotes.
b. mitochondria are found in larger quantities in eukaryotes.
c. Golgi vesicles are found only in prokaryotes.
d. prokaryotes have no nuclear membrane.
____ 26. Only eukaryotic cells have
a. DNA.
b. membrane-bound organelles.
c. ribosomes.
d. cytoplasm.
____ 27. Studying a picture of a cell taken with an electron microscope, you find that the cell has no nucleus and no
mitochondria, but it does have a cell membrane and a cell wall. You conclude that the cell is probably from a(n)
a. animal.
c. prokaryote.
b. plant.
d. now extinct organism.
____ 28. A structure within a cell that performs a specific function is called a(n)
a. organelle.
c. tissue.
b. organ tissue.
d. biocenter.
____ 29. In which of the following organelles is a cell’s ATP produced?
a. mitochondrion
c. Golgi apparatus
b. endoplasmic reticulum
d. lysosome
____ 30. The packaging and distribution center of the cell is the
a. nucleus.
c. central vacuole.
b. Golgi apparatus.
d. nuclear envelope.
____ 31. Refer to the illustration above. Which structure immediately identifies this cell as a eukaryote?
a. structure “1”
c. structure “3”
b. structure “2”
d. structure “4”
____ 32. Refer to the illustration above. The cell uses structure “3”
a. to transport material from one part of the cell to the other.
b. to package proteins so they can be stored by the cell.
c. as a receptor.
d. to produce energy.
____ 33. Refer to the illustration above. Structure “1” is
a. the endoplasmic reticulum.
c. a mitochondrion.
b. a Golgi apparatus.
d. the nucleus.
____ 34. Refer to the illustration above. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are found in
a. structure “1.”
c. structure “3.”
b. structure “2.”
d. structure “5.”
____ 35. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown is probably an animal cell because
a. it has mitochondria.
c. it has a cell membrane.
b. it does not have a cell wall.
d. it does not have a nucleus.
____ 36. As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances
a. always remains greater inside a membrane.
b. eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane.
c. always remains greater on the outside of a membrane.
d. becomes imbalanced on both sides of a membrane.
Concentration of Water and Solutes in Four Adjacent Cells
____ 37. Refer to the illustration above. Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as
the system approaches equilibrium?
a. cell “A”
c. cell “C”
b. cell “B”
d. cell “D”
____ 38. Refer to the illustration above. In this system, solute molecules in cell “B” are most likely to
a. remain in cell “B.”
c. diffuse into cell “A.”
b. adhere to cell “B's” membrane.
d. diffuse into cell “D”
____ 39. Refer to the illustration above. In this system, water molecules are most likely to diffuse in which direction?
a. from “A” to “B”
c. from “D” to “C”
b. from “B” to “D”
d. from “C” to “A”
____ 40. Which of the following does not expend energy?
a. diffusion
c. active transport
b. chemiosmosis
d. a sodium-potassium pump
____ 41. Suspended in the fluid stroma of chloroplasts are
a. organelles called eukaryotes.
b. numerous mitochondrial membranes.
c. small coins that provide energy.
d. stacks of thylakoids called grana.
____ 42. light reactions : thylakoids ::
a. grana : thylakoids
c. dark reactions : stroma
b. grana : ATP
d. stroma : grana of chloroplast
____ 43. During the third stage of photosynthesis, carbon-containing molecules are produced from
a. ADP.
b. carbon atoms, hydrogen atoms, and oxygen atoms from glucose.
c. carbon atoms from carbon dioxide in the air and hydrogen atoms from water.
d. carbon atoms from carbon dioxide in the air and hydrogen atoms from NADPH.
____ 44. A substance, produced during the process of photosynthesis, that is used for completion of cellular respiration is
a. water.
c. NADPH.
b. ATP.
d. oxygen.
____ 45. The process of cellular respiration
a. is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis.
b. breaks down food molecules to release stored energy.
c. occurs before plants are able to carry out photosynthesis.
d. occurs only in animals.
____ 46. When glycolysis occurs,
a. a molecule of glucose is split.
b. two molecules of pyruvate are made.
c. some ATP is produced.
d. All of the above
____ 47. You have been growing some animal cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then don’t
seem to grow as well. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the poor condition of the cells?
a. There is too much glucose in the culture fluid.
b. There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid.
c. There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid.
d. There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid.
____ 48. Chromatids are
a. dense patches within the nucleus.
b. bacterial chromosomes.
c. joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d. prokaryotic nuclei.
