AP Environmental Science
Fall 2015 Practice Exam Review
Use the following information to answer questions about the metric system and measurement:
°F = 32 + (°C x 9/5)
1 m = 3.28 feet
1 cup = 8 liquid ounces
°C = (°F-32) x 5/9
1 mile = 1.61 km
1 acre = 0.4 hectares
K=°C-273
1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds
1 inch = 2.54 cm
1 ounce = 28 grams
Precipitation (in)
3
2.5
2
1.5
1
0.5
0
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
Temperature (F)
Average monthly precipitation totals and average monthly temperatures for Evergreen, Colorado. Data was
collected between 1950 and 2015
(www.weather.com).
Climate Graph for Evergreen, CO
Precipitation (in)
Temperature (°F)
Month
January
February
March
April
May
June
July
August
September
October
November
December
Precipitation
(in)
0.58
0.73
2.01
2.24
2.36
2.08
2.24
2.47
1.49
1.38
0.89
0.81
Temperature
(°F)
28
29
36
42
50
59
65
63
55
45
35
28
1. Examine the data and graph above and identify Evergreen’s biome.
2. Which of the following is the best reason to graph precipitation as a bar graph:
Use the following passage to answer questions 3-7
An experiment is set up to determine if wheat grows better when it is planted by itself or together with clover.
The setup involves three pans of each treatment. Set-ups A, B, and C contain wheat alone. Set-ups D, E, and F
contain clover and wheat planted together, in rows alternating one seed of each type. One hundred seeds are
planted in each pan. All treatments contain the same type of soil, are planted in the same size of pan, are exposed
to the same amount of sunlight, and are maintained at the same temperature throughout the course of the
experiment.
3. The treatments planted with wheat alone are the
4. Which of the following statements provides a hypothesis for this experiment?
5. Several setups of each treatment are prepared to fulfill a very important requirement of scientific
experimentation, specifically the need for ____________.
6. Constants in this experiment are
7. The dependent variable in this experiment could be the
Use the Sugar Loaf Mountain map below to answer questions about topography and maps:
8.
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27.
28.
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30.
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34.
In the map above, what is the distance from point B to point C?
What is the approximate difference in elevation between point E and point D?
Glacier Creek flows in what direction?
Controlled experiments in nature are difficult because
The concept of ecological footprint is measured in terms of the amount of
Electrons are
Mass number refers to the
To produce sodium chloride, common table salt, a single electron in the outer shell of the sodium atom is
transferred to the outer shell of the chlorine atom. This is an example of --Compounds formed by elements that share electrons are held together by
The polarity of the water molecule is the result of
In a chemical reaction, what happens to matter and energy?
Types of macromolecules, the basis of biological molecules, include
A substance with a pH of 4 has ____ times the hydrogen ion concentration of a substance with a pH of 6.
By definition, organic compounds contain bonds between what elements?
Give an example of a positive feedback loop. And, Give an example of a negative feedback loop
What is the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem?
What organisms performs cellular respiration?
A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kg C/m2/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kg C/m2/year. What is
the NPP?
Looking at the ecological pyramid above, what would be the
most likely number of joules to fill in X, Y, and Z?
A scientist is observing a series of plants and measuring
their growth with the addition of nutrients. She notices that
the addition of nitrate has no effect on the growth while the
addition of phosphorus shows significant growth. What
conclusion can she draw about the nutrients in relation to
this plant?
What is a watershed?
Which ecosystems have been found to be the most diverse?
Which of the following has the biggest impact on the resilience of an ecosystem?
You observe a mountain that has lush vegetation on one side and a dry desert on the other side. What
would be the most likely explanation for your observations?
Wetlands have both instrumental and intrinsic value. Ecological services are an instrumental value.
Which of the following is NOT an ecological service provided by wetlands?
Which of the following is the Earth’s most diverse biome?
Which of the following are used to measure diversity within an ecosystem?
35. When natural selection occurs, what is the key factor that will determine which individuals will survive
and pass on the beneficial traits?
