Development Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. The sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to death is known as
a. maturation.
b. the perinatal period.
c. development.
d. childhood.
____
2. A one-celled organism formed by the union of the sperm and egg is known as
a. zygote.
b. germinal.
c. embryo.
d. fetus.
____
3. The correct sequence of the stages of prenatal development are
a. germinal, fetal, embryonic.
b. embryonic, fetal, germinal.
c. germinal, embryonic, fetal.
d. fetal, germinal, embryonic.
____
4. The prenatal period refers to
a. the period from conception to implantation.
b. the nine months before birth.
c. the period of time immediately after birth.
d. the time period before conception takes place.
____
5. Omar's wife conceived a baby seven days ago and does not yet know she is pregnant. His wife's pregnancy is
currently in the
a. germinal stage.
b. embryonic stage.
c. fetal stage.
d. placental stage.
____
6. The embryonic stage of prenatal development refers to
a. the formation of a zygote.
b. the implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.
c. the second through eighth weeks of prenatal development.
d. the last seven months of the pregnancy.
____
7. During which stage of development do the heart, spine, and brain emerge?
a. Postnatal
b. Placental
c. Fetal
d. Embryonic
____
8. The stage of prenatal development during which MOST miscarriages are likely to occur is the
a. zygotic stage.
b. germinal stage.
c. fetal stage.
d. embryonic stage.
____
9. Chelsey is pregnant and is concerned about taking an over-the-counter medication for her allergies. She
should be MOST concerned if her pregnancy is currently at the
a. placental stage.
b. germinal stage.
c. fetal stage.
d. embryonic stage.
____ 10. The third stage of prenatal development, which lasts from two months through birth, is referred to as the
a. postgerminal stage.
b. embryonic stage.
c. fetal stage.
d. postnatal stage.
____ 11. Avery is excited by the fact that she has begun to feel her baby kicking and moving in her uterus. If Avery can
feel her baby moving, her pregnancy must be in the
a. embryonic stage.
b. germinal stage.
c. fetal stage.
d. neonatal stage.
____ 12. Premature babies who survive are typically born during the
a. germinal stage.
b. embryonic stage.
c. fetal stage.
d. postnatal stage.
____ 13. The age of viability, referring to the age at which the fetus ____, is reached ____.
a. can first respond to stimulation; at about 9 weeks
b. can survive if born prematurely; between 23 and 26 weeks
c. first has a heartbeat; at about 16 weeks
d. experiences no further cell division in the brain; between 36 and 38 weeks
____ 14. Felicia is pregnant, and her blood pressure has become dangerously high. Her doctor wants to deliver her
baby by Cesarean section, even though Felicia is only 26 weeks pregnant. If Felicia's baby is delivered at this
point in her pregnancy, the baby will have
a. less than a 10% chance of survival.
b. approximately a 25% chance of survival.
c. almost a 75% chance of survival.
d. virtually a 100% chance of survival.
____ 15. Both Amy and Barb are pregnant. Currently, Amy's pregnancy is in the shortest stage of prenatal development
and Barb's is in the longest stage. Amy's pregnancy is in the ____ stage, and Barb's is in the ____ stage.
a. germinal; fetal
b. embryonic; fetal
c. germinal; embryonic
d. fetal; germinal
____ 16. The cell mass that develops from the fertilized egg implants itself in the uterine wall during the ____ stage of
prenatal development.
a. fertilization
b. fetal
c. embryonic
d. germinal
____ 17. The structure that allows both oxygen and nutrients to pass into the fetus from the mother's bloodstream and
bodily wastes to pass out to the mother's bloodstream is the
a. uterine wall.
b. zygote.
c. placenta.
d. proximodistal organ.
____ 18. At the end of the ____ stage of prenatal development, the developing organism is about one inch long and has
already developed most of the vital organs and bodily structures.
a. germinal
b. embryonic
c. zygote
d. fetal
____ 19. Which of the following does NOT occur during the final three months of prenatal development?
a. Respiratory and digestive systems mature
b. Sex organs start to develop
c. Brain cells multiply at a rapid rate
d. A layer of fat is deposited under the skin
____ 20. Developing structures generally are MOST vulnerable to damage from environmental factors during the ____
of prenatal development.
a. germinal stage
b. embryonic stage
c. fetal stage
d. last two months
____ 21. Severe maternal malnutrition increases the risk of
a. heart defects and irritability.
b. birth complications and neurological defects.
c. mental retardation.
d. delayed motor and mental development.
____ 22. Low birth weight has been shown to be associated with an increased risk of
a. heart disease and diabetes.
b. increased vulnerability to schizophrenia.
c. mental retardation.
d. delayed motor and mental development.
____ 23. If a baby is born with a small head, heart defects, and retarded mental and motor development, the mother is
MOST likely to have
a. had smallpox early in her pregnancy.
b. been an alcoholic.
c. continued to work during pregnancy.
d. smoked during pregnancy.
____ 24. The full-blown version of fetal alcohol syndrome is produced by
a. heavy drinking during the first three months of pregnancy.
b. heavy drinking during the final three months of pregnancy.
c. one drunken binge at any time during pregnancy.
d. heavy drinking throughout pregnancy.
____ 25. The potential damage due to prenatal exposure to maternal illness is primarily a function of
a. when the mother contracts the disease.
b. the severity of the mother's symptoms.
c. the condition of the mother's overall health.
d. whether the unborn child is male or female.
____ 26. Sandy suffered from depression while she was pregnant. It is MOST likely that her child will later
demonstrate
a. mental retardation.
b. behavioral problems.
c. antisocial personality traits.
d. schizophrenia.
____ 27. Joyce was severely malnourished during her pregnancy. As a result, her baby is MOST likely to have
a. malformations of the arms and legs.
b. a small head, heart defects, and irritability.
c. attention deficit disorder and die from sudden infant death syndrome.
d. complications at birth and neurological deficits.
____ 28. Which of the following is NOT associated with maternal smoking during pregnancy?
a. Increased risk of miscarriage or stillbirth
b. Heart defects
c. Slower than average cognitive development
d. Increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome
____ 29. Substances such as viruses and drugs that can harm the developing fetus are known as
a. opiates.
b. teratogens.
c. pathogens.
d. prenatals.
____ 30. When Fred's mother was pregnant with him, she lived in an area with very high levels of air pollution. Based
on research, Fred will be at increased risk for which of the following at age 5?
a. Lung cancer
b. Heart disease
c. Impaired cognitive development
d. Asthma
____ 31. A diet rich in __________ can reduce the risk of many birth defects.
a. vitamin A
b. folic acid
c. omega 3 fatty acids
d. teratogens
____ 32. Which of the following is associated with maternal smoking during pregnancy?
a. Increased risk of microcephaly
b. Heart defects
c. Conduct problems
d. Decreased risk of sudden infant death syndrome
____ 33. The cephalocaudal trend in physical development suggests that infants will be able to control their
a.
b.
c.
d.
hips and legs before they can control their shoulders and arms.
shoulders and arms before they can control their hands and fingers.
hands and fingers before they can control their shoulders and arms.
shoulders and arms before they can control their hips and legs.
____ 34. In learning to crawl, children initially depend on their arms to propel them and later shift to using their legs.
This motor development sequence is an example of
a. the cephalocaudal trend.
b. the proximodistal trend.
c. the cephalopedal trend.
d. encephalitis.
____ 35. According to the basic progression of motor maturation, which of the following body structures should take
the LONGEST to come under effective control?
a. Torso
b. Shoulders
c. Arms
d. Fingers
____ 36. The proximodistal trend in physical development suggests that infants will be able to control their
a. shoulders and arms before they can control their hands and fingers.
b. shoulders and arms before they can control their hips and legs.
c. hips and legs before they can control their shoulders and arms.
d. hands and fingers before they can control their shoulders and arms.
