PCI
Study Guide
Sample
Questions
1.
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Business crime losses are typically
the result of:
a. Non-violent acts committed by insiders.
b. Non-violent acts committed by outsiders.
c. Violent acts committed by insiders.
d. Violent acts committed by outsiders.
1.
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Business crime losses are typically
the result of:
a. Non-violent acts committed by insiders.
b. Non-violent acts committed by outsiders.
c. Violent acts committed by insiders.
d. Violent acts committed by outsiders.
2.
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Competitive intelligence acquisition
is a process of the collection of
information using:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Open sources and interviews.
Radio frequency transmitters.
Wiretaps.
Manipulation of safes and locks to gain
access to the information.
2.
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Competitive intelligence acquisition
is a process of the collection of
information using:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Open sources and interviews.
Radio frequency transmitters.
Wiretaps.
Manipulation of safes and locks to gain
access to the information.
3.
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The most important and generally
the most expensive type of
countermeasure is:
a. Hardware.
b. Software.
c. People.
d. Competitive Intelligence
3.
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The most important and generally
the most expensive type of
countermeasure is:
a. Hardware.
b. Software.
c. People.
d. Competitive Intelligence
4.
A fraud called “lapping” that is
committed in the accounts
receivable unit involves:
• a. Posting the payment twice to the same
customer account.
• b. Delaying the posting of a cash payment to
cover a prior theft.
• c. Posting a cash payment to the account of a
confederate.
• d. Posting a cash payment to a customer
account only on a date that is agreeable to
the customer.
4.
A fraud called “lapping” that is
committed in the accounts
receivable unit involves:
• a. Posting the payment twice to the same
customer account.
• b. Delaying the posting of a cash payment to
cover a prior theft.
• c. Posting a cash payment to the account of a
confederate.
• d. Posting a cash payment to a customer
account only on a date that is agreeable to
the customer.
5.
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Studies of workplace theft have
shown that approximately:
a. One-third of the employees reported stealing
company property, but a small number of employees
take large amounts of property.
b. Three-fourths of the employees reported stealing
company property and the vast majority take small
amounts of property.
c. Less than one-fourth of the employees reported
stealing company property but the vast majority take
large amounts of property.
d. Less than ten percent of the employees reported
stealing company property but the vast majority take
large amounts of property.
5.
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Studies of workplace theft have
shown that approximately:
a. One-third of the employees reported stealing
company property, but a small number of employees
take large amounts of property.
b. Three-fourths of the employees reported stealing
company property and the vast majority take small
amounts of property.
c. Less than one-fourth of the employees reported
stealing company property but the vast majority take
large amounts of property.
d. Less than ten percent of the employees reported
stealing company property but the vast majority take
large amounts of property.
6.
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The Clark and Hollinger studies of
workplace theft are instructive in
formulating loss prevention policies and
procedures particularly in the finding that
the single most predictor of theft was the
employee’s:
a. Need for the assets.
b. Relative rank in the organizational hierarchy.
c. Perceived chance of being detected.
d. Marital status.
6.
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The Clark and Hollinger studies of
workplace theft are instructive in
formulating loss prevention policies and
procedures particularly in the finding that
the single most predictor of theft was the
employee’s:
a. Need for the assets.
b. Relative rank in the organizational hierarchy.
c. Perceived chance of being detected.
d. Marital status.
7.
Studies have found that, for
employees who engaged in theft, the
most important consideration was the:
• a. Organizational sanctions
• b. Informal social controls such as peer group
gossip, ridicule and ostracism.
• c. Familial social sanctions.
• d. Media exposure.
7.
Studies have found that, for
employees who engaged in theft, the
most important consideration was the:
• a. Organizational sanctions
• b. Informal social controls such as peer group
gossip, ridicule and ostracism.
• c. Familial social sanctions.
• d. Media exposure.
8.
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As a result of the Clark and Hollinger
studies, the overall message to
organizations attempting to deter theft by
employees is:
a. Installing multiple levels of security devices to
control theft will instill a sense of satisfaction among
employees.
b. Providing major security systems creates an
environment in which theft is all but impossible.
c. Showing sincere concern for the individual’s
contribution to the organization instills a sense of
ownership and feelings of belonging.
d. Creating strong control systems of internal control
instills a sense of well being in employees.
8.
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As a result of the Clark and Hollinger
studies, the overall message to
organizations attempting to deter theft by
employees is:
a. Installing multiple levels of security devices to
control theft will instill a sense of satisfaction among
employees.
b. Providing major security systems creates an
environment in which theft is all but impossible.
c. Showing sincere concern for the individual’s
contribution to the organization instills a sense of
ownership and feelings of belonging.
d. Creating strong control systems of internal control
instills a sense of well being in employees.
9.