36. A population of rabbits with typical variations of traits lives in a meadow with a depression that runs
through the middle. Over time, the depression fills in with water and becomes a river, separating the one
population into two over a period of several years. This is an example of:
37. Which of the following pairs would increase the rate of evolution within a species?
38. Which type of species would be most vulnerable to environmental changes?
39. Eutrophic lakes
40. Over-pumping wells can cause
41. Most of Earth’s freshwater is found where?
42. The first plant community that forms on bare rock often includes organisms such as
43. The function(s) of soil is/are the following:
44. The effect of temperature and rainfall on the soil is that
45. From the diagram at right, the soil that is best for
agriculture is
46. Biogeochemical cycles describe the movement of certain
elements (typically bound with other elements in compounds)
through Earth’s atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and
lithosphere. These elements and their compounds are
necessary components of all life, and because they cycle, they
can be used repeatedly by new generations of organisms. Each
biogeochemical cycle has different pathways with various
reservoirs (sources and sinks) where elements may reside for
days or millions of years.
a) The atmosphere is one important carbon reservoir.
i.
Identify and describe the biological process by which carbon is removed from the atmosphere
and converted to organic molecules. (2 points)
ii.
Identify and describe the biological process by which carbon is converted from organic
molecules to a gas and returned to the atmosphere. (2 points)
b) Oceans and terrestrial systems are also important carbon reservoirs.
i.
Explain how atmospheric carbon is incorporated into two oceanic sinks. (2 points)
ii.
Identify one terrestrial sink, other than fossil fuels, that stores carbon for thousands to millions
of years. (1 point)
c) Both phosphorus and nitrogen are essential for all organisms. Agricultural practices can alter both the
phosphorus and nitrogen cycles.
i.
Identify one reason that both phosphorus and nitrogen are necessary for organisms. (1 point)
ii.
Describe one major way in which the phosphorus cycle differs from the carbon cycle. (1 point)
iii.
Describe one impact of an excess of nitrogen and phosphorus in ecosystems. (1 point)
47. Termites are social insects that are essential decomposers in tropical rain forest ecosystems. Termites may
account for up to 95 percent of insect biomass in tropical rain forests, are an essential source of protein for
larger animals, and build huge mounds (see diagram at right) that provide niches for other plants and
animals.
Termites consume vast amounts of dead and decomposing plant material, thanks to
the work of mutualistic cellulose-digesting microorganisms that inhabit their guts. In
addition to their roles as important decomposers, termites digest plant materials and
directly contribute to carbon dioxide and methane emissions into the atmosphere. It
is likely that, like many insect species, termites and their symbionts may be sensitive to changes in their
microclimate caused by global climate change, especially with regard to temperature and humidity.
Relative Humidity
Temperature (°C)
50%
70%
90%
20
0.04
0.05
0.05
25
0.05
0.07
0.10
30
0.12
0.13
0.27
35
0.09
0.13
0.15
40
0.00
0.00
0.00
a) Respond to the following using the data in the table above, which gives the rate of wood consumption by
termites, in mg per day per termite, under various temperature and relative humidity conditions. Under
optimal conditions, the emission rate of methane by termites is approximately 70 kilograms of CH4 per
year per 1,000 termites.
i.
According to the data, describe the optimal temperature and relative humidity for termite
activity? (1 point)
ii.
Given a density of 4.5x107 termites per hectare and optimal conditions, calculate the annual
amount of methane emitted, in kilograms, by the termites inhabiting a 2,000-hectare tropical rain
forest. (2 points)
iii.
Suppose the temperature increases to 35°C and the relative humidity decreases to 50 percent.
Using the data provided, calculate the amount of methane, in kilograms, that would be emitted
by the termites in the 2,000-hectare tropical rain forest. (2 points)
iv.
Explain why the population size of termites is also affected by temperature and humidity. (1
point)
b) It has been observed that soon after a tropical rain forest is cleared, termite density increases to an
estimated 6.8x107 termites per hectare. Thereafter, the termite population size decreases dramatically.
i.
Explain the most likely reason that the density of the termites increases when a tropical rain
forest is cleared. (1 point)
ii.
Explain why the termite populations eventually decrease dramatically. (1 point)
c) Explain why termites are considered both keystone species and environmental engineers. (2 point)
Earth Systems Midterm
1. In 1912, Alfred Wegener used what evidence to support the theory of continental drift?
2. Continental Drift was rejected by the scientific community because
3. What technology was used in the mid 1900s to
map seafloor topography?
Fig. 1
Examine Fig. 1 and use it to answer questions 4-6
4. Describe the distribution of ages of across the
Atlantic?
5. What best explains the distribution of ages and
depths of the Atlantic ocean floor rocks?
6. The oldest continental crust is ____ years. In
comparison, the oldest oceanic crust is ___
years.