____ 37. New research into the process of motor development suggests that
a. development gradually unfolds in a sequence of preprogrammed physical changes.
b. progress is attributed to infants' experimentation and learning the consequences of their
activities.
c. motor development progresses as children gain control over their hips and legs and then
their shoulders and arms.
d. genetically programmed physical changes determine when a child crawls and walks.
____ 38. Developmental norms indicate
a. the mean age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
b. the median age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
c. the modal age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
d. the exact age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
____ 39. The fact that children in different cultures ____ in the age at which basic motor skills appear demonstrates
that ____.
a. vary somewhat; genetic factors can slow or accelerate early motor development
b. vary somewhat; environmental factors can slow or accelerate early motor development
c. do not vary; genetic factors alone determine early motor development
d. do not vary; environmental factors alone determine early motor development
____ 40. As children grow older and acquire specialized motor skills, which of the following becomes increasingly
critical?
a. Maturation
b. Experience
c. Genetic predispositions
d. Nutrition
____ 41. According to the ____ trend, you would expect your newborn niece to be able to raise her head before she can
sit.
a. maturational
b. developmental
c. cephalocaudal
d. proximodistal
____ 42. Children gain control of their movements in a head-to-foot direction according to the ____ trend and they gain
control in a center-outward direction according to the ____ trend.
a. cephalodistal; proximocaudal
b. cephalocaudal; proximodistal
c. proximocaudal; cephalodistal
d. proximodistal; cephalocaudal
____ 43. Young Benny can reach for his Cheerios with his arm, but cannot yet pick them up with his fingers and hands.
Benny's behavior BEST illustrates the ____ trend of motor development.
a. proximodistal
b. proximocaudal
c. cephalocaudal
d. cephalodistal
____ 44. Maturation is
a. the age at which a baby can survive in the event of a premature birth.
b. the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to
death.
c. development that reflects experience and learning.
d. development that reflects the gradual unfolding of one's genetic blueprint.
____ 45. Cultural variations in the emergence of basic skills such as sitting and walking demonstrate that
environmental factors
a. do not affect early motor development.
b. can accelerate or slow early motor development.
c. can accelerate early motor development.
d. can slow early motor development.
____ 46. Jade is a graduate student who is studying the way in which selective attention develops during the
preadolescent years. She selects a group of 10-year-olds and assesses their selective attention every six
months over a two-year period. In this example, Jade is using
a. a longitudinal research design.
b. a cross-sectional research design.
c. a multifactorial research design.
d. a nested condition research design.
____ 47. When the same subjects are repeatedly compared at different points in time, the study is called a
a. cross-sectional study.
b. longitudinal study.
c. cross-cultural study.
d. sequential study.
____ 48. When subjects of differing ages are compared at a single point in time, the study is called a
a. cross-sectional study.
b. longitudinal study.
c. cross-cultural study.
d. sequential study.
____ 49. When differences between age groups are due to the groups growing up in different time periods, this is a
a. cross-sectional effect.
b. longitudinal effect.
c. cohort effect.
d. time of testing effect.
____ 50. Cohort effects are MOST closely associated with which research design?
a. Longitudinal
b. Sequential
c. Cross-sectional
d. Time of testing
____ 51. A researcher tests the memories of groups who are 40, 60, and 80 years old, and finds the youngest group
better able to memorize information. The researcher concludes memory ability declines with age. You should
assume the researcher's conclusion is
a. valid, due to sequential effects.
b. invalid, due to sequential effects.
c. valid, due to cohort effect.
d. invalid, due to cohort effect.
____ 52. Tucker is a graduate student who is studying identity formation. He selects a group of 5-year-olds, a group of
10-year-olds, and a group of 15-year-olds, and interviews each group, asking them what they plan to be when
they finish school. In this example, Tucker is using
a. a longitudinal research design.
b. a cross-sectional research design.
c. a multifactorial research design.
d. a nested condition research design.
____ 53. Research suggests that a child's temperament is well established by
a. three months of age.
b. seven months of age.
c. one year of age.
d. two years of age.
____ 54. Gary is an active infant who always seems to be happy. He has a regular schedule, and his parents know that
he will sleep through the night without waking, even when he stays overnight with his grandparents. Using
the temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess, Gary would MOST likely be considered to have
a. a difficult temperament.
b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
c. an uninhibited temperament.
d. an easy temperament.
____ 55. Mikaela is a quiet infant who doesn't seem to smile a lot but who also seldom cries. She seems cautious and
wary of changes in her surroundings, but eventually she adapts to the change. Using the temperament
categories outlined by Thomas and Chess, Mikaela would MOST likely be considered to have
a. a difficult temperament.
b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
c. an easy temperament.
d. an uninhibited temperament.
____ 56. Sarah is four months old, actively resists change, has failed to develop a regular sleeping and eating schedule,
and is generally irritable and unhappy, Sarah is BEST described as temperamentally
a. easy.
b. difficult.
c. slow to warm up.
d. mixed.
____ 57. Ruby is an active infant who appears to be somewhat high-strung and protests loudly every time her parents
try to change her routine in any way. Using the temperament categories outlined by Thomas and Chess, Ruby
would MOST likely be considered to have
a. an easy temperament.
b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
c. a difficult temperament.
d. an uninhibited temperament.
____ 58. If an infant is temperamentally easy, what would be the BEST prediction to make about the child's
temperament at age 10?
a. The child is fairly likely to retain the easy temperament.
b. The child is likely to overcompensate by becoming "difficult" later on.
c. No reasonable prediction can be made.
d. By the age of 10, the child is likely to develop whatever temperament the primary
caregiver has.
____ 59. According to Kagan and colleagues, infants who approach unfamiliar people, objects, and events with little
hesitation are said to exhibit
a. an uninhibited temperament.
b. a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
c. mixed temperaments.
d. inhibited temperament.
____ 60. Ross is a shy, timid child who is uncomfortable around unfamiliar people. Using the temperament categories
outlined by Kagan, Ross would MOST likely be considered to have
a. an easy temperament.
b. an inhibited temperament.
c. a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
d. an uninhibited temperament.
____ 61. Thomas and Chess refer to a child who tends to be glum, erratic in sleep and eating, and resistant to change as
a. an easy child.
b. a slow-to-warm-up child.
c. a mixed-temperament child.
d. a difficult child.
____ 62. The characteristic mood, activity level, and emotional reactivity of an infant refers to the infant's
a. attachment.
b. behavioral qualities.
c. personality.
d. temperament.
____ 63. Scientific studies that observe one group of participants repeatedly over a period of time use the
a. experimental design.
b. cross-sectional design.
c. longitudinal design.
d. naturalistic observation design.
____ 64. Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic styles of temperament described by Thomas and Chess?
a. Slow to warm up
b. Anxious
c. Difficult
d. Easy
____ 65. If the only information you have concerning one-year-old Jessica is that she is wary or hesitant when having a
new experience, MOST likely you should predict that Jessica has
a. an anxious temperament.
b. a difficult temperament.
c. an easy temperament.
d. a slow-to-warm-up temperament.
____ 66. An inhibited temperament is seen more often in _________ children than in American children.
a. French
b. Chinese
c. German
d. Australian
____ 67. Which of the following statements concerning temperament is FALSE?
a. Approximately one-third of the children studied by Thomas and Chess could not be easily
classified as having one of the three basic styles of temperament
b. Temperament is not influenced by heredity
c. Temperament is generally stable over time
d. A child's temperament may be influenced by social experiences
____ 68. The close, emotional bond of affection between an infant and its caregiver is called
a. attachment.
b. dependency.
c. imprinting.
d. identification.