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Cressy’s theory holds that the following
three elements must be present before a
fraud or similar crime takes place:
a. A lack of administrative controls, inadequate
supervision, and the ability to rationalize the
behavior.
b. Substance abuse, opportunity for a trust violation,
and inadequate supervision.
c. A non-sharable problem, an opportunity for a trust
violation, and a series of rationalizations for the
behavior.
d. An opportunity for a trust violation, a lack of
administrative controls, and the ability to rationalize
the trust violation.
9.
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Cressy’s theory holds that the following
three elements must be present before a
fraud or similar crime takes place:
a. A lack of administrative controls, inadequate
supervision, and the ability to rationalize the
behavior.
b. Substance abuse, opportunity for a trust violation,
and inadequate supervision.
c. A non-sharable problem, an opportunity for a trust
violation, and a series of rationalizations for the
behavior.
d. An opportunity for a trust violation, a lack of
administrative controls, and the ability to rationalize
the trust violation.
10. Which of the following is NOT an
attribute of an effective theft and
fraud prevention program:
• a.
• b.
• c.
• d.
A process for screening all applicants for past trust
violations.
Control consciousness fostered throughout the organization
including written policies describing
prohibited activities
and the action required if
violations are noted.
Periodic employee communications that include case histories,
avoiding the use of names or other descriptors, demonstrating
vulnerabilities and management actions against those who
commit theft or fraud.
Periodic publicity throughout the organization of case histories
of theft and fraud including the names and departments of the
violators and the actions, including prosecution, taken against
them.
10. Which of the following is NOT an
attribute of an effective theft and
fraud prevention program:
• a.
• b.
• c.
• d.
A process for screening all applicants for past trust
violations.
Control consciousness fostered throughout the organization
including written policies describing
prohibited activities
and the action required if
violations are noted.
Periodic employee communications that include case histories,
avoiding the use of names or other descriptors, demonstrating
vulnerabilities and management actions against those who
commit theft or fraud.
Periodic publicity throughout the organization of case histories
of theft and fraud including the names and departments of the
violators and the actions, including prosecution, taken against
them.
11.
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Which of the following is not relevant
in determining physical protection for
a cargo handling facility?
a. Cargo packaging.
b. Cargo volume.
c. Cargo value.
d. Place of cargo origin.
11.
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Which of the following is not relevant
in determining physical protection for
a cargo handling facility?
a. Cargo packaging.
b. Cargo volume.
c. Cargo value.
d. Place of cargo origin.
12. Pilferage involves:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Extensive planning.
Little planning or technique.
Complex theft techniques.
Access to the shipping and storage
documents for a particular shipment.
12. Pilferage involves:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
Extensive planning.
Little planning or technique.
Complex theft techniques.
Access to the shipping and storage
documents for a particular shipment.
13. The sole purpose of seals is to:
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a. Prevent entry.
b. Indicate tampering.
c. Determine the honesty of employees.
d. Provide a record of asset movement.
13. The sole purpose of seals is to:
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a. Prevent entry.
b. Indicate tampering.
c. Determine the honesty of employees.
d. Provide a record of asset movement.
14.
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The type of lock specifically
designed to secure a truck trailer
which is parked unattended overnight is:
a. A shrouded padlock.
b. A trailer pin or kingpin lock.
c. A double laminated lock.
d. A seven pin lock with a hardened shackle.
14.
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The type of lock specifically
designed to secure a truck trailer
which is parked unattended overnight is:
a. A shrouded padlock.
b. A trailer pin or kingpin lock.
c. A double laminated lock.
d. A seven pin lock with a hardened shackle.
15.
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The best rule to follow in the event of a
loss or mysterious disappearance of
goods when a transportation carrier is
involved is:
a. Report the condition by telephone and confirm the
report in writing within 24 hours to the appropriate
carrier.
b. Notify the Department of Transportation immediately
and request a conformation of the report.
c. Report the condition by telephone to the appropriate
insurance agency and confirm the report in writing
within 24 hours.
d. For an intrastate shipment, notify the state
transportation authorities within 24 hours of the
discovery; for interstate shipments, notify the
Federal Bureau of Investigation within 24 hours of
the discovery.
15.
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The best rule to follow in the event of a
loss or mysterious disappearance of
goods when a transportation carrier is
involved is:
a. Report the condition by telephone and confirm the
report in writing within 24 hours to the appropriate
carrier.
b. Notify the Department of Transportation immediately
and request a conformation of the report.
c. Report the condition by telephone to the appropriate
insurance agency and confirm the report in writing
within 24 hours.
d. For an intrastate shipment, notify the state
transportation authorities within 24 hours of the
discovery; for interstate shipments, notify the
Federal Bureau of Investigation within 24 hours of
the discovery.
16. In a marine terminal, the stevedore
is accountable for the cargo until:
• a. The terminal operator’s agent signs for the
goods.
• b. The intermodal carrier moves the goods from
the dock.
• c. The cargo reaches a “point of rest”.
• d. The complete shipment is delivered to the
terminal warehouse.
16. In a marine terminal, the stevedore
is accountable for the cargo until:
• a. The terminal operator’s agent signs for the
goods.
