EXAMINATION TESTS
on "Internal Diseases 1 (5th semester)" for the 3rd year students of the
Medical Faculty of Osh State University in the specialty "Medicine" on 5
SEMESTER 2015-2016 ACADEMIC YEAR
1. Paroxysmal cough with a single large number of purulent sputum ("full
mouth") occurs in:
a) pneumonia
b) pulmonary tuberculosis
c) at an attack of asthma
d) in stage II syndrome cavity formation in the lung
2. Bronchial asthma attack is characterized by sputum:
a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
b) mucopurulent yellow-green from
c) purulent sputum green
d) bloody sputum
3. Pneumonia is characterized by sputum:
a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
b) mucopurulent yellow-green
c) purulent sputum green
d) bloody sputum
4. Stage II syndrome form a cavity in the lung sputum characteristic:
a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
b) mucopurulent yellow-green
c) purulent sputum green
d) bloody sputum
5. Bronchiectasis sputum characteristic:
a) lean, bad expectorant and transparent
b) mucopurulent yellow-green
c) mucous expectoration
d) purulent sputum green
6. Purulent sputum discharge simultaneously "mouth full" on a large volume,
characteristic for:
a) I stage lung abscess
b) II stage lung abscess
c) pneumonia
d) asthma
e) chronic bronchitis
7. Complaints patients cough with mucopurulent sputum in combination with
fever and pain in the chest is typical for:
a) lung cancer
b) acute bronchitis
c) chronic bronchitis
d) pneumonia
e) asthma
8. Purulent sputum green, detachable throughout the day (and more often in the
morning) for many months in the amount of 1-2 liters per day is observed
when:
a) pneumonia
b) acute bronchitis
c) II stage lung abscess
d) bronchiectasis
9. Cough with "rusty" sputum is characteristic for:
a) pneumonia
b) acute bronchitis
c) II stage lung abscess
d) bronchiectasis
10.The appearance in patients with pneumonia, "rusty" sputum - a variant of:
a) mucous sputum
b) muco-purulent sputum
c) purulent sputum
d) putrid sputum
e) hemoptysis
11.The patient has pneumonia occurrence of chest pain indicative of defeat:
a) the alveoli
b) interstitial tissue
c) pleura
d) vessels
12.Pain in the chest, decreasing in position on the patient side, observed in:
a) asthma
b) bronchitis
c) dry pleurisy
d) bronchiectasis
e) spontaneous pneumothorax
13.Pleural pain increases:
a) in position on the healthy side
b) in position on the patient side
c) for compression of the thorax
d) during exhalation
14.Pleural pain decreases:
a) with a deep breath
b) when you cough
c) in position on the healthy side
d) in position on the patient side
e) during exhalation
15.Expiratory dyspnea is typical for:
a) dry pleurisy
b) exudative pleurisy
c) pulmonary edema
d) asthma
e) acute bronchitis
16.A dyspnea expiratory character is a specific sign of:
a) pulmonary edema
b) asthma
c) pneumonia
d) bronchitis
e) pleurisy
17.The patient forced position is marked on the patient side, resulting in a
reduction of pain in the chest. What do you think ?:
a) asthma
b) acute and chronic bronchitis
c) dry pleurisy
d) pleural effusion
18.The chest with its expansion, increasing intercostal spaces, bulging
supraclavicular fossa and the participation of auxiliary respiratory muscles is
called:
a) paralytic
b) emphysematous
c) rachitic
d) funnel
e) the navicular
19.Barrel, extended (emphysematous) chest syndrome occurs when:
a) the seal of the lung tissue
b) forming a cavity in the lung
c) increased airiness of the lungs
d) respiratory insufficiency
e) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
20.Emphysematous chest is observed in:
a) pneumonia
b) acute respiratory diseases
c) the long-term course of bronchial asthma
d) lung abscess
e) pneumothorax
21.On palpation of the chest of the patient with the syndrome of consolidation of
pulmonary tissue voice trembling is:
a) strengthened
b) impaired
c) is not changed
d) greatly reduced
22.On palpation of the chest of the patient with the syndrome formation of a
cavity in a light voice trembling:
a) strengthened
b) impaired
c) is not changed
d) greatly reduced
23.On palpation of the chest in a patient with an accumulation of fluid in the
pleural cavity voice trembling:
a) strengthened
b) impaired
c) is not changed
d) increased sharply
24.On palpation of the chest of the patient with the accumulation of air in the
pleural cavity voice trembling:
a) strengthened
b) impaired
c) is not changed
d) increased sharply
25.Strengthening the voice jitter characteristic of the syndrome:
a) consolidation of pulmonary tissue seal the lung tissue
b) bronchial obstruction
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
26.The weakening of the voice tremor characteristic of the syndrome:
a) consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) forming a cavity in the lung
c) bronchial obstruction
d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
27.The patient found the voice amplification jitter. Which one is detected in this
patient symptoms to distinguish the syndrome of cavity formation in the lung
syndrome seal lung tissue:
a) fever
b) expectoration
c) chest pain
d) discharge of purulent sputum mouth full
e) shortness of breath
28.In the light percussion dull sound is detected at a syndrome:
a) the formation of a cavity in the lung
b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity
d) emphysema
29.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue characterized by the following
data percussion:
a) tympanic sound
b) box sound
c) a metallic sound
d) dullness
30.Syndrome form a cavity in the lung characterized by the following data
percussion:
a) tympanic sound
b) box sound
c) a dull sound
d) dullness
31.Syndrome accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity characterized by the
following data percussion:
a) tympanic sound
b) box sound
c) dull sound
d) clear lung
32.Syndrome of increased airiness of the lung tissue characterized by the
following data percussion:
a) tympanic sound
b) box sound
c) a dull sound
d) dullness
33.Tympanic sound on percussion of the lungs characteristic of the syndrome:
a) the seal of the lung tissue
b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) obstructive atelectasis
d) bronchial obstruction
e) forming a cavity in the lung
34.Box sound when percussion lung characteristic of the syndrome:
a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) increased airiness of the lungs
c) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
e) forming a cavity in the lung
35.Box sound when percussion lung occurs when:
a) a dry pleurisy
b) pneumonia
c) emphysema
d) acute bronchitis
36.Normally, when the relative light percussion cage front in the IV intercostal
space on the right is listened:
a) tympanic sound
b) a dull sound
c) box sound
d) a clear lung sounds
e) metal
37.Normally, on the front right chest IV to VI intercostal space during the
percussion is determined by:
a) tympanic sound
b) a dull sound
c) box sound
d) a clear lung sounds
e) metal
38.Normally, on the front left chest IV to VI intercostal space during the
percussion is determined by:
a) tympanic sound
b) a dull sound
c) box sound
d) a clear lung sounds; e) metal
39.Normally, during auscultation, vesicular breathing auscultated on:
a) the larynx
b) the trachea
c) the area of location of large bronchi
d) portions of lung tissue with a large number of alveoli
40.Normally, during auscultation, bronchial breathing auscultated on:
a) the larynx, the trachea and the large bronchi area location
b) regions of the lung tissue with a large number of alveoli
c) area of the pleura
d) the heart
41.On auscultation auscultated vesicular breathing during:
a) inhalation
b) an exhalation
c) the beginning of inhalation and exhalation
d) inhalation and exhalation
42.On auscultation bronchial breathing auscultated during:
a) inhalation
b) an exhalation
c) the beginning of inhalation and exhalation
d) inhalation and exhalation
43.Hard breathing - are:
a) the weakening of vesicular breathing
b) strengthening vesicular breathing
c) the weakening of the bronchial respiration
d) enhancement of bronchial breathing
44.The reason for the gain vesicular (hard) is a respiratory syndrome:
a) pulmonary emphysema
b) bronchial obstruction
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
45.Pathological bronchial breathing - a bronchial breathing on auscultation:
a) the larynx
b) the trachea
c) the area of location of large bronchi
d) portions of lung tissue with a large number of alveoli
46.Pathological bronchial breathing syndrome occurs when:
a) bronchial obstruction
b) syndrome of massive consolidation of pulmonary tissue
c) increased airiness lung tissue
d) fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
e) pneumothorax
47.Amforic breath occurs when:
a) II phase syndrome form a cavity in the lung
b) step I syndrome cavity formation in the lung
c) increased airiness syndrome lung tissue
d) syndrome fluid in the pleural cavity
e) syndrome pneumothorax
48.Dry crackles are heard in the syndrome:
a) bronchial obstruction
b) consolidation of pulmonary tissue
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) increased airiness of the lungs
e) bronchiectasis
49.Crackles are heard:
a) in the inspiratory phase
b) in the expiration phase
c) at the height of inspiration
d) during inspiration and exhalation
50.Crackles after coughing:
a) strengthened
b) disappear
c) are not changed
d) often disappear, sometimes worse
51.Sonorous finely wheezing observed in:
a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) a syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) bronchiectasis syndrome
d) step II syndrome cavity formation in the lung
52.Sonorous large- and medium bubbling rale determined when:
a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) step I syndrome cavity formation in the lung
c) syndrome stage II cavity formation in the lung
d) syndrome fluid in the pleural cavity
53.In any phase of respiration is listened crackling:
a) inhalation
b) an exhalation
c) inhalation and exhalation
d) at a height of exhalation
54.Crepitus after coughing:
a) enhanced
b) disappears
c) does not change
