Chapter 4:
The final preparations for nuclear division occur during ________________as chromatin condenses into _______________:
 the nuclear envelope disappears
 _____________________arrange into spindle fibers
 and centrioles move to opposite poles within the cell.
During metaphase the chromosomes align at the _______________________ plane of the cell.
If metaphase is successful the __________________ chromatids begin to separate during anaphase.
Telophase is designated as the point at which the segregation of sister chromatids to ______________poles is complete
the nuclear envelope reforms around each daughter nucleus, and chromosomes unwind back to chromatin.
Cytokinesis, _____________of the plasma membrane and __________________, may start concurrently or ______________________following
telophase.
Unwound DNA is referred to as ___________________
It will condense to _____________________in preparation for _____________________ (nuclear division).
A _____________________ is a sequence of DNA responsible for the production of a specific _____________________chain.
DNA within the nucleus is required for _____________ ________and _______
______________
_____________________ is the process by which _________ is converted to ___________during gene expression. The initiation of
transcription is the key regulatory step in determining which genes will be expressed.
Elongation involves the extension of the nascent strand by an ______ _____________________ through complementary (THREE)base
pairing with the DNA template.
**CHECK POINT** How many base pairs are in a DNA template*****
Finally, the termination of transcription occurs as the polymerase reaches the terminal region of the gene and releases.
_____________________occurs within the _____________________either by ________ _____________or ribosomes associated with the
endoplasmic reticulum. As the mRNA feeds through the ribosome complex, _____________________begins when the first start codon
___-____-____ enters the P site.
Within the P site the codon on the mRNA is paired with an _____________________ on a ___________ molecule carrying the
corresponding amino acid, at which time this first codon moves into the A site of the ribosome, bringing the next codon on the
mRNA strand into the P site.
This second codon is then paired with its corresponding tRNA molecule, which brings its corresponding amino acid, and a
_____________ bond forms between the two amino acids.
***CHECK POINT** Translation forms a ____________________ chain from RNA.
At this point the first amino acid is released and the mRNA molecule shifts once again within the ribosome. The process
continues until a ________ codon enters the P site, signaling the termination of translation.
Protein synthesis is a two-step process: first _____________________, then _____________________, and ends with ________________
synthesis
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The ___________________________consists of a series of folded membranes within the _____________________
The rough/smooth endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes and is involved in _______________ synthesis.
The rough/smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for lipid synthesis and the detoxification of lipid-soluble
toxins.
The ________ _____________________ consists of a series of flattened membranes, responsible for the modification of
proteins.
_____________________ and _____________________are small vesicles containing metabolic enzymes.
_____________________ are responsible for the digestion of cellular debris or ingested structures.
_____________________ process free radicals and participate in the beta-oxidation of fatty acids.
Unlike other membrane-bound organelles, _____________________consist of two distinct membranes, one within the other.
They are responsible for the majority of ATP synthesis within the cell.
Channel-mediated diffusion is a subtype of: A. simple diffusion. B. carrier-mediated diffusion. C. active transport.
D. facilitated diffusion.
Which is a non-membrane-bound organelle? A. Microtubule B. Lysosome C. Golgi apparatus D. Rough
endoplasmic reticulum E. Mitochondrion
The building blocks that form the DNA double helix are called: A. nucleoli. B. nucleotides. C. steroid bases.
D. nitrogenous acids.
During transcription: A. an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read. B. a protein is formed as a DNA
sequence is read. C. a DNA sequence is formed as a RNA sequence is read.
Which of the following is considered a required enzyme for the process of transcription? A. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B. DNA polymerase C. RNA polymerase
A start codon consists of the three-base sequence AUG. TRUE/FALSE
The process of reading a mRNA molecule and synthesizing a protein is known as __________. The function of the nucleolus is to make: A. DNA molecules. B. the subunits of ribosomes. C. the secretions that will
be packaged by the Golgi apparatus.
_________ are barrel-shaped, protein-digesting organelles in both the nucleus and cytoplasm. The nuclear envelope consists primarily of: A. a double helix of DNA. B. ribosomal subunits. C. two phospholipid
bilayers. D. messenger RNA.
The term used to describe the fluid within a cell is _______________, or intracellular fluid.
(hint. Chicken
noodle soup: broth=cytosol; SOUP=cytoplasm)
_____________ is the general term for all cellular contents located between the plasma membrane and the nucleus. The process of programmed cell death ("cell suicide") is known as __________.
