Cadet Name: _____________________________________________
Date: ________________
1. (U1C1L5:Q1) Read the following statements, and select the correct answer.
The Class A uniform is worn during ceremonies, social functions, formal inspections, and as required
by the Army JROTC Instructor.
The Class B uniform is worn at summer camp, field training, and while participating on special
teams.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Both statements are TRUE.
Both statements are FALSE.
The first statement is TRUE; the second is FALSE.
The first statement is FALSE; the second is TRUE.
2. (U1C1L5:Q2) Which of the following rules for placement of awards, insignias, and decorations
is not correct?
A) Awards are worn in order of precedence from top to bottom and from right to left
B) Brass articles like the lapel insignia, belt buckle, and cap insignia should be highly shined
and free of tarnish
C) On the male uniform, the nameplate is centered on the right pocket between the top
pocket seam and the top of the button hole
D) On the female uniform, the Honor Unit Star is worn one-half inch above the nameplate
and centered
3. (U1C1L5:Q3) A junior Cadet asked you to check his uniform prior to an inspection that is to
occur in two days. When you inspect it, you find that the overall appearance of the uniform looks
good, but there are several deficiencies that you think the Cadet should have found. Which one of
the following courses of action should you take to teach the Cadet how to properly conduct a preinspection?
A) Give the Cadet of list of the correction he needs to make, and have him come back
tomorrow for another pre-inspection, then repeat it again if necessary
B) Have the Cadet create or find a checklist with all of the parts of the uniform, conduct his
own self-inspection, then bring it back to you to make sure he did it properly
C) Make the necessary corrections to make sure the Cadet is prepared
D) Tell the Cadet that he has some deficiencies and to figure out what they are and to correct
them prior to the inspection
4. (U1C1L5:Q4) You are the battalion commander of an Army JROTC battalion, and you will be
conducting a uniform inspection of your battalion today. You are confident that your uniform is
correct because you have won several competitions involving wear of the uniform and your Battalion
Sergeant Major conducted a pre-inspection for you. However, you woke up late after studying all
night and didn't have time to shave before you went to school. Although good grooming is
important, this is a uniform inspection after all, and the inspection begins in five minutes.
Which of the following courses of action should you take?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Conduct the inspection, but inspect only uniforms, not personal appearance and grooming
Cancel the inspection because you are not ready for it
Delegate the conduct of the inspection to your Battalion Sergeant Major
Inform the chain of command that the inspection will be delayed for 5 minutes while you
shave
5. (U1C1L5:G1) What uniform is worn during ceremonies, social functions, and formal
inspections?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Class B Uniform
ACU Uniform
Class A Uniform
None. Civilian clothes are worn for these events.
6. (U1C1L5:G2) What uniform is worn during all occasions except field training and formal social
occasions?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Class A uniforms
The ACU
Class B uniforms
Any of the above
7. (U1C1L5:G3) T or F: A black neck tie is optional with the long-sleeved shirt of the Class B
uniform.
A) True
B) False
8. (U1C1L5:G4) T or F: A black necktie is optional with the Class B short-sleeved shirt.
A) True
B) False
9. (U1C1L5:G5) T or F: A black belt with a brass buckle must be worn with a Class A uniform
even though the belt does not show.
A) True
B) False
10. (U1C1L5:G7) The appropriate dress for summer camp and for participation on special teams is
the _____________ uniform.
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Army Combat
D) Military Dress Blue
11. (U1C1L5:G8) How is the garrison cap positioned on the head?
A) With the front vertical crease of the cap centered on the forehead in a straight line with
the nose and tilted slightly to the right but not touching the ear.
B) With the back vertical crease of the cap centered on the forehead in a straight line with
the nose and tilted slightly to the right touching the ear.
C) With the front vertical crease of the cap centered on the forehead in a straight line with
the nose and tilted slightly to the left but not touching the ear.
D) With the back vertical crease touching the nape of the neck tilted slightly towards the
right ear.
12. (U1C1L5:G9) What insignias do Cadet officers wear on their garrison caps?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Grade insignias
Unit insignias
Sublevel insignias
They don't wear insignias on caps.
13. (U1C1L5:G10) What insignia does an enlisted Cadet wear on the garrison cap?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Grade insignia
Subdued insignia
Yellow Honor Unit with Distinction insignia
ROTC insignia
14. (U1C1L5:G11) Where is the insignia positioned on the Cadet garrison cap?
A) On the left side of the cap one inch from the crease and centered vertically between the
top braid and the cap's bottom.
B) On the right side of the cap, centered between the braid and the cap's bottom.
C) On the crease and one inch from the bottom.
D) The insignia is not worn on the garrison cap.
15. U1C1L5:G12) Where are grade insignias worn on both the long and short sleeved JROTC
shirts?
A)
B)
C)
D)
On the shirt pocket on the left side.
On the shirt pocket on the right side.
It varies between schools. Generally they are worn on shoulder marks or shirt collars.
None of the above.
16. (U1C1L5:G13) On the male uniform, where is the nameplate placed on the uniform?
A) On the left pocket over the heart.
B) On top of and covering the pocket flap seam on the right pocket.
C) On the left pocket between the top pocket seam and the top of the buttonhole.
D) On the right pocket between the top pocket seam and the top of the pocket buttonhole.
17. (U1C1L5:G14) What is a gigline?
A) A type of fishing equipment used for catching frogs or toads.
B) A line formed by the seam of the shirt aligned with the zipper flap and the edge of the
belt buckle on certain JROTC uniforms.
C) A queue of Soldiers waiting to use a telephone.
D) A line of individuals in a particular marching formation.
18. (U1C1L5:G15) T or F: For males, t-shirts are optional under Class A and B uniforms.
A) True
B) False
19. (U1C1L5:G16) T or F: Wearing of hats out-of-doors is optional with uniforms, depending on
the weather.
A) True
B) False
20. (U1C1L5:G17) T or F: Male Cadets are allowed to wear facial hair if it is well groomed and in
good taste.
A) True
B) False
21. (U1C1L5:G18) How much jewelry is a female Cadet allowed to wear?
A) An unlimited amount as long as it is in good taste
B) A wrist watch, an identification bracelet, no more than two rings, and small circular
earrings that do not exceed ¼ inch in diameter
C) Two pieces; not including a wristwatch
D) Seven pieces
22. (U1C1L5:G19) T or F: The supply officer is responsible for ensuring that Cadets' uniforms are
cleaned and pressed.
A) True
B) False
23. (U1C1L5:G20) T or F: Black tennis or casual shoes such as loafers may be substituted for black
low quarter shoes or pumps with the JROTC uniforms.
A) True
B) False
24. (U1C1L5:G21) Who is responsible for inspecting the uniform prior to a formal inspection?
A) The company first sergeant
B) The Cadet wearing the uniform inspects it first, then a peer inspects the uniform, and then
the Cadet stands for a formal inspection.
C) The Executive Officer, or XO
D) The Squad leader
25. (U1C1L5:G22) What is the standard for a male Cadet's hair style?
A)
B)
C)
D)
opening.
The hairs must meet the bottom of the shirt collar.
It must be neatly trimmed with sideburns no lower than the bottom of the ear lobe.
Any style is acceptable as long as it is clean and well-groomed.
The hair must be neatly trimmed with sideburns no lower than the bottom of the ear
26. (U1C1L5:G23) What is the standard for a female Cadet's hair style?
A) Should be styled so that it does not touch the top of the collar and so the cap can be worn
easily.
B) There is no standard as long as it is well groomed and the cap can be worn correctly.
C) It must be cut so it does not touch the top of the shirt collar.
D) It must be really trimmed with sideburns no lower than the bottom of the ear opening.
27. (U1C1L5:G24) Name three factors that affect personal appearance.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Height, weight, and blood pressure.
Tidy hair, clean fingernails, and good posture.
Age, income, and race.
All of the above.
28. (U1C1L5:G25) T or F: Battle Dress Uniforms may be worn outside of school activities, such as
during a hunting weekend or at a workplace that involves physical labor.
A) True
B) False
29. (U1C1L5:G26) If a male Cadet is wearing a long-sleeved Class B uniform shirt, the Cadet must
also wear a _____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Black necktie
Garrison cap
Green necktie
Subdued grade insignias
30. (U1C1L5:G27) The headgear that is approved for wear with the Class A or B uniform is called
the _____________.
A) Class A cap
B) Class B headgear
C) Garrison cap
D) Any of the above
31. (U1C1L5:G28) When wearing shoulder cords, where is the ferrule positioned?
A)
B)
C)
D)
To the front of the uniform.
Towards the shirt collar.
To the back of the uniform.
Down the crease of the shirt sleeve.
32. (U1C1L5:G30) For enlisted Cadets, what direction does the chevron of a grade insignia point
on a uniform shirt?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The chevron points toward the sleeve.
The chevron points toward the front pocket.
The chevron points toward the shoulder blade.
The chevron points toward the collar.
33. (U1C1L5:G31) What is the purpose of wearing white t-shirts beneath Class A and B uniform
shirts?
A)
B)
C)
D)
To protect the clothing from damaging perspiration.
To wick moisture away from the body, thereby preventing heat injuries.
To keep the wearer warm so as to prevent hypothermia.
To make the uniform look tidy and fit better.
34. (U1C1L5:G32) T or F: Fad hair styles are allowed on Cadets as long as they don't interfere with
proper wearing of the garrison cap.
A) True
B) False
35. (U1C1L5:G33) Name three elements of good grooming.