____ 69. According to behavioral theory, how do children develop special attachments to their mothers?
a. The mother provides innate contact comfort to the infant.
b. The infant is biologically programmed to emit behavior that triggers a protective response
from adult females.
c. The mother becomes a conditioned reinforcer because she is associated with the
reinforcing act of being fed.
d. Maternal attachment behavior is the result of reproductive fitness.
____ 70. How do children develop special attachments to their mothers, according to John Bowlby?
a. The mother provides innate contact comfort to the infant.
b. The infant is biologically programmed to emit behavior that triggers a protective response
from adult females.
c. The mother becomes a conditioned reinforcer because she is associated with the
reinforcing act of being fed.
d. Maternal attachment behavior is the result of reproductive fitness.
____ 71. You are in a discussion on attachment behavior, and your friend says that she believes that infants are
biologically programmed to emit behavior that triggers a protective response from adult females. Which
theorist is MOST likely to agree with your friend's views?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Harry Harlow
Mary Ainsworth
John Bowlby
Jay Belsky
____ 72. Mercedes takes her one-year-old son, Justice, to visit a daycare center where she plans to enroll him. Justice
eagerly explores the playroom as long as Mercedes is present. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some
forms, Justice becomes somewhat upset, but when Mercedes returns, he quickly calms down. This is the type
of interaction you might observe between a child and a parent who
a. share an avoidant attachment relationship.
b. share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship.
c. share a secure attachment relationship.
d. have not yet developed an attachment relationship.
____ 73. Ainsworth’s strategy for studying infant attachment to caregivers is known as the __________ procedure.
a. secure-avoidant
b. shared inhibition
c. attachment probing
d. Strange Situation
____ 74. Kara takes her one-year-old son, Delaney, to visit a daycare center where she plans to enroll him. Delaney
appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore the playroom, even though Kara is close by. When his mom
leaves the room to fill out some forms, Delaney becomes extremely upset. When Kara returns, he clings to her
leg but does not calm down and continues to sob. This is the type of interaction you might observe between a
child and a parent who
a. share a secure attachment relationship.
b. share an avoidant attachment relationship.
c. have not yet developed an attachment relationship.
d. share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship.
____ 75. Jasmin takes her one-year-old son, Randy, to visit a daycare center where she plans to enroll him. Randy
eagerly explores the playroom, and when his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, he shows no signs
of concern. When Jasmin returns, he shows little interest and continues to play with the toys he has collected.
This is the type of interaction you might observe between a child and a parent who
a. share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship.
b. share a secure attachment relationship.
c. have not yet developed an attachment relationship.
d. share an avoidant attachment relationship.
____ 76. Preschool children who had secure attachments during infancy tend to display all of the following
characteristics EXCEPT
a. greater curiosity.
b. better peer relationships.
c. higher levels of moral reasoning.
d. more self-reliance.
____ 77. In the middle childhood years, the children who have healthier strategies for coping with stress and fewer
problems with hostility tend to be children who
a. had several siblings close to their own age.
b. had secure attachments during infancy.
c. started full-time daycare before the age of two.
d. have no same-sexed siblings.
____ 78. At what age does an infant typically first exhibit separation anxiety?
a. One to two weeks
b. One to two months
c. Six to eight months
d. Around one year
____ 79. Separation anxiety typically develops when infants are about ____ months old and peaks at around ____
months.
a. 2-4; 10-12
b. 6-8; 14-18
c. 9-11; 13-15
d. 12; 24
____ 80. Harlow's finding that "contact comfort" is an important factor in forming attachment is LEAST consistent
with the views expressed by
a. Ainsworth.
b. Bowlby.
c. Skinner.
d. evolutionary psychologists.
____ 81. Harlow's research with monkeys raised with two types of artificial mothers found that when frightened, infant
monkeys went to the artifical mother that
a. provided food.
b. did not provide food.
c. was made of cloth.
d. was made of wire.
____ 82. Avoidant attachments seem to be ____ common in German infants and ____ common in Japanese infants
than in American infants.
a. more; more
b. more; less
c. less; more
d. less; less
____ 83. Typically, infants with ____ attachments exhibit little, if any, distress when their mothers leave the room.
a. especially strong
b. secure
c. anxious-ambivalent
d. avoidant
____ 84. Assumptions of stage theorists of development include all of the following EXCEPT
a. individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order.
b. each stage builds on the previous stage.
c. progress through stages is strongly related to physical maturation.
d. development is marked by discontinuities that guide in dramatic changes in behavior.
____ 85. Stage theories of development assume that
a. individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each stage
builds on the previous stage.
b. environmental circumstances can sometimes cause individuals to skip stages early on and
return to them later.
c. progress through the sequence of stages is not related to age.
d. there are few, if any, discontinuities in development.
____ 86. Erik Erikson's developmental stages are organized around potential turning points called
a. fixation points.
b. psychosocial crises.
c. developmental tasks.
d. psychosexual crises.
____ 87. A child who successfully completes stage 1 of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development will acquire
a. an ability to initiate his or her own activities.
b. self-sufficiency.
c. a sense of competence.
d. optimism and trust toward the world.
____ 88. Jerry is eight months old. Based on Erikson's theory of personality development, the fundamental question
that Jerry is dealing with at this point in his life is,
a. "Is my world predictable and supportive?"
b. "Can I do things myself, or must I always rely on others?"
c. "Am I good or am I bad?"
d. "Am I competent or am I worthless?"
____ 89. The challenge of learning to function, take personal responsibility for feeding, and self-dressing marks
Erikson's childhood stage of
a. initiative versus guilt.
b. trust versus mistrust.
c. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
d. industry versus inferiority.
____ 90. For Erikson, the stage during which toilet training occurs is
a. trust versus mistrust.
b. industry versus inferiority.
c. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
d. initiative versus guilt.
____ 91. Craig is two years old and likes to put on his own coat and shoes. However, his mother often becomes
impatient waiting for him to get ready, so she usually finishes zipping his coat and tying his shoes for him.
Based on Erikson's theory, it is likely that Craig will develop
a. a general sense of mistrust.
b. feelings of shame and doubt.
c. a sense of inferiority.
d. feelings of autonomy.
____ 92. Anne is five years old and likes to help with jobs around the house. Tonight, when she was clearing the dishes
from the table, she dropped a stack of plates and broke them all. Her father scolded her and told her that she
could help more by staying out of the way and letting her older brothers clear the table. If her father's reaction
is typical of the interactions she has with him, Erikson would suggest that Anne is likely to develop
a. feelings of guilt.
b. feelings of inferiority.
c. a general sense of mistrust.
d. a sense of initiative.
____ 93. The challenge of learning to function in society and beyond the family marks Erikson's childhood stage of
a. initiative versus guilt.
b. trust versus mistrust.
c. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
d. industry versus inferiority.
____ 94. Charlie Brown of the "Peanuts" cartoon strip is always trying to kick the football, but he never seems to
succeed. According to Erikson, Charlie will most likely develop the basic characteristic of
a. guilt.
b. autonomy.
c. inferiority.
d. role confusion.
____ 95. During the third stage of psychosocial development, the crisis that must be resolved is initiative versus guilt.
By this, Erikson meant that the child must learn
a. who to trust or not trust.
b. how to deal with peers and adults.
c. how to pursue his or her own interests and also get along with others.
d. how to become self-sufficient.
____ 96. The elementary school-age child who does well in school and receives praise and support at home will
develop what Erikson calls a sense of
a. industry.
b. superiority.
c. generativity.
d. trust.
____ 97. Kyler is nine years old and likes to draw and paint. However, he doesn't receive very good grades on his art
projects, and his friends often laugh at the pictures Kyler has created. Based on Erikson's theory, it is likely
that Kyler will develop
a. feelings of guilt.
b. feelings of inferiority.
c. a sense of despair.
d. a sense of industry.