d) often disappears rarely increases
55.Sonorous crackling observed in syndrome:
a) bronchial obstruction
b) consolidation of pulmonary tissue
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) increased airiness of the lungs
e) bronchiectasis
56.Crepitus is a specific feature:
a) acute bronchitis
b) lung cancer
c) exudative pleurisy
d) of dry pleurisy
e) pneumonia
57.Pleural rub is listened when:
a) inhalation
b) an exhalation
c) breath
d) inhalation and exhalation
e) for adjustment of inhalation
58.Pleural rub is a characteristic feature:
a) acute bronchitis
b) lung cancer
c) exudative pleurisy
d) dry pleurisy
e) pneumonia
59.Bloody sputum in the form of "rusty" sputum is characteristic for:
a) acute and chronic bronchitis
b) pneumonia
c) lung abscess and gangrene
d) tuberculosis of the lung
e) for lung cancer
60.Detection of sputum spirals of Kurshman is a characteristic sign of:
a) asthma
b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
c) lung cancer
d) pulmonary tuberculosis
61.Detection of sputum large number of white blood cells is a characteristic
feature of:
a) asthma
b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
c) lung cancer
d) pulmonary tuberculosis
62.The discovery of a large number of sputum eosinophils is a characteristic
feature of:
a) asthma
b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
c) lung cancer
d) pulmonary tuberculosis
63.Detection of sputum Charcot-Leyden crystals is a characteristic feature of:
a) asthma
b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
c) lung cancer
d) pulmonary tuberculosis
64.Detection of atypical cells in sputum is a characteristic feature of:
a) asthma
b) inflammatory and suppurative lung disease
c) lung cancer
d) of pulmonary tuberculosis
e) pneumonia
65.Detection of the amount of pathogenic organisms in sputum confirmed
pneumonia etiology:
a) greater than 10 to 1, 000 ml
b) 20 to 1 000 ml
c) 50 to 1 000 ml
d) more than 100 000 per 1 ml
e) 1 to 1000 ml
66.For the type of obstructive disorders of respiratory function is characterized by:
a) a decrease in lung capacity
b) forced expiratory volume in the norm
c) an increase in forced expiratory volume
d) reduction in forced expiratory volume
e) increase in lung capacity
67.Restrictive disorders of respiratory function is characterized by:
a) a decrease in lung capacity
b) forced expiratory volume in the norm
c) an increase in forced expiratory volume
d) reduction in forced expiratory volume
e) increase in lung capacity
68.Which of the respiratory function data indicates syndrome of increased airiness
of light:
a) an increase in forced expiratory volume
b) an increase in forced inspiration
c) decrease in expiratory flow rate
d) an increase in residual volume
e) reducing the residual volume
69.The syndrome is caused by compression of the lung tissue filling the alveoli:
a) the inflammatory fluid, blood or tumor tissue
b) increase the amount of air
c) an increased number of gases
d) a foreign body
70.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue appearance of chest pain
suggests involvement in the pathological process:
a) the ribs
b) intercostal nerves
c) heart
d) of the pleura
e) pulmonary vessels
71.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue during palpation of the chest
voice trembling:
a) strengthened
b) impaired
c) drastically weakened
d) is not determined
72.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue in the lungs percussion is
determined by:
a) the blunting of pulmonary sound
b) normal lung sounds
c) tympanitis
d) a metallic sound
e) box sound
73.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue palpation and percussion of the
lung observed:
a) strengthening the voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
b) the weakening of the voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
c) strengthening the voice jitter and tympanitis
d) the weakening of the voice jitter and tympanitis
74.Strengthening the voice jitter and percussion blunting of pulmonary sound
characteristic of the syndrome:
a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) forming a cavity in the lung
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
75.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue when auscultation is defined
by:
a) strengthening vesicular breathing (breathing hard)
b) the weakening of vesicular breathing
c) the absence of vesicular breath
d) amforic breath
76.The syndrome of massive consolidation of pulmonary tissue when auscultation
is defined by:
a) strengthening vesicular breathing (breathing hard)
b) the weakening of vesicular breathing
c) abnormal bronchial breathing
d) amforic breath
77.Specific symptom of syndrome of consolidation pulmonary tissue on lung
auscultation is:
a) crepitus
b) rigid vesicular breathing
c) dry wheezing
d) wet wheezing
e) pleural rub
78.The main feature of X-RAY (radiological) syndrome of consolidation of
pulmonary tissue is:
a) a decrease in transparency (shading) of a share or segment
b) a picture of atelectasis
c) increased transparency (transparency), or the proportion of the segment
d) "amputation of the bronchial tubes"
e) increased transparency in the lungs
79.Syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue is characteristic for:
a) pneumonia
b) chronic bronchitis
c) II stage lung abscess
d) bronchiectasis
e) asthma
80.I stage of syndrome of cavity formation in the lung - a cavity:
a) communicating with the bronchi
b) free from pus
c) containing air
d) does not communicate with the bronchi and filled with pus
81.II stage of the syndrome of cavity formation in the lung - a cavity:
a) communicating with the bronchus and free of pus
b) does not communicate with a bronchus
c) filled with pus
d) filled with exudate
82.Phase II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung characterized by discharge
of purulent sputum "full mouth":
a) a one-time (single)
b) repeatedly for one day
c) repeated over many months or years
d) repeatedly during the day since childhood
83.At stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during palpation of the
chest voice trembling:
a) strengthened
b) impaired
c) is not defined
d) all answers are correct
84.Phase II syndrome presence of cavities in the lung percussion characterized by:
a) tympanic sound
b) box sound
c) a dull sound
d) dullness
85.At stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during palpation and
percussion of the chest are determined:
a) strengthening the voice jitter and dull sound
b) the weakening of the voice jitter and dull sound
c) the weakening of the voice jitter and tympanitis
d) strengthening the voice jitter and tympanitis
86.Strengthening the voice jitter and tympanic percussion sound characteristic for:
a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) a syndrome of increased airiness of the lungs
c) syndrome accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
d) syndrome fluid accumulation in the pleural cavity
e) step II syndrome cavity formation in the lung
87.At stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during auscultation
revealed:
a) the weakening of vesicular breathing
b) hard breathing
c) amforic breath
d) unmodified vesicular breathing
88.Phase II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung auscultation is characterized
by:
a) dry wheezing
b) wet finely wheezing
c) wet medium and large bubbling rale
d) crepitus
e) pleural rub
89.In stage II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung during lung auscultation
revealed crackles:
a) finely
b) only medium bubbling rale
c) only large bubbling rale
d) medium and large bubbling rale
90.Phase II syndrome of cavity formation in the lung is characterized by a
combination of the following symptoms:
a) a dull sound and abnormal bronchial breathing
b) stiff vesicular breathing and pleural rub
c) the weakening of vesicular breathing and dull sound
d) tympanic sound and amforic breath
91.What syndrome is characterized by a combination of bloat and wet large- and
medium bubbling rale:
a) syndrome of consolidation of pulmonary tissue
b) syndrome of massive consolidation of pulmonary tissue
c) II stage of syndrome cavity formation in the lung
d) bronchial obstruction syndrome
92.The syndrome is marked bronchiectasis purulent sputum "full mouth":
a) single
b) repeatedly for one hour
c) repeatedly for one day
d) repeated over many months or years
93.The main clinical manifestation of the syndrome is bronchiectasis:
a) purulent sputum "full mouth" many times
b) a dry cough
c) dyspnea and expiratory astma
d) purulent sputum "full mouth " single
94.Syndrome of bronchiectasis during auscultation revealed:
a) crepitus
b) dry wheezing
c) pleural rub
d) finely crackles
e) medium- and medium and large bubbling ralecrackles
95.Cough with purulent sputum for many years and moist medium and large
bubbling rale in auscultation and is easily observed in the syndrome:
a) bronchial obstruction
b) bronchiectasis
c) sealing lung tissue
d) emphysema
e) forming a cavity in the lung
96.The syndrome of bronchial obstruction during an attack expiratory choking
notes the following position of the patient:
a) on the patient side
b) on the healthy side
c) orthopnea
d) lying on his stomach
e) lying on his back
97.The syndrome of bronchial obstruction during an attack expiratory choking
note the following color:
a) acrocyanosis
b) diffuse cyanosis
c) "latte"
d) cherry (blooded)
e) jaundiced
98.Syndrome of bronchial obstruction during auscultation is characterized by:
a) the weakening of vesicular breathing
b) strengthening vesicular breathing (breathing hard)
c) bronchial breathing
d) the absence of vesicular breath
e) the normal vesicular breathing
99.A typical auscultatory sign of bronchial obstruction syndrome are:
a) wet finely wheezing
b) crepitus
c) dry whistling and buzzing rattles
d) pleural rub
e) wet medium and large bubbling rale
100.
Syndrome of bronchial obstruction during auscultation is characterized
by the following types of wheeze:
a) wet finely wheezing
b) moist medium bubbling rale
c) wet large bubbling rale
d) dry whistling and buzzing rattles
101.