A) Daily showers, teeth brushing, a rested appearance, clean hands and nails, a tidy uniform,
etc
B) Table manners, using proper salutations with others, and writing proper thank-you notes
C) Painting one's nails, standing up straight, and setting a proper table
D) Weekly showers, teeth brushing, a tidy uniform, a rested appearance, and clean hands and
nails
36. (U1C1L5:G34) The line formed by the seam of the shirt aligned with the zipper flap and the
edge of the belt buckle on certain JROTC uniforms is known as the ______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Gigline
Trouser line
Shirt alignment
Straight gig
37. (U1C1L5:G35) What is the main cause of tarnish on brass belt buckles and uniform buttons?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Baby oil
Friction
Air
Perspiration
38. (U1C1L5:G36) Individual awards for academic, athletic, and military excellence are worn
where on the uniform?
A)
B)
C)
D)
On the left shirt pocket or left pocket area.
On the left sleeve, one inch above the hem, and centered.
On the right shirt pocket or pocket area.
On the left collar, just above the rank insignias.
39. (U1C1L5:G37) T or F: When wearing individual awards, it is appropriate to wear the ribbon
and the medal for the same award at the same time.
A) True
B) False
40. (U1C1L5:G38) When is it appropriate to start a second row of individual award ribbons on a
uniform shirt?
A)
B)
C)
D)
When you have four or more ribbons
When the row goes from center buttons to the side seam
When you have at least six ribbons
When your number of ribbons can be evenly divided for balance
41. (U1C1L5:G39) Ribbons are worn on the uniform in order of precedence. Define "precedence."
A)
B)
C)
D)
In order according to the date they were received
In order according to how much you value them
In order according to importance
In order according to their sentimental value
42. (U1C1L5:G40) What is a ferrule on a uniform?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A decorative metal cap attached to the end of a shoulder cord to prevent fraying
An animal symbol often found on unit badges
Another name for the brass belt buckle
The device on the back of nameplates and ribbons into which the sharp end of a pin goes
43. (U1C1L5:G41) Where are honor unit stars worn on a uniform?
A)
B)
C)
D)
One-fourth of an inch above the top seam of the left pocket
One-fourth of an inch above the rank insignia on the shirt collar
Above and centered on the row of ribbons
One-fourth of an inch above the top seam of the right pocket
44. (U1C1L5:G42) T or F: An honor unit star is always worn by itself and unadorned.
A) True
B) False
45. (U1C1L5:G43) A decorative metal cap attached to the end of a shoulder cord to prevent it from
fraying is called a ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ferrule
Stay
Blousing garter
Fray cap
46. (U1C1L5:G44) Ribbons are worn on the uniform in order according to importance, also called
___________.
A) Precedence
B) Rank
C) Preference
D) File
47. (U1C1L5:G45) T or F: It is appropriate to start a second row of ribbons on a uniform shirt
when you have six or more individual award ribbons.
A) True
B) False
48. (U1C1L5:G46) T or F: It is inappropriate to wear the ribbon and the medal for the same award
at the same time.
A) True
B) False
49. (U1C1L5:G47) What awards are worn on the left shirt pocket or left pocket area of the
uniform?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Unit awards for Cadet academic and athletic performance
Individual awards for academic, athletic, or military excellence
All awards a Cadet is authorized to wear
Only individual competitive awards
50. (U1C1L5:G48) The main cause of tarnish on brass belt buckles and uniform buttons is
____________.
A) Oxidation
B) Respiration
C) Perspiration
D) Recreation
51. (U1C1L5:G49) What is a gigline?
A) A method for catching frogs.
B) The alignment of one's hands with the seam of the uniform trousers.
C) How straight one stands while at attention.
D) The alignment of the edge of the uniform shirt, the belt buckle, and the flap of the zipper
on trousers.
52. (U1C1L5:G50) Cleanliness that includes showering, teeth brushing, clean hands and nails, and
a tidy uniform are all elements of ______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
A code of conduct
Healthiness
Good grooming
Etiquette
53. (U1C1L5:G51) T or F: Male Cadets are prohibited from wearing facial hair with the uniform.
A) True
B) False
54. (U1C1L5:G52) T or F: The JROTC instructor is responsible for making all decision on
appropriateness of fad hair styles worn with the uniform.
A) True
B) False
55. (U2C1L4:F1)
In the Leadership Development Program,
Character describes what a leader must _____________.
Competence refers to what a leader must _____________.
Actions are what a leader must __________.
A) do, know, be
B) be, know, do
C) know, be, do
D) be, do, know
56. (U2C1L4:Q1) You delegated a difficult mission to a reliable junior Cadet. Unfortunately, you
didn't have time to supervise because you were completing another mission at the same time. The
Cadet failed to complete the mission successfully, but appreciated the opportunity to excel. The
Cadet knows that your supervisor will blame you for the failure and wants to take full responsibility.
As a leader, which of the below choices would be your BEST course of action next?
A) Allow the junior Cadet to take responsibility for the failed mission, and tell your
supervisor that your team shouldn't have been assigned so many difficult missions at once
B) Accept responsibility for the missions failure yourself, but talk to your supervisor about
assigning missions in the future that are more within you and your team's capabilities
C) Allow the junior Cadet to take responsibility for the failed mission, and counsel the Cadet
on the responsibilities of leaders
D) Accept full responsibility for the failed mission, but don't assign the junior Cadet to be in
charge of any more missions without close supervision
57. (U2C1L4:Q2) You promised your squad that Cadet Jones would be in charge of the next
mission because she earned the opportunity. You notice that the next mission isn't difficult, and she
wouldn't really be challenged by it.
What course of action would you take in order to best develop your squad without denying Cadet
Jones an opportunity?
A) Don't go back on your word. Assign her to be in charge of the mission anyway.
B) Tell your squad that the mission is so easy that anyone can do it, and then assign it to
another Cadet.
C) Tell Cadet Jones that "it just happens that way sometimes," have her complete the
mission, then be fair and have her wait until her turn comes around again so that everyone else gets a
chance too.
D) Tell your squad that you think another Cadet would learn more by being in charge of this
mission and ask for a volunteer. Assign Cadet Jones to supervise, but to allow the volunteer the
chance to accomplish the mission.
58. (U2C1L4:Q3) Your platoon sergeant always seems to assign the unpleasant tasks to your
squad. At summer leadership camp, your squad got assigned to clean the latrines. At the end of
leadership labs, your squad usually is tasked to clean up, and it seems like your squad is always left
to finish cleaning the weapons at the end of marksmanship training. Your team leaders have pointed
out that some squad members are starting to grumble about it, even though they reassured them that
things will even out in the end. Now that you think about it, they're right.
What's the best thing you can do for your squad?
A) Tell your squad that you will refuse to have them do any more tasks like that until the
other squads do some first.
B) Talk to the platoon sergeant and other squad leaders about the favoritism happening in the
platoon.
C) Tell your squad that you don't think the platoon sergeant would do that either on purpose
or by mistake, and tell them to "drive on."
D) In private, talk to the platoon sergeant about the situation, and propose a plan to make
task assignments more equitable in the future.
59. (U2C1L4:Q4) You are a squad leader, and your platoon is going to participate in a drill and
ceremonies competition at the end of the month. You approach your platoon leader about making
drill training more complex because your squad is much more proficient than the other squads. For
leadership development reasons, he asks you to apply the 11 principles of leadership and to make the
decision for him.
Which of the following best describes what your answer should be?
A) Since you are seeking responsibility, he should let you train your squad train separately.
B) Since the competition requires all of the squads to move in unison, he needs to keep
training them as a team, even if it means performing less difficult tasks.
C) Since you and your squad are technically and tactically proficient, then he should allow
your squad to train separately on more difficult tasks.
D) Since he already explained the task and you said that you understood it, then you will
continue to do what you were told.
60. (U2C1L4:G1) Define "attributes."
A)
B)
C)
D)
A quality or characteristic that belongs to a person; a distinctive personal feature.
A feature distinctive to a particular race of people.
An attitude that demonstrates confidence and ability.
A group characteristic that sets the group apart from other groups.
61. (U2C1L4:G2) Name three of the eleven principles of leadership.
A) Know yourself and seek self-improvement. Be technically proficient. Seek responsibility
and take responsibility for your actions.
B) Make sound and timely decisions. Set the example. Know your personnel and look out
for their welfare. Keep followers informed.
C) Develop responsibility in your followers. Ensure each task is understood, supervised, and
accomplished. Build a team. Employ your team in accordance with its capabilities.
D) All of the above
62. (U2C1L4:G3) Explain the BE, KNOW, DO attributes of leadership.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Be efficient, know everything, and do what you can.
Leaders must concentrate on what they are, what they know, and what they do.
Be your best, know your team, and do what you can to guide the team to success.
Leaders must be, know, and do the Army's Code of Conduct.
63. (U2C1L4:G4) A good leader accepts honest errors from teammates without recrimination.
Define "recrimination."
A)
B)
C)
D)
Considering teammates to be criminals.
A retaliatory accusation.
The state of not being bothered by incompetence.
The act of re-teaching material until a team understands it.
64. (U2C1L4:G5) A leader conducts him or herself so that personal habits are not open to censure.
Define "censure."
A)
B)
C)
D)
An opinion or judgment that criticizes or condemns sternly.
To tighten one's belt or one's hold on an object.
Another word for praise or kudos.
The act of revealing one's flaws to others to gain acceptance within a group.
65. (U2C1L4:G6) Name three "DO" things that a leader must provide.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Food, water, shelter
Listening, evaluating, encouraging
Purpose, direction, motivation
Supervision, encouragement, evaluation
66. (U2C1L4:G7) Name the five "KNOW" things that a leader must know.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Know the four factors of leadership and know yourself
Know human nature and know your job
Know your unit
All of the above
67. (U2C1L4:G8) Name the three "BE" things that a leader must be.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Have honorable character, be an example, resolve complex problems.
Be competent, be quick, be specific.
Be confident, be competent, be a non-complainer.
Be excellent, be an example, be an explainer.
68. (U2C1L4:G9) T or F: Once a leader masters leadership skills, his or her education on leadership
is finished.