____ 98. Shawn is concerned with how he compares to his peer group: for example, he is always trying to kick the
football farther than his friends, and he constantly wonders if he is doing as well in school as the other boys in
his second-grade class. According to Erikson, Shawn is most likely in the stage of
a. initiative versus guilt.
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
c. identity versus role confusion.
d. industry versus inferiority.
____ 99. The major shortcoming of Erikson's psychosocial stages theory of development is that
a. he failed to look at adult development.
b. he placed too little emphasis on social forces in the development of personality.
c. like many stage theories, it pays little attention to explaining individual differences.
d. it fails to account for continuity in personality development.
____ 100. If an infant's basic biological needs are met by others and sound attachments are formed during the first year
of life, the infant will, MOST likely, successfully resolve the crisis associated with the ____ stage.
a. industry versus inferiority
b. trust versus mistrust
c. autonomy versus shame and doubt
d. initiative versus guilt
____ 101. During Erikson's crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt, a child should begin to take some responsibility
for his feeding and dressing. As a result, the child should gain a sense of self-sufficiency. This stage occurs
from ____ years of age.
a. birth-1
b. 1-3
c. 2-5
d. 3-6
____ 102. Five-year-old Steve gets along well with his parents and siblings, has self-confidence, and believes that he is a
good boy. Steve has MOST recently successfully resolved the crisis of
a. initiative versus guilt.
b. industry versus inferiority.
c. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
d. trust versus mistrust.
____ 103. During Erikson's crisis of industry versus inferiority, a child should learn to function well in the broader social
structure of the neighborhood and school. As a result, the child should gain a sense of competence. This stage
occurs from
a. birth-1 year.
b. 1-3 years.
c. 3-6 years.
d. 6 years through puberty.
____ 104. To Piaget, cognitive development involves
a. stages that are characterized by fundamentally different thought processes.
b. increases in the quantity, but not the quality, of knowledge with age.
c. passive reception of environmental stimuli.
d. age-related changes in attention and memory.
____ 105. During the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development, a child's relations with the world are through
a. logical reasoning.
b. physical interaction.
c. abstract operations.
d. systematic hypothesis testing.
____ 106. For children, in which Piagetian stage might we be correct with the old expression, "Out of sight is out of
mind"?
a. Concrete operational
b. Preoperational
c. Sensorimotor
d. Formal operations
____ 107. Trey's older sister is playing a game with him. She hides the ball they are playing with, and Trey quickly loses
interest in the game. He makes no attempt to look for the ball and instead picks up another toy that is close by.
This suggests that Trey has not yet developed
a. the ability to assimilate new experiences.
b. an understanding of object permanence.
c. a strong attachment to his sister.
d. sensorimotor patterns of responding.
____ 108. When Teresa's mother hides her favorite doll under a blanket, Teresa acts as if it no longer exists and makes
no attempt to look for it. Based on this information, you can infer that Teresa is in Piaget's
a. sensorimotor period of cognitive development.
b. formal period of cognitive development.
c. concrete period of cognitive development.
d. preoperational period of cognitive development.
____ 109. Lane is currently attending preschool. According to the stages outlined by Piaget, Lane would MOST likely
be in the
a. sensorimotor period of cognitive development.
b. formal period of cognitive development.
c. preoperational period of cognitive development.
d. concrete period of cognitive development.
____ 110. The idea that even if an object changes shape or appearance the underlying quantity of the object remains the
same is Piaget's principle of
a. object permanence.
b. conservation.
c. irreversibility.
d. assimilation.
____ 111. Patricia is upset because she is convinced that her brother has a bigger piece of cake than she does. Her dad
quickly slices Patricia's piece of cake in two and tells her that she now has "more" cake. If Patricia calms
down and is convinced that she does have more cake than her brother, it would suggest that she
a. has not yet mastered object permanence.
b. does not understand the process of assimilation.
c. does not yet understand conservation.
d. is displaying egocentric reasoning.
____ 112. The tendency to focus on just one feature of a problem while neglecting other important aspects is referred to
as
a. assimilation.
b. centration.
c. object impermanence.
d. reification.
____ 113. Gretchen watches as her preschool teacher forms two identical balls of modeling clay. The teacher gives one
of the balls of modeling clay to Gretchen and then squashes the remaining ball into a flat pancake. She asks
Gretchen if they both have the same amount of clay, and Gretchen confidently states that the teacher has more
because the pancake is bigger than the ball. Gretchen's answer illustrates the flaw in thinking that Piaget
labeled
a. centration.
b. conservation.
c. egocentrism.
d. assimilation.
____ 114. The inability of a child to mentally "undo" something is referred to as
a. assimilation.
b. object permanence.
c. egocentrism.
d. irreversibility.
____ 115. Preschoolers generally do not recognize that if 8 - 5 = 3, then 3 + 5 = 8. This is because their thought is
characterized by
a. irreversibility.
b. animism.
c. egocentrism.
d. centration.
____ 116. When Matthew saw his older brother's bicycle fall off its kick stand, Matthew told his brother that the bicycle
must be tired from being ridden too much. Matthew's statement illustrates the type of thinking that Piaget
referred to as
a. centration.
b. animism.
c. preformal operations.
d. conservation.
____ 117. The assumption of a preoperational child that a car is moving because she is in it is an example of
a. egocentrism.
b. centration.
c. conservation.
d. reversibility.
____ 118. You ask a three-year-old why the sky is blue; she says it is because blue is her favorite color. This answer
reflects the ____ thinking that is typical of preschoolers.
a. irreversible
b. animistic
c. egocentric
d. operational
____ 119. Children's thought processes are particularly egocentric during which Piagetian stage?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete operations
d. Formal operations
____ 120. Timmy believes he can avoid getting any older by not having any more birthday parties. Timmy is probably
in which stage of cognitive development?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Concrete operational
c. Preoperational
d. Formal operational
____ 121. The stage of concrete operations is said to be "concrete" because
a. the child attributes human qualities to concrete objects.
b. facts are taken to be set in stone, not to be given up easily.
c. an object must be present for the child to recognize its existence.
d. children can perform operations only on tangible objects and actual events.
____ 122. Water is poured from a short, broad beaker into a tall, skinny beaker. Is there more or less water now? A child
answers that it's the same amount, only it's taller. The child is in which stage of cognitive development?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Concrete operational
c. Preoperational
d. Preconventional
____ 123. Eight-year-old Eric watches as you flatten one of two equal-sized balls of clay into a pancake. Eric says they
both still have the same amount of clay. When he is asked how he knows that the ball and the pancake have
the same amount of clay, he points out that the pancake could once again be rolled up into a ball,
demonstrating that he
a. is now in the preoperational stage.
b. understands the concept of reversibility.
c. is unable to decenter.
d. is no longer egocentric.
____ 124. A five-year-old boy tells you that his kindergarten class has more boys than children. This indicates that he
a. fails to understand the concept of reversibility.
b. dislikes girls.
c. cannot yet solve problems involving conservation of number.
d. cannot handle hierarchical classification problems.
____ 125. Gerard watched as a researcher placed five toy station wagons and three toy convertibles on a table. The
researcher asked him if there were more station wagons or more cars, and Gerard correctly answered that
there were more cars. Gerard's answer indicates that he has mastered
a. conservation of number.
b. object permanence.
c. preaccommodation.
d. hierarchical classification problems.
____ 126. According to Piaget, during the formal operational period of cognitive development, children begin to
a. acquire the concept of conservation.
b. understand the nature of hierarchical classification.
c. think primarily in terms of concrete objects or situations.
d. think in terms of abstract principles and hypothetical possibilities.