• b. The intermodal carrier moves the goods from
the dock.
• c. The cargo reaches a “point of rest”.
• d. The complete shipment is delivered to the
terminal warehouse.
17. When a seal is applied to a truck or a
railroad car the seal number should:
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a. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping
document including the control copy.
b. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping
document but not on the control copy.
c. Never be noted on any shipping document as this is
sensitive information.
d. Be recorded only in the shipping log maintained at
the originating point of the shipment.
17. When a seal is applied to a truck or a
railroad car the seal number should:
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a. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping
document including the control copy.
b. Be noted on the bill of lading or other shipping
document but not on the control copy.
c. Never be noted on any shipping document as this is
sensitive information.
d. Be recorded only in the shipping log maintained at
the originating point of the shipment.
18. A property pass is used to
authorize:
• a. Large movements of material in the normal
course of business.
• b. Regular movements of small shipments of
materials.
• c. Irregular or unusual movements of company
or personal property.
• d. The movement of scrap material.
18. A property pass is used to
authorize:
• a. Large movements of material in the normal
course of business.
• b. Regular movements of small shipments of
materials.
• c. Irregular or unusual movements of company
or personal property.
• d. The movement of scrap material.
19.
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The irregular or nonstandard movement
of company property, personal property
of employees of visitors, and customer
property generally requires manual or
paper processing. Which of the following
is NOT a basic concept for this process:
a. All asset movements and all changes in asset
control or responsibility must be in accordance with
the policies and procedures of the organization.
b. The movements and control of responsibility must
have prior authorization and be properly recorded.
c. With the exception of personal property, documents
that authorize the movement of property must be
pre-numbered.
d. The identity of the person moving the assets or
assuming control of, or responsibility for, the as sets
must be positively verified.
19.
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The irregular or nonstandard movement
of company property, personal property
of employees of visitors, and customer
property generally requires manual or
paper processing. Which of the following
is NOT a basic concept for this process:
a. All asset movements and all changes in asset
control or responsibility must be in accordance with
the policies and procedures of the organization.
b. The movements and control of responsibility must
have prior authorization and be properly recorded.
c. With the exception of personal property, documents
that authorize the movement of property must be
pre-numbered.
d. The identity of the person moving the assets or
assuming control of, or responsibility for, the as sets
must be positively verified.
20. The activities of private sector
security organizations are measured
in terms of:
• a. Numbers of arrests and convictions.
• b. Funds expended and funds or assets
recovered.
• c. The ration of uniformed to plain clothes
security employees.
• d. The number of management employees in
the organization.
20. The activities of private sector
security organizations are measured
in terms of:
• a. Numbers of arrests and convictions.
• b. Funds expended and funds or assets
recovered.
• c. The ration of uniformed to plain clothes
security employees.
• d. The number of management employees in
the organization.
21. The information provided by
personal references in the course of
a pre-employment investigation:
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a. Is of no value because they are friends and
would only say good things about the
subject.
b. Can be relied upon without further
corroboration.
c. Should be accepted at face value without
consideration that the reference is a relative
or friend.
d. Although apparently neutral, is often helpful
indirectly as collateral information.
21. The information provided by
personal references in the course of
a pre-employment investigation:
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a. Is of no value because they are friends and
would only say good things about the
subject.
b. Can be relied upon without further
corroboration.
c. Should be accepted at face value without
consideration that the reference is a relative
or friend.
d. Although apparently neutral, is often helpful
indirectly as collateral information.
22. A competent investigator writes a
report so that the reader can readily
understand:
• a. What the investigator did, why it was done,
and the results of the action.
• b. The personal prejudices of the investigator.
• c. The identity of all sources of information
gathered in the course of the investigation..
• d. What disciplinary action the organization had
taken in past similar cases.
22. A competent investigator writes a
report so that the reader can readily
understand:
• a. What the investigator did, why it was done,
and the results of the action.
• b. The personal prejudices of the investigator.
• c. The identity of all sources of information
gathered in the course of the investigation..
• d. What disciplinary action the organization had
taken in past similar cases.
23. The general rule in writing a
summary or synopsis of a report of
investigation is that:
• a. Supporting facts are supplied for every major
point covered by the report.
• b. Each source used is fully identified.
• c. Every major point covered by the report
requires at least one sentence in the
synopsis.
• d. Conclusions are not permitted in the
synopsis.
23. The general rule in writing a
summary or synopsis of a report of
investigation is that:
• a. Supporting facts are supplied for every major
point covered by the report.
• b. Each source used is fully identified.
• c. Every major point covered by the report
requires at least one sentence in the
synopsis.
• d. Conclusions are not permitted in the
synopsis.
24. In the narrative section of a report of
investigation:
• a. Technical terms are normally used
extensively.
• b. Lengthy explanations are used in order to
completely report the actions taken.
• c. Each step in the investigation should be
covered in a separate paragraph.