The syndrome of bronchial obstruction during auscultation is
characterized by:
a) the weakening of vesicular breathing and wet wheezing
b) amforic breathe and wet wheezing
c) hard breathing and dry wheezing
d) hard breathing and crackling
102.
Dry wheezing over the entire surface of the lungs characteristic of the
syndrome:
a) increased airiness of the lungs
b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) bronchial obstruction
d) sealing lung tissue
e) forming a cavity in the lung
103.
The hard and dry breath wheezing over the entire surface of the lungs
observed in syndrome:
a) the consolidation of the pulmonary tissue
b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) increased airiness of the lungs
d) bronchial obstruction
e) forming a cavity in the lung
104.
For bronchial obstruction syndrome during the study of respiratory
function is characterized by:
a) a decrease in lung capacity
b) forced expiratory volume in the norm
c) an increase in forced expiratory volume
d) reduction in forced expiratory volume
e) increase in lung capacity
105.
The decline in forced expiratory volume in the study of respiratory
function characteristic of the syndrome:
a) increased airiness of the lungs
b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) bronchial obstruction
d) the consolidation of pulmonary tissue
e) the presence in the lung cavity
106.
Stiff and dry breath wheezing during auscultation and declines in forced
expiratory volume in the study of respiratory function observed in the
syndrome:
a) bronchial obstruction
b) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
c) increased airiness of the lungs
d) conolidation of pulmonary tissue
e) the presence in the lung cavity
107.
Syndrome of bronchial obstruction is a particular feature of:
a) pneumonia
b) asthma and chronic obstructive bronchitis
c) bronchiectasis
d) cancer and pulmonary tuberculosis
108.
Syndrome emphysema cause persistent lung expansion is:
a) pulmonary fibrosis
b) an inflammation of the alveoli
c) the destruction of the lung tissue
d) hyperextension of the alveoli due to loss of elasticity
109.
The main clinical manifestation of the syndrome of emphysema is:
a) attack the inspiration of suffocation
b) attack expiratory breathlessness
c) inspiratory dyspnea permanent nature
d) expiratory dyspnea permanent nature
e) cough with purulent sputum
110.
Syndrome emphysema voice trembling:
a) efforts from both sides
b) strengthened on the one hand
c) weakened from both sides
d) weakened on one side
111.
Syndrome emphysema during light percussion found:
a) a dull sound
b) blunting of pulmonary sound
c) tympanitis
d) box sound
e) normal lung sounds
112.
Syndrome emphysema during auscultation revealed:
a) strengthening vesicular breathing on both sides
b) strengthening vesicular breathing on one side
c) the weakening of vesicular breathing on both sides
d) the weakening of vesicular breathing on one side
113.
The syndrome of emphysema on chest X-RAY (radiograph) indicated
the location of the ribs:
a)
b)
c)
d)
vertical
sloping downward
oblique upward
horizontal
Syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity is characterized
114.
by:
a) shortness of breath and dyspnea expiratory character
b) dyspnea and inspiratory gasp nature
c) choking and shortness of mixed character
d) cough with phlegm
115.
Syndrome accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during the
inspection characteristic:
a) flattening and expansion of intercostal spaces
b) bulging intercostal spaces
c) spadenie intercostal spaces
d) the disappearance of intercostal spaces
116.
The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during
palpation of the chest voice trembling:
a) strengthened
b) normal
c) dramatically reduced or absent
d) increased sharply
117.
The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during
percussion of the chest is determined by:
a) clear lung sounds
b) dull sound
c) tympanitis
d) "noise cracked pot"
e) box sound
118.
During palpation and percussion of the chest detection dramatically
weakened voice trembling until his absence and blunt sound characteristic of
the syndrome:
a) the seal of the lung tissue
b) forming a cavity in the lung
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
e) bronchial obstruction
119.
The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during
auscultation is defined by:
a) the normal vesicular breathing
b) pathological bronchial breath
c) a weakening of vesicular breathing or his absence
d) pleural rub; e) hard breathing
120.
The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity during
palpation and auscultation of the lungs is determined by:
a)
b)
c)
d)
normal voice trembling and vesicular breathing
normal voice trembling and hard breathing
weakened voice trembling and vesicular breathing or their absence
pleural rub
121.
The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity includes the
following percussion and auscultation symptoms:
a) a dull sound and the absence of vesicular breath
b) tympanic sound and amforic breathing
c) a dull sound and bronchial breathing
d) lung sounds and hard breathing
e) sound and pulmonary pleural rub
122.
The syndrome of accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity on chest
radiograph indicated:
a) the cavity with a horizontal fluid level
b) increase the transparency of the lungs
c) intense homogeneous light shade
d) illumination pulmonary field
123.
For exudative pleurisy is the most characteristic:
a) productive cough
b) shortness of breath when walking
c) "rusty sputum"
d) pleural rub
e) the lack of breathing on auscultation and a dull sound on percussion
124.
Syndrome of pneumothorax most characteristic feature is:
a) periodic attacks of breathlessness and suffocation
b) slowly over many months developing breathlessness and suffocation
c) suddenly developed shortness of breath, turning into asthma
d) cough with expectoration "mouth full."
125.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during the inspection characteristic:
a) flattening of intercostal spaces
b) bulging intercostal spaces
c) expansion of intercostal spaces
d) the disappearance of intercostal spaces
126.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during palpation of the chest voice
trembling:
a) normal
b) sharply weakened until its absence
c) strengthened
d) increased sharply
127.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during light percussion is determined by:
a) the blunting of pulmonary sound
b) a dull sound
c) box sound
d) tympanic sound
e) "noise cracked pot."
128.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during palpation and percussion of the lung
characterized by:
a) a weakening voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
b) the weakening of the voice jitter and dull sound
c) the weakening of the voice jitter and box sound
d) a sharp weakening of the voice jitter and tympanic sound
e) strengthening the voice jitter and blunting of pulmonary sound
129.
The sharp weakening of the voice jitter and tympanic sound during
palpation and percussion of the lung observed in syndrome:
a) the consolidation of pulmonary lung tissue
b) forming a cavity in the lung
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) accumulation of air in the pleural cavity
e) bronchial obstruction
130.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during auscultation is defined by:
a) vesicular breathing
b) hard breathing
c) abnormal bronchial breathing
d) drastically weakened vesicular breathing until his absence
e) pleural rub
131.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during percussion and auscultation of the
lungs characterized by a combination of the following symptoms:
a) bloat and amforic breathing
b) dull sound and bronchial breathing
c) bloat, and a sharp increase in vesicular breathing
d) of bloat and sharply weakened vesicular breathing
132.
Syndrome of pneumothorax during palpation and auscultation of the
lungs characterized by the following combination syptoms:
a) strengthening the voice jitter and amforic breathing
b) strengthening the voice jitter and vesicular breathing
c) a weakening of the voice tremor and vesicular breathing
d) the weakening of voice tremor and pleural rub
133.
The syndrome of accumulation of air in the pleural cavity include the
following symptoms:
a) a dull sound, vesicular breathing is absent
b) tympanic sound, vesicular breathing is absent
c) a dull sound, bronchial breathing
d) tympanic sound, bronchial breathing
134.
Syndrome of pneumothorax on chest X-RAY (radiography) is
characterized by:
a) a cavity with a horizontal fluid level
b) increase the transparency of the lungs
c) intense homogeneous light shade
d) illumination pulmonary field
135.
On chest X-RAY (radiography) shadow sleeping lung (lung collapse)
observed in the syndrome:
a) the seal of the lung tissue
b) emphysema
c) the accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
d) pneumothorax
e) forming a cavity in the lung
136.
The main complaint of patients with respiratory failure is a syndrome:
a) cough
b) expectoration
c) hemoptysis
d) dyspnea
137.
For respiratory distress syndrome characterized:
a) thorax pain
b) fever
c) dru wheezing
d) wet wheezing
e) dyspnea
138.
For respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by the following skin
color:
a) acrocyanosis
b) diffuse cyanosis
c) cherry "red-blooded"
d) pale
139.
At the level of respiratory distress syndrome of the partial pressure of
oxygen in the blood:
a) increased
b) normal
c) reduced
d) increased sharply
140.
At the level of respiratory distress syndrome of the partial pressure of
carbon dioxide in the blood:
a) increased
b) normal
c) reduced
d) greatly reduced
141.
Dyspnea, tachypnea, diffuse cyanosis, decreased level of O2 in the blood
and an increased level of CO2 in the blood observed in syndrome:
a) the seal of the lung tissue
b) respiratory failure
c) forming a cavity in the lung
d) heart failure
142.
For asthma specific feature in auscultation is:
a) the absence of vesicular breath
b) crackles
c) crepitus
d) hard breathing, and dry rales
e) pleural rub
143.
Patients with emphysema there is an increase:
a) vital capacity
b) the breathing capacity of the lungs
c) MVL
d) the residual volume of the lungs
e) forced expiratory volume
144.
In the dry pleurisy chest pain decreased in the state:
a) lying on the healthy side
b) the patient lying on his side
c) lying on his back
d) lying on his stomach
145.
A specific feature of dry pleurisy when auscultation is:
a) pleural rub
b) dry wheezing
c) crackles
d) crepitus
146.