7. While studying the ocean floor, scientists found
____ bands of magnetic polarity indicating that
the Earth’s _____ has reversed itself several
times in its past.
8. Oceanic crust is ____ whereas, Continental crust is ______.
9. The results of plate movement can be seen at:
10. What type of boundary is shown in figure 2?
11. Which of the following features is found at the boundary in fig. 2?
12. At the boundary in fig. 2, lithosphere is
13. What type of boundary is seen in fig. 3?
Fig. 2
14. In fig. 3, the oceanic lithosphere is being subducted because
15. Which of the following features would be found at the plate
boundary in fig. 3?
16. At the boundary in figure 3, lithosphere is
17. Fig. 4 shows what type of boundary?
Fig. 3
Fig. 4
18. What are the ecological impacts of the boundary in Fig. 4?
19. Which of the following features would NOT be found at the boundary in fig. 4?
20. At the boundary in fig. 4, lithosphere is
21. Between 0-100 km depth, the crust and uppermost mantle make
up Earth’s____.
22. What is happening between 100-600 km depth?
23. The disappearance of S-waves between 2900 and 5200 km depth
indicate what?
24. Convection in the mantle is driven by
25. The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by
26. Density of Earth’s materials caused which of the following?
27. Radiometric evidence from the Earth, moon, and asteroids
indicates that Earth-moon system is about______ billion years
old.
28. ________ states that current geologic processes, occurring in the
same manner as observed today, account for all of Earth's
geological features.
Fig. 5
Figure 6 shows a simplified version of the geology of the Grand Canyon. The letters represent unconformities
and the numbers represent igneous rocks. Carefully examine it to answer questions about Earth’s history:
4. Uinkaret Basalts
29. List the rocks of the Grand Canyon in the proper order from oldest to youngest?
30. Which unconformity (indicated by the letters) is an angular unconformity?
31. Which unconformity is a disconformity?
32. Which principle can be used to sequence the sedimentary rocks in the proper order?
33. In this sequence of rocks certain fossils are found only in the Redwall Limestone. However, the same fossils
are also found in a limestone of similar age in Montana. These fossils are a good example of
34. Samples of the diabase dikes and sills and the
Cardenas basalts were collected for radiometric
dating. 40K/39Ar was used and this isotopic pair
has a half-life of 1.25 Billion years. For all the
samples, 53% of the 40K remains in all the
samples. Determine the approximate age of the
dikes, sills and Cardenas basalts?
Figure 7
35. Crushed samples of Uinkaret Basalt samples yield
100 grams of a parent:daughter pair. Scientists
determine the ratio of parent to daughter is 1:3.
How many grams of parent remain?___ How
many grams of daughter are there?______
36. How many half lives have past for the
parent:daughter pair in question 35?
37. If the half-life of the isotopic pair in question 35 is 175,000 years. How old is the sample?
38. A 238U decays though two alpha emission and two beta emissions. Use your periodic table to determine the
resulting daughter product.
39. A worm would stand a poor chance of being fossilized because ________.
40. About 88 percent of geologic time is represented by the time span called the ________.
41. Which of the following demonstrates radioactive decay by beta particle emission?
42. When a radioactive isotope decays by electron capture, the electron ________.
43. Earth's primitive atmosphere evolved from gases ________.
44. The major source of free oxygen in the atmosphere is from ________.
45. The Earth’s magnetic field had to be set up early in Earth’s history because
46. By 650 million years ago, the composition of the atmosphere supported life on land because:
47. Abundant fossil evidence did not appear in the geologic record until about ________.
48. During the greatest extinction in Earth’s history, what percent of all life died?
49. The first true terrestrial animals were the ________.
50. Ocean temperatures have remained relatively constant for most of
Figure 8
Earth’s history. How might this affect life on Earth?
51. Ocean water chemistry is controlled by what factors?
52. Seawater density is affected by
53. Which of the following factors has the least affect ocean salinity?
54. Ocean water is composed of chlorine, sodium, sulfates, and other
minerals primarily as a result of
55. Sea surface salinity is the highest at 30°N and 30°S because
56. The lower curve on graph in figure 8 shows ocean temperature. In
this case, the thermocline occurs at a depth of:
57. In this location, if evaporation rates increased, how would the halocline, the upper curve in the graph in
figure 8, change?
Condition A
Figure 9
Condition B
58. Palm trees grow in the southern British Isles because of
which current?
