Test. Cell cytosceleton and movement
1. What type of intermediate filaments strengthen epithelial cells?
a. Keratin
b. Vimentin
c. Lamin
d. Desmin
2. What secondary structure has a central domain of the intermediate filament subunit?
a. Alfa-helix
b. 4 alfa- helixes
c. Parallel β-sheets
d. Unparallel β-sheets
3. How are nuclear lamina disassembly regulated?
a. By proteolysis
b. By phosphorylation
c. By dephosphorylation
d. None of above
4. What is an organizing center for cilia?
a. Centrosome
b. Basal body
c. Cilia do not require an organizing center
5. Choose the better answer to describe a role of tubulin GTPase activity
a. Tubulin GTPase activity provides microtubule polymerization
b. Tubulin GTPase activity provides dynamic instability of microtubules
c. Tubulin GTPase activity regulates microtubule dynamics in response to external signals
d. Tubulin GTPase activity regulates tubulin turnover
6. Anticancer drugs such as Colchicines and Taxol stop mitosis affecting microtubules. How could
these drugs affect microtubule dynamics to stop mitosis? Check all right answers
a. Prevent microtubule polymerization
b. Prevent microtubule depolymerization
c. Prevent interactions of α/β subunits with γ-rings
d. Prevent interactions of α/β subunits with kinotochore
7. What cytoskeleton elements provide polarization of the nerve cell?
a. IF
b. Microtubules
c. Actin microfilament
8. What is direction of dynein-driven movement? Check all right answers
a. Cell periphery
b. Cell center
c. Centrosome
d. Cell cortex
9. What a class of actin-binding proteins controls microfilament stability?
a. Rulers
b. Nucleators
c. Bundlers
d. Motors
10. How does profilin control microfilament dynamics?
a. By microfilament capping
b. By increasing depolymerization rates
c. By increasing nucleotide exchange rates
d. By branch formation
11. Check bundlers and cross-linkers
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
a. ARP2/3
b. Spectrin
c. Fascin
d. Tropomyosin
Check all proteins that bind microfilaments to membrane
a. Catenin
b. Plectin
c. Spectrin
d. Annexin II
Check all proteins involved in lamellopodium formation
a. ARP2/3
b. Spectrin
c. Fascin
d. Profilin
Check all proteins involved in filopodium formation
a. ARP2/3
b. Spectrin
c. Fascin
d. Profilin
What GTPase controls rear end pulling?
a. Rho
b. Cdc42
c. Rac
d. Rab
How do small GTPAses control lamellopodium formation?
a. Via activation of WASP
b. Via phosphorylation of WASP
c. Via phosphorylation of ARP2/3
d. By binding ARP2/3 to membrane
Which of the following cell crawling steps is actin dependent?
a. Lamellopodium formation
b. Filopodium formation
c. Focal complexes formation
d. Trailing edge movement
How actin/myosin interactions can be switched on
a. By changes in Ca2+ concentrations
b. By phosphorylation of myosin light chain
c. By Ca2+ binding by tropomyosin
d. By Ca2+ binding by troponin
What is an energy source for cell rear pulling?
a. ATP
b. GTP
c. The process does not require energy
How intracellular pathogens such Listeria and Shigella perform intracellular movement? Check