____ 127. John approaches problems systematically, considering various solutions and the consequences of each before
he decides on the implementation of any one solution. John is probably at which level of cognitive
development?
a. Formal operations
b. Concrete operations
c. Preoperations
d. Postoperations
____ 128. Byron is planning to ask his parents if he can borrow their car on Friday night. He is thinking both about all
the possible reasons they might bring up for not letting him use the car and of a logical reply to each of these
possible objections. Based on Piaget's model of cognitive development, Byron's thought processes illustrate
a. the use of formal operational thought.
b. the use of concrete operational thought.
c. egocentric reasoning.
d. postconventional reasoning.
____ 129. One of the criticisms of Piaget's theory of cognitive development is that
a. Piaget may have overestimated the cognitive skills of infants and preschool children.
b. Piaget may have underestimated the influence of cultural factors on cognitive
development.
c. the theory focuses too much on individual differences in development.
d. evidence for the theory is based on cross-sectional research.
____ 130. The psychologist who contributed significantly to our understanding of the cognitive development of children
is
a. Erik Erikson.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Lawrence Kohlberg.
d. Jean Piaget.
____ 131. The correct order or sequence of Piaget's stages is
a. preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor.
b. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational.
c. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational.
d. preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational.
____ 132. The period of cognitive development that lasts from approximately birth to age two is the ____ stage.
a. sensorimotor
b. formal operational
c. preoperational
d. concrete operational
____ 133. If a ball that a five-month-old infant is playing with rolls under a chair (and out of sight), the infant will not
look for it. Piaget believed that this occurs because the infant
a. does not understand the concept of roll.
b. has a short attention span.
c. has not developed conservation.
d. has not developed object permanence.
____ 134. The preoperational stage of cognitive development lasts from approximately
a. birth to age 2.
b. age 2 to 7.
c. age 7 to 11.
d. age 11 onward.
____ 135. When Sam's mother made him a grilled cheese sandwich for lunch, Sam complained that he wanted two
sandwiches because he was super hungry. After his mother cut his sandwich in half, Sam was satisfied that he
would have enough to eat. Sam's behavior indicates that he does not understand ____ and is probably in the
____ stage of cognitive development.
a. object permanence; sensorimotor
b. object permanence; preoperational
c. conservation; preoperational
d. conservation; concrete operational
____ 136. The concrete operational stage of cognitive development lasts from approximately
a. birth to age 2.
b. age 2 to 7.
c. age 7 to 11.
d. age 11 onward.
____ 137. The period of cognitive development that lasts from approximately age 11 onward is the ____ stage.
a. sensorimotor
b. formal operational
c. preoperational
d. concrete operational
____ 138. Piaget believed that children first become capable of hypothetical thinking during the
a. concrete operational stage.
b. sensorimotor stage.
c. formal operational stage.
d. preoperational stage.
____ 139. Systematic problem-solving efforts are associated with individuals in the ____ stage of cognitive
development.
a. formal operational
b. concrete operational
c. preoperational
d. sensorimotor
____ 140. It is probably fair to say that Piaget
a. overestimated the abilities of young children.
b. adequately addressed the question of individual differences.
c. focused too heavily on the role of maturation.
d. relied too much on cross-cultural research.
____ 141. Who was the prominent Russian developmental theorist whose research ended abruptly in 1934 when he died
of tuberculoisis?
a. Jean Piaget
b. Erik Erikson
c. Lev Vygotsky
d. Lawrence Kolhberg
____ 142. Your psychology professor tells you that he believes that children's cognitive development is fueled by social
interactions with adults and older children who provide guidance to allow the child to gradually increase
competence on the task. Which theorist does your professor's view MOST resemble?
a. Jean Piaget
b. Erik Erikson
c. Lev Vygotsky
d. Lawrence Kolhberg
____ 143. In Mrs. Zalinsky's first-grade class, she has fifth-grade students come in and read with her class to allow her
students to gradually increase their reading competence. Which theorist has MOST likely influenced Mrs.
Zalinsly's teaching practices?
a. Jean Piaget
b. Erik Erikson
c. Lev Vygotsky
d. Lawrence Kolhberg
____ 144. Unlike Piaget's theory of cognitive development, Vygotsky emphasizes that
a. cognitive development is a universal process that unfolds in largely the same way for most
individuals.
b. social interactions and culture strongly influence the cognitive development of a child.
c. language does not play a crucial role in cognitive development.
d. a child's active exploration of the world strongly influences cognitive development.
____ 145. Psychologists who support ____ theories suggest that certain basic cognitive abilities are biologically built or
prewired into the neural make-up of humans.
a. behavioral
b. evolutionary
c. humanistic
d. psychoanalytic
____ 146. Jose has just begun to distinguish between mental states and overt behavior. It is likely that Jose is about
______ years old.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. 12
____ 147. The first mental states that children understand are
a. true beliefs.
b. false beliefs.
c. desires and emotions.
d. motivators.
____ 148. Lawrence Kohlberg believed that moral development is determined by
a. cognitive development.
b. physical development.
c. emotional development.
d. social development.
____ 149. If Lawrence Kohlberg were to present you with a moral dilemma, in which of the following would he be
MOST interested?
a. Your judgment of right and wrong in this situation
b. What you would do in this situation
c. Whether your intended behavior in this situation is consistent with your moral judgment
about it
d. Your reasons for whatever moral judgment you had about the situation
____ 150. At the preconventional level, the child decides if things are good or bad (moral) on the basis of whether they
a. are against the law.
b. bring punishment or reward.
c. are in accord with social rules.
d. fit the child's own sense of "rightness."
____ 151. In the 1960s, even though all her friends tried recreational drugs, Maggie refused to experiment because she
was afraid she would get caught and end up in jail. Maggie's reasons for NOT experimenting with drugs
reflect
a. conventional moral reasoning.
b. postconventional moral reasoning.
c. preconventional moral reasoning.
d. authoritarian moral reasoning.
____ 152. Conventional thinking in moral development bases morality (right or wrong) on
a. the risk of punishment.
b. society's laws.
c. personal principles.
d. the potential rewards.
____ 153. In the 1960s, even though most of his friends tried recreational drugs, Sebastian refused to experiment. He did
not think the drugs were likely to be harmful, but using drugs was illegal, and he believes each person has a
moral obligation to obey society's rules. Sebastian's reasons for NOT experimenting with drugs reflect
a.
b.
c.
d.
preconventional moral reasoning.
conventional moral reasoning.
postconventional moral reasoning.
social moral reasoning.
____ 154. Suggesting that a poor man who stole food to feed his family was right because human life takes precedence
over rules is an example of
a. postconventional moral reasoning.
b. preconventional moral reasoning.
c. concrete operational thought.
d. conventional moral reasoning.
____ 155. Dr. Wilmark prescribes "medical marijuana" for her chemotherapy patients, even though it is in violation of
federal law. She believes it is morally wrong to cause unnecessary human suffering and, if necessary, she is
willing to serve time in jail rather than watch others suffer needlessly. Dr. Wilmark's reasons for her actions
reflect
a. postconventional moral reasoning.
b. conventional moral reasoning.
c. preconventional moral reasoning.
d. authoritarian moral reasoning.
____ 156. When Kohlberg presented moral dilemmas to individuals in order to evaluate their level of moral
development, he placed the MOST emphasis on
a. whether the individual gave a "yes" or "no" response.
b. the level of confidence the individual had in his or her response.
c. the explanation the individual gave concerning the reason for his or her response.
d. the overt behaviors the individual showed when presented with a similar dilemma in real
life.