A) True
B) False
69. (U2C1L4:G11) In the Leadership Development Program, character describes what a leader must
_____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
BE
DO
SAY
THINKS
70. (U2C1L4:G12) In the Leadership Development Program, competence refers to what a leader
must _____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
BE
DO
KNOW
SEE
71. (U2C1L4:G13) In the Leadership Development Program, actions are what a leader must
__________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
BE
SEE
DO
THINK
72. (U2C1L4:F2) What influences others to accomplish a mission or common goal?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Force
Purpose
Leadership
Money
73. (U3C11L4:Q1) You have $200 in an investment account that earns 10% interest over a year.
Even if you don't put any more money into the account, how much money will you have after 2
years?
A)
B)
C)
D)
$220
$222
$240
$242
74. (U3C11L4:Q2) You have $400 to invest. To meet your financial goals, you need it to grow to
$800 in 6 years. What rate of return do you need to earn?
A)
B)
C)
D)
6%
8%
10%
12%
75. (U3C11L4:Q4) Your friend doesn't have a lot of money to invest, but he knows he has to invest
it to reach his financial goals. He just doesn't know what to invest in. When you ask him what
investment ideas are important to him, he says, "I'll sacrifice some amount of return in order to not
have too high of a risk, but what I really want is diversification. I just don't want to risk all of my
money on one thing."
Which would you recommend he invest in?
A)
B)
C)
D)
ABC Mutual Fund
First Bank CD
ZYX Corporate Bond
XYZ Stock
76. (U3C11L4:G1) What is the difference between savings and investing, according to the NEFE
program?
A) Investing is money set aside for short-term goals, while savings is for long-term.
B) Savings is for emergencies; investing is for retirement.
C) Savings is usually money you set aside for short-term goals. Investing is setting money
aside for future income, benefit, or profit.
D) Savings is money you set aside in a safe, slow-growth, low interest fund, while investing
is money you set aside for risky, fast growth, high interest return.
77. (U3C11L4:G2) According to the NEFE program, _____________ is the relationship between
time, money, and rate of return (interest), and their effect on earnings growth.
A)
B)
C)
D)
the value of money
the return on investment
the time value of money
the opportunity costs of investing
78. (U3C11L4:G3) __________ is the payment you receive for allowing a financial institution or
corporation to use your money, according to NEFE.
A)
B)
C)
D)
User's fee
Unearned interest
Earned interest
A loan
79. (U3C11L4:G4) According to NEFE, what is "compounding" interest?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The rule that tells you how quickly it takes your money to double in value
The relationship between time, money, and rate of return (or interest)
The payment you receive for allowing a financial institution to use your money
The idea of earning interest on interest
80. (U3C11L4:G5) According to the NEFE program, what is the "Rule of 72"?
A) The rule that tells you to save $.28 out of each dollar you spend.
B) The rule of thumb of how much a mortgage or rent payment can be in proportion to your
income.
C) The rule that tells you how long it takes your money to double in value, wherein you
divide 72 by an interest rate to determine how many years it will take to double your money.
D) The accounting rule that helps you calculate how long it will take you to pay off highinterest credit card debt if you only pay the monthly minimum required.
81. (U3C11L4:G6) According to the NEFE program, _____________ is how fast your money
grows.
A)
B)
C)
D)
savings
interest
return on investment
rate of return
82. (U3C11L4:G7) T or F: According to NEFE, the risk-to-return relationship in money is that the
less risk you take with money, the greater the potential return you receive.
A) True
B) False
83. (U3C11L4:G8) What is "diversification," according to the NEFE program?
A) Spreading your credit card debt among several cards from different institutions
B) The reduction of investment risk by spreading your invested dollars among several
different investments
C) The ability to talk knowledgably about investing
D) Learning as many different job skills as possible so you'll never jeopardize your finances
by being unemployed
84. (U3C11L4:G9) According to NEFE, what is "inflation"?
A) When the price of goods and services increases to where a dollar in the future won't buy
as much as a dollar today
B) When the prices of goods and services increases to where a dollar today won't buy as
much as a dollar in the future
C) The tendency of credit card interest rates to go up once you start using one
D) When the price of goods and services decreases to where a dollar in the future won't buy
as much as a dollar today
85. (U3C11L4:G10) According to NEFE, banks and credit unions have their own versions of bonds
called _____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
savings bond
money market accounts
mutual funds
certificates of deposit
86. (U3C11L4:G11) According to NEFE, _____________ are investments that represent
ownership in a company.
A)
B)
C)
D)
bonds
stocks
mutual funds
savings accounts
87. (U3C11L4:G12) According to NEFE, what is a "collectible" in investing?
A) An investment that collects a good return through high interest rates
B) A group of varied funds, such as is found in mutual funds investing
C) A unique item, such as painting, sculpture, or works of art, which is rare in number and
that when sold can generate capital gains
D) None of the above
88. (U3C11L4:G13) According to NEFE, a ___________ pools money from several investors and
uses the money to buy a particular type of investment, such as stocks.
A)
B)
C)
D)
certificate of deposit
mutual fund
bond
betting pool
89. (U4C1L3:F1) Which statement below is not a way to encourage healthy eating habits?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Eat a healthy breakfast every day
Shop, cook, and plan for healthy meals
Watch your favorite TV show during dinner as a family
Know proper food servings for different ages
90. (U4C1L3:Q4) Select the option (A-D) that does NOT correctly complete the following
sentence.
"Learning to eat balanced meals, even on the run, contributes to your overall well-being by…
A)
B)
C)
D)
helping to maintain the proper weight."
providing energy for physical activities."
supplying nutrients for good health."
minimizing your metabolism and basic body functions."
91. (U4C1L3:Q5) Read carefully the following sentence and decide which option (A-D) is most
correct.
In order to improve your nutrition, lower your calorie and cholesterol intake, you should never eat at
fast-food restaurants.
A) True - the number of calories and levels of cholesterol in fast food is extremely high.
B) True - the nutritional content of all fast food is very low, and they are just filled with
empty calories.
C) False - As long as you monitor and limit what you eat, fast food does provide some
nutritional content.
D) False - Fast food has changed to the point where most of the food is high in nutritional
content and lower in calories and cholesterol.
92. (U4C1L3:G2) What is a calorie?
A) A measure of the vitamin content of a food source.
B) The amount of energy it takes to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one
degree Celsius.
C) The amount of energy it takes to do calisthenics.
D) A measure of what is burned in a fireplace when wood turns to ash.
93. (U4C1L3:G16) ____________ is the chemical process by which the body produces energy and
maintains vital functions.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Digestion
Hygiene
Posture
Metabolism
94. (U4C1L3:G21) A ____________ is the amount of energy it takes to raise the temperature of one
kilogram of water by
one degree Celsius.
A)
B)
C)
D)
gram
pound
thermal
calorie
95. (U4C2L3:AD1) Most cases of bleeding require more than direct pressure for it to stop.
A) True
B) False
96. (U4C2L3:AD2) Remove and replace blood-soaked dressings.
A) True
B) False
97. (U4C2L3:AD3) Elevating an arm or leg alone will not control bleeding and must be used in
combination with direct pressure over the wound.
A) True
B) False
98. (U4C2L3:AD4) If direct pressure and elevation fail to control bleeding, the next step would be
use a tourniquet.
A) True
B) False
99. (U4C2L3:AD5) Tourniquets are often needed.
A) True
B) False
100. (U4C2L4:V1) It's the Question Game!
the separation of a bone from its joint
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is clammy?
What is a closed fracture?
What is a dislocation?
What is a ligament?
101. (U4C2L4:V2) It's the Question Game!
an injury caused when a muscle or tendon is overstretched
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a strain?
What is a sprain?
What is an open fracture?
What is a dislocation?
102. (U4C2L4:V3) It's the Question Game!
a fracture in which the broken end of a bone pierces the skin
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a ligament?
What is an open fracture?
What is a strain?
What is a closed fracture?
103. (U4C2L4:V4) It's the Question Game!
to lose consciousness briefly because of temporary decrease in the amount of blood that flows to the
brain
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is fainting?
What is a dislocation?
What is a splint?
What is clammy?
104. (U4C2L4:V5) It's the Question Game!
damp, soft, sticky, and unusually cool
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a ligament?
What is clammy?
What is fainting?
What is a dislocation?
105. (U4C2L4:V6) It's the Question Game!
a fibrous band of tissue that holds bones together at a joint
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is an open fracture?
What is clammy?
What is trauma?
What is a ligament?
106. (U4C2L4:V7) It's the Question Game!
to support and immobilize a body part with a stiff material
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a strain?
What is a splint?
What is an open fracture?
What is a dislocation?
107. (U4C2L4:V8) It's the Question Game!
a fracture in which the broken bone does not push through the skin's surface
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a closed fracture?
What is trauma?
What is an open fracture?
What is fainting?
108. (U4C2L4:V9) It's the Question Game!
a behavioral state resulting from mental or emotional stress or physical injury that has lasting effect
on the mind; a physical wound or injury
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a splint?
What is an open fracture?
What is trauma?
What is a sprain?
109. (U4C2L4:V10) It's the Question Game!
an injury caused by twisting a ligament or tendon around a joint
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a strain?
What is a dislocation?
What is a splint?
What is a sprain?
110. (U4C2L5:F1) Scenario: You and your friends spent a fun day at the beach but forgot your
sunscreen. Later that evening you notice blisters across your friend’s back and realize he got
sunburned. How bad are the burns?
A) first-degree
B) second-degree
C) third-degree
111. (U4C2L5:F3) After calling 911, what is the first thing you do to treat an electrical burn victim?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Monitor ABC’s since electrocution can cause cardiac and respiratory emergencies.
Cover the area of the burn with a dry, loose bandage.
Secure the area by turning off the power source.
Apply ointment to the burned area.
112. (U4C2L5:F4) Why do you only treat dry chemical burns with water if a large amount of water
is available?