Pleural rub during auscultation typical for:
a) spontaneous pneumothorax
b) dry pleurisy
c) acute and chronic bronchitis
d) asthma
e) exudative pleurisy
147.
The typical localization of coronary pain is:
a) the area of the heart
b) the left half of the chest
c) retrosternal region
d) the left shoulder
e) the left half of the body
148.
After taking medication of nitroglycerin the coronary pain disappears
after
a) 0 - 30 sec.
b) 1 - 2 minutes
c) 15 - 30min
d) for 1-2 hours
149.
The coronary pain irradiates
a) neck and head
b) the right and the left leg
c) the left shoulder, left arm and shoulder blade
d) the right and left upper quadrant
150.
Coronary pain is a specific feature of:
a) angina pectoris
b) myocarditis
c) heart failure
d) cardiomyopathy
151.
The duration of the coronary pain in myocardial infarction usually is:
a) 5 -15 seconds
b) 5 -15 minutes
c) 15 - 30 minutes
d) from 30 minutes to 2 hours or more
152.
Coronary pain with localization behind the sternum, pressing character
associated with physical activity, radiating to the left shoulder, the duration (an
average of 5 minutes), and disappears after 1-2 minutes after taking
nitroglycerin obtained in:
a) stable angina
b) new-onset angina
c) progressive angina
d) spontaneous angina
e) acute coronary syndrome
153.
Classical coronary pain which occurrs intermittently for 1 month, typical
for:
a) stable angina
b) new-onset angina
c) progressive angina
d) spontaneous angina
e) acute coronary syndrome
154.
The frequent and severe attacks with coronary pain lasting 5 to 15
minutes and the low efficiency of nitroglycerin obtained at:
a) stable angina
b) new-onset angina
c) progressive angina
d) spontaneous angina
e) acute coronary syndrome
155.
Coronary pain lasting 15-30 minutes, with no clear link to physical
activity and low effectiveness of nitroglycerin are characteristic:
a) stable angina
b) new-onset angina
c) progressive angina
d) spontaneous angina
e) acute coronary syndrome
156.
Coronary pain lasting from 30 minutes to 2 hours or more, more
expressions (“burning pain”) and the lack of effect of nitroglycerin are
characteristic:
a) stable angina
b) new-onset angina
c) progressive angina
d) spontaneous angina
e) acute coronary syndrome
157.
Attacks of inspiratory dyspnea–is a sign of:
a) asthma
b) acute left ventricular heart failure (pulmonary edema)
c) myocardial infarction
d) angina
158.
Cough with frothy sputum is obtained when:
a) asthma
b) acute left ventricular heart failure (pulmonary edema)
c) myocardial infarction
d) angina
159.
Forced position "orthopnoea" occurs when:
a) acute left ventricular heart failure
b) acute right heart failure
c) chronic right ventricular heart failure
d) chronic left ventricular heart failure
160.
Acrocyanosis most typical for:
a) acute and chronic left ventricular heart failure
b) acute right heart failure
c) chronic right ventricular heart failure
d) only chronic left ventricular heart failure
161.
De Musset's sign (rhythmical rocking of the head at the same time with
the pulsation of the carotid arteries) occurs when:
a) stenosis of the aortic valve
b) the failure of the aortic valve
c) stenosis of the mitral valve
d) failure of the mitral valve
162.
The swollen neck veins occur when:
a) acute left ventricular heart failure
b) acute and chronic right ventricular heart failure
c) only chronic right ventricular heart failure
d) chronic left ventricular heart failure
163.
Capillary (arteriolar) pulse is typical for:
a) mitral stenosis
b) the failure of the mitral valve
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) failure of the tricuspid valve
164.
If there is swelling of feet and legs what will be during doctor’s finger
pressure:
a) there is cyanosis
b) a pit or depression is formed
c) there is a acute pallor
d) appears hemorrhagic rash
165.
Ascites - a fluid collection:
a) in the peritoneal cavity
b) in the pleural cavity
c) in the pericardial cavity
d) throughout the body
166.
The patient during the examination revealed ascites, edema of the feet
and legs. What form of heart failure occurs in this patient?:
a) acute left ventricular heart failure
b) acute and chronic right ventricular heart failure
c) only chronic right ventricular heart failure
d) chronic left ventricular heart failure
167.
The intensified pulse occurs when:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) stenosis of the aortic valve
c) hypertension
d) failure of the aortic valve
168.
When doctor is performing palpation of apical impulse he puts his palm
of his right hand on:
a) his palm on chest and fingers on axillary region between the V and
VI ribs
b) IV intercostal space left of the sternum
c) the top of the heart and the second intercostal space to the right
d) the second intercostal space on the right
169.
The apical impulse - a strike of the heart apex to the chest during:
a) the systole
b) diastole
c) systole and diastole
d) inhalation
e) an exhalation
170.
The normal apical impulse is located in the V intercostal space on the
left:
a) 1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line
b) 1 cm outwards from the left leftmidclavicular line
c) at the left midclavicular line
d) at 2 cm laterally from the left midclavicular line
171.
The displacement or movement of apical impulse to the left than in
normal indicates:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
172.
The increased area, strength and resistance of apical impulse occurs in:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
173.
The displacement or movement of apical impulse to the left and
downwardthan in normal is obtained when:
a) the hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium
b) hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle
c) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium
d) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
174.
Cardiac impulse –is a strike to the chest of:
a) the apex of the left ventricle
b) of the left ventricle
c) the heart, especially of the right ventricle
d) the right atrium
e) of the left atrium
175.
To determine the cardiac impulse palm of the right hand of the doctor is
placed:
a) on top of the heart
b) in II intercostal space to the right
c) in II intercostal space on the left
d) in the IV intercostal space left of the sternum
e) IV intercostal space to the right of the sternum
176.
In normally cardiac impulse:
a) determined at people with asthenic constitution
b) with hypersthenic constitution
c) determined in children
d) is not determined
177.
The obtaining of cardiac impulseduring palpation o is characteristic for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
178.
To determine the epigastric pulsation of the palm of the right hand is
placed:
a) on top of the heart
b) in II intercostal space to the right
c) in II intercostal space on the left
d) under the xiphoid process of the sternum
e) in the left epigastric region
179.
In normal the epigastric pulsation is:
a) determined at asthenic constitution
b) determined at hypersthenics
c) determined in children
d) is not determined
180.
Epigastric pulsation is a characteristic feature of:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
181.
The presence of epigastric pulsation is synchronous with:
a) apical impulse
b) apex impulse to the left and down
c) the presence of cardiac impulse
d) lack of apical impulse
182.
The absence of a pulse in the carotid arteries - is one of the significant
features of:
a) atherosclerosis
b) aortic stenosis
c) clinical death
d) myocardial infarction
e) hypertension
183.
The borders of the relative dullness of heart means the border of:
a) the left atrium
b) the right atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
e) the heart
184.
The borders of absolute dullnes of the heart mean the border of:
a) the left atrium
b) the right atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
e) the heart
185.
Normally, the right border of the relative dullness of the heart is
determined:
a) 1 cm outwards from the right edge of the sternum in the IV
intercostal space
b) 1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line in the V intercostal space
c) in the III intercostal space on the left
d) equal with the apical impulse
186.
Normally, the left border of the relative dullness of the heart is
determined:
a) 1 cm outwards from the right edge of the sternum in the IV intercostal
space
b) 1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line in the V intercostal
space
c) in II intercostal space on the left
d) 1 cm outwards from the left midclavicular line in the V between
187.
The displacement of the left border of the relative dullness of the heart to
the left is characteristic for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
188.
The displacement of the relative dullness of the heart to the left and
down is typical for:
a) the hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium
b) hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle
c) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium
d) hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle
189.
The displacement of the relative dullness of the heart up is typical for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
190.
The waist of the heart is smoothed when:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
191.
The waist of the heart is more definite than normal means:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
192.
The displacement of the right relative dullness at its right border to the
right is typical for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
193.
The expanding of the borders of the absolute heart dullness is obtained
in:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
194.
The coincidence or equality of the borders of the relative and absolute
dullness of the heart is typical for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
e) syndrome fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity
195.
The displacement of the upper border of the relative dullness of the heart
up and smoothed waist is typical for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
196.
The combination of having a heart push and expand the borders of
absolute dullnes of the heart is typical for:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
197.
The sequence or order of auscultation of the heart valves:
a) mitral, aortic, pulmonary, tricuspid
b) the aortic, mitral, pulmonary, tricuspid
c) pulmonary, mitral, aortic, tricuspid
d) the tricuspid, mitral, aortic, pulmonary
198.
During auscultation of the heart assess:
a) heart sounds and murmurs of the heart
b) blood pressure
c) the size of the heart
d) cardiac output
199.
The first tone is made by the systole of which valves:
a) the aortic valve
b) the tricuspid and mitral valves
c) the pulmonary valve
d) the aortic valve and the pulmonary artery
200.
The second tone is made by which valves:
a) the aortic valve and the pulmonary valve
b) of the mitral and tricuspid valves
c) the mitral valve
d) pulmonary valve
201.
The performance of the auscultation of first tone:
a) at the top and at the base of the xiphoid process
b) in the second intercostal space to the right
c) in the second intercostal space on the left
d) in the second intercostal space to the left and right
202.