59. The California current causes
60. Because of the Coriolis effect, surface ocean currents are
deflected ________ of their path of motion in the Northern
Hemisphere.
Condition C
61. Condition A represents which stage of the El NinoSouthern Oscillation?
Figure 10
62. In “Condition B”, which of the following statements best describes the weather in South America?
63. In “Condition B”, what ocean current has strengthened?
64. What factor in “Condition C” will lead to cooler, dryer conditions for South America?
65. A ____ city would be expected to have the largest annual temperature range.
66. The earliest atmosphere was composed of many different gases that came from within the Earth. Which of
the following was NOT one of those gases:
67. With the evolution of blue-green algae at 2.25 billion years ago, which of the following gases started to build
up in the atmosphere?
68. The current composition of the atmosphere is
69. ____ is known as a “greenhouse gas.”
70. Greenhouse gases
71. When gases that absorb heat are added to the atmosphere,
Diagram 11
A pair of students performed an experiment to compare the heating and
cooling rates of soil and water. They placed identical containers, A is
filled with soil and B is filled with water, at equal distances from a light
source. A thermometer was placed directly about the materials in each
container to record the temperatures. They turned the light on and
recorded the temperatures each minute for 10 minutes. Then they turned
the light off and again recorded the temperatures each minute for 10
minutes. A graph of their data is shown at right in Diagram 11.
72. Which of the following best describes the graphed data:
73. Based on the students observations, which of the following graphs is most likely located far from water
a.
b.
c.
74. In figure 12, which globe correctly shows how winds and
ocean currents are turned in the Northern and Southern
Hemispheres?
d.
A
C
Figure 12
B
D
75. In any location, the heating of the atmosphere is the result of
Figure 13
76. Examine figure 13. Approximately what
percentage of incoming solar radiation is
absorbed by the Earth and its atmosphere?
77. ____ % of incoming solar energy is
reflected back into space.
78. What factor controls the amount of incoming solar radiation that is reflected back into space?
79. How would a decrease in the area covered by polar ice caps likely affect the values in the diagram?
80. As the polar ice caps and glaciers melt, the balance between incoming and outgoing energy changes at an
accelerating pace. This phenomenon is referred to as
81. ____ wavelengths of radiation are absorbed best by the lower
atmosphere.
Figure 14
82. Examine Figure 14. Which of the following factors has the greatest
impact on defining the layers of the atmosphere?
83. From figure 14, all of the variations in atmospheric temperature
with altitude are the result of:
84. Examine both figures 14 & 15. Which of the following characterize
the troposphere?
85. Which of the follow best describes figure 15.
86. Which process distributes heat energy around the globe in the
troposphere?
87. Heat energy reradiated from the Earth’s surface warms the
troposphere through
Figure 15
Figure 16
A
High atmospheric pressures result
in sinking air and low atmospheric pressures result in rising air.
From figure 16, use the letter at the different locations to match
the climate to that area:
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
C
B
Cold deserts:
Warm deserts:
Temperate, humid:
Tropical humid:
The sun is directly overhead between what latitudes?
93.
During the northern hemisphere summer, the southern
hemisphere is experiencing
D
94. The polar regions are colder because
95. Use the letters in figure 17 to show where Earth in winter in the Northern
Hemisphere:
A
Figure 17
D
B
96. Use the letters in figure 17 to show where the Earth
when it is closest to the Sun:
C
97. At which position on figure 17 would the Sun be the highest at noon in Denver?
98. What feature on the Figure 17 is responsible for the seasons?
99. On December 21, you are visiting Rio de Janeiro, Brazil (Latitude 23°S). What would your maximum sun
angle be during the day?
100.
Your family has decided to install solar panels on your house to save energy. Assuming a latitude of
40°N, what is the best angle from horizontal to install the panels?
Practice Population Test
1. The organisms that represent all of the different interacting species within an ecosystem make up
2. Which type of population distribution can enhance protection from predators?
3. Which of the following is true?
4. A population of river otters has a growth rate of (r) of 0.2 per year. If the population starts out with 50
individuals and there is no migration, how many would you expect after one year? After two years?