A) Small amounts of water can cause more burning.
B) You do not treat chemical burns with water.
C) You must flush the area for no more than 5 minutes.
113. (U4C2L5:F5) What title should be on this poster for preventing burns?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Prevention of 1st Degree Burns
Prevention of 2nd Degree Burns
Prevention of 3rd Degree Burns
Prevention of Electrical Burns
Prevention of Chemical Burns
114. (U4C2L5:F6) A friend calls you to ask how to perform first aid for a first-degree, caustic burn
that her little brother has on his arm and shoulder.
What's the first thing you should tell her?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Put on gloves and/or goggles to protect herself.
Remove the chemical from the skin and clothing.
Move her brother away from the electrical source.
Put pressure on the burn with a sterile dressing.
115. (U4C2L5:F7) When treating first-, second-, or third-degree burns which depth of burn is not
treated with water?
A) first-degree burns
B) second-degree burns
C) third-degree burns
116. (U4C2L5:Q2) You called 911 to request emergency assistance for a victim burned in a fire.
The victim tells you that he is in a lot of pain. His skin has many blisters and is severely swollen.
What should you tell the 911 operator when he asks, "How bad are the burns?"
A) "They are first-degree burns."
B) "They are second-degree burns."
C) "They are third-degree burns."
117. (U4C2L5:Q3) While watching a storm from your window, you and a friend see a power cable
fall and land on your neighbor who was walking her dog. After telling your friend to call the power
company and 911, you run outside to help. Your neighbor and her dog are unconscious, soaking wet,
and are both face up in a shallow puddle. The cable is on top of both of them.
What should you do next?
A) Evaluate your neighbor using the ABC's of lifesaving steps.
B) Use a piece of wood to push or pull your neighbor away from the cable, then perform first
aid.
C) Wait until the power company shuts off the power, then perform first aid.
D) Use a dry rope or stick to pull the cable off of your neighbor, then perform first aid.
118. (U4C2L5:Q4) A friend calls you because his sister burned herself playing with matches, and
she has third-degree burns on her arms and legs. He called 911 but couldn't maintain contact with an
operator. He put out the fire and her clothes are not burning, but he doesn't know what to do next.
You know he has several choices, but what should you tell him NOT to do?
A) Clean and rinse the wounds with water.
B) If not stuck in the burns, expose the burns by gently lifting clothing away.
C) Check to see if she is breathing and if not, to perform mouth-to-mouth resuscitation or
CPR.
D) Elevate the burned parts if on just one part of body.
119. (U4C2L5:G1) T or F: Cool running water should be used to wash out open blisters of third
degree burns.
A) True
B) False
120. (U4C2L5:G2) What are the three types of burns?
A)
B)
C)
D)
First, second, and fifth degree
Heat, chemical, and lightening
Heat, chemical, and electrical
Steam, chemical, and electrical
121. (U4C2L5:G3) What is the most painful type of burn?
A) First-degree burns, because the outer skin is so sensitive
B) Third-degree burns, because they are the most severe
C) Second-degree burns, because nerve endings are still intact even though tissue damage is
severe
D) All types of burns are excruciatingly painful
122. (U4C2L5:G4) The type of burn caused by wind, brief exposure to steam, and light sunburn is
______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
First-degree burn
Second-degree burn
Third-degree burn
The most severe burn
123. (U4C2L5:G5) Flammable liquids that suddenly burst into flames generally cause what degree
of burns?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Second-degree
First-degree
Third-degree
Flash
124. (U4C2L5:G6) T or F: Third-degree burns are the most painful because they cause the deepest
tissue damage.
A) True
B) False
125. (U4C2L5:G7) What degree of burn is caused by electric shock?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Third-degree
Second-degree
First-degree
All of the above
126. (U4C2L5:G8) T or F: Victims of second-degree burns to the face need careful monitoring for
swelling and blockage of the airway.
A) True
B) False
127. (U4C2L5:G10) T or F: All degrees of burns should be treated first with cool running water.
A) True
B) False
128. (U4C2L5:G11) Name three items that can be used to separate an electric shock victim from the
source of the electric current.
A)
cardboard
B)
C)
D)
A broom, stick, chair, or other item of dry non-conducting material like wood, plastic, or
A metal pole, a broom, cardboard
Your shoes (if they are rubber soled), a stick, or a chair
A metal folding chair, a plastic pipe, or a stick
129. (U4C2L5:G12) What variables affect the seriousness of a chemical burn?
A) The length of time the chemical is in contact with the skin; the concentration (or strength)
of the chemical; the temperature of the product containing the chemical
B) The place on the body the burn happens; the temperature of the product
C) The exposure of the chemical on the skin and the ambient temperature of the surrounding
air
D) How long the chemical is on the skin and the temperature of the water used to rinse the
chemical
130. (U4C2L5:G13) T or F: For dry chemical burns, only treat with water if large amounts of water
is available.
A) True
B) False
131. (U4C2L5:G14) ____________ burns may only produce a small burn on the skin, but should be
treated as potentially life threatening.
A)
B)
C)
D)
First-degree
Chemical
Electrical
Second-degree
132. (U4C2L5:G15) Chemical burns on the skin and eyes can be caused by ____________
chemicals.
A) dry and liquid
B) dry
C) liquid
133. (U4C2L5:AD1) Relieve tissue damage and pain from a burn by holding the injured part in a
sink filled with running water.
A) True
B) False
134. (U4C2L5:AD2) Butter can be effective on first- and second-degree burns.
A) True
B) False
135. (U4C2L5:AD3) When washing chemicals off the body, flush with water for at least five
minutes.
A) True
B) False
136. (U4C2L5:AD4) Do not try to neutralize a chemical because more damage may result.
A) True
B) False
137. (U4C2L5:AD5) Pain and inflammation can be relieved with aspirin or ibuprofen for those
victims who can tolerate those over-the-counter medications.
A) True
B) False
138. (U4C2L5:AD6) For a victim inside a building, turn off the electricity at the circuit breaker,
switch box, or unplug the appliance.
A) True
B) False
139. (U4C2L5:AD7) Brush dry powder chemicals from the skin before flushing unless large
amounts of water are immediately available.
A) True
B) False
140. (U4C2L5:AD8) When washing chemicals off the body, use high-pressure water.
A) True
B) False
141. (U4C2L6:F1) How well are you prepared to assist someone who has swallowed, inhaled,
absorbed, or injected a poisonous substance?
A)
B)
C)
D)
I have extensive experience successfully helping poison victims.
I have helped some poison victims but can always learn more.
I have seen someone else help a poison victim but have not done it myself.
I would not know where to begin helping a poison victim.
142. (U4C2L6:F2) Which example below would not be an example of an inhaled substance?
A)
B)
C)
D)
carbon monoxide
fumes
smoke
furniture polish
143. (U4C2L6:F3) On what side should a victim's body be positioned to delay absorption of an oral
poison into the circulatory system?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Back
Sitting Up
Right Side
Left Side
144. (U4C2L6:F4) Where is the best location to store a bottle of bleach if young children live in
your home?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Under the kitchen sink
In a cabinet above the washer/dryer
The bottom shelf of the bathroom closet
None of the above
145. (U4C2L6:F5) Which term below is not an example of an open wound?
A) abrasion
B) puncture
C) bruise
D) laceration
146. (U4C2L6:F6) How long is someone protected by a tetanus shot before needing another shot?
A)
B)
C)
D)
1 year
5 years
10 years
15 year
147. (U4C2L6:F7) Should you apply heat or ice to a bruise?
A) Heat
B) Ice
148. (U4C2L6:F8) What is your first priority in treating a wound?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Cleaning the area with a mild soap
Controlling the bleeding
Applying antibiotic ointment
Using a bandage to keep it clean
149. (U4C2L6:F9)
Katie was having a barbecue at her house and was busily preparing the food. In her haste, she cut
straight through her finger with a knife.
What would be the first step in treating the wound?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Clean the wound with soap and water
Apply antibiotic ointment to prevent infection
Apply pressure with a sterile dressing to control bleeding
Have her drink plenty of water to avoid dehydration
150. (U4C2L6:Q1) Diane's friends were going to pick her up soon, but she promised her mom that
she would clean up the garage first. It was hot in the garage, so she took a glass of water with her.
After sweeping the floor Diane mistakenly drank from a glass of paint thinner, a corrosive substance,
that was right next to her glass. She felt the thinner burn as it went down her throat.
What would you recommend she do immediately?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Run inside and call 911 or the poison control center.
Drink her water right away.
Force herself to vomit.
Sit down, remain calm, and monitor the ABC's of lifesaving.
151. (U4C2L6:Q2) You witnessed a horrible motorcycle accident. The rider's left arm was torn off
his body. You run as fast as you can to assist him. To your surprise, the rider is conscious but is
obviously in shock, and his arm is bleeding heavily. You act immediately by performing all but one
of the following steps.
Which one should you skip to best help the victim?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Apply a tourniquet.
Treat for shock.
Call 911.
Perform the ABC's.
152. (U4C2L6:Q3) Raymond was climbing up a ladder to his attic when he slipped and banged his
leg on the bottom step. He rubbed it for a couple seconds and told himself, "That's going to be a nice
bruise," then climbed back up again. As he was climbing down, he noticed that his leg was bleeding
where he had bruised it earlier. He lifted up his pant leg and saw a two-inch cut that was bleeding
slowly, but didn't appear to go all the way through the skin. When he looked at the ladder, he saw a
sharp, but clean, edge sticking out with a piece of skin hanging from it.
Which of the following would you tell Raymond he does NOT have to do?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Go to the emergency room for more medical attention.
Clean the wound, put some antiseptic on it, and cover it with a bandage.
Check to see if he's had a tetanus shot in the last 10 years.
Place an ice pack on his bruise and cut.
