WEST AFRICA COLLEGE OF SURGEONS
FACULTY OF RADIOLOGY
BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCES PAST QUESTIONS COLLECTION
1. The following are true for the thyroid hormone
a. Secretion starts in early foetal life
b. It is regulated by TSH from the pituitary gland
c. TRF reduces the blood levels of T3 and T4
d. T3 and T4 have great effect on the hypothalamus
e. The thyroid activity is self regulatory
2. Ectopic thyroid:
a. Lingual
b. Intralingual
c. Thyroglossal tract
d. Intratracheal
e. Substernal
3. The most active form of thyroid hormone in the stimulation of oxygen use is
a. Thyroxine
b. Thyroglobulin
c. Triiodothyronine
d. Reverse triiodothyronine
e. Monoiodotyrosine
4. Concerning T4
a. Reduces oxygen consumption
b. Increases heat production
c. Promotes growth and development
d. Stimulates calcium metabolism in bones generally
e. T4 extracts are not active when given by mouth
5. Thyroid physiology
a. Thyroxine is T3
b. Dietary sources of Iodine include bread
c. Half of iodide in blood is excreted in urine
d. T3 is more potent than T4
e. T3 and T4 are made from dietary tyrosine
6. In thyrotoxicosis:
a. Increased O2 consumption
b. Decreased CO2 production
c. Irritability and excessive nervousness
d. Atrial fibrillation
e. Exophthalmus
7. Myxoedema causes
a. Increased metabolic rate
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b. Increased body temperature
c. Slowed movement
d. Reduced weight
e. Rough and coarse skin
Radiological imaging modalities for the thyroid gland
a. Radionuclide imaging
b. Fluoroscopy
c. Doppler sonography
d. B-mode real time sonography
e. CT
The adrenal gland:
a. The adrenal cortex may be larger than the kidneys in foetal life
b. Lies outside the Gerota capsule surrounding the kidney
c. The medulla is thicker than the cortex
d. It is related to the diaphragm posteriorly
e. The right gland lies superior and medial to the kidney
The adrenal cortex secretes
a. Only steroid hormones
b. Glucocorticoid
c. Adrenaline
d. Androgen
e. Mineralocorticoid
Glucocorticoid
a. Increases blood sugar level
b. Promotes antibody formation
c. Decreases liver glycogen level
d. Suppresses permeability of cell membranes
e. Promotes conversion of amino acids into sugar
Mineralocorticoid
a. Promotes potassium absorption
b. Has strong effect on protein and carbohydrate metabolism
c. Promotes water loss from the body
d. Have no anti inflammatory effect
e. Promotes sodium reabsorption
Adrenal gland
a. Steroid therapy may cause atrophy of the adrenal gland
b. Adrenal tuberculosis is a cause of Cushing syndrome
c. Aldosterone secretion is not under direct ACTH control
d. Adrenal adenomas are the most frequent cause of Conn syndrome
Phaeochromocytoma
a. Tumour in zona reticularis
b. Usually malignant
c. May be familial
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d. Causes paroxysmal hypertension
e. 90% are located in the adrenal gland
A 19 year old woman with ACTH insufficiency was diagnosed with Addison disease. The signs
and symptoms include:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyponatremia
e. Hyperthermia
The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is derived from the:
a. Epithalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Ventral thalamus
d. Rathke’s pouch
e. Proctodeum
Of the pituitary gland:
a. It lies within the cavernous sinus
b. Optic chiasm is posterior to the pituitary stalk
c. The dorsum sella fors the posterior wall of the sella turcica
d. It usually weighs 2-2.5g
e. Anterior to the hypophyseal fossa is the tuberculum sellae
The secretion of growth hormone is increased by:
a. Hyperglycaemia
b. Exercise
c. Somatostatin
d. Growth hormone
e. Free fatty acids
Tumours of acidophilic cells in the anterior pituitary of adults are most likely to lead to
a. Dwarfism
b. Acromegaly
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Gigantism
e. Androgenital syndrome
The following are examples of normal cellular reaction to injury:
a. Necrosis
b. Apoptosis
c. Fatty change
d. Cellular swelling
e. Neoplasia
Properties of necrotic cells include:
a. Increased cytoplasmic eosinophilia
b. Pyknosis
c. Cellular shrinkage
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d. Cellular swelling
e. Karyorrhexis
Example of cell-derived inflammatory mediators are:
a. Histamine
b. Prostaglandin
c. Serotonin
d. PAF
e. Complement factor
Factors which promote wound healing
a. Rich blood supply
b. Adequate intake of ascorbic acid
c. Ionizing radiation exposure`
d. Glucocorticoid administration
e. Anabolic steroid administration
Possible cellular mechanism of radiation induced injury
a. DNA-protein cross linking
b. DNA strand break
c. Increased photo-oncogene synthesis
d. Induction of cytokine production
e. Pyrimidine dimer formation
The following are chromosomal breakage disorders:
a. Von Recklinghausen disease
b. Fanconi anaemia
c. Bloom syndrome
d. Familiar retinoblastoma
e. Ataxia telangiectasia
Mechanism of vascular leakage in acute inflammation include
a. Endothelial contraction
b. Cytoskeletal and junctional reorganization
c. Direct injury
d. Leukocyte mediated injury
e. Increased transudation
If the following features of acute inflammation were placed in chronological order, which one
will be fourth?
a. Arteriolar contraction
b. Blood flow slows
c. Dilatation of arterioles
d. Emigration of leucocytes from blood vessels
e. Protein rich fluid escapes from blood vessels
The major organelles that are vulnerable during cellular injuries:
a. Cell membrane
b. Nuclear apparatus
c. Mitochondria
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d. Golgi apparatus
e. Endoplasmic reticulum
Chemical mediator occurring as preformed secretory granules in cells include
a. Histamine
b. Bradykinin
c. Serotonin
d. Lysosomal enzymes
e. Complement factors
The following are examples of labile cells:
a. Epidermal cells
b. Osteocytes
c. Bone marrow haemopoietic cells
d. Hepatocytes
e. Smooth muscle cells
Causes of delayed wound healing:
a. Good blood supply
b. Early motion of wound
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Atherosclerosis
e. Glucocorticoid administration
Primary union of skin wounds is associated with the following:
a. Extensive tissue necrosis
b. Delayed wound healing
c. Wound infection is a common complication
d. Large scar
e. Gaping wound margins
The following participate in chronic inflammation:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Plasma cells
d. Lymphocytes
e. Eosinophils
The following classes of genes are mutated in a variety of human cancers:
a. Oncogenes
b. Apoptosis
c. DNA repair genes
d. Tumour suppressor genes
e. Metastasis suppressor genes
Mechanisms of oncogene activation include:
a. Point mutation
b. Amplification
c. Translocation
d. Rearrangement
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e. Overexpression
About Harmatomas:
a. Are well encapsulated
b. Are present at birth
c. May regress at puberty
d. Are ectopic tissues
e. Fordyce spots are an example
Biological agents associated with human cancers
a. Hepatitis A virus
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Human Herpes Virus 8
e. Ebstein Barr virus
Which of the following is the most important defence against fungal infection?