____ 157. Both Jason and Bradley believe that their dad should not drive over the speed limit on their family vacation to
Florida. While Jason does not want his dad to get a speeding ticket, Bradley believes that rules are rules and
laws are laws and need to be obeyed. Jason's reasoning is characteristic of the ____ level, and Bradley's is
characteristic of the ____ level of moral development.
a. preconventional; postconventional
b. preconventional; conventional
c. conventional; preconventional
d. postconventional; preconventional
____ 158. Ashley finds a wallet on the floor at the store. She decides to turn it in to the lost-and-found department
because she believes her parents will be proud of her for being honest. Ashley's reasoning reflects the ____
level of moral development.
a. postconventional
b. preconventional
c. concrete
d. conventional
____ 159. Individuals at the ____ level of moral development tend to use a personal code of ethics to guide their moral
reasoning and behavior.
a. postconventional
b. concrete
c. conventional
d. preconventional
____ 160. A consensus is building that Kohlberg's theory led to a constricted focus on
a. the development of prosocial behavior.
b. the significance of moral emotions.
c. the emergence of conscience.
d. interpersonal conflicts.
____ 161. Adolescence can be conceptualized as the time period during which individuals are "adults" in terms of their
____ development, but NOT in terms of their ____ development.
a. physical; cognitive
b. physical; emotional
c. cognitive; emotional
d. emotional; cognitive
____ 162. Physical features NOT directly associated with reproduction that are associated with one's gender are referred
to as
a. primary sexual characteristics.
b. secondary sexual characteristics.
c. tertiary sexual characteristics.
d. nonsexual characteristics.
____ 163. Females developing wider hips and males developing facial hair are examples of
a. primary sexual characteristics.
b. secondary sexual characteristics.
c. tertiary sexual characteristics.
d. peripheral sexual characteristics.
____ 164. In females, early maturation is associated with
a. deterioration of peer relations.
b. weight gain.
c. higher levels of moral reasoning.
d. greater emotional difficulties.
____ 165. Michael and his twin sister Doreen turned 12 a few months ago. Both Michael and Doreen have begun to go
through the early signs of puberty. In this case, it is MOST likely that
a. compared to Doreen, Michael is at greater risk for using drugs or alcohol because he is
maturing early.
b. compared to Michael, Doreen is at greater risk for using drugs or alcohol because she is
maturing early.
c. both Michael and Doreen are at greater risk for using drugs or alcohol because they are
both maturing early.
d. compared to Doreen, Michael is at lower risk for using drugs or alcohol because he is
maturing early.
____ 166. The adolescent growth spurt begins and puberty occurs approximately ____ in females than in males.
a. two years earlier
b. one year earlier
c. one year later
d. two years later
____ 167. Which of the following has been proposed as a reason puberty is occurring earlier than in previous
generations?
a. Advances in education
b. Improvements in nutrition
c. Increased parental sensitivity
d. Accelerated moral development
____ 168. Boys who mature ____ and girls who mature ____ are more likely than other adolescents to feel subjective
distress and emotional difficulties with the transition to adolescence.
a. late; late
b. early; late
c. late; early
d. early; late
____ 169. The last area of the brain to fully mature in late adolescence or early adulthood is the
a. hypothalamus.
b. prefrontal cortex.
c. occipital cortex.
d. medulla.
____ 170. The immaturity of the prefrontal cortex has been used to explain
a. why adolescents engage in risky behavior like reckless driving and unprotected sex.
b. the 5% increase in brain volume during middle childhood and adolescence.
c. the acquisition of conservation skills by adolescents.
d. the ability of early adolescents to engage in postconventional moral thinking.
____ 171. The Featured Study in the text demonstrated that adolescent risk-taking is affected by
a. drugs.
b. alcohol.
c. parents.
d. peers.
____ 172. According to the Featured Study in the text, the presence of peers affects risk-taking behavior in
a. adolescents but not adults.
b. adults but not adolescents.
c. both adults and adolescents.
d. neither adults nor adolescents.
____ 173. Marie is driving with a group of friends and has just run a red light, even though she is usually a careful
driver. Based on the Featured Study, we might expect that Marie is about what age?
a. 16
b. 25
c. 50
d. 65
____ 174. In Erikson's theory, the psychosocial crisis during adolescence is
a. identity versus confusion.
b. generativity versus self-absorption.
c. industry versus inferiority.
d. intimacy versus isolation.
____ 175. Fifteen-year-old Marta has had a relatively smooth adolescent period and, at the urging of her parents, has
already decided on a college and a career. If Marta is simply playing a passive role in relationship to her
parents, she may well be in a state of identity
a. moratorium.
b. foreclosure.
c. diffusion.
d. achievement.
____ 176. Edwin has just started his third year at college and is still exploring the options for his major. He has taken a
number of courses with the intention of obtaining a law degree, but last semester, he also discovered he was
very interested in geology. He feels it is important to reach a final decision before the end of the semester and
has started investigating both career options in great detail. According to James Marcia, Edwin would be
considered to be in a state of identity
a. diffusion.
b. foreclosure.
c. postponement.
d. moratorium.
____ 177. Brock was not sure what he wanted to do while he was in college, so he talked to the career counselors last
year. His profile showed a strong interest in both medicine and animals, so he got a part-time job at the local
Humane Society. He also checked the requirements for veterinary school and has now completed six of the
courses required for the veterinary program. He is convinced that this is the ideal career for him. According to
James Marcia, Brock would be considered to be in a state of identity
a. diffusion.
b. foreclosure.
c. achievement.
d. moratorium.
____ 178. The two dimensions James Marcia described that combine to yield four identity statuses are
a. completion and confusion.
b. commitment and confusion.
c. commitment and crisis.
d. completion and crisis.
____ 179. A college student who is exploring different subjects and potential majors to help decide on a suitable career
can be BEST considered to be in the identity status of
a. identity achievement.
b. identity diffusion.
c. identity foreclosure.
d. identity moratorium.
____ 180. After considering a number of possible majors and careers, Christi has decided to major in business
management and work in advertising. Christi has recently established the identity status of
a. identity achievement.
b. identity diffusion.
c. identity foreclosure.
d. identity moratorium.
____ 181. Arnett (2006) has proposed a new developmental stage for the years between age 18 and 25 that he calls
a. extended adolescence.
b. emerging adulthood.
c. adolescent moratorium.
d. adult delay.
____ 182. Which of the following would NOT be descriptive of the way Arnett (2006) describes emerging adulthood?
a. It is a self-focused time of life
b. It is a time of great pessimism
c. It is a period of identity formation
d. It is a situation of unusual autonomy
____ 183. Which of the following statements regarding personality changes in adulthood is MOST accurate?
a. Personality stability depends on one's sex and socioeconomic status.
b. The overall personality undergoes systematic changes throughout adulthood.
c. Personality remains extremely stable after adolescence.
d. The adult personality is characterized by both stability and change.
____ 184. Research suggests that ___________ tends to increase from early adulthood through age 60 and then begins
to decline.
a. optimism
b. neuroticism
c. mental illness
d. self-esteem
____ 185. According to Erikson, early adulthood is characterized by a psychosocial crisis centering on establishing
close, personal relationships with others. This is the stage of
a. generativity versus self-absorption.
b. intimacy versus isolation.
c. identity versus confusion.
d. integrity versus despair.
____ 186. Jocelyn is 25 years old and feels very insecure about some of the personal and career choices she has made so
far. Consequently, at this point in her life, she is unwilling to form a serious, committed relationship with
another person. Based on Erikson's theory, Jocelyn may
a. become self-indulgent and self-absorbed.
b. develop a sense of isolation.
c. experience feelings of despair and bitterness.
d. develop feelings of inferiority and doubt.
____ 187. Research concerning personality development in adulthood focuses primarily on examining
a. the search for a sense of identity during adulthood.
b. gender differences in personality during adulthood.
c. the midlife crisis.
d. the stability of personality over the lifespan.