____ 49. A diploid cell is one that
a. has two homologues of each chromosome.
b. is designated by the symbol 2n.
c. has chromosomes found in pairs.
d. All of the above
____ 50. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a. C  M  G1  S  G2
c. G1  S  G2  M  C
b. S  G1  G2  M  C
d. None of the above
____ 51. Refer to the illustration above. The cell in diagram “1” is in
a. metaphase.
c. anaphase.
b. telophase.
d. prophase.
____ 52. Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram “5” is in
a. metaphase.
c. anaphase.
b. telophase.
d. prophase.
____ 53. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a. “A,” “B,” “C,” “D”
c. “B,” “A,” “C,” “D”
b. “C,” “B,” “A,” “D”
d. “A,” “C,” “B,” “D”
Diagrams A and B show cells from an organism with a diploid chromosome number of 4.
____ 54. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the cells will be a diploid cell at the completion of division?
a. “A”
c. Both
b. “B”
d. Neither
____ 55. Refer to the illustration above. Which of these cells is in the process of dividing to form gametes?
a. “A”
c. Both
b. “B”
d. Neither
____ 56. When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a. mutate in the first division.
b. produce new genes.
c. decrease in number.
d. exchange corresponding segments of DNA.
____ 57. A nucleotide consists of
a. a sugar, a protein, and adenine.
b. a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.
c. a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.
d. a starch, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base.
____ 58. The base-pairing rules state that the following are base pairs in DNA:
a. adenine—thymine; uracil—cytosine.
b. adenine—thymine; guanine—cytosine.
c. adenine—guanine; thymine—cytosine.
d. uracil—thymine; guanine—cytosine.
____ 59. During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a
portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
a. TTGCATG.
c. CCTAGCT.
b. AAGTATC.
d. GGATCGA.
____ 60. Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making proteins?
a. mRNA
c. tRNA
b. rRNA
d. All of the above
____ 61. RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a. is sometimes single-stranded.
b. contains a different sugar molecule.
c. contains the nitrogen base uracil.
d. All of the above
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC
Genetic Code:
____ 62. Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the piece of mRNA
shown in the diagram?
a. Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
c. Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
b. Val—Asp—Pro—His
d. Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
____ 63. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand in the diagram was
made?
a. CUCAAGUGCUUC
c. GAGTTCACGAAG
b. GAGUUCACGAAG
d. AGACCTGTAGGA
____ 64. Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA in the diagram are
a. GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
c. CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
b. GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.
d. CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
____ 65. Which of the following does not represent a population?
a. all the robins in Austin, Texas
b. all the grass frogs in the pond of Central Park, New York City
c. all the birds in Chicago, Illinois
d. all the earthworms in Yosemite National Park
____ 66. Trees growing along the banks of a river but not growing in the surrounding area would best be described as a
____ dispersion of the trees.
a. clumped
b. even
c. random
d. mixture of clumped, even, and random
____ 67. If a population is composed of a balance of people of pre-reproductive, reproductive, and post-reproductive age,
what will most likely happen to the size of the population?
a. It will grow steadily.
b. It will experience no growth for a time and then increase rapidly.
c. It will decrease steadily.
d. It will experience no growth for a time and then decrease rapidly.
____ 68. A population of organisms grows
a. with no natural restrictions except the availability of food.
b. when the birth rate exceeds the death rate.
c. only in the absence of predators or natural diseases.
d. All of the above
____ 69. Which organism is incorrectly paired with its survivorship curve type.
a. humans/Type I
c. sea turtles/Type II
b. some species of birds/Type II
d. fish/Type III
World Population Growth
____ 70. Refer to the illustration above. Which time period shows exponential growth of the population?
a. period A–B
c. period C–D
b. period B–D
d. period D
____ 71. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following contributed to the change in world population during the
1900s shown in the graph?
a. better sanitation
c. agricultural improvements
b. improved health care
d. All of the above
____ 72. Refer to the illustration above. Which letter in the graph indicates the approximate world population in the year
1950?
a. Letter “A”
c. Letter “C”
b. Letter “B”
d. Letter “D”
Population Growth Over Time
____ 73. Refer to the illustration above. During which time period are the birth rate and death rate equal?
a. period “A”
c. period “C”
b. period “B”
d. period “D”
____ 74. Refer to the illustration above. The rate of growth of a population is represented by r. During which time period
will r = 0?
a. period “A”
c. period “C”
b. period “B”
d. period “D”
____ 75. Refer to the illustration above. The time period during which r would have a negative value is
a. period “A”
c. period “C”
b. period “B”
d. period “D”