all right answers
a. By using molecular motors
b. By actin assembly
c. By recruitment of ARP2/3 complex
d. By Rho activation
Test. Cell cytosceleton and movement
21. How are nuclear lamina assembly regulated?
e. By proteolysis
f. By phosphorylation
g. By dephosphorylation
h. None of above
22. What is an organizing center for cilia?
d. Centrosome
e. Basal body
f. Cilia do not require an organizing center
23. Choose the better answer to describe a role of tubulin GTPase activity
e. Tubulin GTPase activity provides microtubule polymerization
f. Tubulin GTPase activity provides dynamic instability of microtubules
g. Tubulin GTPase activity regulates microtubule dynamics in response to external signals
h. Tubulin GTPase activity regulates tubulin turnover
24. Anticancer drugs such as Colchicines and Taxol stop mitosis affecting microtubules. How could
these drugs affect microtubule dynamics to stop mitosis? Check all right answers
e. Prevent microtubule polymerization
f. Prevent microtubule depolymerization
g. Prevent interactions of α/β subunits with γ-rings
h. Prevent interactions of α/β subunits with kinotochore
25. What is direction of dynein-driven movement? Check all right answers
e. Cell periphery
f. Cell center
g. Centrosome
h. Cell cortex
26. What a class of actin-binding proteins controls microfilament stability?
e. Rulers
f. Nucleators
g. Bundlers
h. Motors
27. How does profilin control microfilament dynamics?
e. By microfilament capping
f. By increasing depolymerization rates
g. By increasing nucleotide exchange rates
h. By branch formation
28. Check all proteins that bind microfilaments to membrane
e. Catenin
f. Plectin
g. Spectrin
h. Annexin II
29. Check all proteins involved in lamellopodium formation
e. ARP2/3
f. Spectrin
g. Fascin
h. Profilin
30. Check all proteins involved in filopodium formation
e. ARP2/3
f. Spectrin
g. Fascin
h. Profilin
31. Which of the following cellular projections are microtubule-based? Check all right answers
a. Cilia
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
b. Filopodia
c. Flagella
d. Lamellopodia
What GTPase controls filopodium formation?
a. Rho
b. Cdc42
c. Rac
d. Rab
What GTPase controls rear end pulling?
e. Rho
f. Cdc42
g. Rac
h. Rab
Which of the following cell crawling steps is actin dependent?
e. Lamellopodium formation
f. Filopodium formation
g. Focal complexes formation
h. Trailing edge movement
How actin/myosin interactions can be switched on
e. By increase in Ca2+ concentrations
f. By phosphorylation of myosin light chain
g. By Ca2+ binding by tropomyosin
h. By Ca2+ binding by troponin
What is an energy source for cell rear pulling?
d. ATP
e. GTP
f. The process does not require energy
How intracellular pathogens such Listeria and Shigella perform intracellular movement? Check
all right answers
e. By using molecular motors
f. By actin assembly
g. By recruitment of ARP2/3 complex
h. By Rho activation
What receptors are targets of Listeria monocytogenes virulence factors? Check all right answers
a. EGFR
b. HGFR
c. E-cadherin
d. Integrin
What nucleotide controls conformation of tubulin?
a. ATP
b. dATP
c. GTP
d. dGTP
What nucleotide controls conformation of actin?