____ 188. During Erikson's crisis of intimacy versus isolation, the key concern involves developing the capacity to share
intimacy with others. This stage is associated with
a. adolescence.
b. early adulthood.
c. middle adulthood.
d. late adulthood.
____ 189. Forty-seven-year-old Jennifer has recently started tutoring students at the elementary school her own children
attended many years ago. She enjoys being around the children and feels a great deal of satisfaction from her
tutoring. Jennifer appears to be successfully resolving the crisis of
a. integrity versus despair.
b. industry versus inferiority.
c. intimacy versus isolation.
d. generativity versus self-absorption.
____ 190. Erikson's crisis of integrity versus despair is associated with
a. adolescence.
b. early adulthood.
c. middle adulthood.
d. late adulthood.
____ 191. As 79-year-old Joe mentally reviews his life, he cannot help smiling to himself. He believes he married and
spent over 40 years with the most wonderful woman in the world, helped to raise three fine children, and was
successful in his career as an accountant. At this point in his life, Joe is experiencing
a. integrity.
b. identity.
c. generativity.
d. intimacy.
____ 192. Which of the following is NOT a current trend regarding marriage?
a. An increase in the average age at first marriage
b. An increase in the percentage of couples who voluntarily remain childless
c. An increase in the number of single adults
d. A decrease in the percentage of couples who cohabit prior to marriage
____ 193. By the 1990s, ______ of couples lived together prior to marriage.
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 60%
____ 194. Donald and Marnie have three children under the age of 5. Ralph and Carolyn have three children between the
ages of 8 and 13. Based on research into marital satisfaction cycle, you should predict that if these couples are
interviewed about their marriage and their overall levels of marital satisfaction,
a. Ralph and Carolyn will report increases in their marital satisfaction for the past few years,
while Donald and Marnie will report decreases in their level of satisfaction.
b. both couples will report decreases in their overall level of marital satisfaction for the past
few years.
c. Ralph and Carolyn will report decreases in their marital satisfaction for the past few years,
while Donald and Marnie will report increases in their level of satisfaction.
d. both couples will report increases in their overall level marital satisfaction for the past few
years.
____ 195. Mr. and Mrs. McKavick have three school-age children. Their next-door neighbors, Mr. and Mrs. Clancy,
have three grandchildren who are about the same age as the McKavick's children. At the present time, based
on research into marital satisfaction, it is most likely that
a. the McKavicks are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the Clancys are.
b. both couples are experiencing high levels of satisfaction in their respective marriages.
c. both couples are experiencing low levels of satisfaction in their respective marriages.
d. the Clancys are experiencing higher levels of marital satisfaction than the McKavicks are.
____ 196. Walter and Camille have been an "empty nest" couple since their youngest son left for college last year. Now
that they are alone, it is likely that Walter and Camille will find
a. their marital satisfaction will drop considerably.
b. the transition to being a "childless" couple will be stressful and depressing.
c. their marital satisfaction will start to increase.
d. they spend less time together than they did when the children were home.
____ 197. In recent decades, the age at which individuals marry for the first time has
a. increased for men and remained stable for women.
b. increased for women and remained stable for men.
c. decreased for both men and women.
d. increased for both men and women.
____ 198. Which of the following statements regarding marital satisfaction is FALSE?
a. The more children couples have, the lower their level of marital satisfaction.
b. Parents exhibit lower marital satisfaction than non-parents.
c. Parents of adolescents exhibit lower marital satisfaction than parents of infants.
d. Mothers of infants exhibit the largest decrease in marital satisfaction.
____ 199. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a. Menopause for most women typically occurs around age 40.
b. Middle-aged males experience hormonal changes that are equivalent to female
menopause.
c. Menopause is almost universally accompanied by severe emotional strain.
d. Most women experience relatively modest psychological distress during menopause.
____ 200. In women, menopause typically occurs around age
a. 12.
b. 40.
c. 50.
d. 65.
____ 201. The course of progressive deterioration that results in death associated with Alzheimer's disease is typically
____ years in length.
a. 1-2
b. 3-6
c. 8-10
d. 10-15
____ 202. Roughly 70% of all cases of dementia result from
a. Alzheimer's disease.
b. Parkinson's disease.
c. strokes and cerebral hemorrhages.
d. neuronal loss that is part of the normal aging process.
____ 203. Harry has always been a vital and active individual, but recently he has begun having difficulty remembering
newly learned information after brief periods of time. What disorder are his symptoms indicative of?
a. Normal aging
b. Alzheimers disease
c. Parkinson's disease
d. Senility
____ 204. If you were viewing the brain of an individual who had died from Alzheimer's disease, you would expect to
see
a. a significant reduction in the levels of serotonin within the brain.
b. neural abnormalities, including neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
c. enlarged brain ventricles and deep cortical creases.
d. a significant decrease in the number of neurons in the hypothalamus.
____ 205. In the early stages of Alzheimer's disease, the neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are largely centered
in the
a. left hemisphere of the cortex.
b. the brain stem.
c. hippocampal region.
d. the thalamus and hypothalamus.
____ 206. Research suggests that all of the following factors reduce the risk of Alzheimer's disease EXCEPT
a. participation in regular exercise or recreation.
b. participation in mentally challenging work.
c. active social engagement.
d. a low-fat, low-salt diet.
____ 207. Which of the following does NOT describe a cognitive change associated with adult aging?
a. Intellectual productivity begins to decline after age 50.
b. Speed in learning, solving problems, and processing information declines with age.
c. Memory losses associated with normal aging are moderate.
d. There is a small decrease in average intelligence test score after age 60.
____ 208. Bernard is now 80 years old. When he was 20, he took part in a detailed study that assessed various aspects of
his intellectual functioning. If Bernard were to complete the same tests today, he would MOST likely discover
that
a. his fluid intelligence has declined over time, but his crystallized intelligence has remained
stable.
b. both his fluid and crystallized intelligence have declined over time.
c. his crystallized intelligence has declined over time, but his fluid intelligence has remained
stable.
d. his fluid intelligence has remained stable over time, and his crystallized intelligence has
increased.
____ 209. Which of the following is MOST likely to decline in the later years?
a. Intellectual accomplishment
b. Procedural memory
c. Problem-solving ability
d. Speed in processing information
____ 210. Which type of intelligence involves basic reasoning ability, memory capacity, and speed of information
processing?
a. Fluid
b. Crystallized
c. Episodic
d. Procedural
____ 211. Which type of intelligence involves the ability to apply acquired knowledge and skills in problem solving?
a. Fluid
b. Crystallized
c. Episodic
d. Procedural
____ 212. Which type of intelligence tends to remain stable as a person ages?
a. Fluid
b. Crystallized
c. Episodic
d. Procedural
____ 213. Tim is 80 years old, and he spends several hours per day reading, writing, and playing board games. Tim's
activities reduce his risk of age-related decline in
a.
b.
c.
d.
memory.
processing speed.
problem-solving.
cardiovascular health.
____ 214. Differing views on the course and nature of changes in personality across the lifespan illustrates which of the
following unifying themes from your text?
a. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
b. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
c. Heredity and environment jointly influence behavior.
d. Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
____ 215. Investigations of complex, real-world issues, such as the effects of daycare, illustrate which of the textbook's
unifying themes?
a. Our experience of the world is highly subjective.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
d. Psychology is theoretically diverse.
____ 216. Piaget asserted that the child's experiences in the world combined with maturation together influence the
child's cognitive development. This assertion BEST reflects the unifying theme in psychology that
a. psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
b. heredity and environment jointly influence behavior.
c. psychology is theoretically diverse.
d. our experience of the world is highly subjective.