The fuzzy coat made of glycoproteins and glycolipids found on the external surface of the plasma membrane is called the
_______________. _____________ are short, membrane-attached projections containing microtubules that occur in large numbers on exposed
membrane surfaces.
Most cells perform pinocytosis. TRUE/FALSE
The two identical cells that arise from mitosis are called ____________ cells. The duplicated chromosome that appears during prophase consists of two genetically identical structures called sister
________________. DNA is organized into discrete units called ____________ that provide information for the production of specific proteins.
_____________ is the division of the cytoplasm during cell division.
Which of the following choices describes three general functions cells must perform? A. Maintain shape, obtain nutrients,
and dispose of wastes B. Respond to all hormones, maintain a waterproof barrier, give rise to gametes C. Grow until
dividing, store complex carbohydrates, generate antibodies D. Take up oxygen, prevent water entry, undergo mitosis
frequently
The lipid that stabilizes the membrane at extreme temperatures and is found in the hydrophobic regions of the bilayer
is: A. the polar head. B. the nonpolar tails. C. cholesterol. D. glycolipid. E. glycocalyx.
Diffusion rate is fastest when the concentration gradient is: A. steepest and temperature is highest. B. steepest and
temperature is at body temperature.
Osmosis is the diffusion of: A. water within the inside of a cell. B. water across a membrane.
The sodium-potassium ATPase functions by performing: A. primary active transport. B. secondary active transport.
C. exocytosis. D. both exocytosis and endocytosis.
When a cell surrounds a large particle with pseudopodia and then engulfs it, the process is called: A. exocytosis.
B. phagocytosis. C. pinocytosis.
The release of neurotransmitter from a neuron is an example of: A. endocytosis and is a form of passive transport.
B. receptor mediated endocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP. C. exocytosis and is a form of passive transport.
D. exocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP.
During osmosis, water moves toward the solution with the _________ solute concentration. A. greater B. lesser
When a cell is placed in a solution with a very low solute concentration, water diffuses into the cell. Such a solution is called
a(n) _________ solution. A. hypertonic B. hypotonic C. isotonic
38. Cell shrinking, also known as crenation, occurs when a cell is placed into a(n) _________ solution. A. isotonic
B. hypertonic C. hypotonic
39. Which is a passive transport process? A. Phagocytosis B. Pinocytosis C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
D. Osmosis
40. Cell surface receptors function to receive: A. small ions that they shuttle through the membrane. B. ligands that are
released from other cells. C. immune system identification signals. D. substrates for which they catalyze chemical
reactions.
41. Proteins that assist the movement of a substance across the membrane are called _________ proteins. A. catalytic
B. cytoskeleton C. transport D. identification
42. Glycolipids are found on the: A. outer layer of the cell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its
surface. B. middle layer of the cell membrane, and they function to transmit solutes through the membrane. C. inner
layer of the cell membrane, and they provide scaffold support to the cell membrane. D. inside of the cell, where they are a
source of high energy nutrition to power mitochondria.
43. Movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known
as: A. equilibrium. B. active transport. C. diffusion. D. facilitation.
44. Proteins that are embedded within, and extend across, the phospholipid bilayer are called _____ proteins. A. catalytic
B. integral C. cytoskeleton D. peripheral
45. The largest internal cellular structure is known as the ______ and is the cell's control center. A. Golgi apparatus
B. nucleus C. lysosome D. cytosol
46. The movement of glucose across a plasma membrane is achieved by: A. ion pumps. B. receptor-mediated exocytosis.
C. osmosis. D. facilitated diffusion.
Chapter 5
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NAME THE 3 SHAPES OF HOW EPITHELIAL TISSUE ARE ORGANIZED:
1)
2)
3)
and
4) Pseudostratified
5) Transitional
Groups of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function are called: A. organs. B. organ
systems. C. matrices. D. tissues.
You would most likely find goblet cells in what type of tissue? A. Cartilage B. Nervous tissue C. Muscle tissue
D. Bone E. Epithelial tissue
Endocrine glands secrete: A. sweat. B. hormones. C. saliva.
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found lining (hint. TRACHEA/crowd surfing): A. portions of the
respiratory system. B. the larger blood vessels. C. the oviduct. D. large kidney tubules.