• d. Multiple steps in the investigation should be
covered in a single paragraph to avoid a
lengthy report.
24. In the narrative section of a report of
investigation:
• a. Technical terms are normally used
extensively.
• b. Lengthy explanations are used in order to
completely report the actions taken.
• c. Each step in the investigation should be
covered in a separate paragraph.
• d. Multiple steps in the investigation should be
covered in a single paragraph to avoid a
lengthy report.
25.
Should the investigator wish to express
an opinion or speculation these
comments should be conveyed in:
• a. Separate paragraphs in the report of
investigation, identified as such.
• b. The last paragraph of the report of
investigation.
• c. Brackets in appropriate paragraphs of the
report of investigation and identified as such.
• d. A different report or in a memorandum
directed to the investigator’s supervisor.
26. When writing a report of
investigation the:
• a. Past, present and future tenses are always
used.
• b. Past and present tenses are always used.
• c. Past tense is always used.
• d. Present tense is always used.
26. When writing a report of
investigation the:
• a. Past, present and future tenses are always
used.
• b. Past and present tenses are always used.
• c. Past tense is always used.
• d. Present tense is always used.
27. The true criterion for the size of the
in-house investigative unit is the:
• a. Number of cases closed annually.
• b. Size of the general employee population in
the organization.
• c. Degree to which the investigative effort pays
for itself.
• d. Number of prosecutions and number of
convictions annually.
27. The true criterion for the size of the
in-house investigative unit is the:
• a. Number of cases closed annually.
• b. Size of the general employee population in
the organization.
• c. Degree to which the investigative effort pays
for itself.
• d. Number of prosecutions and number of
convictions annually.
28.
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When the assistance of specialists from
another department or a contract
investigative agency is required for a
complex in-house investigation the scope
and flow of the investigation is controlled
by the:
a. Staff investigator.
b. Contract agency investigator.
c. Investigator with the most experience.
d. Senior company person.
28.
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When the assistance of specialists from
another department or a contract
investigative agency is required for a
complex in-house investigation the scope
and flow of the investigation is controlled
by the:
a. Staff investigator.
b. Contract agency investigator.
c. Investigator with the most experience.
d. Senior company person.
29. The investigators in an in-house
investigative unit are supervised by:
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a. Another security professional who is competent in
evaluating investigative activity and results.
b. A legal department management person who is
competent in the prosecution of criminal cases.
c. The senior management person in the human
resources department who is experienced in
determining disciplinary actions to be taken.
d. A management person who has at least third level
supervisory status.
29. The investigators in an in-house
investigative unit are supervised by:
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a. Another security professional who is competent in
evaluating investigative activity and results.
b. A legal department management person who is
competent in the prosecution of criminal cases.
c. The senior management person in the human
resources department who is experienced in
determining disciplinary actions to be taken.
d. A management person who has at least third level
supervisory status.
30. The only effective production
control for the more complex
incident investigation is:
• a. Periodic review of the cost of the
investigation by the finance department.
• b. Regular review of the case by the
investigations supervisor.
• c. Periodic case discussions in security staff
meetings.
• d. Regular reviews by an outside security
consultant.
30. The only effective production
control for the more complex
incident investigation is:
• a. Periodic review of the cost of the
investigation by the finance department.
• b. Regular review of the case by the
investigations supervisor.
• c. Periodic case discussions in security staff
meetings.
• d. Regular reviews by an outside security
consultant.
31. Which of the following investigative
steps would not be appropriate for a
credit-life style inquiry?
• a. A review of the enterprise’s own security
files.
• b. A check of available local law enforcement
agency records.
• c. A check of civil litigation records.
• d. Interviews with personal references.
31. Which of the following investigative
steps would not be appropriate for a
credit-life style inquiry?
• a. A review of the enterprise’s own security
files.
• b. A check of available local law enforcement
agency records.
• c. A check of civil litigation records.
• d. Interviews with personal references.
32. The financial and lifestyle inquiry is
primarily a:
• a. Series of records checks and an analysis of
the information gathered.
• b. Detailed evaluation of an individual after
interviews of personal references supplied by
the subject.
• c. Meeting with the subject’s department head
to discuss the subject’s lifestyle.
• d. Detailed neighborhood check involving
interviews with at least four neighbors.
32. The financial and lifestyle inquiry is
primarily a:
• a. Series of records checks and an analysis of
the information gathered.
• b. Detailed evaluation of an individual after
interviews of personal references supplied by
the subject.
• c. Meeting with the subject’s department head
to discuss the subject’s lifestyle.
• d. Detailed neighborhood check involving
interviews with at least four neighbors.
33. Which of the following procedures is
not recommended when using a
contract investigations agency?
• a. A letter setting forth the basis and
requirements of service.
• b. Identification to the agency of the company
personnel to whom reports should be
submitted.
• c. Authorization for the agency to use the
company name.
• d. Clear instruction to the agency not to
represent itself as the company.