a. ATP
b. dATP
c. GTP
d. dGTP
1. What is a major feature that characterizes a lipid bilayer as a 2D fluid?
a. Ability of lipids to make a flip-flop
b. Ability to change a form of the surface
c. Ability of membrane molecules to diffuse laterally
d. None of the above
2. What is an average size of a lipid raft
a. 5 nm
b. 50 nm
c. 500 nm
d. 50 mkm
3. What are features that are characteristic for raftophilic proteins? Check all of them
a. Palmytolation
b. Myristylation
c. GPI-anchoring
d. Glycosylation
4. What protein is not associated with rafts?
a. EGFR
b. eNOS
c. cytochrome c
d. Src kinase
5. What is a structural difference between apical and basolateral membranes in epithelial
cells
a. Basolateral membrane does not include rafts
b. The apical membrane is mostly raftous while basolateral is not
c. The apical membrane includes multiple caveolae
d. The apical membrane is less rigid than basolateral
6. How viruses exploit host membrane rafts
a. As a platform for nucleoprotein synthesis
b. As a platform for bud formation
c. As a source of cholesterol
d. As a source of specific host proteins
7. What a disease that can be characterized as raft associated
a. Influenza
b. Alzheimer’s
c. Parkinson’s
d. Cancer
e. All of above
8. The role of cholesterol in Alzheimer’s disease is determined by
a. The role of rafts in APP processing
b. The role of rafts in accumulation of β-amyloid peptide targets
c. The role of rafts in converging of β- and γ-secretase
d. All of above
e. None of above
9. α-secretase in involved in CHECK ALL RIGHT ANSWERS
a. β-amyloid peptide processing
b. APP processing
c. Prevention of β-amyloid peptide processing
d. Alzheimer’s disease development
10. The EGFR transmembrane domain consists of
a. α-spiral
b. 7 α-spirals
c. β-barrel
d. None of above
11. TNFR is .. CHECK ALL RIGHT ANSWERS
a. Transmembrane protein
b. Integral protein
c. Peripheral protein
d. Death domain-containing protein
12. Transmembrane β-barrel is formed by … CHECK ALL RIGHT ANSWERS
a. 7 α-spirals
b. Parallel β—sheets
c. Unparallel β—sheets
d. α-spirals and β—sheets
13. What a process is raft-depdendent
a. CME
b. Caveolar endocytosis
c. Macropinocytosis
d. Phagocytosis
14. Check ALL dynamin-dependent endocytic pathways
a. CME
b. Caveolar endocytosis
c. Macropinocytosis
d. Phagocytosis
15. Check protein(s) which are NOT involved in CME
a. Clathrin
b. Endophilin
c. Milk fat globule EGF factor 9
d. AP-2
16. What process is quicker
a. CME is quicker than caveolar endocytosis
b. caveolar endocytosis is quicker than CME
17. What a pathway aimed for uptaking big particles
a. CME
b. caveolar endocytosis
c. macropinocytosis
d. phagocytosis
18. Membrane ruffling happens in the course of
a. CME
b. Caveolar endocytosis
c. Macropinocytosis
d. Phagocytosis
19. What are chemical substance(s) that are involved in “find me” signaling of apoptotic
cells. CHECK ALL
a. Lipids
b. Peptides
c. Aminoglycosids
d. Nucleotides
20. What is a SHORT-DISTANCE secreted signal that attracts macrophages to apoptotic
cells
a. PtdSer
b. ATP
c. LPC
d. cAMP
1. What is an organelle(s) that supports a transport of fully folded proteins from cytosol?
a. Mitochondria
b. ER
c. Nucleus
d. Golgi
2. How do ribosomes attach to ER?
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a. Due to ribosome binding to a translocator protein
b. Due to ribosome interactions with ER receptors
c. Due to mRNA binding to a translocator protein
d. Due to synthesizing protein binding to a translocator protein
What happens with a sorting signal sequence upon protein entering ER?
a. It is released into ER lumen together with a whole protein
b. It is cut
c. It is modified
What is Ran? Choose the better answer
a. Small GTPase
b. Small GTPase that controls nuclear import
c. Small GTPase that control nuclear traffic
d. Small GTPase that recognize nuclear sorting signal
How do cells secrete proteins? Check all right answers
a. By secretory vesicles
b. By translocators
c. Via ion channels
d. By unregulated endocytosis
Mitochondria carry DNA. Where does transcription of mitochondrial DNA take place?
a. In mitochondria
b. In nucleus
c. In cytoplasm
d. In ER
Where does translation of mitochondrial proteins take place?
a. In mitochondria
b. In nucleus
c. In cytoplasm
d. In ER
What is a signal recognition particle function?
a. To deliver newly synthesized proteins to the nucleus
b. To deliver newly synthesizing proteins to ER
c. To deliver newly synthesizing proteins to mitochondria
d. To deliver newly synthesizing proteins to plasma membrane
What is the unfolded protein response
a. Response to excessive accumulation of misfolded proteins in ER
b. Response to excessive accumulation of misfolded proteins in cytoplasm
c. Response to phagocytosis
d. Response to macropinocytosis
How are proteins delivered from ER to Golgi?
a. By diffusion
b. With vesicular transport
c. With SRP
d. With VBL
What are surface proteins that mediate docking and fusion of intracellular vesicles with the target
organells?
a. Rab
b. SNARE-v
c. SNARE-t
d. SNARE-d
What can be a further pathway for endocytosed molecules?