The performance of the auscultation of second tone
a) at the top
b) at the base of the xiphoid process
c) in the second intercostal space to the right and left
d) at the top and at the base of the xiphoid process
203.
The I tone at the apex is obtained at:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) the tricuspid valve
c) failure of the aortic valve
d) stenosis of the left atrioventricular opening
e) aortic stenosis
204.
Weakening of th first tone at the top is obtained at:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the failure of mitral valve disease and infarction
stenosis of the mitral valve
stenosis of the tricuspid valve
failure of the tricuspid valve
205.
Accent of II tone in II intercostal space on the right is obtained when:
a) aortic stenosis
b) the insufficiency of the aortic valve
c) hypertensive disease
d) pulmonary hypertension.
206.
The weakening of II tone in II intercostal space on the right is obtained
when:
a) aortic stenosis and insufficiency of the aortic valve
b) hypertensive disease
c) pulmonary hypertension
d) mitral stenosis
207.
Emphasis of II tone in II intercostal space on the left is characteristic for:
a) arterial hypertension
b) hypotension
c) pulmonary hypertension
d) stenosis pulmonary valve
e) pulmonary valve insufficiency
208.
The weakening of II tone in II intercostal space on the left is
characteristic for:
a) the failure of stenosis and pulmonary valve
b) pulmonary hypertension
c) hypertension
d) aortic valve stenosis
209.
Theemphasis of I tone at the base of the xiphoid process is typical for:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the tricuspid valve
c) failure of the mitral valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
210.
The weakening of I tone at the base of the xiphoid process is typical for:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
211.
The appearance of III additional tones at the apex of the heart is a
specific sign of:
a) failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
212.
The appearance of III additional tones at the base of the xiphoid process
characteristic:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the failure of the mitral valve
stenosis of the mitral valve
the tricuspid valve
the tricuspid valve stenosis
213.
The occurrence of III pathological tone is typical for a severe defeat:
a) endocardium
b) myocardium
c) pericardium
d) large vessels
214.
The appearance of systolic murmur at the apex of the heart is typical for:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
215.
Systolic murmur in II intercostal space on the right and at the point
Botkin-Erb is listened when:
a) stenosis of the aortic valve
b) the insufficiency of the aortic valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) failure pulmonary valve
e) pulmonary valve stenosis
216.
Systolic murmur on the basis of the xiphoid process is typical for:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
217.
Systolic murmur in II intercostal space on the left is obtained when:
a) stenosis of the aortic valve
b) the insufficiency of the aortic valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) failure pulmonary valve
e) pulmonary valve stenosis
218.
At what heart defects systolic murmur conducted on the carotid artery:
a) failure of the mitral valve
b) the tricuspid valve
c) aortic stenosis
d) stenosis pulmonary valve
219.
Diastolic murmur at the apex of the heart occurs when:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
220.
The diastolic murmur at the base of the xiphoid process occurs when:
a) the failure of the mitral valve
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) the tricuspid valve
d) the tricuspid valve stenosis
221.
The diastolic murmur in II intercostal space on the right and at the point
Botkin-Erb obtained in:
a) aortic valve regurgitation
b) stenosis of the aortic valve
c) stenosis pulmonary valve
d) pulmonary valve insufficiency
222.
The diastolic murmur in II intercostal space on the left is characteristic
for:
a) aortic valve regurgitation
b) stenosis of the aortic valve
c) stenosis pulmonary valve
d) pulmonary valve insufficiency
223.
Pericardial rub occurs when:
a) syndrome, inflammation of the myocardium
b) dry pericarditis
c) syndrome fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity
d) endocardial lesions syndrome
224.
Pericardial rub with pressure stethoscope:
a) becomes stronger
b) weakens
c) disappears
d) does not change
225.
Which large vessels you can perform auscultation:
a) of the aorta
b) of the carotid, subclavian, brachial and femoral arteries
c) the ulnar artery
d) temporal artery
226.
In some cases, auscultation of the renal arteries can be heard, when:
a) always
b) for hypertension in the elderly
c) for hypertension in the young
d) with hypotension in the young
227.
Normally, the auscultation of the carotid, subclavian and brachial
arteries:
a) is defined by three tones
b) is determined by the two-tone
c) is defined by a single tone
d) are not defined tones
228.
Normally, auscultation femoral arteries:
a) is defined by three tones
b) is determined by the two-tone
c) is defined by a single tone
d) are not defined
229.
Normally, the auscultation of the carotid, subclavian and brachial
arteries:
a) is defined by a triple noise
b) determined by dual noise
c) is determined by a noise
d) is not determined by the noise
230.
Normally, the auscultation femoral arteries:
a) is defined by a triple noise
b) determined by dual noise
c) is determined by a noise
d) is not determined by the noise
231.
Normally, the auscultation of the renal arteries:
a) is defined by a triple noise
b) determined by dual noise
c) is determined by a noise
d) is not determined by the noise
232.
Systolic murmur on the carotid, subclavian and brachial artery occurs
when:
a) nonspecific inflammation of aorta and coarctation of the aorta
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) aortic valve regurgitation
d) failure of the mitral valve
233.
Systolic murmur on the carotid arteries in combination with a systolic
murmur in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb can be
obtained in:
a) nonspecific aortoarteriit and coarctation of the aorta
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) aortic valve regurgitation
d) failure of the mitral valve
234.
The dual tone Traube on Friday femoral arteries is obtained in:
a) nonspecific aortoarteriit and coarctation of the aorta
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) aortic valve regurgitation
d) failure of the mitral valve
235.
Dual noise Duroziez femoral arteries observed in:
a) nonspecific aortoarteriit and coarctation of the aorta
b) stenosis of the mitral valve
c) aortic valve regurgitation
d) failure of the mitral valve
236.
Systolic murmur in the renal arteries occurs when:
a) renal artery stenosis
b) the dilatation of the renal artery
c) stenosis of the mitral valve
d) failure of the aortic valve
e) failure of the mitral valve
237.
In physician”s clinical practice, the blood pressure measurement is
performed in:
a) the aorta
b) the carotid arteries
c) the subclavian artery
d) of the brachial artery
e) the femoral arteries
238.
To assess the level of blood pressure should be performed:
a) one measurement
b) at least two (2) measurements with interval in 1 min
c) at least two (2) measurements with interval in 1 hour
d) not less than three (3) measurements with interval in 1 min
239.
As the most correct value of the blood pressure is taken:
a) a higher value of the last two measurements
b) the lower of the two last measurements
c) the average of the last two measurements
d) the average of all measurements
240.
The normal blood pressure is:
a) 120/80 mm Hg.
b) 90/60 - 120/80 mm Hg
c) 100/60 - 139/89 mm Hg
d) was 140/90 mm Hg. and higher
241.
The normal pulse pressure is:
a) 20-25 mm Hg
b) 30-35 mm Hg
c) 40-45 mm Hg
d) of 50-55 mm Hg
242.
Hypertension - the number of blood pressure in mm. Hg. is:
a) 100/60 or higher
b) 120/80 or higher
c) 130/85 or higher
d) 140/90 or higher
243.
Increased pulse pressure is obtained when:
a) arterial hypertension
b) arterial hypotension
c) aortic stenosis
d) failure of the aortic valve
e) failure of the mitral valve
244.
In a normal blood pressure of the femoral artery as compared with the
brachial artery:
a) below
b) above
c) the same
d) was acutely lower
245.
The blood pressure of femoral artery is lower than in the brachial artery.
What may indicate:
a) coarctation of the aorta
b) of the mitral stenosis
c) on aortic stenosis
d) of the aortic valve
e) failure of the mitral valve
246.
Incensed pulse (pulsusdurus) is detected in a syndrome:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
e) arterial hypertension
f) hypotension
247.
A large, high and fast heart rate obtained in:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) stenosis of the aortic valve
c) hypertension
d) failure of the aortic valve
248.
Small and slow heart rate obtained in:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) stenosis of the aortic valve
c) hypertension
d) failure of the aortic valve
249.
The absence of a pulse on one of the radial artery is obtained when:
a) hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) stenosis of the aortic valve
c) hypertension
d) failure of the aortic valve
e) non-specific aortoarteriit and Takayasu's disease
250.
The lack of pulse is obtained in the form of heart rhythm disorders:
a) extrasystoles
b) atrial fibrillation
c) paroxysmal tachycardia
d) the full degree A-V block
e) ventricular fibrillation
251.
Hypercholesterolemia is a specific feature:
a) arterial hypertension
b) atherosclerosis
c) heart disease
d) of coronary heart disease
252.
Hyperenzymemia (increase of cardiac enzymes) is characteristic:
a) myocardial infarction
b) angina
c) congenital heart disease
d) pericarditis
e) hypertension
253.
the X-RAY of aortic heart obtained :
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
254.
the X-RAY of mitral configuration of the heart occurs when:
a) the hypertrophy of the left atrium
b) left ventricular hypertrophy
c) hypertrophy of the right atrium
d) right ventricular hypertrophy
255.
The number of leads in the ECG is normal:
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 24
e) 36
256.
In the classical ECG in each lead recorded the following number of
cardiac cycles:
a) at least 2
b) at least 3
c) not less than 4
d) from 4 to 6 or more
257.