33. Which of the following procedures is
not recommended when using a
contract investigations agency?
• a. A letter setting forth the basis and
requirements of service.
• b. Identification to the agency of the company
personnel to whom reports should be
submitted.
• c. Authorization for the agency to use the
company name.
• d. Clear instruction to the agency not to
represent itself as the company.
34. In following investigative leads,
which of the following steps would
be taken first?
• a. Observe relevant but not time-sensitive
events or locations.
• b. Interview those with the most extensive
information.
• c. Interview persons likely to be hostile.
• d. Interview those not likely to be available
later.
34. In following investigative leads,
which of the following steps would
be taken first?
• a. Observe relevant but not time-sensitive
events or locations.
• b. Interview those with the most extensive
information.
• c. Interview persons likely to be hostile.
• d. Interview those not likely to be available
later.
35. An incident or “complaint”
investigation is an inquiry
conducted:
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a. When a pre-employment investigation
reveals an incident involving the subject in a
previous employment situation.
b. Into any matter or condition that requires fact
finding.
c. Into the personal habits of an applicant.
d. When the lifestyle of an employee appears
abnormal when compared with the income of
the employee.
35. An incident or “complaint”
investigation is an inquiry
conducted:
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•
•
•
a. When a pre-employment investigation
reveals an incident involving the subject in a
previous employment situation.
b. Into any matter or condition that requires fact
finding.
c. Into the personal habits of an applicant.
d. When the lifestyle of an employee appears
abnormal when compared with the income of
the employee.
36.
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In an incident investigation, a preliminary
analysis of the original information is
usually made by the security professional
who assigns and reviews investigations.
The preliminary analysis:
a. Produces a list of the required investigative
steps and, sometimes, their sequence.
b. Provides a determination of whether the
investigation will be cost-effective.
c. Provides the basis for determining if the
investigation should be continued.
d. Always results in an interim report of
investigation.
36.
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In an incident investigation, a preliminary
analysis of the original information is
usually made by the security professional
who assigns and reviews investigations.
The preliminary analysis:
a. Produces a list of the required investigative
steps and, sometimes, their sequence.
b. Provides a determination of whether the
investigation will be cost-effective.
c. Provides the basis for determining if the
investigation should be continued.
d. Always results in an interim report of
investigation.
37. When conducting interviews in the
course of an incident investigation
the investigator should:
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a. Begin the interview shortly before a
scheduled meal period to increase tension in
the interviewee.
b. Unless urgent circumstances dictate
otherwise, accommodate schedules to the
convenience of the interviewee.
c. Schedule interviews to avoid overtime work
on the part of the investigator.
d. Arrange to conduct the maximum number of
interviews in the first day of the investigation.
37. When conducting interviews in the
course of an incident investigation
the investigator should:
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•
•
•
a. Begin the interview shortly before a
scheduled meal period to increase tension in
the interviewee.
b. Unless urgent circumstances dictate
otherwise, accommodate schedules to the
convenience of the interviewee.
c. Schedule interviews to avoid overtime work
on the part of the investigator.
d. Arrange to conduct the maximum number of
interviews in the first day of the investigation.
38. In an undercover investigation the
undercover investigator:
• a. Conceals his or her presence.
• b. Conceals his or her true identify.
• c. Gathers information concerning labor
organizing activities.
• d. Attempts to pass access control points into
the facility unnoticed
38. In an undercover investigation the
undercover investigator:
• a. Conceals his or her presence.
• b. Conceals his or her true identify.
• c. Gathers information concerning labor
organizing activities.
• d. Attempts to pass access control points into
the facility unnoticed
39. Undercover investigation should be
used:
• a.
• b.
• c.
• d.
In routine investigations.
In lieu of other investigative techniques when the
undercover operatives are idle.
When there is a high probability that undercover
operations will produce significant results and all
other options have been ruled out.
When labor organizing activities are apparent and
no other form of investigation is likely to identify the
person or persons responsible.
39. Undercover investigation should be
used:
• a.
• b.
• c.
• d.
In routine investigations.
In lieu of other investigative techniques when the
undercover operatives are idle.
When there is a high probability that undercover
operations will produce significant results and all
other options have been ruled out.
When labor organizing activities are apparent and
no other form of investigation is likely to identify the
person or persons responsible.
40. Which of the following would not
normally be a part of the undercover
investigative team?
•
•
•
•
a.
b.
c.
d.
A corporate decision-maker.
A human resources representative.
A finance department representative.
A corporate security department
representative.
40. Which of the following would not
normally be a part of the undercover
investigative team?
•
•
•
•
a.
b.
c.
d.
A corporate decision-maker.
A human resources representative.
A finance department representative.
A corporate security department
representative.
41. With regard to testimony by an
undercover investigator or
operative:
• a. All undercover investigators must be willing
to testify in court or before an arbitrator.
• b. An undercover investigator should not be
expected to testify in a case that involves a
labor union.