a. Degradation
b. Recycling
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
c. Transcytosis
d. All of above
What is special about autophagy? Check all right answers
a. The only way to destroy unfolded proteins
b. The only way to destroy organelles
c. Formation of a double membrane restricted organelle
d. Merging with ER
What are intracellular sites of protein degradation? Check all right answers
a. Lysosomes
b. Early endosomes
c. Late endosomes
d. Proteosomes
How lysosomal proteins are protected from digestion?
a. By antidigestion sequences
b. By glycosylation
c. By palmytolation
d. By myristylation
What is a major quality control step for newly synthesized proteins?
a. Entrance into the ER
b. Exit from the ER
c. Entrance into the lysosomes
d. Exit from the lysosomes
Where disulfide bond formation takes place?
a. In cytoplasm
b. In the ER
c. In the Golgi
d. In the transport vesicles
The Figure shows a fate of the endocytised receptor, please write what processes are marked with
numbers
18.
1
19. 2
20. 3
21. Check all organelles that are a part of the endomembrane system
a. Nucleus
b. ER
c. Golgi
d. Mitochondria
22. What is a cis-acting signaling mechanism to guide newly synthesized protein to a particularly
organelle?
a. Translocator
b. Signal recognition particle
c. Sorting signal sequence
d. Transmembrane α-helix
23. What is an organelle(s) that supports a transport of fully folded proteins from cytosol?
e. Mitochondria
f. ER
g. Nucleus
h. Golgi
24. Mitochondria carry DNA. Where does transcription of mitochondrial DNA take place?
e. In mitochondria
f. In nucleus
g. In cytoplasm
h. In ER
25. Where does translation of mitochondrial proteins take place?
e. In mitochondria
f. In nucleus
g. In cytoplasm
h. In ER
26. What is a signal recognition particle function?
e. To deliver newly synthesized proteins to the nucleus
f. To deliver newly synthesizing proteins to ER
g. To pass newly synthesizing proteins to ER
h. To deliver newly synthesizing proteins to plasma membrane
27. Check all major functions of ER
a. Protein folding
b. Protein glycosylation
c. Lipid synthesis
d. Transcription control
28. What is the unfolded protein response
e. Response to excessive accumulation of misfolded proteins in ER
f. Response to excessive accumulation of misfolded proteins in cytoplasm
g. Response to phagocytosis
h. Response to macropinocytosis
29. How are proteins delivered from ER to Golgi?
e. By diffusion
f. With vesicular transport
g. With SRP
h. With VBL
30. What are surface proteins that mediate docking and fusion of intracellular vesicles with the target
organells?