a. Lysis of fungi by complements
b. Phagocytosis and intracellular killing
c. Antibody neutralization of toxins
d. Antibody dependent cell mediated cytolysis
e. Release of vasoactive amine from mast cells
The following shows acquired immunity from HBV infection
a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti HBsAg
e. Anti HBcAg
The rabies vaccine currently recommended for use in humans
a. Human diploid cell vaccine
b. Duck embryo vaccine
c. Live attenuated tissue culture vaccine
d. Pasteur modified virus vaccine
e. All of the above
Conditions that can lead to thrombosis:
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Endothelial damage
c. Activation of the coagulation mechanism
d. Platelet aggregation
The trachea:
a. Is about 45cm long
b. Has about 20 C-shaped rings of fibrocartilage
c. The right side is wholly subpleural
d. Bifurcates at L4-L5 and this point is posture independent
e. Tracheobronchial nodes are at the three angles formed at the bifurcation of the trachea
Concerning the general arrangement of the airways:
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a. The larynx represents its upper limit
b. The left main bronchus is longer than the right main bronchus
c. The left main bronchus is narrower than the right main bronchus
d. The left main bronchus follows a more horizontal course than the right main bronchus
e. Both left and right main bronchi divide into equal number of lobar bronchi
The development of the bronchi:
a. Lung buds form at 4-5 weeks
b. The bronchial bud and surrounding splanchnic mesenchyme differentiate into bronchi
c. By the 24th week, 17 orders of bronchial branching have formed
d. By the 24th week respiratory bronchioles have formed
e. After birth respiratory bronchioles are rarely formed
Concerning the development of the trachea:
a. The endodermal lining of the laryngotracheal tube is important in the formation of its
epithelium
b. Splanchnic mesoderm around the laryngotracheal tube givec rise to the cartilage and
muscle of the trachea
c. Tracheo-oesophageal fistula with oesophageal atresia is the commonest variety
d. Stenosis and atresia are very common anomalies
e. All of the above
About the embryonic origin of the diaphragm:
a. Two pleuroperitoneal membranes
b. Septum transversum
c. Lateral and dorsal wall of the oesophagus
d. Paraxial mesoderm of the body wall
A typical pharyngeal arch contains:
a. A nerve that supplies the muscles & mucosa derived from that arch
b. A cartilaginous rod that forms the skeleton of the arch
c. A muscular component that forms muscles in the head & neck
d. A coelomic cavity peculiar to it
e. An aortic arch artery that supplies it
Embryonic induction is seen in the following except:
a. Cardiogenesis
b. CNS embryogenesis
c. Limb embryogenesis
d. Urinary system embryogenesis
e. Cardiac septa sculpturing
Concerning the derivatives of the pharyngeal pouch:
a. From the first pouch, he pharyngotympanic tube develops
b. The thymus develops from the second pouch
c. The superior parathyroid develops from the third pouch
d. The inferior develops from the third pouch
Congenital anomalies of the pharyngeal apparatus:
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a. Branchial sinus results from the failure of the second pharyngeal groove and the cervical
sinus to obliterate
b. Some auricular sinus and cysts are remnants of the first pharyngeal groove
c. Branchial cysts are remnants of the cervical sinus and/or the persistence of the second
pharyngeal groove
d. The first arch syndrome occurs because of insufficient migration of neural crest cells into
the arch during the 4th week
e. All of the above are incorrect
Concerning the development of the tongue:
a. Pharyngeal arch 1 is the only source
b. Pharyngeal arches 1,2,3 and 4 contribute
c. Occipital somites contribute
d. Pharyngeal arch 1 contributes to the mucosa of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
e. All are correct
In the heart, programmed cell death plays a role in one of these:
a. Endocardial tube
b. Induction of splanchnic mesoderm
c. Conotruncal remodelling
d. Ventricular septal invagination
e. Semilunar valve migration
All are true except:
a. Ectoderm contributes to heart formation
b. Heart is a solely mesodermal structure
c. CVS is the first to develop
d. Sinus venosus contributes to right atrial formation
e. Pulmonary vein contributes to left atrial formation