In the ECG with the speed of the paper 50 mm/sec. the distance of 1 mm
(or 1 small cell) on the tape corresponds to:
a) with 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.05
d) 0.1
258.
In the ECG with the speed of the paper 50 mm/sec. the distance of 5 mm
(or 1 large cage) on the tape corresponds to:
a) with 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.05
d) 0.1
259.
The rhythm is correct when ECG detected the same length of the
interval:
a) PP
b) R-R
c) S-S
d) Q-Q
e) T-T
260.
In healthy people, the horizontal position of the electrical axis of the
heart is seen in:
a)
b)
c)
d)
normostenik
hypersthenics
astenikov
normostenik and astenikov
261.
In healthy people, the vertical position of the electrical axis of the heart
is seen in:
a) normostenik
b) hypersthenics
c) astenikov
d) normostenik and hypersthenics
262.
The P wave on the electrocardiogram reflects the excitement:
a) the right atrium
b) of the left atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
e) the right and left atria
263.
The rate of the electrocardiogram P wave in lead aVR:
a) positive
b) negative
c) two-phase
d) two-prong
264.
The rate of the electrocardiogram P wave in lead V1-2:
a) positive
b) negative
c) two-phase
d) two-prong
265.
On the electrocardiogram PQ interval reflects the time passage of pulses:
a) the ventricles
b) atria
c) in the interventricular septum
d) in the atrioventricular compound
e) of bundle branch block
266.
In a normal electrocardiogram PQ interval duration (in seconds) is equal
to:
a) 0.03-0.1
b) 0.05-0.1
c) 0,1-0,16
d) 0,12-0,20
267.
QRS complex on the electrocardiogram reflects the excitement:
a) sinus
b) atrial
c) ventricles
d) A-V node
268.
On the electrocardiogram the Q wave:
a) is always positive
b) is always negative
c) can be either positive or negative
d) may be biphasic
269.
The depth of Q wave on the electrocardiogram is normal:
a) no more than 5 mm
b) 5-10 mm
c) 10-15 mm
d) not more than 1/4 R
e) not more than 1/4 S
270.
The duration of Q wave on the electrocardiogram was normal in
seconds:
a) not more than 0.03
b) 0.03-0.05
c) 0.06-0.1
d) 0.1-0.3
e) more than 0.03
271.
R-wave on the electrocardiogram is normal:
a) is always positive
b) is always negative
c) can be either positive or negative
d) may be biphasic
272.
The rate of the electrocardiogram in precordial leads maximum R wave
is noted in:
a) V1
b) V2
c) V3
d) V4
e) V5
f) V6
273.
The S wave is normal in the electrocardiogram:
a) is always positive
b) is always negative
c) can be either positive or negative
d) may be biphasic
274.
The normal electrocardiogram transitional zone is located in the chest
leads following:
a) V1
b) V2
c) V3
d) V4
e) V5
f) V6
275.
Normally, the ST segment of the electrocardiogram is:
a) contour
b) up to 1 mm from the contour
c) from 1 mm down contour
d) up to 2 mm from the contour
e) of 2 mm below the contour
276.
The T wave at normal electrocardiogram leads I, II, avF, V6-V2:
a) always positive
b) is always negative
c) can be either positive or negative
d) may be biphasic
277.
The T wave in normal electrocardiogram in leads III, avL and V1 is:
a) is always positive
b) is always negative
c) can be both positive and negative, it can be a two-phase
d) dvuhgorby
278.
The T'wave in normal electrocardiogram in lead avR is:
a) is always positive
b) is always negative
c) can be both positive and negative, it can be a two-phase
d) dvuhgorby
279.
The sign of the deviation electrical axis to the right of the heart on
electrocardiogram is:
a) RIII> RII> RI
b) RI> RII> RIII
c) RII> RI> RIII
d) RII> RIII> RI
280.
The sign of the deviation electrical axis to the left on the
electrocardiogram is:
a) RIII> RII> RI
b) RI> RII> RIII
c) RII> RI> RIII
d) RII> RIII> RI
281.
The axis deviation to the right on the electrocardiogram characteristic of
hypertrophy:
a) the right atrium
b) of the left atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
282.
The axis deviation to the left of the electrocardiogram is characteristic of
hypertrophy:
a) the right atrium
b) of the left atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
283.
P-pulmonale - is the appearance of the electrocardiogram:
a) high, peaked P wave in leads III and avF
b) wide and two-humped P wave in leads I and avL
c) a negative P wave in leads III and avF
d) negative P wave in leads I and avL
284.
P-mitrale - is the appearance of the electrocardiogram:
a) high, peaked P wave in leads III and avF
b) wide and two-humped P wave in leads I and avL
c) a negative P wave in leads III and avF
d) negative P wave in leads I and avL
285.
On the electrocardiogram P- pulmonale occurs with hypertrophy of:
a) the right atrium
b) of the left atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
286.
On the electrocardiogram P-mitrale occurs with hypertrophy of:
a) the right atrium
b) of the left atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
287.
The increase in the interval PQ (more than 0,20s) in the
electrocardiogram obtained in:
a) atrial fibrillation
b) beats
c) the A-V heart block
d) premature ventricular syndrome (syndrome WPW)
288.
Reducing the interval PQ (less than 0,12s) in the electrocardiogram
obtained in:
a) atrial fibrillation
b) beats
c) the A-V heart block
d) premature ventricular syndrome (syndrome WPW)
289.
The absence of P wave, the presence of waves F (f) instead of the P
wave and the existence of different RR interval on the electrocardiogram is an
absolute indication of:
a) atrial fibrillation
b) beats
c) the A-V heart block
d) premature ventricular syndrome (syndrome WPW)
290.
The negative T waves on the electrocardiogram - a sign:
a) myocardial ischemia
b) myocardial damage
c) myocardial necrosis
d) scar (cardiosclerosis)
291.
The displacement in the ST segment of 1mm or more down (depressed)
or up (rise) in the electrocardiogram - a sign:
a) myocardial ischemia
b) myocardial damage
c) myocardial necrosis
d) scar (cardiosclerosis)
292.
The displacement in the ST segment of 1mm or more down (depression)
on the electrocardiogram is a characteristic feature:
a) myocardial infarction
b) myocardial infarction
c) angina and acute coronary syndrome
d) spontaneous angina and acute coronary syndrome
293.
The displacement in the ST segment of 1mm or more up (rise) in the
electrocardiogram is a characteristic feature:
a) myocardial infarction
b) myocardial infarction
c) angina and acute coronary syndrome
d) spontaneous angina and acute coronary syndrome
294.
Q wave on the electrocardiogram is considered abnormal if it:
a) The width of> 0.01 and a depth of more than 1/4 R
b) The width of> 0.03 and a depth of more than 1/4 R
c) The width of> 0.03 and a depth of more than 1/4 S
d) the width of <0.03 seconds
295.
Pathological Q wave on the electrocardiogram - a sign:
a) myocardial ischemia
b) myocardial damage
c) myocardial necrosis or scar (cardiosclerosis)
d) myocardial degeneration
296.
The presence of abnormal electrocardiographic Q wave is a sign:
a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
b) new-onset angina
c) angina
d) spontaneous angina
297.
What is the instrumental non-invasive method is currently the most
accurate method for diagnosing heart defects:
a) X-ray of the heart
b) an electrocardiogram
c) phonocardiogram
d) an echocardiogram
298.
What is the instrumental non-invasive method is currently the most
accurate method of myocardial hypertrophy:
a) X-ray of the heart
b) an electrocardiogram
c) phonocardiogram
d) an echocardiogram
299.
What is the instrumental non-invasive method is currently the most
accurate method of detecting the early stages of chronic heart failure:
a) X-ray of the heart
b) an electrocardiogram
c) phonocardiogram
d) an echocardiogram
300.
Electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) is
used to diagnose:
a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
b) new-onset angina
c) angina
d) spontaneous angina
301.
Electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) is
considered to be negative if:
a) is reached submaximal heart rate, without the dynamics of the
segment ST
b) noted an attack of coronary pain and / or ST-segment depression of 1 mm
or more
c) develops severe shortness of breath
d) develop severe weakness
302.
Electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) is
considered positive if:
a) is reached submaximal heart rate, without the dynamics of the segment
ST
b) noted an attack of coronary pain and / or ST-segment depression of 1
mm or more
c) develops severe shortness of breath
d) develop severe weakness
303.
A positive test with electrocardiographic exercise (bicycle stress test) is
characteristic:
a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
b) new-onset angina
c) angina
d) spontaneous angina
304.
Hour electrocardiographic monitoring was used to diagnose:
a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardioclerosis
b) new-onset angina
c) angina
d) spontaneous angina
305.
Hour electrocardiographic monitoring was considered positive if the
obtained:
a) tachycardia
b) ST-segment depression of 1 mm or more
c) ST-segment elevation of 1 mm or more
d) arrhythmia and heart block.
306.
Positive results around the clock electrocardiographic monitoring
characteristic for:
a) myocardial infarction or post- infarction cardiosclerosis
b) new-onset angina
c) angina
d) spontaneous angina
307.
The syndrome of hypertension - high blood pressure is higher than:
a) 100/70 mm. Hg
b) 110/75 mm Hg
c) 120/80 mm Hg
d) 130/85 mm Hg
e) 140/90 mm. Hg
308.