e. Rab
f. SNARE-v
g. SNARE-t
h. SNARE-d
31. Where does lipid synthesis take place?
a. Cytoplasm
b. Nucleus
c. ER
d. Golgi
32. What can happen with a surface receptor upon ligand binding. Check all right answers
a. Conformational changes
b. Oligomerization
c. Endocytosis
d. Nothing
33. What can be a further pathway for endocytosed molecules?
e. Degradation
f. Recycling
g. Transcytosis
h. All of above
34. How proteins can enter the cell? Check all answers
a. Via receptors
b. Via translocators
c. Via phagocytosis
d. Via macropinocytosis
35. What is special about autophagy? Check all right answers
e. The only way to destroy unfolded proteins
f. The only way to destroy organelles
g. Formation of a double membrane bound organelle
h. Merging with ER
36. The process is _________________________________
37. B is
38. D is
39. E is
40. F is
1. Write, what a usual participant of intracellular cascades is missed in the row
Extracellular signals
Receptors
Effector proteins
2. If signaling is mediated by protein phosphorylation, what is the enzyme involved in signal
transduction inhibition
a. Kinase
b. Phosphatase
c. Phosphorylase
d. GTPase
3. Check all residues that can be targets of protein kinases
a. Threonine
b. Tyrosine
c. Triptophan
d. Histidine
4. What is an “active” state for G-protein
a. GDP-bound
b. GTP-bound
c. ADP- bound
d. ATP-bound
5. What is a structure of the transmembrane domain of GPCR?
a. alfa-helix
b. 7 alfa-helixes
c. 9 alfa-helixes
d. Beta-barrel
6. Check all proteins which are integral membrane proteins
a. GPCR
b. G-protein
c. Small GTPase
d. Tyrosine kinase receptor
7. What are ligands of the paracrine system
a. Adrenaline
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epidermal Growth Factor
d. Nitric oxide
8. How G-proteins are anchored in the membrane?
a. Via lipid anchors
b. Via alfa-helix
c. Via interactions with GPCR
d. Via ion-channels
9. Upon GPCR activation, what happens with G-protein? Check all right answers
a. It binds GPCR
b. It dissociate from GPCR
c. It changes its conformation
d. It hydrolazes GTP to GDP
10. How G-proteins pass the signal? Check all right answers
a. By target chemical modification
b. By target conformational modification
c. By passing a phosphate group
d. By protein-protein interactions
11. How GPCR activity is regulated? Check all right answers
a. By a ligand binding
b. By phosphorylation
c. By endocytosis
d. By GTPase activating proteins
12. Check all factors that support small GTPase active state
a. GPCR
b. GDI
c. GEF
d. GAP
13. Check all molecules that can function as second messengers
a. cAMP
b. ATP
c. IP3
d. NO
14. What is a major target(s) of cAMP signaling
a. PKA
b. PKC
c. PKG
d. CREB
15. What is an enzyme that inhibits cAMP signaling
a. Adenylyl cyclase
b. cAMP phosphodiesterase
c. Phosholipase
d. GTPase
16. Check the enzyme involved in glycogen breakdown
GTPase
Adenylyl cyclase
PKA
Phosphorylase kinase
Glycogen phosphorylase
17. What is a protein(s) involved in cAMP signaling
a. GS
b. Gq
c. Rho
d. Ras
18. What kind of receptor(s) are involved in regulation of cAMP signaling
a. GPCR
b. TKR
c. EGFR
d. HGFR
19. Where intracellular Ca2+ is stored? Check all right answers
a. In ER
b. In mitochondria
c. In cytoplasm
d. In nucleus
20. What are Ca2+ targets?
a. PLC
b. PKC
c. CAMK
d. calmoduline
1. What is a target of IP3
a. PKA
b. PKC
c. PLC
d. Ca2+ ion channels
2. What is a target of DAG
a. PKA
b. PKC
c. PLC
d. Ca2+ ion channels
3. What enzyme produces IP3 and DAG
a. PKA
b. PKC
c. PLC
d. Ca2+ ion channels
4. What is a receptor for cGMP signaling?
a. GPCR
b. ECR
c. TKR
d. Membrane guanylate cyclase
5. What is a target for cGMP?
a. PKA
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
b. PKC
c. PKG
d. PKM
What is a name for a photon receptor of the phosphotransduction system?
a. Rhodopsin
b. Transducin
c. Integrin
d. Calmodulin
What cascade is not induced by Ras?
a. MAPK
b. PI3K/Akt
c. Adenylyl cyclase/PKA
d. IP3/DAG
What is a role of PtdIns(3,4,5)P3 in Ras signaling cascade?
a. Second messenger
b. Transient lipid anchor
c. Effector protein
d. Adaptor protein
Anti-apoptotic effects of the PI3K/Akt pathway are mediated by… Check all right answers
a. Bad/Bax phosphorylation
b. p53 activation
c. NF-kB activation
d. Caspase 9 inactivation
NF-kB is … Check all right answers
a. A receptor
b. A transcription factor
c. A kinase
d. An adaptor protein
What is a signal that targets a protein to proteasome
a. Ubiquitination
b. Wrong folding
c. Signal peptide
d. Chaperone
How PI3K/Akt controls cell growth?