• c. The undercover investigator should not be
expected to testify when the identity of the
investigator would be compromised.
• d. The undercover investigator must be willing
to testify before an arbitrator but not in court.
41. With regard to testimony by an
undercover investigator or
operative:
• a. All undercover investigators must be willing
to testify in court or before an arbitrator.
• b. An undercover investigator should not be
expected to testify in a case that involves a
labor union.
• c. The undercover investigator should not be
expected to testify when the identity of the
investigator would be compromised.
• d. The undercover investigator must be willing
to testify before an arbitrator but not in court.
42. When placing an undercover
investigator in an organization:
• a. A position should not be created for the
investigator.
• b. The investigator uses a cover story claiming
to be a “friend of a friend”.
• c. Someone of unquestioned authority in the
organization commands that the
investigator be hired.
• d. The investigator uses a cover story claiming
to be a relative of a very senior executive of
the organization.
42. When placing an undercover
investigator in an organization:
• a. A position should not be created for the
investigator.
• b. The investigator uses a cover story claiming
to be a “friend of a friend”.
• c. Someone of unquestioned authority in the
organization commands that the
investigator be hired.
• d. The investigator uses a cover story claiming
to be a relative of a very senior executive of
the organization.
43.
As a general rule, the cover position
for an undercover investigator should
be one that affords the agent the:
• a. Most latitude in the areas of importance to
the investigation.
• b. Greatest access to the general employee
population.
• c. Most latitude in scheduling work hours.
• d. Highest pay of any grade in the department
in which the position functions.
43.
As a general rule, the cover position
for an undercover investigator should
be one that affords the agent the:
• a. Most latitude in the areas of importance to
the investigation.
• b. Greatest access to the general employee
population.
• c. Most latitude in scheduling work hours.
• d. Highest pay of any grade in the department
in which the position functions.
44. In constructing a cover story for an
undercover operative the:
• a. Level of detail must always be highly
involved.
• b. Cover story must include at least the last five
years of the investigator’s history.
• c. Cover story must have no connection with
the operative’s real past.
• d. More intimate the personal relationship with
the members of the target group, the greater
the depth of the cover story.
44. In constructing a cover story for an
undercover operative the:
• a. Level of detail must always be highly
involved.
• b. Cover story must include at least the last five
years of the investigator’s history.
• c. Cover story must have no connection with
the operative’s real past.
• d. More intimate the personal relationship with
the members of the target group, the greater
the depth of the cover story.
45. The attorney on an undercover
investigation case management
team should be:
• a. A corporate attorney with extensive
experience in contract law.
• b. An employment law specialist who has
defended employers in employment claims
cases.
• c. A family law attorney with lengthy experience
in domestic violence cases.
• d. A criminal law attorney who has represented
criminal defendants and assisted in the
prosecution of criminal cases.
45. The attorney on an undercover
investigation case management
team should be:
• a. A corporate attorney with extensive
experience in contract law.
• b. An employment law specialist who has
defended employers in employment claims
cases.
• c. A family law attorney with lengthy experience
in domestic violence cases.
• d. A criminal law attorney who has represented
criminal defendants and assisted in the
prosecution of criminal cases.
46. The undercover operative should
communicate with his or her case
manager:
•
•
•
•
a. Daily
b. At least every other day.
c. At least twice daily.
d. As frequently as circumstance will allow.
46. The undercover operative should
communicate with his or her case
manager:
•
•
•
•
a. Daily
b. At least every other day.
c. At least twice daily.
d. As frequently as circumstance will allow.
47. The contemporary polygraph
simultaneously measures:
• a. Respiration, blood pressure and pulse, and
body temperature.
• b. Breathing pattern, blood pressure and pulse,
and skin resistance to external current.
• c. Blood pressure and pulse, eye flutter, and
breathing pattern.
• d. Voice reaction pattern, blood pressure and
pulse, and breathing pattern.
47. The contemporary polygraph
simultaneously measures:
• a. Respiration, blood pressure and pulse, and
body temperature.
• b. Breathing pattern, blood pressure and pulse,
and skin resistance to external current.
• c. Blood pressure and pulse, eye flutter, and
breathing pattern.
• d. Voice reaction pattern, blood pressure and
pulse, and breathing pattern.
48. Polygraph testing has been chiefly
utilized for:
• a. Criminal, pre-employment and periodic inservice tests.
• b. Criminal, pre-employment and regression
tests.
• c. Pre-employment, periodic in-service and
psychiatric tests.
• d. Psychiatric, regression and criminal tests.
48. Polygraph testing has been chiefly
utilized for:
• a. Criminal, pre-employment and periodic inservice tests.
• b. Criminal, pre-employment and regression
tests.
• c. Pre-employment, periodic in-service and
psychiatric tests.
• d. Psychiatric, regression and criminal tests.
49. In conducting a polygraph
examination the examiner:
• a.