153. (U4C2L6:Q4) A fellow student in chemistry class accidentally swallowed a poisonous
substance. He has abdominal cramps and burns in his mouth, and has vomited. He is also starting to
"pass out." While your teacher calls the poison control center, you try to keep him awake by walking
him around, but he sits down on the floor.
How should you position him to help reduce the effects of the poison?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Place him on his left side to delay advancement of the poison into the small intestine
Elevate his feet so that his blood circulates to the heart and brain.
Have him kneel over a trash can so he can vomit.
Keep him standing and walking
154. (U4C2L6:G1) T or F: In situations of inhalation poisoning, you should call for help before you
attempt a rescue.
A) True
B) False
155. (U4C2L6:G2) On what side should a victim's body be positioned to delay absorption of an oral
poison into the circulatory system?
A)
B)
C)
D)
On his or her back
Upright in a sitting position
On his or her right side
On his or her left side
156. (U4C2L6:G3) What types of fluids are appropriate for victims who have ingested corrosive or
caustic poisons?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Milk or water
Only milk
Only water
Carbonated beverage
157. (U4C2L6:G4) Explain the difference between a cut and a scrape wound.
A) A cut, or laceration, is a straight, even wound made with a sharp object like a knife or
razor blade. A scrape, or abrasion, is caused by sliding impact between the skin and a rough surface.
B) A cut is shallow, whereas a scrape is deep.
C) A scrape bleeds a lot, whereas a cut bleeds very little.
D) An cut has irregular edges and an abrasion is a straight, even wound.
158. (U4C2L6:G5) A(an) ____________ is caused by sliding contact between skins and a rough
surface.
A)
B)
C)
D)
cut
skid (or strawberry)
scrape (or abrasion)
incision
159. (U4C2L6:G6) How do you treat a bruise?
A) Apply heat, and if the swelling continues, seek medical attention.
B) Ice it and elevate it, and seek medical attention if it continues to swell, becomes more
painful, appears deformed, or if the body part won't move.
C) Drain the hematoma and administer antibiotics.
D) Ignore it and it will go away.
160. (U4C2L6:G7) A scrape on the skin, called _____________, is accompanied by little bleeding.
A)
B)
C)
D)
an abrasion
an occlusion
an incision
a cut
161. (U4C2L6:G8) _____________ is a cut from a knife or other sharp object and is accompanied
by heavy bleeding and damage to muscles, tendons, or nerves.
A) A scrape
B) An incision
C) A strawberry
D) An abrasion
162. (U4C2L7:F1) True or False. If you have to be out in hot environments, you must take
precautions to prevent heat emergencies.
A) True
B) False
163. (U4C2L7:F2) Why should you stay away from salt if you are going to be involved in some
type of activity in the heat?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Too much salt makes you thirsty.
Salt is not a natural product and is therefore bad for you.
Increased salt intake decreases your blood pressure.
Digesting salt pulls water away from your muscles.
164. (U4C2L7:F3) The following list of symptoms are related to which type of heat injury?
- Heavy sweating
- Rapid breathing and
pulse
- Fainting or dizziness
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Exhaustion
A)
B)
C)
D)
Heat fatigue
Heat stroke
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion
165. (U4C2L7:F4) Which of the following is incorrect for treatment of heat cramps?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Get the victim to a cooler location.
Loosen the victim's clothing
Give a full glass of cool water every 5 minutes
Discontinue liquids, if victim is nauseated.
166. (U4C2L7:F5) Which of the following is a life-threatening emergency created as a result of the
body's inability to regulate its core temperature?
A) Heat fatigue
B) Heat stroke
C) Heat cramps
D) Heat exhaustion
167. (U4C2L7:F6) You are in charge of a community service project. Today's weather report
indicates that it is going to be hot and humid. Your volunteers are going to be working outside all
day, and they have a number of tasks that have to be completed by the end of the day. You wrote
some notes about heat injuries to help educate the volunteers, but you notice that one of them is
incorrect.
Which of the following notes is incorrect?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Eat high sodium foods to replace the salt lost during perspiration.
Drink at least one quart of water every hour.
Wear loose fitting clothes that protect you from the sun.
Do the most strenuous activities early or late in the day.
168. (U4C2L7:Q1) You're a platoon sergeant. Today's weather report indicated that it was going to
be hot and humid. Your squads are going to be working outside all day, and they have a number of
tasks that have to be completed today. You wrote some notes about heat injuries to help you brief the
squad leaders, but you notice that one of them is incorrect.
Which one of your following notes should you not brief to your squad leaders?
A) Avoid hard work in hot weather.
B) Have all Cadets drink at least one quart of water every hour.
C) Schedule required strenuous activities earlier and later in the day.
D) Identify fatigued Cadets. Cadets who have had previous heat related injuries and monitor
them closely.
169. (U4C2L7:Q2) Read the following passage and select which type of treatment it describes.
"Move the victim to a cool, shady area; loosen the victim's clothing; pour water on or apply a cool
wet cloth to the victim's skin; if possible, fan the victim; have the victim slowly drink one quart of
water; elevate the victim's legs; monitor the victim until symptoms are gone, and seek medical aid if
they continue; keep the victim from strenuous activities for the rest of the day."
A)
B)
C)
D)
Treatment for heat fatigue
Treatment for heat exhaustion
Treatment for heatstroke
Treatment for heat cramps
170. (U4C2L7:Q3) On a hot summer day, you look out your window at your neighbor working in
her garden. Suddenly, you see her collapse. You rush outside, and she is trying to get up, but she
doesn't know where she is, and she says, "I think I'm going to vomit." As you try to help her sit up,
her skin seems very hot and very dry, and she doesn't seem to be perspiring.
You realize she needs immediate aid so you move her quickly to a shady spot and start treating her
for __________.
A) heat stroke
B) heat fatigue
C) heat cramps
171. (U4C2L7:Q4) Read the paragraph below, and decide which option (A-D) is correct.
Jesse knew he was going to be working outside in hot, humid weather the next day, so he started
preparing himself in order to avoid heat injuries. He drank one quart of water an hour, and he put a
large amount of salt in his food to replace the water and salt he would lose. He chose loose clothing
made out of natural fibers that would cover most of his skin. Since he was going to wear some heavy
protective clothing, he planned his hardest work in the cooler hours of early morning and late
afternoon.
Of all of his actions, which one is most likely to cause a heat injury?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drinking only one quart of water each hour
Adding a large amount of salt to his food
Wearing loose clothing made of natural fibers
Planning his hardest work too early or too late
172. (U4C2L7:G1) Why is excessive intake of salt bad for the body?
A)
B)
C)
D)
It makes you thirsty.
Salt is not a natural product and is therefore bad for you.
Salt causes the body to excrete water, in turn decreasing blood pressure.
Salt causes the body to retain unnecessary water, in turn increasing blood pressure.
173. (U4C2L7:G2) Another name for the sweat evaporation that carries heat away from the body is
______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
self-regulation
perspiration or perspiring
condensation
evaporation
174. (U4C2L7:G3) ______________ is the condition that results when fluids are lost from the body
and not replaced.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Concentration
Evaporation
Starvation
Dehydration
175. (U4C2L7:G4) When in a high heat or high humidity environment, what type of clothing should
be worn to prevent heat exhaustion?
A) As little clothing as possible or proper
B) Synthetic clothing
C) Cotton clothing
D) Silk clothing
176. (U4C2L7:G5) ____________ are muscular pains and spasms that are caused by loss of salt
from the body due to heavy perspiration.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The Bends
Sciatica
Backaches
Heat cramps
177. (U4C2L7:G6) What physiological event takes place during heat exhaustion?
A) The body goes into shock because of retention of too much liquid.
B) When the body loses a great amount of fluid through heavy perspiration, less blood flows
to vital organs, resulting in a form of shock.
C) The body goes into shock because of high humidity and low ventilation.
D) The pain of heat cramps is so severe that a form of shock sets in.
178. (U4C2L7:G7) T or F: Heat stroke is the least severe of heat injuries and rarely leads to death.
A) True
B) False
179. (U4C2L7:G8) T or F: Individuals who show symptoms of fatigue are at higher risk for heat
injuries.
A) True
B) False
180. (U4C2L7:G9) The most threatening kind of heat injury is ______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Heat exhaustion
Sun blistering
Heat stroke or sun stroke
Sunburn
181. (U4C2L7:G10) What causes heat cramps?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Doing physical activity out-of-doors when the heat index is above 90 degrees
Loss of oxygen to the brain due to dehydration
Loss of salt from the body through sweating or inadequate intake
Loss of oxygen to the muscles due to exertion
182. (U4C2L7:G11) What is dehydration?
A) A medical condition that occurs when one gets overly hot.
B) An imbalance of fluids in the body caused when fluids and salt are not replaced.
C) A condition caused by prolonged exposure to the cold.
D) A situation that occurs in soldiers working in low-level humidity, as happens in desert
warfare.
183. (U4C2L8:F1) How motivated are you to study cold weather injuries?
A)
B)
C)
D)
I am very motivated since I spend a lot of time in the cold.
I am fairly motivated and am sure it will come in handy.
I am somewhat motivated but not sure I'll use it.
I don't see the importance since I am rarely in the cold.
184. (U4C2L8:F2) Which cold weather injury is shown in this picture?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Frostbite
Immersion Foot
Hypothermia
Snow Blindness
185. (U4C2L8:F3)
While out snowboarding you see that your friend is trembling. When you stop to ask if he is okay he
complains he is dizzy and you notice his speech is slurred. He is exhibiting signs of __________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
frostbite
trench foot
hypothermia
snow blindness
186. (U4C2L8:F4) True or False. Massaging the affected area of a cold weather injury is the proper
treatment necessary to stimulate blood flow and bring warmth to the area.
