BIO 224 Exam 1
Multiple choice (2 pts ea)
1. The feature that most clearly separates eukaryotes from prokaryotes is the
presence of _______ in eukaryotic cells.
a. ribosomes
b. oxidative phosphorylation
c. DNA molecules
d. a nucleus
2. The bacterial genome is located in a portion of the cell called the
a. nucleus.
b. nucleoid.
c. mesosome.
d. nucleophyll.
3. E. coli is a good model system for molecular biology studies because
a. it has a small genome.
b. it reproduces rapidly.
c. mutants can easily be isolated from culture dishes.
d. All of the above
4. The light microscope was used to observe the cellular structure of cork by
_______, who named the chambers “cells.”
a. Schleiden and Schwann
b. Hooke
c. Virchow
d. Pasteur
5. Fluorescent-labeled antibodies are primarily used on cells to locate a specific
a. DNA sequence.
b. RNA sequence.
c. protein.
d. carbohydrate.
6. Living cells are most commonly visualized by means of _______
microscopy.
a. phase-contrast.
b. bright-field.
c. fluorescence.
d. electron.
7. Electron microscopes have an advantage over light microscopes because
a. electron microscopes allow the viewer to examine living cells.
b. electron microscopes have a larger objective aperture.
c. electron microscopes are easier to use.
d. the wavelength of electrons is shorter than that of light.
8. Green fluorescent protein is used to
a. label antibodies.
b. visualize proteins in living cells.
c. photobleach other fluorescent proteins.
d. label DNA sequences.
9. The method by which cell components are separated by centrifugation at
progressively higher speeds is called _______ centrifugation.
a. differential
b. velocity
c. density-gradient
d. equilibrium
10. The growth factor that stimulates fibroblasts to divide around a wound is
released by
a. other fibroblasts.
b. capillary endothelial cells.
c. platelets.
d. lymphocytes.
11. Approximately how many doublings can normal human fibroblasts undergo
in culture?
a. 50 to 100
b. They will go on proliferating indefinitely.
c. They will not double at all, but dispersing them in culture allows them to be
studied in isolation from other cell types.
d. five
12. The eukaryotic cell cycle is composed of four phases in the following order:
a. G1; G2; S; M.
b. G1; S; G2; M.
c. G1; M; G2; S.
d. S; G1; G2; M.
13. What percent of the cell cycle is spent in interphase in a typical cycling
mammalian cell?
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 75%
d. 50%
14. The G1 checkpoint in budding yeast cells is called
a. START.
b. the restriction point.
c. the decision point.
d. the G1/S boundary.
15. The G1 checkpoint in animal cells is called
a. START.
b. the restriction point.
c. the decision point.
d. the G1/S boundary
16. Passage of animal cells through the cell cycle is regulated primarily by
a. availability of nutrients.
b. intracellular second messengers.
c. extracellular growth factors.
d. direct cell surface interactions.
17. Skin fibroblasts arrested in G0 are stimulated near a wound to enter G1 by
_______ growth factor.
a. epidermal
b. platelet-derived
c. fibroblast
d. keratinocyte
18. Maturation promotion factor (MFP) discovered by Masui and Markert was
the factor that
a. was missing in the cdc2 mutant in yeast.
b. induced entry into meiosis when injected into frog oocytes.
c. fluctuated in amount during early cleavages of sea urchin eggs.
d. fluctuated in amount during the cell cycle of mammalian cells.
19. MPF is a
a. monomeric protein kinase.
b. dimer of two molecules of Cdk1.
c. dimer of Cdk1 and cyclin A.
d. dimer of Cdk1 and cyclin B.
20. Two sea urchin proteins were named cyclin A and B because during the
embryonic cell cycle they were periodically
a. activated and inactivated by phosphorylation and dephosphorylation.
b. synthesized and degraded.
c. bound and released by another protein.
d. None of the above
21. What features do all cells have in common?
a. plasma membrane
b. DNA as their genetic material
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
22. What are the two main cell types?
a. Prokaryote and eukaryote
b. Virus and bacterial
c. Mammal and plant
d. Protist and moneran
e. Robert Hooke
23. Molecules composed of both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions are called:
a. Amphibious
b. Amphipathic
c. Amorphous
d. Ambidextrous
24. Eubacteria are found primarily where?
a. Thermal vents on the ocean floor
b. Antarctica
c. Everywhere normal bacteria are found
d. In hot sulfur springs
25. The cell theory states:
a. All cells are created equal
b. All organisms are composed of cells
c. All cells come from preexisting cells
d. Both B and D are correct
26. Name three characteristics of life, and describe the meaning of each. (5 pts)
27. Name the stages of interphase, and describe what is occurring during each
stage. (5 pts)
28. What is the function of the spindle assembly checkpoint in cell division? (5
pts)
29. Diagram or list and describe the stages of meiosis. Clearly indicate what is
occurring in each stage. After what stage do cells become haploid? (10 pts)
30. What is the structure and function of the synaptomenal complex, and where
would it be found? (5 pts)
31. What is programmed cell death? What specific steps take place during
programmed cell death? Why would programmed cell death occur? Why is
programmed cell death necessary in living organisms? Why is programmed
cell death more advantageous for an adult organism than non-programmed
cell death? (15 pts)
32. Provide three examples of (normal) human cells that, in their fully
differentiated form, can no longer proliferate but can be replaced by means of
stem cell proliferation and differentiation. (5pts)
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