Advises the subject of the questions to be asked, but
not the order in which they will be asked in the
course of the examination.
• b. Reviews general questions with the subject, but not
the specific questions to be asked in the course of
the examination.
• c. Advises the subject of the questions to be asked and
the order in which they will be asked in the course of
the examination.
• d. Does not review any questions with the subject prior
to the start of the examination.
49. In conducting a polygraph
examination the examiner:
• a.
Advises the subject of the questions to be asked, but
not the order in which they will be asked in the
course of the examination.
• b. Reviews general questions with the subject, but not
the specific questions to be asked in the course of
the examination.
• c. Advises the subject of the questions to be asked and
the order in which they will be asked in the course of
the examination.
• d. Does not review any questions with the subject prior
to the start of the examination.
50. A successful polygraph examination
depends on the:
•
•
•
•
a.
b.
c.
d.
Truthfulness of the subject.
Intelligence of the subject.
Skill and preparation of the examiner.
Age and type of equipment
50. A successful polygraph examination
depends on the:
•
•
•
•
a.
b.
c.
d.
Truthfulness of the subject.
Intelligence of the subject.
Skill and preparation of the examiner.
Age and type of equipment
51. The behavior analysis interview
involves:
•
•
•
•
a. A systematic evaluation of a person’s verbal and
nonverbal behavior in the course of a structured
interview.
b. A psychological evaluation of person’s past verbal
and physical behavior.
c. An evaluation conducted at the scene of an incident
to determine the behavior of the participants.
d. An unstructured open discussion with a person to
determine his or her psychological stability.
51. The behavior analysis interview
involves:
•
•
•
•
a. A systematic evaluation of a person’s verbal and
nonverbal behavior in the course of a structured
interview.
b. A psychological evaluation of person’s past verbal
and physical behavior.
c. An evaluation conducted at the scene of an incident
to determine the behavior of the participants.
d. An unstructured open discussion with a person to
determine his or her psychological stability.
52. A behavior provoking question is
used in the course of an interview
to:
•
•
•
•
a. Elicit an angry response from the interviewee
to evaluate the interviewee’s stability.
b. Test the limit of an interviewee’s patience.
c. Signal from one interviewer to another the
start of the “sweet and sour” interviewing
technique.
d. Draw out specific verbal responses or
behavior to be used to distinguish between a
truthful person and one who is lying.
52. A behavior provoking question is
used in the course of an interview
to:
•
•
•
•
a. Elicit an angry response from the interviewee
to evaluate the interviewee’s stability.
b. Test the limit of an interviewee’s patience.
c. Signal from one interviewer to another the
start of the “sweet and sour” interviewing
technique.
d. Draw out specific verbal responses or
behavior to be used to distinguish between a
truthful person and one who is lying.
53. A truthful person will typically
answer a question:
• a. Only after a delay or repetition of the
question.
• b. In a straightforward and spontaneous
manner.
• c. Very quickly, even before the question has
been completed.
• d. In a hesitating manner, as if in serious
thought.
53. A truthful person will typically
answer a question:
• a. Only after a delay or repetition of the
question.
• b. In a straightforward and spontaneous
manner.
• c. Very quickly, even before the question has
been completed.
• d. In a hesitating manner, as if in serious
thought.
54. In a conversation or an interview
nonverbal behavior:
• a. Normally conveys only a small portion of the
meaning of the message.
• b. Is responsible for more than half of the
information and meaning of the message.
• c. Is generally unimportant.
• d. Is unrelated to the verbal statements made
by the subject.
54. In a conversation or an interview
nonverbal behavior:
• a. Normally conveys only a small portion of the
meaning of the message.
• b. Is responsible for more than half of the
information and meaning of the message.
• c. Is generally unimportant.
• d. Is unrelated to the verbal statements made
by the subject.
55. Regarding a subject’s denial of guilt
in the course of an interrogation, a
basic tenet is:
•
•
•
•
a. Allowing a subject to make repeated denials
of guilt will facilitate a later admission of guilt.
b. The interrogator should listen intently to
repeated denials of guilt.
c. The more often the suspect denies guilt, the
more difficult it becomes to admit guilt later.
d. A denial of guilt coupled with a religious
reference is indicative of sincerity in the
denial.
55. Regarding a subject’s denial of guilt
in the course of an interrogation, a
basic tenet is:
•
•
•
•
a. Allowing a subject to make repeated denials
of guilt will facilitate a later admission of guilt.
b. The interrogator should listen intently to
repeated denials of guilt.
c. The more often the suspect denies guilt, the
more difficult it becomes to admit guilt later.
d. A denial of guilt coupled with a religious
reference is indicative of sincerity in the
denial.
56. An “alternative” question used in
the course of an interrogation is:
• a. A question of guilt or innocence.
• b. A second question posed when the subject
objects to how a question is phrased or
asked.
• c. A second or subsequent question on the
same topic, used by the interrogator for
additional emphasis or clarity.