The syndrome of arterial hypertension the pulse on radial artery is:
a) filling and high voltage
b) small filling
c) a large and high
d) is absent
e) slow
309.
The hypertension syndrome the II tone in the second intercostal space on
the right is:
a) strengthened (emphasis)
b) is weakened
c) is not changed
d) offline
310.
The hypertension syndrome develops hypertrophy of:
a) the left atrium
b) the right atrium
c) the left ventricle
d) the right ventricle
311.
The syndrome of hypertension during the fundus examination revealed:
a) narrowing of arterioles
b) expansion of arterioles
c) the restriction of venules
d) expansion of arterioles and venules narrowing
312.
The specific features of the syndrome of coronary insufficiency on the
background of angina pectoris during coronary attack pain on
electrocardiogram is:
а) ST-segment depression 1 mm or more
b) ST-segment elevation 1 mm or more
c) pathological tooth Q
d) negative (CABG) T wave
e) All right
313.
The syndrome of coronary heart disease on the background of stable
angina coronary duration of pain:
a) 0-60 seconds
b) 1-3 minutes
c) 2-15 (average 5) minutes
d) from 30min to 2 hours or more
314.
In variations of coronary syndrome insufficiency with coronary
infarction duration of pain:
a) 0-60 seconds
b) 1-3 minutes
c) 2-15 (average 5) minutes
d) from 30min to 2 hours or more
315.
For coronary insufficiency syndrome during an attack of coronary pain
and electrocardiographic test with physical exercise (bicycle stress test) on the
electrocardiogram is characterized by:
a) ST-segment depression of 1 mm or more
b) ST-segment elevation of 1 mm or more
c) pathological tooth Q
d) shortening of the interval P-Q
316.
The syndrome of coronary insufficiency of coronary attacks of pain and
ST segment depression of 1 mm or more in the electrocardiogram obtained for
this form of coronary heart disease, such as:
a) stable angina
b) progressive angina
c) spontaneous angina
d) acute coronary syndrome
e) myocardial infarction
317.
The coronary insufficiency syndrome as frequent attacks and severe
attacks with coronary pain lasting 5 to 15 minutes and ST segment depression
of 1 mm or more on an electrocardiogram obtained in the form of a coronary
heart disease as:
a) stable angina
b) progressive angina
c) spontaneous angina
d) acute coronary syndrome
e) myocardial infarction
318.
The syndrome of coronary insufficiency of coronary pain attacks with a
duration of 15 to 30 minutes and ST segment elevation on 1 mm or more on an
electrocardiogram obtained in the form of a coronary heart disease as:
a) stable angina
b) progressive angina
c) spontaneous angina
d) acute coronary syndrome
e) myocardial infarction
319.
The coronary insufficiency syndrome episodically coronary pain, a
duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours or more, elevation or depression of ST
segment by 1 mm or more is obtained in the electrocardiogram in this form of
coronary heart disease as:
a) stable angina
b) progressive angina
c) spontaneous angina
d) acute coronary syndrome
e) myocardial infarction
320.
The coronary insufficiency syndrome episodically coronary pain, a
duration to 2 hours or more, increased level of cardiac enzyme levels, the
presence of pathological Q wave on the electrocardiogram is obtained in a
form of coronary heart disease as:
a) stable angina
b) progressive angina
c) spontaneous angina
d) acute coronary syndrome
e) myocardial infarction
321.
The syndrome of left ventricular hypertrophy displaced apical impulse:
a) to the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
322.
The syndrome dilation of the left ventricle displaced apical impulse:
a) to the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
323.
The syndrome of left ventricular hypertrophy, apical impulse:
a) unchanged
b) is weakened
c) poured, reinforced
d) is not determined
324.
The syndrome of left ventricular hypertrophy, left border of the relative
dullness of the heart is displaced:
a) to the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
325.
The syndrome dilation of the left ventricle left border of the relative
dullness of the heart is displaced:
a) to the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
326.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle in the
electrocardiogram obtained displacement of the transition zone:
a) the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
327.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium the upper
limit of the relative dullness of the heart is displaced:
a) to the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
328.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the left atrium on the
electrocardiogram revealed:
a) P-mitrale
b) P-pulmonale
c) P-cardiale
d) P-aortale
329.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle during
the inspection and palpation of the epigastric pulsation and cardiac impulse:
a) is not available
b) defined
c) the weakened
d) enhanced
330.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle size of
the absolute dullnes of the heart:
a) unchanged
b) increased
c) reduced
d) the same size as the relative dullness of the heart
331.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right ventricle in the
electrocardiogram of the heart electrical axis rejected:
a) to the right
b) up
c) to the left
d) to the left and downward
332.
The syndrome hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium is detected
on an electrocardiogram:
a) P-mitrale
b) P-pulmonale
c) P-cardiale
d) P-aortale
333.
In the sinus tachycardia heart rate within 1 minute:
a) less than 60
b) 60-90
c) 90-160
d) 160-240
e) more than 240
334.
The sinus bradycardia –is a slowing of the heart rate in 1 minute less
than:
a) 30
b)
c)
d)
e)
335.
a)
b)
c)
d)
336.
is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
40
50
60
90
In supraventricular extrasystoliaP wave on electrocardiogram is:
absent
instead wave F
instead wave f
to present complex QRS
In supraventricular extrasystoliathe complex QRS on electrocardiogram
absent
non-extended and not deformed
expanded and deformed
is not regular
If ventricular extrasystoliaP wave on electrocardiogram is:
a) absent
b) instead wave F
c) instead wave f
d) to present complex QRS
If ventricular extrasystoliathe complex QRS on electrocardiogram is:
a) absent
b) non-extended and not deformed
c) expanded and deformed
d) is not regular
In the sinus tachycardia heart rate within 1 minute:
a) 90-160
b) 160-240
c) 240-350
d) more than 350
In paroxysmal tachycardia, heart rate within 1 minute:
a) 90-160
b) 160-240
c) 240-350
d) more than 350
In atrial fibrillation pulse deficit is detected when the heart rate is:
a) less than 60 in 1 minute
b) from 60 to 90 in 1 minute
c) more than 90 in 1 minute
d) regardless of heart rate
In atrial fibrillation, the specific clinical sign is:
a) tachycardia
b) bradycardia
c) pulse deficit
d) at the end of the attack polyuria
e) Brady-tachycardia episodes
343.
The most specific sign of atrial fibrillation on the electrocardiogram is:
a) the absence of P wave
b) the wave F (f) instead of P waves
c) different intervals R-R
d) delta waves
344.
The patient noted the absence of P wave on electrocardiogram, instead
wave F (f), different intervals RR, irregular QRS. About what kind of
arrhythmia do you think:
a) sinus tachycardia
b) paroxysmal tachycardia
c) sinus arrhythmia
d) atrial fibrillation
e) ventricular fibrillation
345.
In ventricular fibrillation on electrocardiogram obtained:
a) the absence of QRS complexes and instead of small and
undifferentiated line
b) normal complexes QRS
c) expansion of the complex QRS
d) deformed complexes QRS
346.
In the AV blockade electrocardiographic PQ interval duration in
seconds:
a) <0.10
b) <0.12
c) 0,12-0,20
d) > 0.20
347.
The gradual lengthening of the PQ interval with the subsequent loss of
QRS on electrocardiogram is characteristic for:
a) intraatrial blockade
b) intraventricular block
c) A-V blockade of the I century
d) A-V block II senior Mobitz I
e) AV block II-senior Mobitz II
348.
The periodic loss of QRS with the constant PQ interval on the
electrocardiogram is typical for:
a) intraatrial blockade
b) intraventricular blockade
c) A-V block I st
d) A-V blockade II degreeMobitts I
e) A-V blockade II degree Mobitts II
349.
Classical localization of pain in angina:
a) the left half of the chest
b) the tip of the heart
c) the base of the xiphoid process
d) in the sternum
350.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
351.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
352.
a)
b)
c)
d)
353.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
354.
a)
b)
c)
d)
355.
a)
b)
c)
d)
356.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
357.
a)
b)
c)
d)
In angina on the electrocardiogram is noted:
ST-segment depression of 0.5 mm or more
ST-segment depression of 1.0 mm or more
ST segment elevation of 0.5 mm or more
ST-segment elevation of 1.0 mm or more
pathological tooth Q
In spontaneous angina on ECG noted:
ST-segment depression of 0.5 mm or more
ST-segment depression of 1.0 mm or more
ST segment elevation of 0.5 mm or more
ST-segment elevation of 1.0 mm or more
pathological tooth Q
In hypertensionthe sign of heart disease is:
aortic valve stenosis
the aortic valve
the wasting of the left ventricle
left ventricular hypertrophy
In hypertensionthe kidney damage manifests itself in the form of:
baruria
proteinuria of 1 g / l
leukocyturia
cylindruria
proteinuria above 3,5g / l
In hypertension the eye disease manifested as:
dilation of the arteries of the fundus
narrowing of arterioles of the fundus
the restriction venules fundus
expansion venules fundus
In hypertension the cardiac complications manifested in the form of:
heart disease
myocarditis
cardiomyopathy
angina, myocardial infarction and heart failure
In hypertension complications of the kidneys manifested as:
glomerulonephritis
pyelonephritis
renal amyloidosis
urolithiasis
glomerulosclerosis with chronic renal failure
In the mitral valve during auscultation I tone on the apex of the heart:
attenuated
emphasis (flapping)
unchanged
offline
358.