____ 217. ____ gender stereotypes accurately reflect gender differences.
a. Most
b. Relatively many
c. Relatively few
d. No
____ 218. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Females tend to score higher on measures of visual-spatial abilities than males.
b. Females tend to be more sensitive to nonverbal communication than males.
c. Females tend to exhibit slightly better verbal skills than males.
d. Males tend to exhibit slightly better mathematical abilities than females.
____ 219. One's sex is ____ determined; one's gender is ____ determined.
a. culturally; biologically
b. culturally; culturally
c. biologically; culturally
d. biologically; biologically
____ 220. Starting in the grade-school years, males show a slight advantage over females in ____ skills.
a. visual-spatial
b. verbal
c. social
d. writing
____ 221. In the United States, gender differences in math ability
a. remain large and stable.
b. remain large but are shrinking.
c. have never been demonstrated.
d. have largely disappeared.
____ 222. The local school board in Middletown has decided to introduce standardized assessment tests for all students
in the sixth grade. The test has separate sections for math and English. Based on the research into gender
differences in cognitive abilities, you should expect that
a. the male students will score higher than the female students on both sections of the
assessment test.
b. the female students will score higher than the male students on both sections of the
assessment test.
c. the female students will score higher than the male students on the English section of the
assessment test.
d. the female students will score higher than the male students on the math section of the
assessment test.
____ 223. The local school board in Middletown recently asked that the Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) be
administered to all fifth-grade students. It is particularly interested in the scores from the spatial relations and
abstract reasoning sections. Based on the research into gender differences in cognitive abilities, you should
expect that
a. the male students will score higher than the female students on both these two sections of
the test.
b. the male students will score higher than the female students on the spatial relations section
of the test.
c. the female students will score higher than the male students on both these two sections of
the test.
d. the female students will score higher than the male students on the spatial relations section
of the test.
____ 224. Research has supported the finding that, compared to males, females tend to be
a. more sensitive to subtle, nonverbal cues.
b. more irrational.
c. more emotional.
d. more assertive.
____ 225. Women score more highly than men on all of the following traits EXCEPT
a. neuroticism.
b. extraversion.
c. optimism.
d. aggreeableness.
____ 226. The major qualification of the research findings on gender differences is that
a. the data are indicative of group differences and tell us little about individuals.
b. the findings are based on only a few studies and are therefore not very representative of
the population.
c. most of the research has been conducted on white middle-class children.
d. there is wide variation from study to study in how the variables have been operationalized.
____ 227. The better documented gender differences in cognitive abilities, aggression, and sexual behavior appear
a. to depend on culture.
b. to be decreasing as more women enter the work force.
c. across a wide range of cultures.
d. to be increasing as more women enter the work force.
____ 228. Girls exposed prenatally to abnormally high levels of androgens tend to exhibit which of the following during
childhood?
a. Increased male-typical behavior
b. Increased verbal ability
c. Decreased aggressiveness
d. Decreased mathematical ability
____ 229. Based on the research into the effects of hormones on behavior, you should predict that a boy who had an
endocrine disorder that caused underproduction of androgens (male hormones) would have
a. elevated scores on measures of spatial ability.
b. reduced scores on measures of creativity.
c. elevated scores on measures of verbal skills.
d. reduced scores on measures of leadership skills.
____ 230. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential concerns regarding the evidence suggesting that prenatal
hormones contribute to the shaping of gender differences?
a. Correlational studies do not prove causation.
b. The conclusions are based on large samples from a variety of cultures, making it difficult
to draw general conclusions.
c. It is risky to draw conclusions about the population based on small samples.
d. The findings are much stronger for females than for males.
____ 231. Expectations about what is appropriate behavior for each sex MOST accurately describes
a. gender roles.
b. gender stereotypes.
c. gender behaviors.
d. gender differences.
____ 232. Cognitive theories of gender-role development emphasize
a. the development of long-term memory.
b. self-socialization.
c. observational learning.
d. operant conditioning.
____ 233. Yesterday, little Louis saw his brother climb a tree. Today, Louis tried it and fell to the ground, hurting
himself. But his mother nevertheless praised him for being a brave boy. Which of the following influences on
gender-role socialization are at work here?
a. Self-socialization and punishment
b. Self-socialization and extinction
c. Observational learning and reinforcement
d. Operant conditioning and classical conditioning
____ 234. According to cognitive theories of gender-role development, self-socialization includes
a. being reinforced for gender-appropriate behaviors.
b. valuing characteristics associated with the opposite gender.
c. learning to classify oneself as male or female.
d. responding to praise from parents, teachers, and peers.
____ 235. Which of the following is the safest statement to make regarding the origin of gender differences?
a. Hormonal differences between the sexes account for the largest proportion of the
variation.
b. The fact that males tend to exhibit more cerebral specialization than females explains the
bulk of the differences.
c. The reinforcement children receive for displaying gender-appropriate behavior determines
the differences.
d. As with anything, the explanation of gender differences is complex and must take into
account both biological and environmental factors.
____ 236. You and a friend are discussing the importance of fathers in children's overall development. Your friend states
that, "If we fail to promote increased involvement of fathers in the parenting process, then we must accept the
inevitable breakdown of other social values." This statement is an example of the reasoning fallacy known as
a. circular logic.
b. a false dichotomy.
c. a weak analogy.
d. alternative explanations.
____ 237. The assertion that fathers are essential for healthy adjustment of children is contradicted by evidence from
a. twin studies.
b. adoption studies.
c. studies of lesbian parents.
d. studies of step-children.
____ 238. An increase in rates of father absence over the years has coincided with an increase in teenage pregnancy and
drug abuse. However, conclusions are limited due to
a. correlational data.
b. false dichotomies.
c. slippery slopes.
d. experimentation.
____ 239. Typically, individuals concerned with the crisis of initiative versus guilt are in the ____ stage of cognitive
development.
a. preoperational
b. concrete operational
c. sensorimotor
d. formal operational
____ 240. Typically, individuals concerned with the crisis of trust versus mistrust are in the ____ stage of cognitive
development.
a. preoperational
b. sensorimotor
c. formal operational
d. concrete operational
____ 241. Which of the following developmental theorists is NOT a stage theorist?
a. Jean Piaget
b. Erik Erickson
c. Lev Vygotsky
d. Lawrence Kolhberg
____ 242. A nine-year-old child would be likely to be in the ____ stage of development according to Piaget and in the
____ stage of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg.
a. preoperational; preconventional
b. concrete operations; preconventional
c. concrete operations; conventional
d. sensorimotor; postconventional
____ 243. In relation to age, which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
a. Separation anxiety
b. Babbling
c. Postconventional moral reasoning
d. Gradual mastery of object permanence
____ 244. In relation to age, which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
a. Development of secondary sex characteristics
b. Autonomy versus shame
c. Formal operations
d. Postconventional moral reasoning
____ 245. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of adolescence?
a. Identity versus confusion
b. Formal operational stage of cognitive development
c. Preconventional level of moral development
d. Growth spurt
____ 246. During which stage in Piaget's system is the child FIRST able to handle conservation problems and
hierarchical classification problems?
a. Sensorimotor
b. Preoperational
c. Concrete operations
d. Formal operations
____ 247. For which of the following theorists is language a central organizing factor in child development?
a. Piaget
b. Vygotsky
c. Kohlberg
d. Harlow
____ 248. How does the brain change during adolescence?
a. It becomes smaller
b. It becomes larger
c. White matter increases
d. The prefrontal cortex becomes larger
____ 249. Which of the following factors tends to be accompanied by a drop in ratings of marital satisfaction?
a. Childlessness during early married life
b. The birth of the first child
c. The first child's departure for college
d. When the last child leaves home
____ 250. Once children discover that their gender is permanent, they are likely to want to engage in behavior that is
"sex appropriate" as defined by their culture. This process is referred to as
a. operant conditioning.
b. observational learning.
c. self-socialization.
d. classical conditioning.