a. Via ubiquitin
b. Via IKK
c. Via TOR
d. Via MAPK
Which of listed proteins in signal pathways initiated by both GPCRs and TKRs
a. Gs-protein
b. Small GTPase Ras
c. PLC
d. PI3K
PKA belongs to superfamily of…
a. Tyrosine kinases
b. Serine/threonine kinases
Notch receptor interacts with …
a. Acetylcholine
b. Adrenaline
c. Growth factors
d. Delta signal protein
The intracellular domain of the Notch receptor is
a. Tyrosine protein kinase
b. Serine/Threonine kinase
c. Guanilate cyclase
d. Transcription factor
17. In the absence of a ligand plant receptor protein kinase is
a. Constantly active
b. Constantly inactive
18. What type of a receptor
is designated with a number 1
19. What type of a receptor
is designated with a number 2
20. What type of a receptor
is designated with a number 3
1. Which of the following characteristics is not typical for apoptotic cells?
a. Fragmentation of nuclear DNA and formation of nucleosomal fragments
b. Cytosolic and nuclear condensation
c. Cell shrinkage
d. Membrane disruption
2. What protein is involved in DNA fragmentation during apoptosis?
a. Caspase 3
b. DNase
c. Caspase 9
d. Bax
3. Which of the listed proteins a pro-apoptotic? Check all
a. Bax
b. Bak
c. Bcl-2XL
d. Bcl-2
4. What is a major initiator caspase involved in intrinsic apoptotic pathway?
a. Caspase 3
b. Caspase 7
c. Caspase 8
d. Caspase 9
5. What component which is not a part of DISC
a. TNFR
b. FADD
c. Procaspase 8
d. Procaspase 3
6. What are cell targets of effector caspases? Check all right answers
a. Microfilaments
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
b. Lamins
c. Death receptors
d. p53
What is a role of cytochrome C in apoptosis development?
a. It changes plasma membrane potential
b. It changes mitochondrion membrane potential
c. It is a structural part of apoptosome
d. It is a regulator of DNA hydrolysis
Which lipid is a major marker of apoptotic cells?
a. Phosphatidylethanolamine
b. Phosphatidylinosytol
c. Phosphatidylserin
d. Phosphatidylinosytol-tri-phosphate
What are factors that can be considered as survival factors? Check all right answers
a. NF-kB
b. p53
c. Bcl-2
d. TOR
What a major signaling pathway involved in inhibition of apoptosis?
a. MAPK
b. PI3K/Akt
c. PLCγ
d. Ras
Which of the following ligands might be designated as mitogens?
a. EGF
b. TNF
c. PDGF
d. FASL
Nerve cells lacking functional caspase 9 are cultured in the presence of nerve growth factor.
Expression of a constitutively active version of which of the following proteins could induce
apoptosis in these cells?
a. Apaf-1
b. Bad
c. Bcl-2
d. Caspase 3
Check all right answers that describe tumor suppressor genes
a. Tumor-suppressor genes often have a repressive effect on the regulation of the cell cycle
b. Cancerogenic mutations in tumor suppressor genes are dominant
c. Cancerogenic mutations in tumor suppressor genes could be due to loose of function
d. Cancerogenic mutations in tumor suppressor genes could be due to gene duplication
What does it mean “Ligand autocrine loop”
a. It means that the production of the ligand by the cell further increases production of the
ligand?
b. It means that the ligand is produced by the cell that carries receptors responding for this
ligand?
Check the right answers that described potential carcinogenic effects of steroid hormones on
EGFR
a. Steroid hormones can directly bind EGFR and activate it
b. Steroid hormones can influence EGFR signaling by activating the transcription of genes
encoding EGFR ligands
c. Steroid hormones can transactivate EGFR via interaction with a specific GPCR
d. Steroid hormones can affect downstream kinases
Loss-of-function mutations in which of the following might be found in a cancer cell?
17.
18.
19.