Cyanotic congenital heart diseases include:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Transposition of the great vessels
c. Total anomalous venous return
d. Taussig-Bing anomaly
e. Ventricular septal defect
Which of the following are correct:
a. Ductus venosus allows the flow of oxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery to the
aorta
b. Foramen ovale closes at 34th week of gestation
c. The ductus ateriosus anatomically closes a few weeks after birth
d. Indomethacin keeps the ductus open
e. Atrial septal defect usually presents in the first week of life
Identify the false statement:
a. The heart is initially predated by two endothelial heart tubes
b. The sinus venosus is cranial to bulbus cordis
c. The CVS is the first to develop
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d. The endoderm underneath the splanchnic mesoderm induces heart formation
e. Sinus venosus epithelial cells form the epicardium
Regarding the pericardium:
a. Comprises of two layers between which a potential space contains 20-25ml of serous
fluid
b. It extends to surround the entire length of the superior vena cava
c. It is normally 1-2 cm thick
d. The oesophagus is a posterior relation
e. Its absence is not compatible with life
Cardinal veins:
a. Form the main venous drainage of the embryo
b. Posterior vein drains the yolk sac
c. Anterior vein drains the allantois
d. Anterior veins drain into the truncus venosus part of the embryo
e. Become rudimentary later
Signalling molecules include the following except:
a. Vascular endothelial growth factor
b. Fibroblast growth factor
c. Platelet derived growth factor
d. Sonic hedgehog
e. Activin
The diaphragm:
a. Has a rounded copula on right side only
b. Has fleshy central tendon area
c. Has the oesophagus piercing at T8
d. Phrenic nerve supply motor as well as sensory
e. Internal thoracic artery supplies it
The cavernous sinus is related to the:
a. Facial nerve
b. Sphenoidal air sinus
c. Diaphragma sella
d. Sensory ganglion of the trigeminal nerve
e. Pia mater
Radial nerve lesion:
a. Impairs adduction of the thumb
b. Paresis of digital extension
c. Loss of sensation over the dorsum of the thumb, index and middle finger
d. Decreased biceps reflex
e. Wrist drop
Each of the following muscles contributes to the rotator cuff of the shoulder joint:
a. Teres minor
b. Teres major
c. Supraspinatus
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d. Infraspinatus
e. Subscapularis
The following organs are retroperitoneal
a. Abdominal aorta
b. Spleen
c. Right kidney
d. Left adrenal gland
e. Inferior vena cava
The pancreas:
a. The pancreatic head is posterior to the inferior vena cava
b. The pancreatic head is anterior to the aorta
c. The pancreatic head is anterior to the inferior vena cava
d. The pancreatic body is posterior to the stomach
e. The pancreatic tail abuts on the right kidney
Of the female genital tract:
a. The fallopian tubes can be divided into 3 parts
b. The ampulla of the fallopian tube is situated in the uterine wall
c. Uterus lies 12mm medial to the fallopian tube
d. Supravaginal cervix is related directly to the bladder
e. Infundibulum is the outer extreme of the fallopian tube
The uterus:
a. Divided into 4 parts
b. The isthmus is at the junction of the body and the cervix
c. The cavity is triangular shape
d. The fundus is covered with peritoneum
e. The uterus is partly supplied by the ovarian artery
The ovaries:
a. The ovarian ligament carries the ovarian vessels and lymphatics
b. They develop from the genital ridge
c. They are partly supplied by the uterine artery
d. Left ovarian vein drains into the inferior vena cava
e. The nerve supply is from the aortic plexus at the level of T12
In a typical kidney:
a. There are more juxtamedullary nephrons than cortical nephrons
b. Abundant arterial anastomosis occur within the renal parenchyma
c. The medulla is not contiguous
d. Venous network communicate freely
e. A major calyx divides into 4-6 minor calyces
Which of the following processes is not involved in urine formation:
a. Filtration from the capillaries into nephrons
b. Reabsorption from nephrons to capillaries
c. Secretion from capillaries to nephrons
d. Excretion
e. None of the above
71. About the male urethra:
a. Narrowest at the membraneous part
b. Has stratified columnar epithelium lining its bulbar part
c. Derives its vascular supply from the internal pudendal artery
d. Is devoid of sensory innervation
e. Has all the above features