The insufficiencyof the mitral valve during cardiac auscultation
auscultated at the top:
a) diastolic murmur
b) systolic murmur
c) both systolic diastolic murmur
d) continuous systolic noise
359.
In the mitral valve during auscultation weakened tone I shall hear:
a) at the top of the heart
b) in II intercostal space on the left
c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
d) at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
360.
In the mitral valve during auscultation auscultated systolic murmur:
a) in II intercostal space on the left
b) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
c) at the apex of the heart
d) at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
361.
In mitral regurgitation on an echocardiogram marked regurgitation of
blood:
a) from the left ventricle into the left atrium during diastole
b) from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole
c) from the right ventricle to the right atrium during diastole
d) from the right ventricle to the right atrium during systole
362.
The patient's history as a teenager was an episode of arthritis of the knee.
Currently, the top auscultation revealed a weakening of the I tone and systolic
murmur. What kind of vice you think:
a) mitral stenosis
b) aortic insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) tricuspid valve
e) mitral regurgitation
363.
The patient during auscultation at the apex determined by the weakening
of the tone I and systolic murmur and a history of frequent sore throats. Your
diagnosis:
a) mitral stenosis
b) aortic insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) mitral insufficiency
e) the tricuspid valve
364.
The patient during auscultation at the apex determined by the weakening
of the I tone and systolic murmur, and echocardiogram shortening mitral valve
regurgitation of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during systole.
Your diagnosis is:
a) mitral stenosis
b) mitral insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) the tricuspid valve
365.
In mitral stenosis during auscultation I tone on the apex of the heart:
a) attenuated
b) emphasis (flapping)
c) unchanged
d) offline
366.
In mitral stenosis during the auscultation at the apex of the heart
auscultated:
a) systolic murmur
b) diastolic murmur
c) both systolic diastolic murmur
d) continuous systolic noise
367.
In mitral stenosis during auscultation reinforced (clapping) I tone is
heard:
a) at the apex of the heart
b) in II intercostal space on the left
c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
d) at the base of the xiphoid process of the sternum
368.
In mitral stenosis during auscultation diastolic murmur is heard:
a) in the apex of the heart
b) in II intercostal space on the left
c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
369.
In mitral stenosis during auscultation auscultated III tone which is called:
a) the pathological
b) extension or "tone of mitral valve opening"
c) the mitral
d) pulmonary
370.
In mitral stenosis during auscultation at the apex of the heart is listened
tripartite rhythm, called:
a) the "pendulum" rhythm "
b) "gallop"
c) "the rhythm of quail"
d) "embryonic" rhythm
371.
The patient at the apex auscultation revealed I emphasis tone, III
extension tone and diastolic murmur. In the history 3 years ago, there was an
episode of arthritis of the knee. What kind of heart defect you think:
a) mitral stenosis
b) aortic insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) tricuspid valve
e) mitral regurgitation
372.
The patient has a history of frequent sore throats, and is currently at the
top of auscultation determined emphasis (clapping) I tone, additional tone of
mitral valve opening and diastolic murmur. Your diagnosis:
a) aortic insufficiency
b) mitral stenosis
c) aortic stenosis
d) mitral insufficiency
e) the tricuspid valve
373.
The young woman during auscultation found at the top of the amplified
(clapping) I note, additional tone of mitral valve opening and diastolic murmur,
and echocardiogram thickening and fusion of the leaflets of the mitral valve.
Your diagnosis:
a) the tricuspid valve
b) mitral insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) mitral stenosis
374.
In aortic insufficiency during auscultation II tone in II intercostal space
on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb is:
a) emphasis (accent)
b) unchanged
c) weakened until its absence
d) saved
375.
In aortic insufficiency during auscultation in II intercostal space on the
right and at the point Botkin-Erb listened:
a) systolic murmur
b) diastolic murmur
c) both systolic and diastolic murmur
d) continuous systolic noise
376.
In aortic insufficiency during auscultation auscultated easing II tone:
a) at the top of the heart
b) in II intercostal space on the left
c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
377.
In aortic insufficiency during auscultation diastolic murmur auscultated:
a) in the apex of the heart
b) in II intercostal space on the left
c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
378.
During the femoral artery auscultation revealed a double Traube tone
and dual noise Vinogradova-Dyuraze. What kind of a syndrome
endocardiallesion in question:
a) mitral stenosis
b) mitral insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) failure of the tricuspid valve.
379.
In aortic regurgitation diastolic blood pressure:
a) is increased
b) decreased down to 0
c) normal
d) equals the systolic
380.
Under what form the endocardial lesions syndrome marked regurgitation
on an echocardiogram of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during
diastole:
a) mitral stenosis
b) mitral insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) failure of the tricuspid valve
381.
The patient in II intercostal space on the right and at the point BotkinErb auscultation revealed a weakening II tone and diastolic murmur. The
history after extraction for 2 months, low-grade fever worried. What kind of
vice you think:
a) mitral stenosis
b) aortic insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) tricuspid valve
e) mitral regurgitation
382.
The patient has a history of an episode of arthritis of large joints and
frequent sore throats, and now auscultation in II intercostal space on the right
and at the point Botkin-Erb identified easing II tone and diastolic murmur.
Your diagnosis:
a) aortic insufficiency
b) mitral stenosis
c) aortic stenosis
d) mitral insufficiency
e) the tricuspid valve
383.
A pregnant woman during auscultation in II intercostal space on the right
and at the point Botkin-Erb identified easing II tone and diastolic murmur, and
a history of episodes of acute rheumatic fever. Your diagnosis:
a) the tricuspid valve
b) mitral insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) mitral stenosis
384.
In aortic stenosis during auscultation II tone in II intercostal space to the
right of the sternum at the point Botkin-Erb is:
a) attenuated
b) emphasis (flapping)
c) unchanged
d) offline
385.
In aortic stenosis during auscultation in II intercostal space to the right of
the sternum at the point Botkin-Erb auscultated:
a) systolic murmur
b) diastolic murmur
c) both systolic and diastolic murmur
d) continuous systolic noise
386.
In aortic stenosis auscultated systolic murmur:
a) in the apex of the heart
b) in II intercostal space on the left
c) in II intercostal space on the right and at the point Botkin-Erb
d) on the basis of the xiphoid process of the sternum
387.
At what a syndrome of defeat endocardial systolic murmur conducted on
the carotid artery:
a) mitral stenosis
b) mitral insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) aortic insufficiency
e) failure of the tricuspid valve
388.
On auscultation the patient in II intercostal space on the right and at the
point Botkin-Erb identified easing II tone and systolic murmur. What kind of
heart defect you think:
a) mitral stenosis
b) aortic insufficiency
c) aortic stenosis
d) tricuspid valve
e) mitral regurgitation
389.
Elderly patients on an echocardiogram revealed the phenomenon of
aortic atherosclerosis, and auscultation in II intercostal space on the right and
at the point Botkin-Erb identified weakening II tone and systolic murmur. Your
diagnosis:
a) aortic insufficiency
b) aortic stenosis
c) mitral stenosis
d) mitral insufficiency
e) the tricuspid valve
390.
The syndrome of heart failure, primarily due to a violation of the
following cardiac function:
a) automatism
b) excitability
c) conductivity
d) contractility
391.
The syndrome of acute left ventricular heart failure (pulmonary edema)
during auscultation revealed:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
dry wheezing
sonorous wet finely wheezing
medium and large-bubbling crackles
nonsonorous moist finely wheezing
pleural rub
392.
For a variant of the syndrome of heart failure characterized by an attack
of inspiratory dyspnea, orthopnea position, noisy bubbling breath, the
allocation of frothy sputum, nonosonorous moist micro bubbling wheezing in
lungs:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular
393.
The syndrome of acute right heart failure is characterized by the rapid
development of:
a) inspiratory dyspnea turning into asthma
b) cough with frothy sputum
c) swelling of feet and legs
d) the provisions of orthopnea
394.
Acute (for a few minutes, and seconds) development of swelling of feet
and legs, diffuse cyanosis and swollen neck veins typical of the kind of
syndrome following heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular
395.
Acutely evolved hepatomegaly, ascites and anasarca are characteristic of
the following type syndrome of heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular
396.
Acutely evolved hydrothorax and hydropericardium characteristic of the
following type syndrome of heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular heart failure
397.
Slowly progressive inspiratory dyspnea on nat. load, then alone is
characteristic of the following type syndrome of heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular heart failure
398.
The appearance of tachycardia, dyspnea and inspiratory acrocyanosis
first during exercise and later at rest is typical for the following type syndrome
of heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular
399.
For a long time the detection of inspiratory dyspnea and non sonorous
crepitations in the lower lung auscultation is typical for the following type
syndrome of heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular
400.
Slowly (over months and years) development of swelling of feet and legs
occurs later in the form of the syndrome of heart failure:
a) acute left ventricular
b) chronic left ventricular
c) acute right ventricular
d) chronic right ventricular