5. The intrinsic growth rate of a population
6. A population of rabbits, introduced to an island, has rapid growth for a few years; then its growth slows.
The population becomes stable because
7. Rapid growth may be temporarily observed in a population in response to all of these EXCEPT
8. During the winter of 1999, minimum temperatures did not get much below freezing in an Oregon pond,
and the following summer, large mosquito populations were observed. In the winter of 2000, frost came
early, and most ponds froze for 3 months. In the following summer, very low mosquito populations
were observed. This is an example of
9. When mosquitoes are very abundant, purple martins flock to the area and specialize on them. When
mosquito populations are not large, purple martins are similarly scarce and feed on other insects. This is
an example of
10. Rabbits were introduced to Australia about 100 years ago for the purpose of hunting. They have been
multiplying, eating up the native vegetation, and destroying the native habitat of other small animals
ever since. In the 1950s, in order to control the rabbit population, government scientists released the
myxomatosis virus. The virus, which dramatically reduced the rabbit population, is an example of
11. The classic study of the number of lynx and snowshoe hares purchased from trappers by the Hudson Bay
Company in northern Canada between 1845 and 1935 showed dramatic, closely linked population cycles
of these predators and their prey. But this was not a carefully controlled scientific study. The results of
this study could have been skewed because
12. Scientists visiting a remote island find two species of birds that appear nearly identical except for bill
size. The species with the larger bill eats large seeds, and the species with the smaller bill eats small
seeds. According to genetic evidence, the two species are extremely closely related to each other.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the different bill sizes in these species?
13. Earthworms live in many grass and forest ecosystems and aerate soil as they burrow. They ingest
organic matter and travel between soil horizons. These traits, taken collectively, refer to the
__________ of the earthworm.
14. Which of these describes an effective means that prey species may use to evade predators?
15. What characteristic best distinguishes predators from parasites?
16. Many plants have their roots infected with a specialized fungus. The plant supplies carbon to the
fungus, and the fungus supplies nutrients to the plant. This is an example of a __________ association.
17. A certain species of animal represents just 3% of the biomass in its ecosystem. We might classify this as
a keystone species if its elimination
18. When all vegetation is removed from a site by human activity or by natural forces such as volcanic
activity, __________ species are the first to colonize the site.
19. The first plant community that forms on bare rock often includes organisms such as
20. Which of the following statements is correct in reference to species richness?
21. Habitat size and community distances are the basis for
22. Although an oyster may produce millions of offspring in a year, they have a controlled rate of growth
because of
23. The most critical factor in controlling human population growth is
24. Which BEST describes the reason for the very rapid growth of the human population in the last 8000
years?
22. The population of the United States continues to grow as a result of
23. There are about 6.8 billion people in the world and about 11.4 billion usable hectares. Currently, the
population of the United States has an ecological footprint of about 9.0 hectares per person. If all people
in the world were to live at the level of consumption found in the United States, the population of the
world would have to ____ in order to support them.
24. Many sub-Saharan tribesmen of Africa regularly use the blood, milk, and fur of their livestock, without
killing them. Based on this information alone, we might classify this relationship as ____. However, the
cattle actually derive an overall benefit because the herdsman also protect them from predators and help
them find water and food. Therefore, this relationship should instead be classified as ____.
25. Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in
26. Use Figure 7-1. Population A is most likely
27.
28.
29.
36.
Use Figure 7-1. Approximately how many females in population B are between the ages of 50 and 59?
Use Figure 7-1. Population B would most likely be in which stage of demographic transition?
Use Figure 7-1. Describe the social factors that contribute to Population A’s demographics.
Which of the following is NOT true of sustainable development?
37. In 2005, the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment project analyzed the effects of the human population on
ecosystem services and concluded all of the following EXCEPT:
Table 1:
38. Create a graph of the data in Table 1. Identify and discuss two of the causes for the
Worldwide
Total
trend in the worldwide TFR that you graphed. Consider the data in Table 2.
Fertility
Rate
Identify and discuss two economic or societal factors that account for the
(TFR)
difference between the TFR of Kenya and that of the United States. Describe two
human activities related to the rapidly growling world population that are having
Year
TFR
an impact on Earth’s biodiversity.
1950
5.0
Country
TFR
Crude
Crude
Infant
Per Capita
1960
4.9
Birth
Death
Mortality Income
1970
4.7
Rate*
Rate*
Rate*
(USD)
1980
3.7
China
1.6
12
7
27
6500
Japan
1.3
9
8
2.8
31400
1990
3.4
Kenya
5.9
43
19
100
1000
2000
3.0
USA
2.0
14
8
6.7
42000
2010
2.5
*rates are per thousand per year