A) True
B) False
187. (U4C2L8:F5)
Warming the affected area of a cold weather injury is part of the treatment for all answer choices
except __________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
frostbite
immersion foot
hypothermia
snow blindness
188. (U4C2L8:F6) Why do you elevate the foot of a victim with immersion foot?
A)
B)
C)
D)
So it dries off
To relieve pain and burning
To massage it
To reduce swelling
189. (U4C2L8:F7)
You and a friend are looking forward to a day of cross country skiing. Your friend tells you not to
bother wearing sunglasses since it is hazy, cloudy weather. Do you agree?
A) Yes
B) No
190. (U4C2L8:Q1) Before a 4-day weekend in late autumn, you were directed to give a safety
briefing about wind chills. The weather report said the temperature was going to be between 10˚ - 30˚
F, and the winds were going to be from 10 - 20 mph. You used the wind chill chart to see what the
equivalent temperatures will be. Of the following statements, which one should you include in your
safety briefing?
A)
B)
C)
D)
There is no danger of cold weather injuries.
There is a high danger of a false sense of security.
There is an increased danger of freezing exposed flesh.
There is great danger of freezing exposed flesh and other cold weather injuries.
191. (U4C2L8:Q2) Read the paragraph below, and decide which option (A-D) is correct.
Jesse is supposed to be working outside in cold, damp, and possibly wet weather tomorrow. His job
is hard work, so to prevent cold injuries, he starts to prepare today. He started to drink one quart of
water an hour, and the weather report said that the temperatures and wind speeds weren't going to be
that bad. He washed his good work clothes, has two extra pairs of socks, and he plans to wear his
new heavy waterproof jacket. He knew he was physically fit because he works out regularly, and
because his doctor told him he was "fit as a fiddle." All he had left to do was to eat a good meal, take
a shower, and get a good night's sleep.
Of all of his actions, which one is most likely to cause a cold injury?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drinking only one quart of water each hour
Wearing a heavy waterproof jacket
Working outside in cold, damp, and wet weather
Physical fatigue
192. (U4C2L8:Q3) Even though the temperature is 53˚F, the light rain and wind put an extra chill in
the air. You and three of your friends have been playing touch football for the past three hours, and
you just decided to take a break before starting your last game. After a few minutes, your friend
Ethan is shivering, and he looks a little pale. He groans as he stands up, and then he trips over his
own feet. When you help him up, his hand feels very cold.
What should you and your friends do next?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Start treating him for hypothermia.
Start treating him for trench foot or immersion foot.
Start treating him for dehydration.
Continue to monitor his temperature to see if he warms up.
193. (U4C2L8:G1) What causes trench foot?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ingrown toenails
Poor foot care in geographic areas that are hot and dry
A fungal infection similar to athlete's foot
Prolonged exposure of the feet to wet conditions
194. (U4C2L8:G2) When body tissue dies because of a lack of blood supply, as happens with deep
frostbite, it is called ________.
A) goosebumps
B) gangrene
C) overexposure
D) the tourniquet effect
195. (U4C2L8:G3) T or F: One treatment for frostbite is to put the affected area close to a high heat
source such as a fire.
A) True
B) False
196. (U4C2L8:G4) What is snow blindness?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Any bright sunlight that causes a person to wear sunglasses
Glare off snow or ice that causes a person to squint
Sunburn on the face and eyelids caused by glare off ice or snow
Sunburn on the eyes caused by the sun's glare off of ice or snow
197. (U4C2L8:G5) What do experts mean when they say that precipitation increases cold weather
injuries?
A) The lower the chance of precipitation, the greater the chance of injuries
B) Water, rain, or snow decreases the chance of a cold-weather injury
C) Snow indicates severe cold that can cause frostbite
D) Water or moisture in the form of rain or snow speeds the loss of body heat and can cause
cold injuries
198. (U4C2L8:G6) T or F: Fear and fatigue lessen a person's ability to stay warm and thus increases
the possibility of cold injuries.
A) True
B) False
199. (U4C2L8:G7) When ice crystals form in body tissue exposed to temperatures below freezing, it
is called ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
goosebumps
chill factor
frostbite
overexposure
200. (U4C2L8:G8) T or F: Subcutaneous frostbite may cause gangrene and lead to the need for
surgical removal of the affected part.
A) True
B) False
201. (U4C2L8:G9) Long exposure of the feet to wet conditions at temperatures between 32 degrees
and 50 degrees causes what injury?
A) Immersion foot/Trench foot
B) Frostbite
C) Gangrene
D) Ingrown toenails
202. (U4C2L8:G10) What is hypothermia?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Too little body heat with abnormally low internal body temperature
Too much body heat with abnormally high internal body temperatures
The condition caused by subcutaneous frostbite
The result of exposing the feet to wet conditions at cool temperatures
203. (U4C2L8:G11) Name the three steps for treating snow blindness.
A) Leave the eyes uncovered, apply ointment, and seek medical treatment.
B) Cover the eyes with a dark cloth to discourage painful eye movement; Give the eyes
complete rest or use dark bandages and glasses to protect the eyes; Seek medical treatment.
C) Flush with water, cover in a dark cloth, and seek medical treatment.
D) Give the eyes complete rest, flush with water, and apply ointment.
204. (U4C2L8:G12) How do you treat cold weather dehydration?
A) Tighten the victim's clothes, move the victim out of the wind, and give fluids.
B) Move the victim out of wind and cold, and keep him or her warm; Loosen the victim's
clothing; Give the victim fluids, rest, and prompt medical treatment.
C) Move the victim into the sun and fresh air, tighten the victim's clothing, and give fluids.
D) None of the above
205. (U4C2L9:F1) Which is not one of the top three most common camping injuries as reported by
the National Park Service?
A)
B)
C)
D)
snake bites
sunburn
sprains
dehydration
206. (U4C2L9:F2) The most important thing to remember when treating a snake bite is to
____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
increase the circulation of the victim
give the victim liquids to thin out the venom
identify the snake that made the bite
suck the venom from the bite site
207. (U4C2L9:F3) How do you remove the stinger from an insect bite?
A) Cover the stinger with Vaseline
B) Squeeze the stinger so it pops out on its own
C) Scrape the surface with a fingernail or knife
D) You should not remove the stinger
208. (U4C2L9:F4) Animal and human bites pose a high risk of _____.
A)
B)
C)
D)
rabies
deadly venom
allergic reactions
infection
209. (U4C2L9:F5) True or False. This is a poisonous plant that will cause a skin irritation with a red,
itchy rash.
A) True
B) False
210. (U4C2L9:F6) Why do you apply pressure and immobilize the area when treating a snake bite?
A)
B)
C)
D)
so the bandage stays in place over heavy clothing
it slows the absorption of venom into the blood stream
splints stop the venom from entering the bone
you don't use pressure when treating a snake bite
211. (U4C2L9:Q1) You and a classmate are supposed to give a presentation on poisonous plants.
Unfortunately, your classmate is sick, so you have to give the presentation yourself. Your classmate
prepared this picture of the plants and their characteristics, but he didn't label them. From left to
right, you should label the plants:
A)
B)
C)
D)
Poison Ivy, Poison Sumac, Poison Oak
Poison Sumac, Poison Ivy, Poison Oak
Poison Oak, Poison Ivy, Poison Sumac
Poison Oak, Poison Sumac, Poison Ivy
212. (U4C2L9:Q2) While you were helping a friend clear some sticks and leaves from behind her
garage, she gets stung by something and is in extreme pain. On the way to the emergency room, you
give first aid by cleaning the wound, and applying ice. After she gets treated, the doctor tells you that
your quick action stopped the poison from causing severe tissue damage, and possibly gangrene,
from setting in.
What bit your friend?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A Black Widow
A Brown Recluse
A Tarantula
A Scorpion
213. (U4C2L9:Q3) While waiting in the emergency room with a friend who sprained his ankle,
some parents rush in with their son and tell the doctor that he was bitten by a snake an hour ago, and
they drove straight to the hospital. Their son is barely conscious, his arm is swollen, and he looks like
he threw up on himself. Even you can tell that they have to administer antivenin quickly or he will
die. If you were the doctor, what would you ask them to determine which antivenin to give?
(For printed tests, refer to image #17 or U4C2L9Q3-Poisonous-Snakes.jpg in the Image Library)
A)
B)
C)
D)
"What first aid have you already performed?"
"Where was he bitten?"
"How much venom do you think got in him?"
"What did the snake look like?"
214. (U4C2L9:Q4) You volunteered to be an assistant instructor for a first aid class on Bites, Stings,
and Poisonous Hazards. You told the instructor that you would be a couple minutes late, but that you
would join him as soon as you could. When you arrive, the instructor is talking about treating
something, but you don't know what. He says, "After cleaning the area around the wound, apply
constricting bands above and below the site. Continue to monitor lifesaving signs." In front of the
class he asks you if you know what treatment he's talking about.
What should you say next?
A)
B)
C)
D)
"Treatment for snake bites or allergic reactions to insect bites."
"Treatment for human or animal bites."
"Treatment for reactions to poisonous plants."
"Treatment for mild insect bites."
215. (U4C2L9:G1) Name the three types of venoms.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Neurovenom, Hemovenom, and Cardiovenom
Neurotoxins, Hemotoxins, and Cardiotoxins
Neurotoxins, Hemotoxins, and Respirotoxins
Cerebrotoxins, Hemotoxins, and Pulmonary toxins
216. (U4C2L9:G2) What type of venom affects the nervous system and can cause death by
paralysis?
A) Antivenin
B) Cardiotoxin
C) Neurotoxins
D) Hemotoxin
217. (U4C2L9:G3) What type of venom digests tissues, including blood cells?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Hemotoxins
Cardiotoxin
Neurotoxin
Rabies
218. (U4C2L9:G4) What are the indicators of a hemotoxic snake-bite injury?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Severe burning pain, discoloration at the bite site, and fang marks.
Numbness at the site of the bite and fang marks.
There are no indicators until days after the bite.