Suppose that you were involved in an automobile accident and suffered a back injury. When examined by your physician you
are told that you have a slipped disc in the lower back. What type of tissue is involved? A. Adipose tissue B. Bone
C. Elastic cartilage D. Fibrocartilage
An exocrine gland has two parts: A. a duct and a basement membrane. B. a basement membrane and a goblet cell.
C. a brush border and a glandular portion. D. an acinus and a brush border. E. a duct and a secretory portion.
Suppose you cut your finger only slightly in what is known as a "paper cut." You observe that the cut hurts but it doesn't
bleed. How would you interpret your observation? A. Nerve endings occur in epithelium but blood vessels do not.
B. The paper severed the skin, missing blood vessels, but hitting nerve endings. C. Very thin cuts never draw blood but
do sever nerves.
_______________ glands secrete their products by exocytosis.
If a person were unable to form saliva, what type of gland could be missing or malfunctioning? A. Merocrine glands
B. Holocrine glands C. Apocrine glands
Endocrine glands A. possess short ducts and secrete their products directly onto the skin surface. B. lack ducts and
secrete their products onto the skin surface. C. possess ducts to secrete their products into the bloodstream or into
interstitial fluid. D. lack ducts and secrete their products into the bloodstream or into interstitial fluid. E. secrete mucus
directly into a body cavity.
Which of the primary tissue types is most widely distributed throughout the body? A. Connective B. Muscle
C. Nervous D. Epithelium
Which primary tissue type would be located in blood, body fat, ligaments and tendons, dermis of the skin, and in the
cartilage of some joints? A. Epithelial tissue B. Connective tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Muscle tissue
The most common type of cartilage, named for its stained GLASSY appearance, is: A. fibrocartilage. B. hyaline
cartilage. C. elastic cartilage. D. reticular cartilage.
66. Which type of connective tissue predominates in the deep portion of the dermis, where it lends strength to the
skin? A. Adipose B. Dense regular C. Dense irregular D. Cartilage E. Areolar
67. Connective tissue proper is divided into two broad categories: loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue. This
classification is based upon the: A. location of the tissue. B. size of the cells present. C. relative proportions of cells,
fibers, and ground substance present. D. number of different cells types and their respective arrangement. E. origin of
the tissue type.
68. Which tissue type covers body surfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities? A. Muscle B. Connective
C. Epithelial D. Nervous E. None of the choices is correct
69. Clusters of cells that make up the secretory portion of an exocrine gland are known as __________. 70. All connective tissues have three features in common. They are: A. cells, protein fibers, and mucus. B. cells, hormones,
and protein fibers. C. protein fibers, a liquid portion, and ground substance. D. cells, a liquid portion, and protein fibers.
E. cells, protein fibers, and ground substance.
71. Flat cells with tapered ends that are the most abundant resident cells in connective tissue proper are known as
___________. 72. In what tissue would you expect to find very little if any extracellular matrix? A. Muscle tissue B. Nervous tissue
C. Immune tissue D. Epithelial tissue E. Connective tissue
73. What specialized feature of an epithelium consists of a reticular lamina, a lamina densa, and a lamina
lucida? A. Microfilament B. Desmosome C. Fenestrated membrane D. Basement membrane E. Plasma
membrane
74. What is the most abundant protein in the body, forming about 25% of all body protein? A. Myosin B. Elastin
C. Actin D. Fibrogen E. Collagen
75. Mucous connective tissue is found only in: A. the cartilage of the nose. B. certain bones of the skull. C. the umbilical
cord. D. serous fluid. E. fibers of the respiratory system.
76. Which feature is found in both cartilage and bone? A. Chondrocyte B. Osteocyte C. Perichondrium D. Central
canal E. Lacuna
77. What unit of bone consists of a central canal (containing blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels) surrounded by concentric
rings of calcified matrix? A. Canaliculus B. Lamella C. Osteon D. Osteocyte
78. Some bone interiors contain hemopoietic tissue, which functions in: A. storing fat. B. producing hormones.
C. making connective tissue fibers. D. producing blood cells. E. breaking down toxins.
79. Multicellular exocrine glands consist of a ________ and either a ____________ or an _____________ secretory section.
80. Plasma is: A. a liquid ground substance containing dissolved proteins. B. a dissolved ground matrix and a lining of
epithelial cells. C. a liquefied ground substance that includes several dissolved cells. D. platelets, red blood cells, and
white blood cells. E. platelets and a watery ground substance.
81. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is found lining: A. portions of the respiratory system. B. the larger blood
vessels. C. the oviduct. D. large kidney tubules.
82. If you gently rub your thumb and forefinger together, each finger is contacting: A. simple squamous epithelium.
B. keratinized simple squamous epithelium. C. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. D. nonkeratinized simple
squamous epithelium. E. nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
83. The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and may include some binucleated cells is called ____________
epithelium. A. stratified squamous nonkeratinized B. stratified squamous keratinized C. pseudostratified
D. transitional
84. The walls of kidney tubules are formed by _____________ epithelium, which functions in resorbing materials filtered from
blood plasma such as nutrients, ions, and water. A. simple cuboidal B. simple squamous C. stratified cuboidal
D. stratified squamous E. stratified columnar
85. Which type of epithelium is composed of multiple layers, including an apical layer containing tall, slender
cells? A. Simple squamous B. Simple columnar C. Pseudostratified squamous D. Stratified squamous
E. Stratified columnar
86. What feature of your ear accounts for its ability to regain its shape after it has been deformed or compressed? A. The
elastic fibers present in the ear's cartilage B. The elastic fibers present in the ear's muscles
87. The two types of cells that make up the nervous system are: A. macrophages and mast cells. B. neurons and
chondrocytes. C. mast cells and fibrocytes. D. neurons and mast cells. E. neurons and glial cells.
88. With age, connective tissues: A. become more flexible. B. become thinner. C. lose their blood supply. D. lose their
pliability and resiliency. E. increase in mass.
89. When hyperplasia proceeds out of control, a tumor may develop. This condition is termed: A. hypertrophy. B. neoplasia.
C. atrophy. D. metaplasia. E. fibrosis.
90. A _____________ epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened cells attached directly to a basement
membrane. A. simple columnar B. simple squamous C. simple cuboidal D. stratified squamous E. stratified
cuboidal
91. Which is the first type of connective tissue to form in the embryo and the source of all other adult connective
tissues? A. Mesenchyme B. Mucous C. Adipose D. Areolar E. Umbilical
92. The _____________ _____________ within the CHEEK is lined with STRATIFIED SQUAMOUS EPITHELIUM,
which is adapt to dealing with ABRASION. (hint. STRATIFIED SQUEMOUS TISSUE is usually located in places where
the tissue to ‘shed’) A. Connective membrane B. Serous membrane C. Mucous membrane D. Deep tissue
93. The type of tissue that helps mechanically mix materials within the digestive system organs is ________ muscle. 94. The Iris of the eye contains ______________ ___________ muscle.
95. There are four types of body membranes. Select the exception. A. Serous B. Cutaneous C. Mucous
D. Cartilaginous E. Synovial
96. The largest of the body membranes, commonly called the skin, is the _______ membrane. A. serous B. cutaneous
C. mucous D. cartilaginous E. synovial
97. The heart is confined within a double-walled serous membrane sac. The part of the membrane that is in contact with the heart
is the _____ layer. A. serous B. visceral C. parietal D. synovial E. mesothelial
98. The type of membrane that lines many of the body's joints is a _________ membrane. A. serous B. mucous
C. cutaneous D. synovial E. metastatic
99. The type of muscle that has elongated, multinucleated cells and is under voluntary control is __________
muscle. A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth
100. What type of muscle contains intercalated discs? A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth
101. The type of muscle that is found in blood vessel walls is __________ muscle. A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth
102. Intercalated discs are made up of gap junctions and __________.
103. Skeletal muscles are ____________
104. Smooth muscle is ___________________
105. Skeletal and Cardiac muscles are _____________, Smooth muscle is NOT.
106. Skeletal muscle is attached to ___________, Smooth muscle is usually present in walls of ________________ organs , and
Cardiac muscle is located ONLY located in the walls of the heart.
107. ____________ specialize in TRANSMITTING NERVE IMPULSES.
108. ___________ cells do NOT transmit nervous impulses, however, they serve numerous critical support functions in the
nervous system.
109. Glial cells transmit impulses. TRUE/FALSE
110. Axons: A. transmit signals away from the cell body. B. transmit signals toward the cell body. C. manufacture
proteins to be used by the neuron. D. use hormones to transmit information. E. None of the choices is correct.
111. The general name given to the phenomenon that occurs when a mature epithelium changes to a different form
is: A. mesothelia. B. hyperplasia. C. hypertrophy. D. metaplasia. E. neoplasia.