• d. A question in which two incriminatory
choices are presented concerning some
aspect of the incident or crime.
56. An “alternative” question used in
the course of an interrogation is:
• a. A question of guilt or innocence.
• b. A second question posed when the subject
objects to how a question is phrased or
asked.
• c. A second or subsequent question on the
same topic, used by the interrogator for
additional emphasis or clarity.
• d. A question in which two incriminatory
choices are presented concerning some
aspect of the incident or crime.
57.
Which of the following is NOT correct
regarding a written statement from a
subject in which a confession of guilt is
made:
• a. Although they may be used verbally by the
subject, obscenities should be avoided.
• b. Errors, changes or crossed out words and
phrases should be initialed by the subject.
• c. The subject’s own language, including
grammatical errors and obscenities should
be used.
• d. The subject should sign each page of the
statement in front of a witness.
57.
Which of the following is NOT correct
regarding a written statement from a
subject in which a confession of guilt is
made:
• a. Although they may be used verbally by the
subject, obscenities should be avoided.
• b. Errors, changes or crossed out words and
phrases should be initialed by the subject.
• c. The subject’s own language, including
grammatical errors and obscenities should
be used.
• d. The subject should sign each page of the
statement in front of a witness.
58.
• a.
Which of the following are NOT exempt
from the provisions of the Polygraph Act
prohibiting the use of the polygraph in
pre-employment screening:
Any employer manufacturing, distributing or
dispensing controlled substances in any of the first
four schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.
• b. Commercial security services providers whose
function includes the protection of currency,
negotiable instruments, precious commodities or
instruments or proprietary information.
• c. Commercial security services providers whose
function includes the executive protection.
• d. Federal, state and local government agencies.
58.
• a.
Which of the following are NOT exempt
from the provisions of the Polygraph Act
prohibiting the use of the polygraph in
pre-employment screening:
Any employer manufacturing, distributing or
dispensing controlled substances in any of the first
four schedules of the Controlled Substances Act.
• b. Commercial security services providers whose
function includes the protection of currency,
negotiable instruments, precious commodities or
instruments or proprietary information.
• c. Commercial security services providers whose
function includes the executive protection.
• d. Federal, state and local government agencies.
59. The “control question” technique
used in a polygraph examination
involves:
• a. Requiring the subject to remain rigid in the
chair while the question is asked.
• b. Asking the subject questions which are
irrelevant to the subject matter.
• c. Asking questions regarding the attitude of
the subject in controlling children.
• d. Requiring the subject to remain in the room
and under the control of the examiner.
59. The “control question” technique
used in a polygraph examination
involves:
• a. Requiring the subject to remain rigid in the
chair while the question is asked.
• b. Asking the subject questions which are
irrelevant to the subject matter.
• c. Asking questions regarding the attitude of
the subject in controlling children.
• d. Requiring the subject to remain in the room
and under the control of the examiner.
60.
The simulated use of a polygraph by an
employer so as to lead an individual to
believe that an actual test is being
conducted is:
• a. A violation of the Federal Polygraph Act.
• b. Authorized as a pre-employment device for
any employer.
• c. Authorized as a pre-employment device for
any multi-national employer.
• d. Authorized as a pre-employment device for
any employer whose facilities are physically
located in more than one state.
60.
The simulated use of a polygraph by an
employer so as to lead an individual to
believe that an actual test is being
conducted is:
• a. A violation of the Federal Polygraph Act.
• b. Authorized as a pre-employment device for
any employer.
• c. Authorized as a pre-employment device for
any multi-national employer.
• d. Authorized as a pre-employment device for
any employer whose facilities are physically
located in more than one state.
61. The refusal of an employee or
prospective employee to take a
polygraph examination may:
•
•
•
•
a. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by any employer.
b. Not be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by any employer.
c. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by an employer manufacturing,
distributing or dispensing controlled substances.
d. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by an employer whose primary
business consists of providing armored car, security
alarm or other uniformed or plainclothes security
personnel.
61. The refusal of an employee or
prospective employee to take a
polygraph examination may:
•
•
•
•
a. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by any employer.
b. Not be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by any employer.
c. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by an employer manufacturing,
distributing or dispensing controlled substances.
d. Be used as the sole basis for an adverse
employment action by an employer whose primary
business consists of providing armored car, security
alarm or other uniformed or plainclothes security
personnel.
62. The National Labor Relations Board
has ruled that the use of polygraph
or other lie detector:
• a. Is not an unfair labor practice under the
federal labor law.
• b. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the
employee is a labor union member.
• c. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the
employee is not a labor union member.
• d. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when
used in a pre-employment situation.
62. The National Labor Relations Board
has ruled that the use of polygraph
or other lie detector:
• a. Is not an unfair labor practice under the
federal labor law.
• b. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the
employee is a labor union member.
• c. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when the
employee is not a labor union member.
• d. Constitutes an unfair labor practice when
used in a pre-employment situation.
End of Review