Numbness at the bite site, discoloration, and scratch marks.
219. (U4C2L9:G5) Although not all snakes are poisonous, all snakes may carry what infection?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Rabies
Tetanus (or Lockjaw)
Polio
Lyme's disease
220. (U4C2L9:G6) For snake bites on arms and legs where are constricting bands placed?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Eight inches above the bite
Six inches above the bite
Two to four inches above and below the bite
Three to six inches above and below the bite
221. (U4C2L9:G7) Name the viral disease that affects the central nervous system of mammals that is
transmitted by bites and can result in paralysis and death if left untreated.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Lyme disease
Tetanus
Lockjaw
Rabies
222. (U4C2L9:G8) Venom from black widow spiders and tarantulas is what kind of toxin?
A)
B)
C)
D)
All of the below
Cardiotoxins
Hemotoxin
Neurotoxin
223. (U4C2L9:G9) Name a common household ingredient that can be used to make a paste to
relieve pain and itching of insect bites.
A) Flour and water
B) Salt and water
C) Baking soda and water paste
D) Baking powder and water
224. (U4C2L9:G10) What should you do to treat skin that has come into contact with a poisonous
plant?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Remove contaminated clothing, wash exposed skin with soap and water
Apply rubbing alcohol, apply calamine, and do not cover the rash with a dressing
Seek medical care if the rash is on the face or mouth or interferes with breathing
All of the above
225. (U4C2L9:G11) Snakes are carriers of what acute disease?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Lupus
Rabies
Tetanus or lock-jaw
Strychnine poisoning
226. (U4C2L9:G12) Severe burning pain, discoloration, and swelling around bite marks are
characteristics of what kind of bite?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Snake bite
Spider bite
Insect bite
Human bite
227. (U5C1L2:Q1) While on a hike in the woods with a friend, you drop and break your only
compass. After walking around for a while, you think that you may be lost. You hike to the top of a
nearby hill, and see two features that are also marked on your map.
What step should you do next to help find your way out of the woods?
A) Try to trace your steps back to where you started.
B) Orient your map so that the map is aligned with the terrain and landmarks.
C) Immediately start walking towards one of the landmarks.
D) Have one person stay at your current location while the other starts going to a location
that you chose on the map.
228. (U5C1L2:Q2) While planning a camping trip, you are assigned the task of finding campsites.
According to this legend, what types of places have campsites on this map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
National Parks
State Parks
State Parks and Recreation Areas
State Parks, Recreation Areas, and Rest Areas
229. (U5C1L2:Q3) You and a group of Cadets are looking at the first topographical map that any of
you has ever seen. One of the other Cadets points to some brown lines and a brown number 600, and
asks what they mean.
What should you tell him?
A)
B)
C)
D)
"That shows the distance between two places."
"That's the road route. It must be Route 600."
"That's the map number. It is sheet 600."
"That's the elevation. That line must indicate 600 meters above sea level."
230. (U5C1L2:Q4) You are assigned to your battalion S-3, and are an assistant to the Operations
Sergeant. The Operations Sergeant was given the assignment to plan a route for a 4-mile hike in a
local park. To test you, he gives you four different kinds of maps of the park, and tells you to select
the one that will show elevation changes most accurately.
Which one do you select?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Geographic Map
Topographic Map
City Road Map
State Road Map
231. (U5C1L2:G1) Give three examples of man-made objects frequently found on maps.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Scales, Margins, Index
Bridges, Roads, Railroads, Towers, etc.
Street Names, National Parks, Topographies
Colleges, Cemeteries, Hospitals
232. (U5C1L2:G2) A map that shows relief and the position of natural and man-made features is a
____________ map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
topographic
atlas
street
geographic
233. (U5C1L2:G3) What is a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A collection of geographic maps of a region, countries, continents, or the world
A round, ball-shaped representation of the earth
A line drawing of a portion of the earth's surface, drawn to scale as seen from above
A region or tract of land
234. (U5C1L2:G4) What is meant by the phrase "to scale," as in a map being drawn "to scale"?
A)
B)
C)
D)
To fit inside the boundary of the edges of the paper
To check the accuracy of information detailed on a map
To show the climate, population, or relief of a certain geographic region
With each set measurement on the scale representing a set amount of the earth's surface
235. (U5C1L2:G5) What are the three most common types of maps?
A)
B)
C)
D)
City or state road maps; geographic maps or atlases; and topographic maps
Globes, atlases, hand-drawn maps
Flat, folder, and spherical
Wall, car, and pocket
236. (U5C1L2:G6) Name three pieces of information commonly found on city maps.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Street names, important buildings, route numbers
Distance, recreational areas, historical areas
All of the above
None of the above
237. (U5C1L2:G7) ____________ maps show an overall view of the mapped area in relation to
climate, population, relief, and/or vegetation.
A)
B)
C)
D)
To scale
Topographic
Globes
Geographic
238. (U5C1L2:G8) What is an atlas?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A round, sphere-shaped representation of the world
A set of measurements on a scale representing a set amount of the Earth's surface
A collection of geographic maps of regions, countries, continents, or the world
The most common type of map that depicts city and state roads
239. (U5C1L2:G9) T or F: Atlases are generally the most accurate of maps.
A) True
B) False
240. (U5C1L2:G10) What type of map is generally the most accurate?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Street
Topographic
City
Geographic
241. (U5C1L2:G11) _____________ maps show terrain and land forms in a way which can be
measured.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Topographic
Geographic
City and state
Word
242. (U5C1L2:G12) Define "terrain."
A)
B)
C)
D)
A region or tract of land; the character (or topography) of a tract of land
A type of turtle found only in the Galapagos Islands
A term used to describe the roughness of an incline of land
A body of water
243. (U5C1L2:G13) How is elevation normally indicated on a topographic map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
By vertical contour lines
By horizontal contour lines
By green cone-shaped arrows that resemble mountain tops
By numbers
244. (U5C1L2:G14) What type of map is most commonly used in the military?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Geographic
Street
Topographic
Hand-drawn
245. (U5C1L2:G15) T or F: Topographic maps show the horizontal positions and elevations of
terrain and landforms.
A) True
B) False
246. (U5C1L2:G16) Instructions on a map are also known as _______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Gibberish
Marginal information
Insert
Relief
247. (U5C1L2:G17) Where on a map is marginal information located?
A)
B)
C)
D)
In the center of a map
On the outer edge of the map
At due North on the map
On the reverse side of the map
248. (U5C1L2:G18) T or F: Maps are standardized; therefore, the marginal information for one map
will help you read all maps.
A) True
B) False
249. (U5C1L2:G19) How are maps named?
A)
B)
C)
D)
They are named after the most prominent cultural or geographic feature in the area
Carefully
By an alphanumeric code that is determined by latitude and longitude
By the relief they describe
250. (U5C1L2:G20) Inserts on sheet maps that examine small sections of the map in more detail are
found _______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
around the margin or on the reverse side of the map sheet
at due North
beside the bar scale
beside the name of the map
251. (U5C1L2:G21) What is "relief" on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Signs or markers that point out the nearest rest stop
A special marginal section that contains ground distance measurements
A prominent cultural feature on a map
The shape of the land formations on the earth's surface
252. (U5C1L2:G22) Special rulers used to measure ground distance on a map are called
________________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
bar scales
slide rulers
centimeters
odometers
253. (U5C1L2:G23) What are the most common units of measurement on bar scales?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Sharps and flats
Miles and kilometers
Centimeters and miles
Kilometers and kiloliters
254. (U5C1L2:G24) What is a printing note on a map?
A) A note that indicates the surveyor who gathered data for the map
B) A warning on the possible inaccuracies on a map
C) A note that indicates the agency responsible for printing the map, as well as the date the
map was printed
D) A note that discusses projected road improvements or completions
255. (U5C1L2:G25) The printing date on a map determines when the map was printed, not when
the information on the map was ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
obtained
printed
checked for accuracy
sent to press
256. (U5C1L2:G26) A _____________ is a mapmaker's shorthand method of illustrating and
identifying mapped features using symbols to show prominent features on the map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
legend
editing symbol chart
tick mark
printing note
257. (U5C1L2:G27) How are roads indicated on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
By the colors red and blue
By green and black lines of varying thickness
By broken yellow and red lines of a consistent thickness
By parallel or solid lines that indicate road size by their thickness and color
258. (U5C1L2:G28) T or F: Legends illustrate full, partial, and no access to major interchanges.
A) True
B) False
259. (U5C1L2:G29) How are railroads symbolized on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Single or parallel lines with horizontal tick marks
Tiny pictures of trains
Railroad crossing signs in miniature
Chevrons in black
260. (U5C1L2:G30) How are airports generally symbolized on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
By the numbers on a runway
By the word "airport" followed by a pointer mark
By a picture of an airplane
By a picture of a flight tower
261. (U5C1L2:G31) How are water features symbolized on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
By miniature inner tubes
In blue and in the approximate shape of the feature
By a picture of a fountain
By an icon of a fish and a wave
262. (U5C1L2:G32) How are route markers generally symbolized on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
By the route name written in black ink
By a state-shaped symbol with the road number in its center
By a shield or shape containing the number of the road in its center
By red and black numbers accompanied by an arrow
263. (U5C1L2:G33) East-West routes that are principle routes on maps are identified with
__________ numbers.
A)
B)
C)
D)
loop
three digit
even
odd
264. (U5C1L2:G34) North-South routes or principle routes on maps are identified with
____________ numbers.
A)
B)
C)
D)
odd
even
small
alphanumeric
265. (U5C1L2:G35) How many digits are in loop or belt routes that circle or bypass major cities?
A) Two
B) Three
C) One
D) Four
266. (U5C1L2:G36) How are spur routes that lead into major cities identified in map symbols?