20.
a. Bax
b. Bcl-2
c. Ras
d. Growth factor receptor
Which of the following proteins could be tumor suppressors? Check all right answers
a. pRB
b. Cdk2
c. Bak
d. Raf
Mutations that inactivate CDC25 will be in …
a. Oncogenes
b. Tumor suppressor genes
Which mechanisms used by viruses make viruses oncogenic?
a. Mechanisms that cause a rapid cell death
b. Mechanisms that provide virus assembly
c. Mechanisms of RNA reverse transcription
d. Mechanisms of apoptosis prevention
How acts telomerase?
a. It synthesizes DNA on the matrix of RNA
b. It adds available heptanucleotides to the free 3’ end of the chromosome
c. It synthesizes second strand of DNA on the matrix of DNA
d. It binds free ends of chromosome to prevent their degradation
1. Cell usually increases its size during … Check all phases when the cell grows in size.
a. S
b. G2
c. M
d. G1
2. What checkpoint control DNA integrity? Check all write answers
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
3. Which of listed mechanisms is not involved in the cell cycle control?
a. Targeted hydrolysis
b. Binding of inhibitory proteins
c. Transcriptional regulation
d. Autophagy
4. Which pair is wrong
a. G1-Cdk=CyclinD/Cdk4/6
b. G1/S-Cdk=CyclinE/Cdk2
c. S-Cdk=CyclinA/Cdk1
d. M-Cdk=MPF
5. Anaphase-promoting complex is a
a. Kinase
b. Ubiquitinase
c. Protease
d. Phosphorylase
6. Cdk1/CyclinB is regulated by CDC25 via
a. Dephosphorylation of the Cyclin subunit
b. Dephosphorylation of the kinase subunit
c. Phosphorylation of the Cyclin subunit
d. Phosphorylation of the kinase subunit
7. Retinoblastoma protein is … Check all right answers
a. A transcriptional regulator
b. An inhibitor of a transcriptional regulator
c. regulated by by phosphorylation/dephosphorylation
d. regulated by CyclinE/Cdk2
8. MAPK regulates initiation of the cell cycle …
a. via phosphorylation of Cyclin D
b. via phosphorylation of Cdk4
c. via phosphorylation of a transcription factor
d. via phosphorylation of pRB
9. p53 can arrest cell cycle in G1 checkpoint by
a. activation of p21 transcription
b. activation of CDC25 transcription
c. inhibition of Cyclin D transcription
d. inhibition of Cyclin E transcription
10. Which factor initiates DNA replication in the S-phase
a. Cdk4/6/CyclinD
b. Cdk2/CyclinE
c. Cdk2/CyclinA
d. Cdk1/CyclinB
11. What are critical steps of the G2/M transition? Check all right answers
a. Degradation of cyclinA
b. Dephosphorylation of CDC25
c. Phosphorylation of CDC25
d. Dephosphorylation of Cdk1/CyclinB
12. Cdk1/CyclinB=MPF =M-Cdk activate condensins by
a. Phosphorylation
b. Dephosphorylation
c. Transcription activation
d. Activation of APC
13. Cohesins link
a. two DNA strands
b. two chromatids
c. two X chromosomes
d. the pair of chromosomes
14. What protein cuts cohesions
a. CyclinB/Cdk1
b. Condensin
c. Separase
d. Securin
15. At what phase chromosomes are all lined up at the equatorial plane
a. Prophase
a. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
16. What kinases are involved in the assembly of the nuclear lamina? Check all right answers
a. Cdk1
b. Cdk2
c. PKC
d. PKA
17. What actin-binding proteins are involved in contractile ring contraction?
a. ARP2/3
b. profilin
c. formin
d. tau
18. What is a role of mitogens?
a. To stimulate cell growth
b. To stimulate cell division
c. To stimulate mitosis
d. To stimulate apoptosis
19. Plant cell do not have centrosomes. What are structures that stimulate the assembly of the
mitotic spindle?
a. chromosomes
b. nucleus
c. plasma membrane
d. cell wall
20. What designations for microtubules associated with chromatids?
a. kinetochore microtubules
b. aster microtubules
c. interpolar microtubules
d. aquatorial microtubules