A) With a picture of a rooster spur and a three-digit number
B) Red, white, and blue signs with three-digit numbers with the first number always being
odd (for example I-580)
C) By black and white shields with a three-digit number
D) Red, white, and blue signs with a two-digit number
267. (U5C1L2:G37) Green signs marking routes from principle, loop, or belt highways that go to or
through cities are called ______________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
hazardous waste routes
scenic markers
spur routes
business routes
268. (U5C1L2:G38) What is a boundary symbol on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A symbol that outlines a water boundary on a map
A broken or intermittent line that vary in pattern to denote different boundaries
A solid black line to denote changes in countries or states
A broken or intermittent line of varying pattern that indicates where land ends and oceans
begin
269. (U5C1L2:G39) How is mileage between major cities symbolized on state or regional maps?
A)
B)
C)
D)
In blue ink with blue directional arrows between the two cities
In red ink with red directional arrows centered between the two cities
By green signs that list the mileage to the next major cities
In red, white, and blue shielded symbols
270. (U5C1L2:G40) What chart on a map shows the actual ground mileage between major cities
located on the map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The mile marker chart
The bar scale
Official Highway Mileage chart
The marginal chart
271. (U5C1L2:G41) What does the color black represent on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Natural objects such as mountain ridges or lakes
Man-made features such as buildings or roads
Cemeteries
State road signs
272. (U5C1L2:G42) What does the color blue represent on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Sky
Water features such as lakes, swamps, and rivers
Boundaries between countries, states, or nations
Historical markers or areas of historical interest
273. (U5C1L2:G43) What does the color brown represent on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Trees and brush
Scenic routes
Roadbeds, cuts, and fills
Elevation and relief features such as mountain ranges
274. (U5C1L2:G44) What does the color green represent on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Mountain ranges
City identification markers
Mile markers
Vegetation such as woods, grassland, brush, orchards, or vineyards
275. (U5C1L2:G45) What does the color red represent on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Site markers of scenic interest
Man-made features such as populated areas, main roads, or special features
Light of a city
Boundary markers between countries or states and the like
276. (U5C1L2:G46) _____________ is a high-tech worldwide radio navigation system formed
from a network of 24 satellites and their ground stations.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Radio Frequency System
Uplink Satellite System
The internet
277. (U5C1L2:G47) Instructions located along the outer edges of a map is called _____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
printing information
marginal information
graffiti
legend information
278. (U5C1L2:G48) A ____________ is a special ruler used to measure ground distance on a map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
tape measure
slide ruler
yardstick
bar scale
279. (U5C1L2:G49) The most common units of measurement on bar scales are ___________ and
____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
ounces and pints
micrograms and kilograms
miles and kilometers
ounces and pounds
280. (U5C1L2:G50) What is a legend on a map?
A) A mapmaker's shorthand method of illustrating and identifying mapped features using
symbols to show prominent features
B) Another name for a famous place marked by a historical marker
C) A set of distinct, unusual shapes used by individual mapmakers to mark their work
D) A separate, written narrative to a map that illustrates and discusses a mapmaker's unique
symbols
281. (U5C1L2:G51) A(n) _____________ is a line drawing of a portion of the earth's surface,
drawn to scale as seen from above.
A)
B)
C)
D)
map
atlas
globe
hemisphere
282. (U5C1L2:G52) Parallel or solid lines that vary in thickness and color mark are _____________
on a map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
railroads
scenic routes
roads
rivers and streams
283. (U5C1L2:G53) Single or parallel lines with horizontal tick marks symbolize ____________ on
a map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
roads
railroads
scenic routes
historical markers
284. (U5C1L2:G54) Blue areas of varying shape symbolize _____________ on a map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
scenic overlook sites
historical markers
scenic routes
water features
285. (U5C1L2:G55) A shield or other shape with numbers in the center symbolizes _____________
on a map.
A)
B)
C)
D)
exit numbers
route markers
scenic markers
street names
286. (U5C1L2:G56) A principle route with a number of I-70 runs what direction?
A)
B)
C)
D)
East-West
North-South
Through major cities
Around major cities
287. (U5C1L2:G57) A principle route with a number of I-35 runs what direction?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Around large cities
Through small towns only
East-West
North-South
288. (U5C1L2:G58) What can you assume about a principle route with a number of I-435?
A)
B)
C)
D)
That this loop takes one through the center of major cities
That it is a scenic route and therefore not the quickest way to a destination
That it is a loop, beltway, or bypass around a major city and that it runs East-West
That it is a loop, beltway, or bypass around a major city and that it runs North-South
289. (U5C1L2:G59) The color _________ on a map represents man-made features such as
buildings or roads.
A)
B)
C)
D)
black
red
blue
green
290. (U5C1L2:G60) The color _________ on a map represents water features such as lakes,
swamps, and rivers.
A)
B)
C)
D)
gray
black
brown
blue
291. (U5C1L2:G61) The color _________ on a map represents elevation and relief features such as
mountain ranges.
A) black
B) brown
C) dark green
D) olive green
292. (U5C1L2:G62) The color _________ on a map represents vegetation such as woods,
grasslands, orchards, or brush.
A)
B)
C)
D)
red
brown
black
green
293. (U5C1L2:G63) A principle route with a number of I-71 runs ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
around a city
through a town
East/West
North/South
294. (U5C1L2:G64) What does GPS stand for in land navigation?
A)
B)
C)
D)
General Point Stand
Global Perimeter System
Global Positional Status
Global Positioning System
295. (U5C1L2:G65) How does a GPS work?
A) It runs on solar activated batteries and lets you shoot an azimuth.
B) It uses radio station frequencies to print out a map of your location.
C) It works like an electronic slide rule to help measure distances.
D) It is a radio navigation system that uses a network of 24 satellites and their ground
stations to determine precise coordinates on the ground.
296. (U5C1L2:G67) Objects on a map such as bridges, roads, and railroads are called
___________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
man-made objects
obstacles
permanent objects
man-made obstacles
297. (U5C1L2:G72) What information is commonly found on city maps?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Street names, important buildings
Route numbers, distance
Recreational areas, historical areas
All of the above
298. (U5C1L2:G73) What do geographic maps show?
A) Streets, roads, and interstates of a country
B) All historical and scenic markers of a mapped area
C) An overall view of the mapped area in relation to climate, population, relief, vegetation,
and hydrography
D) The public transportation routes, including air corridors, into and out of a mapped area
299. (U5C1L2:G74) ____________ is a collection of geographic maps of regions, countries,
continents, or the world.
A)
B)
C)
D)
An encyclopedia
A street map
A globe
An atlas
300. (U5C1L2:G75) T or F: Atlases are generally the least accurate of maps.
A) True
B) False
301. (U5C1L2:G76) ____________ maps are generally the most accurate.
A)
B)
C)
D)
City
Atlas
Topographic
Geographic
302. (U5C1L2:G77) Maps that show terrain and landforms in a way which can be measured are
called ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
atlas maps
street maps
geographic maps
topographic maps
303. (U5C1L2:G78) A region or tract of land, or the character (or topography) of a tract of land is
called ____________.
A)
B)
C)
D)
demographics
section
relief
terrain
304. (U5C1L2:G79) ____________ on a topographic map is normally indicated by vertical contour
lines.
A) Elevation
B) Lift
C) Rise
D) Relief
305. (U5C1L2:G81) What is marginal information on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Information that explains a map's color coding
A narrative summary that states such information as a city's major attractions
Instructions placed around the outer edge of a map
Information that is only partially accurate, depending on the print date of the map
306. (U5C1L2:G84) ___________ are small sections of a sheet map that are given in great detail
and are generally found on the reverse side of the map sheet.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Tight shots
Zoom ins
Inlets
Inserts
307. (U5C1L2:G85) What is "relief" on a map?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Details found in margins of maps
Synonymous with elevation
What you get when a map helps you find your way when you are lost
The shape of land formations on the earth's surface
308. (U5C1L2:G88) T or F: The printing note on a map indicates the date the map was printed.
A) True
B) False
309. (U5C1L2:G92) East-West routes on maps that are primary routes are identified with
__________ numbers.
A)
B)
C)
D)
even
odd
two-digit
three-digit
310. (U5C1L2:G93) North-South routes on maps that are principle routes on maps are identified
with __________ numbers.
A)
B)
C)
D)
odd
even
two-digit
three-digit
311. (U5C1L2:G94) Loops or belt routes that circle or bypass major cities are identified by how
many digits in their identifier?
A) Four
B) One
C) Three
D) Two
312. (U5C1L3:F1) What is a pattern of intersecting parallel lines used to divide a map into small
squares?
A) Grid north
B) Bench marks
C) Grid zone
D) Grid
313. (U5C1L3:F2) Topographic maps show detail about terrain, elevation, and relief.
A) True
B) False
314. (U5C1L3:F3) What is a unit of measurement that is approximately 5,280 feet?
A) Nautical mile
B) True north
C) Statue mile
D) Declination
315. (U5C1L3:Q1) You are participating in an orienteering competition at your school. You are
planning your route, but you can't locate the starting point, which is just east of a large quarry. You
know that symbols aren't always the same on different maps, so what would be the best place to look
for the symbol for a quarry?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Marginal Information
Grid Reference Box
Legend
Declination Diagram
316. (U5C1L3:Q2) You are on a team that is designing an orienteering course at a local park. Two
of your team members are in disagreement about one aspect of the map. One says that true, grid, and
magnetic north is the same on the map, and the other says that they aren't. Where on the map should
you tell them to look to solve their disagreement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Contour Interval Note
Declination Diagram
Scales
Special Notes
317. (U5C1L3:Q3) You are working in the supply room when another Cadet calls and asks if you
have the map "to the right of Tenino, Washington." Since you don't know where Tenino is, where
should you ask your fellow Cadet to look to find the correct Map Sheet Number?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Adjoining Map Sheets Diagram
Legend
Declination Diagram
Grid Reference Box